Reading...
Play button
Play button
Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
93 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
|
Which must be sent to the license server to generate a new license?
A. the system's dossier B. the system's host name C. the system's base license D. the system's purchase order number |
A
|
|
|
What is the purpose of provisioning?
A. Provisioning allows modules that are not licensed to be fully tested. B. Provisioning allows modules that are licensed be granted appropriate resource levels. C. Provisioning allows the administrator to activate modules in non-standard combinations. D. Provisioning allows the administrator to see what modules are licensed, but no user action is ever required. |
B
|
|
|
When initially configuring the BIG-IP system using the config utility, which two parameters can be set? (Choose two.)
A. the netmask of the SCCP B. the IP address of the SCCP C. the port lockdown settings for the SCCP D. the netmask of the host via the management port E. the IP address of the host via the management port F. the port lockdown settings for the host via the management port |
D, E
|
|
|
A site has six members in a pool. All of the servers have been designed, built, and configured with the same applications. It is known that each client's interactions vary significantly and can affect the performance of the servers. If traffic should be sent to all members on a regular basis, which load-balancing mode is most effective if the goal is to maintain a relatively even load across all servers?
A. Ratio B. Priority C. Observed D. Round Robin |
C
|
|
|
A site has six members in a pool. Three of the servers are new and have more memory and a faster processor than the others. Assuming all other factors are equal and traffic should be sent to all members, which two load-balancing methods are most appropriate? (Choose two.)
A. Ratio B. Priority C. Observed D. Round Robin |
A, C
|
|
|
Which two can be a part of a pool's definition? (Choose two.)
A. rule(s) B. profile(s) C. monitor(s) D. persistence type E. load-balancing mode |
C, E
|
|
|
What is required for a virtual server to support clients whose traffic arrives on the internal VLAN and pool members whose traffic arrives on the external VLAN?
A. That support is never available. B. The virtual server must be enabled for both VLANs. C. The virtual server must be enabled on the internal VLAN. D. The virtual server must be enabled on the external VLAN. |
C
|
|
|
A standard virtual server has been associated with a pool with multiple members. Assuming all other settings are left at their defaults, which statement is always true concerning traffic processed by the virtual server?
A. The client IP address is unchanged between the client-side connection and the server-side connection. B. The server IP address is unchanged between the client-side connection and the server-side connection. C. The TCP ports used in the client-side connection are the same as the TCP ports server-side connection. D. The IP addresses used in the client-side connection are the same as the IP addresses used in the server-side connection. |
A
|
|
|
Monitors can be assigned to which three resources? (Choose three.)
A. NATs B. pools C. iRules D. nodes E. SNATs F. pool members G. virtual servers |
B,D ,F
|
|
|
A site has assigned the ICMP monitor to all nodes and a custom monitor, based on the HTTP template, to a pool of web servers. The HTTP-based monitor is working in all cases. The ICMP monitor is failing for 2 of the pool member 5 nodes. All other settings are default. What is the status of the monitor is working in all cases. The ICMP monitor is failing for 2 of the pool member 5 nodes. All other settings are default. What is the status of the pool members?
A. All pool members are up since the HTTP-based monitor is successful. B. All pool members are down since the ICMP-based monitor is failing in some cases. C. The pool members whose nodes are failing the ICMP-based monitor will be marked disabled. D. The pool members whose nodes are failing the ICMP-based monitor will be marked unavailable. |
D
|
|
|
A site would like to ensure that a given web server's default page is being served correctly prior to sending it client traffic. They assigned the A site would like to ensure that a given web server's default page is being served correctly prior to sending it client traffic. They are assigned the default HTTP monitor to the pool. What would the member status be if it sent an unexpected response to the GET request default HTTP monitor to the pool. What would the member’s status be if it sent an unexpected response to the GET request?
A. The pool member would be marked offline (red). B. The pool member would be marked online (green). C. The pool member would be marked unknown (blue). D. The pool member would alternate between red and green. |
B
|
|
|
A site is load balancing to a pool of web servers. Which statement is true concerning BIG-IP's ability to verify whether the web servers are functioning properly or not?
A. Web server monitors can test the content of any page on the server. B. Web server monitors always verify the contents of the index.html page. C. Web server monitors can test whether the server's address is reachable, but cannot test a page's content. D. Web server monitors can test the content of static web pages, but cannot test pages that would require the web server to dynamically build content. |
A
|
|
|
The current status of a given pool is offline (red). Which condition could explain that state? Assume the descriptions below include all monitors assigned for each scenario.
