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187 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What is a congenital anomaly that causes failure of complete fusion of the lips of the embryonic choroid fissure?
Coloboma
_______ is a slitlike but normal channel in the floor of the optic cup & stalk through which the vasoformative mesoderm and stromal mesenchyme enter the globe.
embryonic fissure
______ is an outpouching of neuroectoderm in the schlera that could be mistaken for a coloboma.
scleral estasia
_______ is a congential defect in the form of a gap, notch or fissure of part of the eye as a result of improper development of the optic cup
coloboma
Where is the most effected area of the eye for a coloboma?
The posterior portions of the eye ( optic disc, iris, ciliary body)
What congenital anomaly is inherited in Charolais cattle?
coloboma
Describe a lesion of a coloboma?
cavitation of the choroid and schlera with the cavity lined by thinned retinal layer
_______ is a common inherited defect in smooth & rough collies and Shetland sheepdogs. Its an anomoly of mesenchyme
Collie Eye anomaly (CEA)
What is the etiopathogenesis of CEA?
Improper development of the optic cup
What can occur due to the improper development of the optic due to CEA?
1) Abnormal formation of choroid and retina
2) chorioretinal dysplasia or choroidal hypoplasia
Describe the lesions of CEA.
1) ABNORMAL RETINAL VESSELS
2) areas of chorioretinal dysplasia or hypoplasia
3) ectasia (pitting) of the optic disc and sclera
Schlera ectasia or posterior staphyloma and severe visual impairment can be caused by what defect?
CEA
What is the sequale of CEA?
Retinal degeneration and detachment
Intraocular hemorrhage
What are the 3 major diseases of the eyelids?
developmental anomalies
blepharitis
Neoplasms
What are the two forms of focal blepharitis?
Hordeolum (stye)
Chalazion
What is an external hordeolum (stye)?
It is an external suppurative adenitis of the adnexal glands of Moll or Zeis (external hordeolum)
What is an internal hordeolum (stye)?
Internal suppurative adenitis of the Melbomian gland
What is the sequale of hordeolum?
Persistent inflammation
sebaceous secretions extend into the adjacent soft tissues causing a granulomatous response.
What might be the DDx for hordeolum?
adenoma
fungal granuloma
lymphoid hyperplasia
_______ is a sterile granulomatous inflammation of the Meibomian gland.
Chalazion
What might be the DDx of a chalazion?
Meibomian gland adenomsa
What are some diffuse types of blepharitis?
ulcerative
seborrheic
allergic
actinic
parasitic
What is considered the most common tumor of the canine eyelid and occurs in 80% of all eyelid tumors?
Meibomian gland adenoma
What is considered the 2nd most common tumor of the canine eyelid?
melanocytoma- universally benign
What are 3 types of eyelid neoplasms found in the cat?
Nerve shealth tumors
squamous cell carcinoma
mast cell tumors
What type of eyelid neoplasm can be found in the horse?
sarcoids and SCC
What type of eyelid neoplasm might be found on white faced cattle and white haired cats.
SCC
What is the etiology of conjunctivitis?
trauma
irritants
allergens (type I hypersensitivity)
toxins
infections (common in cats & horses)
What parasites cause conjunctivitis in sheep, cattle and horses?
Oestrus ovis (sheep)
Thelazia sp. (cattle, horses)
Habronema (horses)
What type of lesions are formed by conjunctivitis?
hyperemia/congestion
severe edema (chemosis)
epiphora (overflow of tears)
ocular discharge
What species are neoplasms of the conjunctiva most common?
cattle followed by horses, dogs and cats
What is the most frequent type of neoplasms of the conjunctiva?
SCC
SCC of the conjunctiva has been associated with what virus?
IBR- Infectious Bovine Rhinotracheitis
What is the most common conjunctival neoplasm in the horse and name the sites where they are found?
SCC
limbal region or the leading edge of the 3rd eyelid and progress to the conjunctiva.
_______ are congenital, developmental anomalies affecting the mucous membrane of the conjunctiva or cornea.
ocular dermoids
______ reflects the failure of the fetal ectoderm to undergo complete corneal "metaplasia", so that a portion of the cornea remains as skin.
ocular dermoids
WHat corneal congenital anomaly contains well differentiated stratified squamous keratinized epithelium overlying an irregular dermal stroma?
ocular dermoids
What corneal congenital anomaly is most common in the dog? Where is it found and what is it compromised of?
ocular dermoids
found at the temporal limbus
Raised islands of skin containing hair
What are the 4 forms of keratitis?
