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163 Cards in this Set
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- Back
- 3rd side (hint)
A woman with anxiety about a gynecological exam is told to relax and to imagine going through the steps of the exam. What process does this exemplify?
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systematic desensitization
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63 year-old man is diagnosed with incurable metastatic pancreatic adenocarcinoma. His family asks you, the doctor, not to tell the pt. What do you do?
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Assess whether telling the pt will negatively affect his health. If not, tell him.
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A man admitted for chest pain is medicated for ventricular tachy. The next day he jumps out of bed and does 50 push ups to show nurses he has not had a heart attack. What defense mechanism is he using?
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Denial
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You find yourself attracted to your 26-year-old patient. What do you say?
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Nothing and invite a chaperone into the room if you feel your actions may be misinterpreted
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A large group of people is followed over 10 years. Every two years, it is determined who develops heart disease and who does not. What type of study is this?
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Cohort study
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A girl can groom herself, hop on one foot, and has an imaginary friend. How old is she?
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4
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A man has flashbacks about his girlfriend's death 2 months ago following a hit-and-run accident. He often cries and wishes for the death of the culprit. What is his diagnosis?
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Normal bereavement
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A 36-year-old woman with a strong family hx of breast cancer refuses a mamogram because she heard it hurts. What do you do?
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discuss risks and benefits; each pt must give consent so if the pt refuses, you must abide by her wishes
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A 4-year-old girl complains of a burning feeling in her genitalia; otherwise, she behaves and sleeps normally. Smear of the discharge shows N. gonorrhoeae. How was she infected?
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Sexual abuse
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A 72-year-old man insists on stopping treatment for his heart condition because it makes him feel "funny." What do you do?
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The pt has the final say in his tx, but you should investigate the "funn"y feeling and see if there are other drugs that do not illicit this response
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During a particular stage of sleep, a pt has variable blood pressure, penile tumescence and variable EEG. What stage of sleep is he in?
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REM sleep
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Comparing a group of people with a disease to a group of people without the disease is an example of what type of study?
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Case-control study: observational retrospective
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What types of measures are more common in retrospective case-control studies?
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Odds ratio (OR): Pts with COPD had higher odds of a hx of smoking than pts without COPD
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Comparing a group with a given risk factor to a group without in order to assess whether the risk factor increased the likelihood of disease is an example of what type of study?
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Cohort study: observational prospective
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What types of measures are more common in propsective cohort studies studies?
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Relative Risk (RR): "smokers had a higher risk for COPD than did nonsmokers"
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Collecting data from a group of people to assess frequency of disease (and related risk factors) at a particular point in timeis an example of what type of study?
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Cross-sectional study: observational
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Can cross-sectional studies prove causality of a risk to a disease?
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No. it can only show a risk factor association with a disease
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Comparing the frequency with which both monozygotic twins or both dizygotic twins develop a disease is an example of what type of study?
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twin concordance study
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Twin concordance studies measure what aspect of disease?
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heritability
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Comparing siblings raised by biologic vs. adoptive parents is an example of what type of study?
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Adoption study
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Adoption studies measure what aspects of disease?
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heritability plus environmental influences
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What type of study is of the highest quality?
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Randomized, double-blind, clinical trial
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What is the study sample and purpose of a Phase I clinical trial?
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small # of pts, usually nml volunteers; assess safety, toxicity, and pharmacokinetics
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What is the study sample and purpose of a Phase II clinical trial?
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small # of pts with dz of interest; assess tx efficacy, optimal dosing, and adverse effects
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What is the study sample and purpose of a Phase III clinical trial?
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lg # of pts randomly assigned to either tx, best available tx, or placebo; compare new tx to current standard of care
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What is the purpose of a metaanalysis?
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Pools data from several studies; acheives greater statistical power and integrates results of similar studies
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How do you calculate prevalence?
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Prevalence =total cases in a population at a given time/total population at risk
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How do you calculate incidence?
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Incidence = new cases in a population ove a given time period/total population at risk during that time
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Incidence is new incidents
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What is the general relationship between prevalence and incidence for chronic diseases (e.g., diabetes)?
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Prevalence > incidence
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What is the general relationship between prevalence and incidence for acute diseases (e.g., ommon cold)?
