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399 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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What is ORM? |
ORM is a decision making tool- used by people at all levels to increase operational effectiveness by anticipating hazards and reducing the potential for loss, thereby increasing the probability of a successful mission. |
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What are the five steps in applying ORM? |
Identify Hazards, Assess the Hazards, Make Risk Decisions, Implement Controls, and Supervise |
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What year did the US Army adopt Risk Management to reduce training and combat losses? |
1991 |
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What are the three types of ORM Controls? |
Engineering Controls, Administrative Controls, and Personal Protective Equipment |
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Which ORM Control is the lease effective control and why? |
PPE is the least effective type of control because it does not reduce the probability of a mishap occurring, it only reduces the severity when a mishap does occur. |
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How often do Safety Councils convene to develop recommendations for policy and analyze progress of the overall safety program? |
Quarterly |
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Who does the Safety Council members consist of? |
Chairperson (CO or XO), Unit Safety Officer (recorder), and safety reps from each department |
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Who is ultimately responsible for safety within the command? |
Commanding Officer |
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Who is responsible for advising the CO on matters pertaining to safety, manages the command safety program, investigates mishaps, monitors projects, shops, and special evolutions for compliance with safety hazards? |
Safety Officer |
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When should personnel use hearing protection? |
When noises exceed 84 DBA |
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When should personnel use double hearing protection? |
When there is sustained noises greater than 104 DBA |
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What is used to provide data regarding information of a particular substance and provides procedures for handling of working with the substance in a safe manner and includes physical data, storage, disposal, protective equipment, and spill handling proced |
Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) |
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Who is authorized to perform lockout/tagout procedures? |
Only qualified designated personnel in writing are authorized |
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What type of extinguisher do you use for a Class B fire? |
Dry Chemical, CO2 foam |
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What is an EDVR? |
Enlisted Distribution Verification Report |
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What is a Naval Message and what are the three categories? |
A formal and secure form of correspondence that has the ability to be tracked once sent. The three categories are routine, priority and flash. |
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What is a Page 2? |
NAVPERS 1070/602 Dependency Application/Record of Emergency Data |
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What is a Page 4? |
NAVPERS 1070/604 used to report educational experience, qualifications, awards, rating designator, and more. |
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What is a Page 13? |
NAVPERS 1070/613 Administrative Remarks, serves as a chronological record of significant miscellaneous entries which are not provided for elsewhere in the service record. |
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What is an OPREP used for? |
The OPREP is used by Navy Forces to report significant events and incidents to senior Leadership. |
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Under the LOAC what is a Combatant? |
All persons in uniform, carrying a weapon or participating in any way in military operations or activities. |
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Under the LOAC what is a Non-Combatant? |
Civilians, medical personnel, and chaplains. |
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Who initiated America’s first sea-based offensive against the British? |
General George Washington |
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The idea of naval construction battalions was conceived by? |
Bureau of Yards and Docks |
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Seabee’s celebrate March 5th, 1942 as |
The day permission was granted to use the name Seabee. |
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In May 1942, a battle was fought entirely with aircraft launched from carriers; the two fleets never saw each other. Name this battle. |
Battle of the Coral Sea |
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Mobile Explosive Investigative Units (MEIU) were instrumental in the clearance of explosive hazards both on land and at sea. What were they later renamed? |
Explosive Ordnance Disposal (EOD) Units. |
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Riverine Assault Operations employ Marine Corps and Navy forces to collect intelligence information. True or False |
False |
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Who is appointed by the President as the head of the Department of the Navy? |
Secretary of the Navy (SECNAV) |
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Navy representative on the Joint Chiefs of Staff is? |
Chief of Naval Operations (CNO) |
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N-4 Department head is responsible for scheduling visitor interviews with the XO and other officers as appropriate. |