Acute
chronic
superficial
deep
What form of keratitis is due to corneal ulcerations leading to ulcerative keratitis?
superficial
What form of keratitis is due to infection (mycotic or bacterial) or intraocular inflammation?
deep
What are the 5 layers of the cornea? From outer to inner.
Epithelium
Bowmans membrane
Substantia propria
Descemet's membrane
endothelium
_______ usually results from physical, chemical or microbial injury to the cornea and can also arise following inflammatory lesions deeper within the eye.
keratitis
The _______ is normally avascular and transparent.
The cornea
What are the sequence of events of keratitis?
1) edema
2) leukocyte movement from tears and limbic venules
3) corneal stromal vascularization
4) fibrosis
5) epithelial metaplasia w/ pigmentation
What are the 2 types of non-ulcerative keratitis?
epithelial keratitis
stromal keratitis
What are some characteristics of epithelial keratitis?
1) transient & mild
2) multiple fine epithelial opacities
3) Intercellular fluid accumulation (bullous keratopathy)
What are 2 types of stromal keratitis?
superficial
deep
Name six causes of ulcerative keratitis.
1) trauma
2) dessication
3) infection
4) feline herpesvirus 1
5) Immune mediated disease
6) degeneration of the corneal epithelium
What is is the cause of infectious keratoconjunctivitis (pink eye) of cattle?
Moraxella bovis
What is the most important disease of the bovine eye and when is it most prevalent?
pink eye (Moraxella bovis)
summer due to increased fly vectors.
______ causes an infection of the corneal epithelial cells resulting in shallow intraepithelial branching tracts of necrosis, known as "dendritic" ulcers.
FHV-1
________ is an ulcerative keratitis lesion that ends up liquefying the corneal stroma resulting in a melting ulcer.
keratomalacia
_______ is an ulcerative keratitis lesion that occurs when neutrophils encircle the liquefying focus as a thick wall of live and fragmented cells.
ring abscess
Stromal liquefaction that reaches the Descemet's membrane results in its forward bulging as a _________ due to increased intraocular pressure.
descemetocele or keratocele
What is an anterior synechia?
adhesion of iris to cornea
What is a posterior synechia?
adhesion of iris to lens
If healing is delayed for an ulcerative keratitis or injury is repeated, melanoblasts may infiltrate along vessels resulting in ______.
corneal melanosis or pigmentary keratitis
ulcerative keratitis involve which portions of the eye?
cornea, conjunctiva and uvea
Rarely an ulcer will become lined by epithelial cells to form a permanent _______.
corneal fistula
What are the 2 types of non-ulcerative keratitis?
epithelial and stromal (interstitial)
What is the most common form of non-ulcerative keratitis?
stromal (interstitial) keratitis
________ is diffuse, blue-gray clouding of the cornea associated with inflammatory changes in the deep corneal layers
stromal (interstitial) keratitis
What is stromal (interstitial) keratitis caused by and how is it characterized?
iridocyclitis (inflammation of the iris/ciliary body) and is characterized by deep vascularization from the ciliary body
What are 2 types of superficial stromal keratitis?
pannus
eosinophilic
What form of superficial stromal keratitis is found in German shepherds?
Uberreiter's syndrome
Describe the pathogenesis of superficial stromal keratitis.
prolonged exposure to UV light causing altered corneal antigens,
cell mediated injury and severity
exacerbated by dust and high altitudes
What are 2 types of superficial stromal keratitis?
pannus
eosinophilic
What form of superficial stromal keratitis is found in German shepherds?
Uberreiter's syndrome
Describe the pathogenesis of superficial stromal keratitis.
prolonged exposure to UV light causing altered corneal antigens,
cell mediated injury and severity
exacerbated by dust and high altitudes
Describe the pathogenesis of superficial stromal keratitis.