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prevalence = incidence
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The sensitivity of a test is a measure of what?
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the percent of people with the dz who test positive
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A high sensitivity value is desirable for what diagnsotic decisions?
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Desirable for ruling-out dz
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SNOUT=SeNsitivity rules OUT
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Using the 2x2 table comparing test results ro actual presence of disease, how do you measure sensitivity?
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a/(a+c)
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The specificity of a test is a measure of what?
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Percent of people without the disease who test negative
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A high specificity value is desirable for what diagnsotic decisions?
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desirable for ruling-in a disease
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SPIN=Specificity rules IN
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Using the 2x2 table comparing test results ro actual presence of disease, how do you measure specificity?
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d/d+b
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A positive predictive value (PPV) measures what?
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Percent of positive test results that are true-positives
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Using the 2x2 table comparing test results ro actual presence of disease, how do you measure positive predictive value?
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a/(a+b)
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A negative predictive value measures what?
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Percent of negative results that are true-negative
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Using the 2x2 table comparing test results ro actual presence of disease, how do you measurenegative predictive value?
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d/d+c
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How do you measure the Odds Ratio and for which studies are Odds Ratios used?
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Odds of having a dz in exposed group/odds of having dz in unexposed group; case control studies
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How do you measure the relative risk and for which studies are relative risks used?
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Relative probablility of getting the dz in exposed group versus the unexposed group; cohort studies
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What is the attributable risk?
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The differenc in risk between exposed and unexposed groups; the % of dz occurences that are the result of exposure
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Using the 2x2 table comparing risk factor to disease, how do you calculate odds ratio?
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OR=(a/b)/(c/d)=ad/bc
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Using the 2x2 table comparing risk factor to disease, how do you calculate relative risk?
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RR=[a/(a+b)]/[c/(c+d)]
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Using the 2x2 table comparing risk factor to disease, how do you calculate attributable risk?
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AR=(a/a+b)-(c/c+d)
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What is the difference between precision and accuracy?
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precision is the consistence and reproducibility of a test and the absence of random variation; accuracy is the trueness of the test measurements
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In general, what is bias?
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When one outcome is systematically favored over another outcome
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What are the four categories of bias?
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1. Selection bias (nonrandom) 2. Recall bias 3. Sampling bias (nonrepresentative subjects) 4. Late-look bias (inappropriate time)
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What are four ways to reduce bias?
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1. blind studies 2. placebo responses 3. crossover studies 4. Randomization
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What does a null hypothesis state?
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That there is no association between the dz and the risk factor in the population
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What is a Type 1 error (a)?
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Stating that there is an effect or difference when none exists (to reject the null hypothesisby mistake)
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What does a p value measure?
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the percent chance that the data will show something that is not really there
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What should a p value be in order to be statistically significant?
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p<.05
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If you are making a Type II (β) error, what are you doing?
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You stated that there is not a differencewhen one exists (fail to reject the null hypothesis when the null is false)
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When would you use a t-Test vs. ANOVA vs. x2
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t-Test = checks the difference between the means of 2 groups; ANOVA = checks the difference between the means of 3 or more groups;x = difference between 2 or more percentages or proportions of categorical outcomes
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Which diseases are reportable?
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Hep B, HepA, Salmonella, Shigells, Syphilis, Measels, Mmps, AIDS, Rubella, TB, Chicken Pox, Gonorrhea
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eveything you can get from sex and your childhood immunizations
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What is the difference between Medicare and Medicaid?
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Medicare is for the elderly, medicaid is for the low income people
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What are the three levels of disease prevention?
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1'=prevent dz occurrence (vaccines); 2'=early detection of dz 3'=reduce disability from dz
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PDR = prevent, detect, reduce disability
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What are the leading causes of death in infants?
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congential abnormalities, premies/low birth weight, SIDS, maternal complications of pregnancy, respiratory distress syndrome
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What are the leading causes of death in 1-14 year olds?
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Injuries, cancer, congenital, homicide, heart dz
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What are the leading causes of death in 15-24 year olds?
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injuries, homicide, suicide, cancer, heart dz
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What are the leading causes of death in 25-64 year olds?
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cancer, heart dz, injuries, suicide, stroke
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What are the leading causes of death in 65+ year olds?