FALSE |
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N-1 Department Head is responsible for administration of a unit’s supplies and equipage funds so that all essential material requirements are met. |
FALSE |
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Navy Expeditionary Combat Command (NECC) responsibility is? |
Provide oversight and command and control of anti- terrorism force protection (ATFP) and expeditionary- type forces within the Navy. |
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Which command list below is not a core NCW Force? a) Naval Coastal Warfare Groups (NCWGRU) b) Mobile Inshore Undersea Warfare Units (MIUWU) c) Inshore Boat Units (IBU) d) Mobile Communications Detachments (MCD) e) United States Coast Guard (USCG) Port Security Units (PSU) |
d) Mobile Communications Detachments (MCD) |
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Deployable, armed small craft units that support security operations in littoral regions worldwide manned with USCG and USCGR SELRES are? |
Port Security Unit (PSU) |
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Teams, which provide protection to MSC ships such as maritime prepositioning ships, fast combat support ships and bulk fuel carriers, and their civilian crews are known as |
Embarked Security Teams (EST). |
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What three Air Mobility Command (AMC) Organic aircraft we commonly use? |
C-130 Hercules C-5 Galaxy C-17 Globemaster III |
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What is the primary mission of a C-130? |
Intra-theater tactical airlift. |
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What is the primary mission of a C-5? |
Inter-theater strategic airlift of outsized cargo. |
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What is the primary mission of a C-17? |
Inter-theater tactical airlift of outsized items of cargo to small austere airfields at or near the battle area, by aerial delivery or air-land method. |
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What organic aircraft replaced the C-141? |
C-17 Globemaster III. |
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What is the typical use of a C-130? |
Moving cargo from main theater staging bases to the front lines. |
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What does MPF stands for? |
Maritime Prepositioning Forces. |
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True or False. Hazardous cargo needs to have a Shipper’s Declaration for Dangerous Goods Form completed? |
True |
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True or False. Military Sealift Command (MSC) are tasked with providing strategic, common-user sealift transportation services to U.S. Forces to deploy, employ, sustain, and redeploy those forces on a global basis. |
True |
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What does APF stands for? |
Afloat Pre-positioning Force |
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Currently how many ships do APF have? |
Over 30 Ships. |
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APF are separated into what two mission categories? |
Maritime Pre-positioning ships and Afloat Pre-positioning Ships. |
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Are prowords to be substituted for text? |
No |
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Name a method of communication that can be used in areas where oral communication is not reliable. |
Arm and hand signals, Whistle signals, and Special signals |
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What is the nature and purpose of command and control? |
To enable the Naval Commander to understand the situation in his/her battle space. |
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Who drives the command and control process? |
The Commander |
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Who has final responsibility and accountability for success of the mission? |
The Commander |
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What are the three forms of intelligence? |
Strategic, Operational and Tactical |
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What is the cornerstone of naval intelligence? |
To support the operating forces (at sea, from sea and ashore) |
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Name two key attributes of naval intelligence. |
Timeliness, objectivity, usability availability, thoroughness, accuracy and relevance |
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What does the acronym COMSEC stand for? |
Communications Security |
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What is COMSEC? |
The Navy's system for providing safeguards on telecommunications via encryption. |
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What is meant by the term TPI? |
Two-person integrity is the security measure taken to prevent single-person access to COMSEC keying material and cryptographic maintenance manuals. |
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What are the three types of clearances? |
Confidential, Secret and Top Secret |
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Name the frequency of HF, VHF and UHF. |
HF = 3 MHZ - 30 MHZ, VHF = 30 MHZ - 300 MHZ, UHF = 300 MHZ - 3 GHZ |
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Name two factors that effect the range of radio equipment. |
Weather, terrain, antenna, power, location of the radio |
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What is meant by the term minimize? |
To drastically reduce normal message and telephone traffic so that vital messages connected with the situation at hand will not be delayed. Similar to "Silence on the Net." |
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What is meant by the term beadwindow? |
It is used to alert the operators that an unauthorized disclosure has occurred over a NON-SECURE circuit. |