There is no ulceration but pigmentation is marked
Prolonged exposure to UV light may cause altered corneal antigens and cell mediated injury
Describe the gross lesion of superficial stromal keratitis.
bilateral vascularized opacity in the corneal stroma
marked pigmentation
What would you see histologically to confirm superficial stromal keratitis?
intense mononuclear inflammatory infiltrate
________ is a superficial cornea converted to an opaque membrane resembling granulation.
pannus keratitis
________ is also known as dessication keratitis in dogs.
Keraconjunctivitis sicca (KCS)
Decreased lacrymal secretion is also known as _______ (xerophthalmia)
dry eye
What are some characteristics of dry eye?
failure of innervation of ducts
blockage of the ducts
chronic dacryoadenitis w/ fibrosis (autoimmune)
Describe the lesions of ulcerative keratitis?
loss of epithelium initiates a series of corneal reactions caused by tear imbibition, local production of cytokines and opportunistic microbial contamination of the wound
What are some signs of primary KCS?
congenital lack of lacrimal secretions; senile atrophy
What are some signs of secondary KCS?
destruction or denervation of lacrimal or accessory lacrimal gland
KCS is most common in what species?
dogs
What is the condition that causes inflammation of the iris & ciliary body?
anterior uveitis or iridocyclitis
What is the condition that causes inflammation of the choroid & ciliary body?
posterior uveitis or choroiditis
_________ is inflammation of structures interior to the sclera including the uvea.
endophthalmitis
Inflammation of all tunics of the globe is called _______.
panophthalmitis
What are the 5 main causes of uveitis?
1) ocular trauma
2) toxicity (vascular)
3) neoplasia
4) immune-mediated
5) infections
What viruses can cause uveitis?
FIP
MCF
What are 2 different types of lens induced uveitis?
phacolytic uveitis
phacoclastic uveitis
______ is a very common mild lymphoplasmacytic anterior uveitis occurring in animals with cataracts in which the lens protein is beginning to disintegrate and leak through the intact lens capsule.
phacolytic uveitis
_______ is a immune-mediate disease in response to the release of large amounts of intact lens protein through a traumatically ruptured lens capsule.
phacoclastic uveitis
What is the etiopathogenesis of iridocyclitis?
primary entity following toxic damage
hematogenous infections
extension from deep corneal ulceration
_______ is the accumulation of exudate (fibrin and inflammatory cells) in the aqueous.
aqueous flare
______ is yellow-white or pink, floccular sediment in the anterior chamber.
hypopyon
Neutrophils may adhere to the corneal endothelium producing a stippled appearance known as _________.
keratitis punctata
______ is blood or neutrophils in the anterior chamber
hyphema
Granulomatous uveitis is often characterized by ________ precipitates of inflammatory cells (granulomatous response).
“mutton-fat” keratic
________ causes multiple white dots on corneal epithelium (mutton fat keratic precipitates).
Iridocyclitis (anterior uveitis)
Iridocyclitis (anterior uveitis) can sequale to _________ or ________.
glaucoma (increased intraocular pressure) & lens luxation
If inflammatory cells or fibrin block the drainage angle then there will be a rise in intraocular pressure causing _____.
glaucoma
Iridocyclitis (anterior uveitis) can cause fibrinous exudation over the iris which can sequale into _________ and _________.
anterior synechia (adhesion of iris to cornea)
posterior synechia (adhesion of iris to lens)
________ synechiae may cause only small visual defects but ______ synechiae will block aqueous flow and cause glaucoma.
partial and total
Iridocyclitis can sequale to a complete posterior synechiae and bowing of the iris anteriorly, this condition is called _______.
iris bombé
Severe anterior uveitis may cause the development of a fibrovascular membrane on the iris face causing pupillary blockage or _________ which will cause neovascular glaucoma.
occlusio pupillae
Membrane may contract on the face of the iris resulting in infolding of the pupillary border to adhere to the ________ or ________ iris surface.
anterior (ectropion uveae)
posterior (entropion uveae)
__________ is a significance of uveitis that causes the eye to become hypotonic, shrunken and disorganized.
phthisis bulbi
choroiditis is also known as _______.
posterior uveitis
What routes of infection can cause choroiditis?
hematogenous
direct contamination
What pathogens can cause choroiditis?
bacteria
a) Streptococcus sp.
b) Mycobacteria sp.
fungi
viruses
The choroid is a major source of nutrients for the retina in what species and what type of lesions does chorditis cause in this species?
retinal degeneration
esp. horses (no retinal arteries)
What is the major cause of periodic ophthalmia (moon blindness; ERU) in horses?
repeated attacks of the anterior uveitis that causes damage to the choroid, retina and optic nerve.
Immunologic reactions against intraocular leptospiral antigens is a major cause of _________ in horses.