A. No monitors are currently assigned to any pool, member or node. B. The pool has a monitor assigned to it, and none of the pool members passed the test. C. The pool has a monitor assigned to it, and only some of the pool's members passed the test. D. A monitor is assigned to all nodes and all nodes have passed the test. The pool's members have no specific monitor assigned to them. |
B
|
|
|
You need to terminate client SSL traffic at the BIG-IP and also to persist client traffic to the same pool member based on a BIG-IP supplied cookie. Which four are profiles that would normally be included in the virtual server's definition? (Choose four.)
A. TCP B. HTTP C. HTTPS D. ClientSSL E. ServerSSL F. Cookie-Based Persistence |
A,B,D,F
|
|
|
A site needs to terminate client HTTPS traffic at the BIG-IP and forward that traffic unencrypted. Which two are profile types that must be associated with such a virtual server? (Choose two.)
A. TCP B. HTTP C. HTTPS D. ClientSSL E. ServerSSL |
A,D
|
|
|
Which three statements describe a characteristic of profiles? (Choose three.)
A. Default profiles cannot be created or deleted. B. Custom profiles are always based on a parent profile. C. A profile can be a child of one profile and a parent of another. D. All changes to parent profiles are propagated to their child profiles. E. While most virtual servers have at least one profile associated with them, it is not required. |
A,B,C
|
|
|
How is persistence configured?
A. Persistence is an option within each pool's definition. B. Persistence is a profile type; an appropriate profile is created and associated with virtual server. C. Persistence is a global setting; once enabled, load-balancing choices are super-ceded by the persistence method that is specified. D. Persistence is an option for each pool member. When a pool is defined, each member's definition includes the option for persistence. |
B
|
|
|
Which cookie persistence method requires the fewest configuration changes on the web servers to be implemented correctly?
A. insert B. rewrite C. passive D. session |
A
|
|
|
Which statement is true concerning cookie persistence?
A. Cookie persistence allows persistence independent of IP addresses. B. Cookie persistence allows persistence even if the data are encrypted from client to pool member. C. Cookie persistence uses a cookie that stores the virtual server, pool name, and member IP address in clear text. D. If a client's browser accepts cookies, cookie persistence will always cause a cookie to be written to the client's file system. |
A
|
|
|
Assume a virtual server has a ServerSSL profile. What SSL certificates are required on the pool members?
A. No SSL certificates are required on the pool members. B. The pool members?SSL certificates must only exist. C. The pool members?SSL certificates must be issued from a certificate authority. D. The pool members?SSL certificates must be created within the company hosting the BIG-IPs. |
B
|
|
|
Assume a virtual server is configured with a ClientSSL profile. What would the result be if the virtual server's destination port were not 443?
A. SSL termination could not be performed if the virtual server's port was not port 443. B. Virtual servers with a ClientSSL profile are always configured with a destination port of 443. C. As long as client traffic was directed to the alternate port, the virtual server would work as intended. D. Since the virtual server is associated with a ClientSSL profile, it will always process traffic sent to port 443. |
C
|
|
|
Which is an advantage of terminating SSL communication at the BIG-IP rather than the ultimate web server?
A. Terminating SSL at the BIG-IP can eliminate SSL processing at the web servers. B. Terminating SSL at the BIG-IP eliminates all UN-encrypted traffic from the internal network. C. Terminating SSL at the BIG-IP eliminates the need to purchase SSL certificates from a certificate authority. D. Terminating SSL at the BIG-IP eliminates the need to use SSL acceleration hardware anywhere in the network. |
A
|
|
|
Assume a client's traffic is being processed only by a NAT; no SNAT or virtual server processing takes place. Also assume that the NAT definition specifies a NAT address and an origin address while all other settings are left at their defaults. If the origin server were to initiate traffic via the BIG-IP, what changes, if any, would take place when the BIG-IP processes such packets?
A. The BIG-IP would drop the request since the traffic didn't arrive destined to the NAT address. B. The source address would not change, but the destination address would be changed to the NAT address. C. The source address would be changed to the NAT address and destination address would be left unchanged. D. The source address would not change, but the destination address would be changed to a self- IP of the BIG-IP. |
C
|
|
|
A site wishes to perform source address translation on packets arriving from the Internet for clients using some pools but not others. The determination is not based on the client's IP address, but on the pool they are load balanced to. What could best accomplish this goal?