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What are the Five Basic Phases to an Expeditionary Camp layout? |
Phase I - Planning; Phase II - Site Survey/Security; Phase III - Camp Establishment; Phase IV - Camp Maintenance; Phase V - Camp Teardown |
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Planning phase has what four types of camps? |
Base, Expeditionary, Unit and Logistics Hub. |
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True or False. Site Survey preparations are future site by aerial photograph, satellite imagery or reconnaissance patrol. |
True. |
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List about three facilities or structures in Phase III Camp Establishments? |
Billeting, Food Service, Showers/Heads, Field Armory, BAS, Laundry, Administrative Services, MWR, Ministry. |
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What are the basic duties of First Aid Station? |
Emergency Response Team, Minor Surgeries, Patient Monitoring, Medical Evacuation, Pharmacy and Administration. |
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True or False. Personnel should be trained in Basic First Aid and Adult CPR. |
True |
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Phase IV Maintenance is normally run by who? |
Seabees and Contractors (KBR and Blue Diamond). |
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Who maintains the tactical equipment in Camp? |
Seabee Mechanics and L-3 Mechanics. |
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What is an intergral component of a septic tank individual sewage disposal system? |
Leach Field |
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What form is filled out when a trouble call is submitted to the Trouble Desk? |
Emergency/Service Authorization (ESA) |
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What are the four priority work classifications? |
Safety, Function, Preventive and Appearance. |
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State the reason for a priority work classification I (Safety)? |
Work required primarily for Safety reasons. |
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What is potable water for? |
Suitable for drinking, cooking and personal use. |
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What are the three standard gear issue categories? |
Fighting/load carrying Bivouac Protective |
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The standard 782 gear issue consists of what? |
Pistol belt with two magazine pouches; Pack, usually a medium size; H-harness or suspenders |
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Name the three fighting positions |
Hasty Position Improved one man Improved two man |
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What is the biggest disadvantage of an improved two-man fighting position as opposed to an improved one-man fighting position? |
Two-man provides less protection from tanks, bombing, strafing, and shelling. |
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Which type of camouflage is more preferable when concealing a vehicle; natural cover or cammie netting? |
Natural cover |
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What is the first thing you do if caught in the open at night with a flare overhead? |
Hit the deck |
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What does “KOCOA” stand for? |
Key Terrain Observation and Fields of Fire Concealment and Cover Obstacles to Movement Avenues of Approach |
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Explain the process of orienting a map using a compass. |
1. When a compass rose appears on the map place the compass over the magnetic north line. 2. Turn the map until the north arrow of the compass is aligned. 3. For maps with no compass rose, use the N/S grid line. |
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What does “BAMCIS” stand for? |
Begin planning Arrange recon Make recon Complete the plan Issue the order Supervise |
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What does “SMEAC” stand for? |
Situation Mission Execution Administration and Logistics Command and Signal |
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What are the three sub-paragraphs in the Situation paragraph of a five paragraph order? |
1. Enemy forces 2. Friendly forces 3. Attachments and detachments |
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When is a “SALUTE” report used? |
When observed activities of the enemy do not pose a threat. |
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What is the primary mission of a reconnaissance patrol? |
Information gathering |
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What are three considerations when creating a fire plan? |
Sectors or Zone of Fire Individual fighting positions Crew Served Weapons Rifleman positions Terrain Features Fire Team Leader |
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What are the two types of fire limits? |
Lateral and Forward |
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Name the four types of fire team formations |
Column Wedge Skirmishers (right and left) Echelon (right and left) |
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How many Articles are contained in the Code of Conduct? |
Six |
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What are the four THREATCON levels. |
Alpha Bravo Charlie Delta |
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Is arrest or apprehension a circumstance under which deadly force would normally be authorized? |
Yes |
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What are three types of wire entanglements? |
Tactical Protective Supplementary |
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Describe Challenge and Reply. |
Two words used to determine friend or foe, or a duress situation. |
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What are the three types of waterborne security zones? |