Equine recurrent uveitis
Deficiencies of vitamins A, B2 (riboflavin) and C have been incriminated but not proven to cause what in horses?
Equine recurrent uveitis
Name 5 sequelae of equine recurrent uveitis.
interstitial keratitis
cataract
lens luxation
synechiae
retinal separation
_______ glaucoma is the abnormal development of the anterior chamber.
congenital
______ glaucoma is an inherited, bilateral disease causing malformation of the filtration angle with usually no ocular disease.
primary
WHat type of glaucoma is due to anything capable of obstructing the flow of aqueous through the pupil (pupillary block) or trabecular meshwork?
secondary
______ is also referred to as acquired unilateral disease.
secondary glaucoma
Enlargement of the globe (buphthalmos) is caused by the thinning of sclera due to what condition?
Glaucoma
Corneal edema occurs due to chemosis, fibrosis and vascularization caused by ________.
Glaucoma
______ is the photosensitive nervous layer of the eye, derived from outpouchings of the brain.
retina
What retinal layer does the dog have that allows more light to be absorbed by the rods and cones?
tapetum lucidum
lesions are characterized by rosettes composed of a variable number of neuronal retinal cells, often with accompanying retinal folds, name this retinal disease.
retinal dysplasia
What is the main cause of primary retinal dysplasia?
Inherited defect
What are the major causes of secondary retinal dysplasia?
in utero viral infections (BVD, blue tongue)
Vit. A deficiency
x-ray irradiation
The loss of retinal neurons results in
decreased thickness of the neurosensory retina and is also known as ________.
retinal atrophy
What nutritional deficiencies cause retinal degeneration?
Vit. A and E, taurine
What toxic plants cause retinal degeneration?
bracken fern
locoweed
Pressure atrophy due to glaucoma can cause ________.
retinal degeneration
What inherited retinal disease is very important in dogs causing progressive retinal atrophies (PRA)?
retinal degeneration
What are 2 characteristics of generalized PRA?
Early onset
photoreceptor dysplasia
What are some characteristics of central PRA?
later onset
retinal pigment epithelium dystrophy causing photoreceptor degeneration
what nutritional diseases cause retinal diseases?
riboflavin, Vit. A, Vit. E and taurine in cats.
What drugs cause retinal disease?
phenothiazine causes corneal photosensitization

ethambutol causes retinal detachment
What retinal disease causes abnormility in RPE (retinal pigment epithelium dystrophy and results in photoreceptor degeneration
Central PRA (progressive retinal atrophies)
What nutritional disease will result in ocular disease?
Vit. A deficiency
__________ defiency can cause poorp night vision or night blindness due to photoreceptor atrophy/degeneration.
Vit. A
What disease causes toxic retinal degeneration seen in sheep grazing hill pasture infested with bracken fern?
bright blindness
What disease causes degeneration of the rods, cones and outer nuclear layers of the retina leaving only a flattened pigment epithelium against the remnants of the inner nuclear layer?
Bright blindness
What is the most common disorder of the lens defined as lenticular opacity?
cataract
What disease cuases permanent opacity of the lens resulting from increased hydration due to alterations in nutrition, metabolism or osmotic balance of the lens?
cataracts
What ocular neoplasia is most often recognized in cattle?
squamous cell carcinoma
What type of ocular neoplasia is mostly found on the eylids, conjunctiva or cornea?
squamous cell carcinoma
What form of ocular neoplasia has the highest incidence in white-faced Hereford animals?
squamous cell carcinoma
What type of ocular neoplasia is considered the commonest intraocular tumor and is usually malignant?
uveal tract melanoma
What condition of the external ear is common in dogs, cats and pigs, especially those with pendulous ears?
auricular hematomas
_______ is caused by trauma due to excessive scratching or head-shaking in association with parasitic infestations of the pinna and external ear canal.
auricular hematomas
What is the most common of the ear diseases?
Otitis externa
Parasites are a major cause of what common ear disease?
Otitis externa
Hair loss, thickening and fissuring of the pinna and pruritus are major lesions of what ear disease?
Otitis externa
Excessive moisture in the external auditory meatus can be a predisposing factor of what ear disease?
Otitis externa
What metabolic disorders could cause otitis externa?
hypothyroidism
male-feminizing syndrome
Sertoli cell tumor
ovarian disorders
What are 3 predisposing factors of otitis externa?