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heart dz, cancer, stroke, COPD, pneumonia, flu
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What are the core ethical principles of medicine?
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Autonomy, beneficence (act in the pts best interest); nonmaleficence (do no harm); Justice (treat all fairly)
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In order to obtain informed consent, what three things are legally required?
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1. discussion of pertinent information, 2. Pt's agreement to plan of care, 3. Freedom from coercion
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What are the four exceptions to informed consent?
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1. pt lacks decision making capacity 2. implied consent in an emergency 3. therapeutic privilege 4. Waiver
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What are the 5 criteria for decision-making capacity?
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1. pt makes and communicates choice, 2. pt is informed, 3. Decision remains stable over time, 4. decision is consistent with pt's values and goals, 5. decision is not a result of delusions or hallucinations
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What is an oral advanced directive?
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incapacitated pt's prior oral statements commonly used as a guide. Problems arise in interpretation.
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What are the two most common types of written advanced directives?
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Living will and Durable Power of Attorney
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What are the four exceptions to confidentiality?
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1. potential harm to others, 2. likelihood of harm to self, 3. no alternative means exist to protect those at risk, 4. physicians can take steps to prevent harm
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What are the four criteria to file a civil suit of malpractice?
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1. physician had a Duty ot the pt, 2. Physician breached the duty, 3. patient suffers harm, 4. the breach of the duty is what caused the harm
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Four D's: duty, dereliction, damage, direct
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What is the most common factor leading to litigation?
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poor communication between physician and pt
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What is the appropriate response to the follwing wthical situation: pt is noncompliant?
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work to improve the physician-pt relationship
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What is the appropriate response to the follwing wthical situation: pt has difficulty taking medications?
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provide written instructions; attempt to simplify tx regimens
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What is the appropriate response to the follwing wthical situation: family members ask for info about pt's prognosis?
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avoid discussion issues with relatives without the permission of the pt
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What is the appropriate response to the follwing wthical situation: 17-year old girl is pregnant and requests an abortion?
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many states require parental consent; NOT required for an emergency/tx of STDs/medical care during pregnancy/management of drug addiction
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What is the appropriate response to the follwing wthical situation: terminally ill pt requests physician assistance in ending his life?
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in most states, refuse invovlement in any form of phys-assisted suicide; can give medically appropriate analgesics that coincidently shorten a person's life
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What is the appropriate response to the follwing wthical situation: pt states that he/she finds you attractive?
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Ask direct, closed-ended questions and use a chaperone, if necessary. Never appropriate to get romantically involved with a pt
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What are the motor and cognitive milestones for the following age group: 24-48 mos?
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parallel play
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What are the motor and cognitive milestones for the following age group: 24-36 mos?
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core gender identity
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What are the motor and cognitive milestones for the following age group: 30-36 mos?
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stacks 9 blocks; toilet training
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What are the motor and cognitive milestones for the following age group: 3 yrs?
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rides trike, copies line or circle drawing; group play
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What are the motor and cognitive milestones for the following age group: 4 yrs?
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simple drawings, hops on one foot; cooperative play, imaginary friends, grooms self, brushes teeth
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What are the motor and cognitive milestones for the following age group:6-11 yrs?
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reads, understands death; development of conscience, same sex friends, identification with same sex parent
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What are the motor and cognitive milestones for the following age group: 11 yrs, girls?
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Abstract reasoning, formation of personality
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What are the motor and cognitive milestones for the following age group: 13 yrs (boys)?
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Abstract reasoning, formation of personality
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What are the five Tanner stages of sexual development?
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1. childhood, 2. pubic hair beigns to develop, increased testes size, breast tissue elevation, 3. increased pubic hair, darkens, becomes curly, increase penis size/length, 4. increased penis width, glans, raise areola, 5. adult (areola no longer raised)
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What are the characteristics of normal grief? How long does it last?
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shock, denial, guilt and somatic symptoms; lasts 6 months to 1 year
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What are the Grief stages?
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Denial, anger, Bargaining, Greiving, Acceptance
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Death Arrives Bringing Grave Adjustments
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What is the differential diagnosis for sexual dysfunction?
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Drugs (anti-HTN, neuroleptics, SSRI's, ethanol), Diseases, Psychological (performance anxiety)
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How does one calculate BMI?