A. A SNAT for all addresses could be defined, and then disable the SNAT processing for select pools. B. The decision to perform source address translation is always based on VLAN. Thus, the goal cannot be achieved. C. For each virtual server, regardless their default load balancing pools, association with SNAT pools could vary dependent upon need. D. The decision to perform source address translation is always based on a client's address (or network). Thus, this goal cannot be achieved. |
A
|
|
|
Which two statements are true about SNATs? (Choose two.)
A. SNAT's are enabled on all VLANs, by default. B. SNAT's can be configured within a Profile definition. C. SNAT's can be configured within a Virtual Server definition. D. SNAT's are enabled only on the VLAN where origin traffic arrives, by default |
A,C
|
|
|
A BIG-IP has two load balancing virtual servers at 150.150.10.10:80 and 150.150.10.10:443. The port 80 virtual server has SNAT auto-map configured. There is also a SNAT configured at 150.150.10.11 set for a source address range of 200.200.1.0 / 255.255.255.0. All other settings are at their default states. If a client with the IP address 200.200.1.1 sends a request to https://150.150.10.10, what is the source IP address when the associated packet is sent to the pool member?
A. 200.200.1.1 B. 150.150.10.11 C. Floating self IP address on VLAN where the packet leaves the system D. Floating self IP address on VLAN where the packet arrives on the system |
B
|
|
|
Which statement is true concerning SNAT's using auto-map?
A. Only specified self-IP addresses are used as automap addresses. B. SNATs using automap will translate all client addresses to an automap address. C. A SNAT using automap will preferentially use a floating self-IP over a non-floating self-IP. D. A SNAT using automap can be used to translate the source address of all outgoing traffic to the same address regardless of which VLAN the traffic is sent through. |
C
|
|
|
Which two statements are true about NATs? (Choose two.)
A. NATs support UDP, TCP, and ICMP traffic. B. NATs can be configured with mirroring enabled or disabled. C. NATs provide a one-to-one mapping between IP addresses. D. NATs provide a many-to-one mapping between IP addresses. |
A,C
|
|
|
Which statement describes a typical purpose of iRules?
A. iRules can be used to add individual control characters to an HTTP data stream. B. iRules can be used to update the timers on monitors as a server load changes.iRules can be used to update the timers on monitors as a server’s load changes. C. iRules can examine a server response and remove it from a pool if the response is unexpected iRules can examine a server’s response and remove it from a pool if the response is unexpected D. iRules can be used to look at client requests and server responses to choose a pool member to select for load balancing |
A
|
|
|
A virtual server is listening at 10.10.1.100:80 and has the following iRule associated with it: when HTTP_REQUEST { if { [HTTP::header User-Agent] contains "MSIE" } { pool MSIE_pool } else { pool Mozilla_pool } If a user connects to http://10.10.1.100/foo.html and their browser does not specify a User-Agent, which pool will receive the request?
A. MSIE_pool B. Mozilla_pool C. None. The request will be dropped. D. Unknown. The pool cannot be determined from the information provided. |
B
|
|
|
Which event is always triggered when the client sends data to a virtual server using TCP?
A. HTTP_DATA B. CLIENT_DATA C. HTTP_REQUEST D. VS_CONNECTED |
B
|
|
|
A virtual server is listening at 10.10.1.100:any and has the following iRule associated with it: when CLIENT_ACCEPTED { if {[TCP::local_port] equals 21 } { pool ftppool } elseif {[TCP::local_port] equals 23 } { pool telnetpool } If a user connects to 10.10.1.100 and port 22, which pool will receive the request?
A. ftppool B. telnetpool C. None. The request will be dropped. D. Unknown. The pool cannot be determined from the information provided. |
D
|
|
|
When configuring a Virtual Server to use an iRule with an HTTP_REQUEST event, which list includes the required steps in a proper order to create all necessary objects?
A. create profiles, create the iRule, create required pools, create the Virtual Server B. create the Virtual Server, create required pools, create the iRule, edit the Virtual Server C. create a custom HTTP profile, create required pools, create the Virtual Server, create the iRule D. create required pools, create a custom HTTP profile, create the iRule, create the Virtual Server |
B
|
|
|
Which statement is true concerning a functional iRule?
A. iRules use a proprietary syntax language. B. iRules must contain at least one event declaration. C. iRules must contain at least one conditional statement. D. iRules must contain at least one pool assignment statement. |
B
|
|
|
What is the purpose of floating self-IP addresses?