Excessive moisture of the external auditory mearus
Nature of the ear canal
Impeded drainage.
An increase secretion from ceruminous glands and accumulation of exudate and ceruminous secretions in the ear canal is the pathogenesis of what disease?
Otitis externa
What middle ear disease has an extension of infection through the tympanic membrane from the external ear?
Otitis media
What middle ear disease has an extension of infection from the nasopharynx in association with upper respiratory infections?
Otitis media
What bacteria are most often isolated in middle ear disease?
Arcanobacterium pyogenes, Pasteurella sp.,
Pseudomonas sp.
In the horse where may exudate accumulate due to Otitis media?
guttural pouch
What is empyema?
The accumulation of purulent exudate within the guttural pouch following upper respiratory tract infection.
What ear disease can cause fibrous inflammatory polyps to arise in the middle ear and extend down the eustachian tube to emerge in the pharynx?
Otitis media
What ear disease can cause fibrosis around the ossicles interfering with sound conduction and result in deafness?
Otitis media
What is the most dangerous consequence of middle ear disease?
Its potential to spread to the deeper structures of the inner ear via the round and oval windows.
Otitis interna is also known as _________.
labyrinthitis
What is the most common way to get otitis interna?
Through a suppurative infection arising as a complication of otitis media or URT infections.
What ear disease may cause impaired hearing or deafness due to destruction of the organ of Corti in the cochlea?
Otitis interna
What ear disease may cause a loss of balance and nystagmus associated with disturbed vestibular function?
Otitis interna
What ear disease may cause an infection that can spread from the labyrinth, along the cochlear and vestibular branches of the VIIth cranial nerve?
Otitis interna
What ear disease is due to the absence or degeneration of sensory hair cells in the organ of Corti?
congenital/hereditary deafness
What ear disease causes the most prevalent type of deafness in animals?
congenital deafness
The collapse of walls of the cochlear and saccular membranous labyrinth can lead to ________.
cochleosaccular degeneration
What are the 2 types of acquired deafness?
conductive otitis (externa, media)
neurologic- central/ peripheral
What ear disease causes an interference with the conduction of sound to the sensory organ of Corti by diseases of the external or middle ear?
Conductive acquired deafness
what type of acquired deafness is caused by otitis externa, otitis media and produces the failure of transformation of soundwaves?
Conductive acquired deafness
What type of acquired deafness is centrally located in the brain, auditory pathway and peripherally in the cochlea?
Neurological
_______ is a property of a number of chemical agents and is a major cause of inner ear disease.
ototoxicity
What 4 chemical agents found in a veterinary practise may cause ototoxicity?
aminoglycoside antibiotics
diuretics
aspirin
Savlon
What chemical agent is considered ototoxic and causes the degeneration of the apical portion of cochlear hair cells with cats being particular susceptible?
aminoglycoside antibiotics
What chemical agent is considered ototoxic to dogs and cats?
diuretics
What chemical agent is considered ototoxic and is occasionally used in dogs or cats to cleanse the external ear canal?
Savlon antiseptic
What chemical agent if used in dogs and cats with a ruptured tympanic membrane can become toxic to both vestibular and cochlear cells?
Savlon
What organs of the ear are especially sensitive to degeneration induced by certain chemical agents with prolonged use contributing to deafness or vestibular dysfunction?
vestibular epithelium
Organ of Corti
What inner ear condition is characterized by head tilt, falling toward affected side, ataxia without weakness, and nystagmus?
Vestibular dysfunction
What are some causes of peripheral vestibular disease?
uncontrolled otitis media
labyrinthitis
trauma
invasive neoplasia
drugs/congenital
What are 4 common tumors of the ear?
Squamous cell carcinoma
Chondroma/chondrosarcoma
Adenoma/adenocarcinoma of the ceruminous glands
Acoustic neurinoma
What common tumor of the ear is particularly common in white eared cats as a sequel to solar dermatitis?
Squamous cell carcinoma
What is the most commom neoplasm of the eat?
Adenoma/adenocarcinoma of the ceruminous glands
What type of ear tumor can range from a simple hyperplasia, through well-differentiated adenomas to highly-aggressive adenocarcinoma which may metastasize to distant sites?
Adenoma/adenocarcinoma of the ceruminous glands
What type of ear tumor arises from the nerve sheath of the VIIIth cranial nerve?
Acoustic neurinoma