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weight in kg/(ht in meters)^2
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What are the BMI ranges for underweight, nl, overweight and obese, respectively?
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< 18.5; 18.5-24.9; 25.0-29.9; >30.0
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What type of EEG wave form will you have if you are awake with your eyes closed?
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alpha
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How much of a young adult's time is spent in light sleep?
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5%
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How much of a young adult's time is spent in deeper sleep (one level deeper than light sleep)?
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45%
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How much of a young adult's time is spent in deepest, non-REM sleep?
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25%
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How much of a young adult's time is spent in REM sleep?
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25%
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At which stage of sleep does one experience sleepwalking, night terrors and bed wetting?
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Deepest, non-REM sleep
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At which stage of sleep does one experience dreaming, loss of motor tone, erections and increased O2 brain use?
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REM sleep
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What type of EEG wave form will you have if you are in REM sleep?
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Beta waves
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Same as if you are awake
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What class of drugs reduce stage 4 (deep non-REM) sleep and are thus good for treating sleepwalking and night terrors?
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Benzos
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What drug is used to treat enuresis by decreasing stage 4 sleep?
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Imipramine
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The activity of the PPRF (paramedian pontine reticular formation/conjugate gaze center) is responsible for what patter during sleep?
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the extraocular movements during REM sleep
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T/F: NE induces REM sleep
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False: NE reduces REM sleep
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What are the signs of narcolepsy (aside from just being asleep at awkward times)?
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hypnogogic or hypnopompic hallucinations; sleep starts with REM sleep; cataplexy may occur
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What is the tx for narcolepsy?
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stimulants (amphetamines)
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What is the mean IQ?
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100 with a st deviation of 15
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What are the IQ criteria for a dx of mental retardation, severe MR, profound MR, respectively?
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<70, <40, <20
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What is an example of "classical conditioning"?
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Pavlov's doga natural response (salivation) is elicited by a learned stimulus (bell ring) that previously was presented in conjunction with an unconditioned stimulus (food)
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What is operant conditioning?
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learning in which a particular action is elicited because it produces a reward
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Define positive reinforcement.
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desired reward produces action (mouse presses button to get food)
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Define negative reinforcement.
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removal of adverse stimulus increases behavior (mouse presses button to avoid shock)
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Which form of reinforcement is associated with a rapidly extinguished behavioral response: continuous or variable ratio?
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Continuous
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Think vending machine: you stop using if it does not deliver vs. Slot Machine: continue to play even if it rarely rewards
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What is transference?
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When a pt projects feelings about formative or other important persons onto a physician
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psychiatrist = parent
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What is countertransference?
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when the dr projects feelings about a formative or other important persons onto the pt
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What are Freud's 3 structures of the mind?
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Id, Ego, Superego
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What characteristics are commonly associated with the Id?
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Primal urges, sex and aggression
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What characteristics are commonly associated with the Ego?
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mediator between unconscious mind and external world; deals with the conflict between Id and Superego
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What characteristics are commonly associated with the Superego?
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Moral values, conscience
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What is the Oedipus Complex?
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repressed feelings of a child for the opposite-sex parent, accompanied by rivalry with same sex parent
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What are ego defenses, in general?
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automatic and unconscious reactions to psychological stress
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What are the 4 mature ego defenses?
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Altruism, Humor, Sublimation, Suppression
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SASH
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Extreme forms of this immature ego defense are seen in multiple personality disorders.
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Dissociation: temporary, drastic change in personality, memory, consciousness, or motor behavior to avoid emotional stress
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A mother yelling at her child because she is angry at her husband is an example of which immature ego defense?
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displacement
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An abused child becoming an abuser is an example of which immature ego defense?
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identification
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Describing a murder in graphic detail with no emotional response is an example of which immature ego defense?
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Isolation: separation of feelings from ideas/events
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What is the appropriate response to the follwing ethical situation: pt states that he/she finds you attractive?
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Ask direct, closed-ended questions and use a chaperone, if necessary. Never appropriate to get romantically involved with a pt
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What is the appropriate response to the follwing ethical situation: pt refuses a necessary procedure or requests an unnecessary one?
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attempt to understand why the pt wants/refuses the procedure. Address underlying concerns. Avoid performing unnecessary procedures
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What is the appropriate response to the follwing ethical situation: pt is angry about the amount of time spent in the waiting room?