A. to define an address that grants administrative access to either system at any time B. to define an address that allows either system to initiate communication at any time C. to define an address that allows network devices to route traffic via a single IP address D. to define an address that gives network devices greater flexibility in choosing a path to forward traffic |
C
|
|
|
Which parameters are set to the same value when a pair of BIG-IP devices are synchronized?
A. host names B. system clocks C. profile definitions D. VLAN fail-safe settings E. MAC masquerade addresses |
C
|
|
|
Which two statements are true concerning the default communication between a redundant pair of BIG-IP systems? (Choose two.)
A. Synchronization occurs via a TCP connection using ports 683 and 684. B. Connection mirroring data is shared via a TCP connection using port 1028. C. Persistence mirroring data is shared via a TCP connection using port 1028. D. Connection mirroring data is shared through the serial fail-over cable unless network fail-over is enabled. |
B,C
|
|
|
Which two methods can be used to determine which BIG-IP is currently active? (Choose two.)
A. The bigtop command displays the status. B. Only the active system's configuration screens are active. C. The status (Active/Standby) is embedded in the command prompt. D. The ifconfig -a command displays the floating addresses on the active system. |
A,C
|
|
|
As a part of the Setup Utility, the administrator sets the host name for the BIG-IP. What would be the result if the two systems in a redundant pair were set to the same host name?
A. Host names do not matter in redundant pair communication. B. In a redundant pair, the two systems will always have the same host name. The parameter is synchronized between the systems. C. The first time the systems are synchronized the receiving system will be assigned the same self-IP addresses as the source system. D. When the administrator attempts to access the configuration utility using the host name, they will always connect to the active system. |
C
|
|
|
When network fail-over is enabled, which of the following is true?
A. The fail-over cable status is ignored. Fail-over is determined by the network status only. B. Either a network failure or loss of voltage across the fail-over cable will cause a fail-over. C. A network failure will not cause a fail-over as long as there is a voltage across the fail-over cable. D. The presence or absence of voltage over the fail-over cable takes precedence over network fail-over. |
C
|
|
|
Where is connection mirroring configured?
A. It an option within a TCP profile. B. It is an optional feature of each pool. C. It is not configured; it is default behavior. D. It is an optional feature of each virtual server. |
D
|
|
|
Which statement is true regarding fail-over?
A. Hardware fail-over is disabled by default. B. Hardware fail-over can be used in conjunction with network failover. C. If the hardware fail-over cable is disconnected, both BIG-IP devices will always assume the active role. D. By default, hardware fail-over detects voltage across the fail-over cable and monitors traffic across the internal VLAN. |
B
|
|
|
Where is persistence mirroring configured?
A. It is always enabled. B. It is part of a pool definition. C. It is part of a profile definition. D. It is part of a virtual server definition. |
C
|
|
|
What is the purpose of MAC masquerading?
A. to prevent ARP cache errors B. to minimize ARP entries on routers C. to minimize connection loss due to ARP cache refresh delays D. to allow both BIG-IP devices to simultaneously use the same MAC address |
C
|
|
|
Which process or system can be monitored by the BIG-IP system and used as a fail-over trigger in a redundant pair configuration?
A. bandwidth utilization B. duplicate IP address C. CPU utilization percentage D. VLAN communication ability |
D
|
|
|
Assuming there are open connections through an active system's NAT and a fail-over occurs, by default, what happens to those connections?
A. All open connections will be lost. B. All open connections will be maintained. C. The "Mirror" option must be chosen on the NAT and the setting synchronized prior to the connection establishment. D. Long-lived connections such as Telnet and FTP will be maintained while short-lived connections such as HTTP will be lost. E. All open connections are lost, but new connections are initiated by the newly active BIG-IP, resulting in minimal client downtime. |
B
|
|
|
Under what condition must an appliance license be reactivated?
A. Licenses only have to be reactivated for RMAs - no other situations. B. Licenses generally have to be reactivated during system software upgrades. C. Licenses only have to be reactivated when new features are added (IPv6, Routing Modules, etc) - no other situations. D. Never. Licenses are permanent for the platform regardless the version of software installed. |
B
|
|
|
Which three methods can be used for initial access to a BIG-IP system? (Choose three.)
A. CLI access to the serial console port B. SSH access to the management port C. SSH access to any of the switch ports D. HTTP access to the management port E. HTTP access to any of the switch ports F. HTTPS access to the management port G. HTTPS access to any of the switch ports |
A,B,F
|
|
|
What is the purpose of provisioning?