1. Assessment 2. Warning 3. Threat |
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List four things addressed by an effective ATFP plan. |
Concept of operations Preplanned Responses Tactics Crisis management procedures Consequence management procedures Baseline security posture Measures to increase security posture Reporting procedures Command and control procedures |
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Name the five types of waterborne threats. |
Small Boats Deep Draft Boat Subsurface Swimmer Floating Mines |
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What actions are taken when Seaward Continuum of Force (SCOF) level three is attained? |
Warning shots from Crew Serve weapons are fired across bow of Contact of Interest (COI). |
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True or False: When engaging a hostile waterborne craft fire should be directed at the coxswain. |
FALSE |
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What is the ideal width of security zones surrounding a waterborne High Value Asset (HVA)? |
500 meters |
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Name three things that affect waterborne security zone size/location? |
UN restrictions Geography Threat Areas Capabilities of U.S. security forces Proximity of targets |
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What is the principal task of security forces with respect to waterborne vessels? |
To determine hostile intent as far from the HVA as possible. |
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What are the minimal and ideal number of boats used for a moving security zone? |
Two (minimum) and Four (ideal) |
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Historically, Maritime Interception Operations have been defined as what? |
Peacetime measures designed to enforce embargoes sanctioned by the UNSC, national authority, or other regional organization. |
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What is the purpose of the Marine Safety Office (MSO)? |
To ensure the safety, security, and environmental protection of CONUS ports and surrounding areas. |
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Chemical Warfare is broken into what two categories? |
Chemical Agents and Chemical Compounds. |
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Biological Warfare is the use of what biological agents? |
Pathogens or toxins. |
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Do we have any detection equipment for Biological Warfare? |
NO |
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What are the signs or indicators for Biological Warfare? |
Dead bodies, animals, and vegetation. |
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True or False. Radiological Warfare is when radiation (nuclear Bomb) is used as a weapon. |
True |
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What is MCU-2/P? |
Chemical Gas Mask |
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What does JSLIST stands for? |
Joint Service Lightweight Integrated Suit Technology |
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What is the color and markings on a NATO CBR marker signs for Biological. |
Blue with Red marking BIO |
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What is the lifespan of the JSLIST suit after it's been removed from the package in an uncontaminated area? |
45 Days or 6 Washes (which ever comes first) |
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What are the three types of decontamination? |
Immediate, Operational, and Thorough |
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What color does the M-9 paper turns when it comes in contact with a liquid chemical agent? |
Colors of RED |
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What does NAAK stand for and what are the contents of it? |
Nerve Agent Antidote Kit: Contains Atropine/2-PAM CL Injectors. |
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Explain all the MOPP levels? |
MOPP 0 – Everything within sight or ready MOPP I – Overgarment MOPP II - Over Boots MOPP III - Mask and Hood Open MOPP IV - Close Hood and Gloves |
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What equipment reads the DT-60 personnel Dosimeter? |
Portable Equipment CP-95 |
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What is radiation measured in? |
Roentgens |
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What does the acronym COSAL stand for? |
Consolidated Shipboard Allowance List |
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What does the acronym COSBAL stand for? |
Consolidated Shorebased Allowance List |
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What does COSAL/COSBAL provide? |
A list of every piece of equipment and piece part of items on ship or shore. |
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What doe the acronym MOV stand for? |
Material Obligation Validation (MOV) program |
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What are the two components of the operating target (OPTAR)? |
1. Repairables 2. Consumables |
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What does the acronym DRMO stand for? |
Defense Reutilization Marketing Office (DRMO) |
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What is DD Form 1348-6? |
Standard MILSTRIP requisitioning form used when automated supply requisitioning is not available. |
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What is the alternate form of DD Form 1348-6? |
DD Form 1250-2 |
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What form is used as a Requisition and Invoice/Shipping document? |
DD Form 1149 |
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What form is used to report lost, stolen, damaged or unserviceable items? |
DD 200 |
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What is an NSN? |
NSN stands for National Stock Number. It is used to identify a repairable or consumable item. |