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apologize; stay away from efforts to explain the delay
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What is the appropriate response to the follwing ethical situation: pt is upset with the way he was treated by another doctor?
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suggest that the pt speak directly to that dr regarding his concerns
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What is the appropriate response to the follwing ethical situation: a child wishes to know more about his illness?
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ask what the parents have told him; parents of a child decide what information can be relayed about the illness
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What is the appropriate response to the follwing ethical situation:pt continues to smoke, believing cigarettes are good for him?
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ask how the pt feels about his smoking; offer adivce on cessation is the pt seems willing to make an effort to quit
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What is the appropriate response to the follwing ethical situation: pediatric pt requests condoms?
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physicians CAN provide consultaiton and contraceptives to minors without a parent's knowledge or consent
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When are AGPAR scores evaluated?
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10 point scale at 1 minute and 5 minutes after birth
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What does AGPAR measure?
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Appearance, Pulse, Grimace, Activity, Respiration
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What is a low birth weight defined as?
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< 2500g
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What are the motor and cognitive milestones for the following age group: 3 mos?
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Holds head up, disappearance of moro reflex; social smile
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What are the motor and cognitive milestones for the following age group: 4-5 mos?
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rolls front to back, sits when propped; recognizes people
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What are the motor and cognitive milestones for the following age group: 7-9 mos?
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sits alone, crawls; stranger anxiety, orients to voice
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What are the motor and cognitive milestones for the following age group: 12-14 mos?
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Upgoing babinski sign disappears
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What are the motor and cognitive milestones for the following age group: 15 mos?
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walks; few words, separation anxiety
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What are the motor and cognitive milestones for the following age group: 12-24 mos?
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climbs stairs, stacks 3 blocks; object permanence
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A patient with libidinous thoughts entering a monastery is an example of which immature ego defense?
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reaction formation
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A pt stating that all nurses are cold and unfriendly while all drs are warm and sensitive is an example of which immature ego defense?
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splitting: belief that people are all good or all bad
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A man who wants another woman thinking his wife is cheating on him is an example of which immature ego defense?
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projection: an unacceptable internal impulse is attributed to an external source
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Which ego defense mechanis is characterized by alleviating guily feelings by unsolicited gerosity towards others?
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altruism
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Which ego defense mechanis is characterized by appreciating the amusing nature of an anxiety-provoking or adverse situation?
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humor
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Which ego defense mechanis is characterized by the replacement of an unacceptable wish with a course of action that is similar to the wish but does not conflict with one's value system?
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sublimation
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Which ego defense mechanis is characterized by voluntary witholding of an idea of feeling from conscious awareness?
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suppression
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Which ego defense mechanis is characterized by unacceptable feelings and thoughts expressed through actions?
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acting out
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Which ego defense mechanis is characterized by temporary, drastic changes in personality, memory, consciousness or motor behavior to avoid emotional stress.
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dissociation
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Which ego defense mechanis is characterized by avoidance of awareness of some painful reality?
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denial
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Which ego defense mechanis is characterized by a process whereby avoided ideas and feelings are transferred to some neutral person or object?
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displacement
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Which ego defense mechanis is characterized by partially remaining at a more childish level of development?
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fixation
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Which ego defense mechanis is characterized by modeling behavior after another person who is more powerful (though not necessarily admired)?
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identification
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Which ego defense mechanis is characterized by a separation of feelings from ideas and events
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isolation
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Which ego defense mechanis is characterized by an unacceptable internal impulse attributable to an external source?
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projection
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Which ego defense mechanis is characterized by proclaiming logical reasons for actions actually performed for other reasons, usually to avoid self-blame?
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rationalization
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Which ego defense mechanis is characterized by a process whereby a warded-off area or feeling is replaced by an (unconsciously derived) emphasis on its opposite?
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reaction formation
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Which ego defense mechanis is characterized by turning back the maturational clock and going back to earlier modes of dealing with the world?
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regression
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Which ego defense mechanism is characterized by an involuntary withholding of an idea or feeling from conscious awareness. The basic mechanism underlying all others?
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repression
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Which ego defense mechanism is characterized by the belief that people are either all good or all bad?
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splitting
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