A. Provisioning allows modules that are not licensed to be fully tested. B. Provisioning allows modules that are licensed be granted appropriate resource levels. C. Provisioning allows the administrator to activate modules in non-standard combinations. D. Provisioning allows the administrator to see what modules are licensed, but no user action is ever required. |
B
|
|
|
Which three properties can be assigned to nodes? (Choose three.)
A. ratio values B. priority values C. health monitors D. connection limits E. load-balancing mode |
A,C,D
|
|
|
Where is the load-balancing mode specified?
A. within the pool definition B. within the node definition C. within the virtual server definition D. within the pool member definition |
A
|
|
|
Which statement accurately describes the difference between two load-balancing modes specified as "member" and "node"?
A. There is no difference; the two terms are referenced for backward compatibility purposes. B. When the load-balancing choice references "node", priority group activation is unavailable. C. Load-balancing options referencing "nodes" are available only when the pool members are defined for the "any" port. D. When the load-balancing choice references "node", the addresses' parameters are used to make the load-balancing choice rather than the member's parameters. |
D
|
|
|
Which two can be a part of a virtual server's definition? (Choose two.)
A. rule(s) B. pool(s) C. monitor(s) D. node address(es) E. load-balancing method(s) |
A,B
|
|
|
Assume a BIG-IP has no NATs or SNATs configured. Which two scenarios are possible when client traffic arrives on a BIG-IP that is NOT destined to a self-IP? (Choose two.)
A. If the destination of the traffic does not match a virtual server, the traffic will be discarded. B. If the destination of the traffic does not match a virtual server, the traffic will be forwarded based on routing tables. C. If the destination of the traffic matches a virtual server, the traffic will be processed per the virtual server definition. D. If the destination of the traffic matches a virtual server, the traffic will be forwarded, but it cannot be load-balanced since no SNAT has been configured. |
A,C
|
|
|
When configuring a pool member's monitor, which three association options are available? (Choose three.)
A. inherit the pool's monitor B. inherit the node's monitor C. configure a default monitor D. assign a monitor to the specific member E. do not assign any monitor to the specific member |
A,D,E
|
|
|
The current status of a given pool member is unknown. Which condition could explain that state?
A. The member has no monitor assigned to it. B. The member has a monitor assigned to it and the most recent monitor was successful. C. The member has a monitor assigned to it and the monitor did not succeed during the most recent timeout period. D. The member's node has a monitor assigned to it and the monitor did not succeed during the most recent timeout period. |
A
|
|
|
The ICMP monitor has been assigned to all nodes. In addition, all pools have been assigned custom monitors. If a pool is marked available (green) which situation is sufficient to cause this?
A. All of the pool member nodes are responding to the ICMP monitor as expected. B. Less than 50% of the pool member nodes responded to the ICMP echo request. C. All of the members of the pool have had their content updated recently and their responses no longer match the monitor receive rule. D. Over 25% of the pool members have had their content updated and it no longer matches the receive rule of the custom monitor. The other respond as expected. |
D
|
|
|
Generally speaking, should the monitor templates be used as production monitors or should they be customized prior to use?
A. Most templates, such as http and tcp, are as effective as customized monitors. B. Monitor template customization is only a matter of preference, not an issue of effectiveness or performance. C. Most templates, such as https, should have the receive rule customized to make the monitor more robust. D. While some templates, such as ftp, must be customized, those that can be used without modification are not improved by specific changes. |
C
|
|
|
You have a pool of servers that need to be tested. All of the servers but one should be tested every 10 seconds, but one is slower and should only be tested every 20 seconds. How do you proceed?
A. It cannot be done. All monitors test every five seconds. B. It can be done, but will require assigning monitors to each pool member. C. It cannot be done. All of the members of a pool must be tested at the same frequency. D. It can be done by assigning one monitor to the pool and a different monitor to the slower pool member. |
D
|
|
|
When can a single virtual server be associated with multiple profiles?
A. Never. Each virtual server has a maximum of one profile. B. Often. Profiles work on different layers and combining profiles is common. C. Rarely. One combination, using both the TCP and HTTP profile does occur, but it is the exception. D. Unlimited. Profiles can work together in any combination to ensure that all traffic types are supported in a given virtual server. |
B
|
|
|
A site needs a virtual server that will use an iRule to parse HTTPS traffic based on HTTP header values. Which two profile types must be associated with such a virtual server? (Choose two.)