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True or False: Property with a unit cost of $100,000 or more is considered minor property? |
FALSE |
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What is the unit cost of minor property? |
Between $2500 to $100,000 |
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Is a printer, copier or television considered plant or minor property items? |
Minor property items |
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Discuss the Depot Level Repairable (DLR) program. |
High priced parts that can be turned in for repair or refurbishment for another's use. |
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What does the acronym NRFI stand for? |
Not Ready For Issue |
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What are some of the symptoms of electrical shock? |
Pale skin Weak pulse Burns are usually present Stiffness in the body |
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What are two types of ventilation used to control potential hazardous airborne substances? |
Local Exhaust Ventilation (LEV) General of Dilution Ventilation |
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What safety requirement is conducted on the weather decks and flight deck prior to flight operations? |
Foreign Object Damage (FOD) walk-down |
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When conducting helo operations how many feet away should you be when the rotor blades are turning, unless necessary? |
50 feet |
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Name some ways to prevent an electrical fire? |
Keep electric motors clean Ensure proper maintenance is performed Keep air filters cleaned Do not overload circuits. |
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What flag is flown during ordnance cargo handling operations? |
BRAVO flag |
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Define First Aid |
First Aid is the emergency care and treatment of a sick or injured person before medical services are obtained. |
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What are the three primary purposes of First Aid? |
1. To save life 2. Prevent further injury 3. To minimize or prevent infection. |
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With regards to First Aid what does A.B.C. stand for? |
Airway Breathing Circulation |
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What is the correct position of a patient being treated for shock? |
Patient should be placed on his or her back, with legs elevated 6 to 12 inches. |
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What are the two types of fractures? |
Open and Closed |
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True or False: Splints should not be so long that they reach the joint above and below a fracture. |
FALSE |
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What are symptoms of a second degree burn? |
Affects the first layer of the skin Skin blistered and weeping Pain is moderate to severe |
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A fracture or separation of the ribs from the breastbone may produce a free-floating segment called a ___________________? |
flail area |
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True or False: Most injuries to the abdomen require surgery to repair the internal damage. |
TRUE |
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What are the three types of heat injuries? |
1. Heat Cramps 2. Heat Exhaustion 3. Heat Stroke |
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What are the two types of cold injuries? |
Frostbite and Hypothermia |
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What does line five of a nine line medevac indicate? |
Number of patients |
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Who is Phil Bucklew? |
Father of Naval Special Warfare |
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What contributions did he have towards NSW? |
He was part of the first group commissioned in October 1942 that saw action During Operation TORCH |
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Explain Operation TORCH? |
The first Allied Landing in Europe, on the North African Coast. |
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When did the Amphibious Scout and Raider Training Begin? |
15-Aug-42 |
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What is the importance of LCDR Draper Kaufman? |
Father of Naval Combat Demolition. Set up school to train how to eliminate obstacles on an enemy-held beach prior to an invasion. Naval Combat Demolition Unit Training at Ft Pierce opened 6 June 1943 |
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Who was the President that established the first SEAL Teams and when? |
John F. Kennedy, January 1962 |
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What was NSW response to 11 September 2001 |
NSW put forces on the ground in Afghanistan in October. The first military flag officer to set foot in Afganistan was a Navy SEAL. |
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What is the mission fo USSOCOM? |
Train, organize, equips and deploys combat ready special operations forces to combatant commands. |
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What are the four organizations that make up USSOCOM and what is their mission under USSOCOM? |
MARSOC, AFSCOC, NAVSPECWARCOM, and USASOC. Lead, plan, synchronize, and as directed, executes global operations against terrorist networks. |
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What is the Mission of NSW Logisitics Support Unit? |
Provide direct administrative, maintenance, logistical, and medical support to Group ONE and TWO and their subordinate SEAL Teams. |
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What is CSSD? What do they do? |
Combat Service Support Detachment. Provide forward area logistics, sustainment, and combat service support to deployed, landbased NSW task organizations. |