A. TCP B. HTTP C. HTTPS D. ServerSSL |
A,B
|
|
|
You have created a custom profile named TEST2. The parent profile of TEST2 is named TEST1. If additional changes are made to TEST1, what is the effect on TEST2?
A. All changes to TEST1 are propagated to TEST2. B. Some of the changes to TEST1 may propagate to TEST2. C. Changes to TEST1 cannot affect TEST2 once TEST2 is saved. D. When TEST1 is changed, the administrator is prompted and can choose whether to propagate changes to TEST2. |
B
|
|
|
If a client's browser does not accept cookies, what occurs when the client connects to a virtual server using cookie persistence?
A. The connection request is not processed. B. The connection request is sent to an topology server. C. The connection request is load-balanced to an available pool member. D. The connection request is refused and the client is sent a "server not available" message. |
C
|
|
|
Which statement is true concerning cookie persistence?
A. Cookie persistence allows persistence independent of IP addresses. B. Cookie persistence allows persistence even if the data are encrypted from client to pool member. C. Cookie persistence uses a cookie that stores the virtual server, pool name, and member IP address in clear text. D. If a client's browser accepts cookies, cookie persistence will always cause a cookie to be written to the client's file system. |
A
|
|
|
How is persistence configured?
A. Persistence is an option within each pool's definition. B. Persistence is a profile type; an appropriate profile is created and associated with virtual server. C. Persistence is a global setting; once enabled, load-balancing choices are superseded by the persistence method that is specified. D. Persistence is an option for each pool member. When a pool is defined, each member's definition includes the option for persistence. |
B
|
|
|
Assume a virtual server has a ServerSSL profile. What SSL certificates are required on the BIG- IP?
A. No SSL certificates are required on the BIG-IP. B. The BIG-IP's SSL certificates must only exist. C. The BIG-IP's SSL certificates must be issued from a certificate authority. D. The BIG-IP's SSL certificates must be created within the company hosting the BIG-IPs. |
A
|
|
|
Assume a virtual server is configured with a ClientSSL profile. What would the result be if the virtual server's destination port were not 443?
A. SSL termination could not be performed if the virtual server's port was not port 443. B. Virtual servers with a ClientSSL profile are always configured with a destination port of 443. C. As long as client traffic was directed to the alternate port, the virtual server would work as intended. D. Since the virtual server is associated with a ClientSSL profile, it will always process traffic sent to port 443. |
C
|
|
|
Which statement is true concerning SSL termination?
A. A virtual server that has both ClientSSL and ServerSSL profiles can still support cookie persistence. B. Decrypting traffic at the BIG-IP allows the use of iRules for traffic management, but increases the load on the pool member. C. When any virtual server uses a ClientSSL profile, all SSL traffic sent to the BIG-IP is decrypted before it is forwarded to servers. D. If a virtual server has both a ClientSSL and ServerSSL profile, the pool members have less SSL processing than if the virtual server had only a ClientSSL profile |
A
|
|
|
A site wishes to perform source address translation on packets from some clients but not others. The determination is not based on the client's IP address, but on the virtual servers their packets arrive on. What could best accomplish this goal?
A. A SNAT for all addresses could be defined, and then disable the SNAT processing for select VLANs. B. Some virtual servers could be associated with SNAT pools and others not associated with SNAT pools. C. The decision to perform source address translation is always based on VLAN. Thus, the goal cannot be achieved. D. The decision to perform source address translation is always based on a client's address (or network). Thus, this goal cannot be achieved. |
B
|
|
|
Assume a client's traffic is being processed only by a NAT; no SNAT or virtual server processing takes place. Also assume that the NAT definition specifies a NAT address and an origin address while all other settings are left at their defaults. If a client were to initiate traffic to the NAT address, what changes, if any, would take place when the BIG-IP processes such packets?
A. The source address would not change, but the destination address would be translated to the origin address. B. The destination address would not change, but the source address would be translated to the origin address. C. The source address would not change, but the destination address would be translated to the NAT's address. D. The destination address would not change, but the source address would be translated to the NAT's address. |
A
|
|
|
A standard virtual server is defined with a pool and a SNAT using automap. All other settings for the virtual server are at defaults. When client traffic is processed by the BIG-IP, what will occur to the IP addresses?
A. Traffic initiated by the pool members will have the source address translated to a self-IP address but the destination address will not be changed. B. Traffic initiated to the virtual server will have the destination address translated to a pool member's address and the source address translated to a self-IP address. C. Traffic initiated by selected clients, based on their IP address, will have the source address translated to a self-IP address but the destination will only be translated if the traffic is destined to the virtual server. D. Traffic initiated to the virtual server will have the destination address translated to a pool member's address and the source address translated to a self-IP address. Traffic arriving destined to other destinations will have the source translated to a self-IP address only. |
B
|
|
|
F5 F50-531 Exam
Which VLANs must be enabled for a SNAT to perform as desired (translating only desired packets)? A. The SNAT must be enabled for all VLANs. B. The SNAT must be enabled for the VLANs where desired packets leave the BIG-IP. C. The SNAT must be enabled for the VLANs where desired packets arrive on the BIG-IP. D. The SNAT must be enabled for the VLANs where desired packets arrive and leave the BIG-IP. |
C
|
|
|
A BIG-IP has a virtual server at 150.150.10.10:80 with SNAT automap configured. This BIG-IP also has a SNAT at 150.150.10.11 set for a source address range of 200.200.1.0 / 255.255.255.0. All other settings are at their default states. If a client with the IP address 200.200.1.1 sends a request to the virtual server, what is the source IP address when the associated packet is sent to the pool member?
A. 200.200.1.1 B. 150.150.10.11 C. Floating self IP address on VLAN where the packet leaves the system D. Floating self IP address on VLAN where the packet arrives on the system |
C
|
|
|
Which IP address will the client address be changed to when SNAT automap is specified within a Virtual Server configuration?
A. The floating self IP address on the VLAN where the packet leaves the system. B. The floating self IP address on the VLAN where the packet arrives on the system. C. It will alternate between the floating and non-floating self IP address on the VLAN where the packet leaves the system so that port exhaustion is avoided. D. It will alternate between the floating and non-floating self IP address on the VLAN where the packet arrives on the system so that port exhaustion is avoided. |
A
|
|
|
A virtual server at 10.10.1.100:80 has the rule listed below applied. When HTTP_REQUEST { if {[HTTP::uri] ends_with "htm" } { pool pool1 } elseif {[HTTP::uri] ends_with "xt" } { pool pool2 } If a user connects to http://10.10.1.100/foo.txt which pool will receive the request?
A. pool1 B. pool2 C. None. The request will be dropped. D. Unknown. The pool cannot be determined from the information provided. |
B
|
|
|
Which statement is true concerning iRule events?
A. All iRule events relate to HTTP processes. B. All client traffic has data that could be used to trigger iRule events. C. All iRule events are appropriate at any point in the client-server communication. D. If an iRule references an event that doesn't occur during the client's communication, the client's connection will be terminated prematurely. |
B
|
|
|
Which three iRule events are likely to be seen in iRules designed to select a pool for load balancing? (Choose 3)
A. CLIENT_DATA B. SERVER_DATA C. HTTP_REQUEST D. HTTP_RESPONSE E. CLIENT_ACCEPTED F. SERVER_SELECTED G. SERVER_CONNECTED |
A,C,E
|
|
|
Which event is always triggered when a client initially connects to a virtual server configured with an HTTP profile?
A. HTTP_DATA B. CLIENT_DATA C. HTTP_REQUEST D. CLIENT_ACCEPTED |
D
|
|
|
A virtual server is listening at 10.10.1.100:80 and has the following iRule associated with it: when HTTP_REQUEST { if {[HTTP::uri] ends_with "txt" } { pool pool1 } elseif {[HTTP::uri] ends_with "php" } { pool pool2 } If a user connects to http://10.10.1.100/foo.html, which pool will receive the request?
A. pool1 B. pool2 C. None. The request will be dropped. D. Unknown. The pool cannot be determined from the information provided. |
D
|
|
|
A virtual server is listening at 10.10.1.100:any and has the following iRule associated with it: when CLIENT_ACCEPTED { if {[TCP::local_port] equals 80 } { pool pool1 } elseif {[TCP::local_port] equals 443 } { pool pool2 } If a user connects to 10.10.1.100 and port 22, which pool will receive the request?
A. pool1 B. pool2 C. None. The request will be dropped. D. Unknown. The pool cannot be determined from the information provided. |
D
|
|
|
Which statement is true about the synchronization process, as performed by the Configuration Utility or by typing b config sync all?
A. The process should always be run from the standby system. B. The process should always be run from the system with the latest configuration. C. The two /config/bigip.conf configuration files are synchronized (made identical) each time the process is run. D. Multiple files, including /config/bigip.conf and /config/bigip_base.conf, are synchronized (made identical) each time the process is run. |
C
|
|
|
Which statement is true concerning the default communication between a redundant pair of BIG-IP devices?
A. Communication between the systems cannot be effected by port lockdown settings. B. Data for both connection and persistence mirroring are shared through the same TCP connection. C. Regardless of the configuration, some data is communicated between the systems at regular intervals. D. Connection mirroring data is shared through the serial fail-over cable unless network fail-over is enabled. |
B
|
|
|
When upgrading a BIG-IP redundant pair, what happens when one system has been updated but the other has not?
A. Synching should not be performed. B. The first system to be updated will assume the Active role. C. This is not possible since both systems are updated simultaneously. D. The older system will issue SNMP traps indicating a communication error with the partner. |
A
|
|
|
When using the setup utility to configure a redundant pair, you are asked to provide a "Failover Peer IP". Which address is this?
A. an address of the other system in its management network B. an address of the other system in a redundant pair configuration C. an address on the current system used to listen for fail-over messages from the partner BIG-IP D. an address on the current system used to initiate mirroring and network fail-over heartbeat messages |
B
|
|
|
Which two statements describe differences between the active and standby systems? (Choose two.)
A. Monitors are performed only by the active system. B. Fail-over triggers only cause changes on the active system. C. Virtual server addresses are hosted only by the active system. D. Configuration changes can only be made on the active system. E. Floating self-IP addresses are hosted only by the active system. |
C,E
|
|
|
Assuming other fail-over settings are at their default state, what would occur if the fail-over cable were to be disconnected for five seconds and then reconnected?
A. As long as network communication is not lost, no change will occur. B. Nothing. Fail-over due to loss of voltage will not occur if the voltage is lost for less than ten seconds. C. When the cable is disconnected, both systems will become active. When the voltage is restored, unit two will revert to standby mode. D. When the cable is disconnected, both systems will become active. When the voltage is restored, both systems will maintain active mode. |
C
|
|
|
Where is persistence mirroring configured?
A. It is always enabled. B. It is part of a pool definition. C. It is part of a profile definition. D. It is part of a virtual server definition. |
C
|
|
|
Given that VLAN fail-safe is enabled on the external VLAN and the network that the active BIG- IP's external VLAN is connected to has failed, which statement is always true about the results?
A. The active system will note the failure in the HA table. B. The active system will reboot and the standby system will go into active mode. C. The active system will fail-over and the standby system will go into active mode. D. The active system will restart the traffic management module to eliminate the possibility that BIG-IP is the cause for the network failure. |
A
|
|
|
Where is connection mirroring configured?
A. It an option within a TCP profile. B. It is an optional feature of each pool. C. It is not configured; it is default behavior. D. It is an optional feature of each virtual server. |
D
|
|
|
Assuming there are open connections through an active system's virtual servers and a fail-over occurs, by default, what happens to the connections?
A. All open connections are lost. B. All open connections are maintained. C. When persistence mirroring is enabled, open connections are maintained even if a fail-over occurs. D. Long-lived connections such as Telnet and FTP are maintained, but short-lived connections such as HTTP are lost. E. All open connections are lost, but new connections are initiated by the newly active BIG-IP, resulting in minimal client downtime. |
A
|
|
|
How is MAC masquerading configured?
A. Specify the desired MAC address for each VLAN for which you want this feature enabled. B. Specify the desired MAC address for each self-IP address for which you want this feature enabled. C. Specify the desired MAC address for each VLAN on the active system and synchronize the systems. D. Specify the desired MAC address for each floating self-IP address for which you want this feature enabled. |
A
|
|
|
Which action will take place when a failover trigger is detected by the active system?
A. The active device will take the action specified for the failure. B. The standby device also detects the failure and assumes the active role. C. The active device will wait for all connections to terminate and then fail-over. D. The standby device will begin processing virtual servers that have failed, but the active device will continue servicing the functional virtual servers. |
A
|
|
|
Assuming that systems are synchronized, which action could take place if the fail-over cable is connected correctly and working properly, but the systems cannot communicate over the network due to external network problems?
A. If network fail-over is enabled, the standby system will assume the active mode. B. Whether or not network fail-over is enabled, the standby system will stay in standby mode. C. Whether or not network fail-over is enabled, the standby system will assume the active mode. D. If network fail-over is enabled, the standby system will go into active mode but only until the network recovers. |
B
|