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What is MCT? What do they do? |
Mobile Communications Team. Augments NSWTG/TU to ensure communications interoperability with joint and fleet commanders. |
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What is the mission of Naval Special Warfare Unit? |
Plan, coordinate, deconflict, and provide NSW forces for operations and exercises in support of a Theater Commander while advising Theater SOC and Fleet Staffs and to provide support to theater NSW forces as required. |
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Name the locations of the different NSWUs and who they support? |
NSWU 1 - Guam supports PACOM NSWU 2 - Stuttgart, Germany supports EUCOM NSWU 3 - Bahrain supports CENTCOM |
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What is the mission of Naval Special Warfare Group ONE and TWO? |
Prepare, maintain, deploy, and support assigned NSW forces to conduct MSO in support of designated Theater Commanders and conventional naval forces and, when directed command and control NSW operational forces in exercises and operations. |
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Who are the subordinated commands under NSWG1? |
SEAL Team ONE SEAL Team THREE SEAL Team FIVE SEAL Team SEVEN LOGSUPP ONE NSWU1 NSWU3 |
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Who are the subordinated commands under NSWG2? |
SEAL Team TWO SEAL Team FOUR SEAL Team EIGHT SEAL Team TEN LOGSUPP TWO NSWU2 |
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What is the mission of a SEAL Delivery TEAM? |
Prepare and deploy SDV Dets and ASDS Dets to conduct MSO and to augment NSWTG/TU in support of Theater Commanders and conventional naval forces. |
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What is the mission of a Special Boat Team? |
Prepare and deploy assigned craft and crews as SPECBOAT Dets as components of NSWTG/Tus to conduct MSO in support of Theater Commanders and conventional naval forces. |
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What does TOA stand for? |
Table of Allowance |
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The Table of Allowance provides how many days capability to perform operations? |
Based on the mission and personnel attached (90 days for operations) |
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What does 3M stand for? |
Maintenance Material Management |
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What does PM stand for? |
Preventive Maintenance |
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What is the purprose of the 3M/PM system? |
To provide a means of managing preventive and corrective maintenance. |
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What program is used to streamline small purchase methods, minimize paperwork, and streamline payment processes? |
Purchase Card program |
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What is the micro purchase-threshold used to purchase supplies and services for official government business? |
The micro-purchase threshold is at or below $3000 (up to $9,999,900 with other contracting methods) |
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What does OPTAR stand for? |
Operating Target |
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Who distributes the OPTAR? |
The OPTAR is distributed from the Commanding Officer to the department level. |
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Who maintains budget records? |
The Supply Officer maintains budget records with the OPTAR funds records. |
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What does the acronym PWRMS stand for? |
Pre-positioned War Reserve Management System |
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When is Navy war reserve material essential? |
(Times of war) These items are not needed during peacetime, but are essential to successful pursuit during pursuit of victory in war. |
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What form is used as a request for contractual procurement? |
NAVCOMPT 2276 |
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What form is used for original purchase orders? |
DD Form 1155 |
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What is the SF 30 used for? |
To modify original purchase orders and delivery/task orders |
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What type of radio is the AN/PRC-150C? |
HF LOS manpack radio which provides tactical communications through secure voice and data |
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What type of batteries does the AN/PRC-150C utilize? |
BA-5590 |
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An AN/PSC-5D is a UHF/VHF SATCOM/LOS manpack radio. True/False? |
TRUE |
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What is the maximum output of an AN/PSC-5D? |
20 watts |
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What is the frequency range of the AN/PSC-5D? |
30-215 Mhz |
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What is the frequency range of the AN/PRC-148 MBITR? |
30-512 Mhz |
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Is the AN/PRC-148 MBITR certified for SATCOM use? |
It is SATCOM capable, but not SATCOM certified. |
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What radio is considered the handheld survival radio? |
AN/PRQ-7 CSEL (Combat Survivor/Evader Locator) |
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Name two 24 hour characteristics provided by the AN/PRQ-7 radio. |
Line-of-Sight Voice Beacon GPS 2-way data communications Low probability Intercept/Detection Global coverage Over the Horizon messaging |
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How many HF and UHF circuits does the JBS V2D radio base station have? |
2 HF circuits and 12 UHF/SATCOM circuits |
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What SHF terminal is 1MB capable used in support of deploying NSW TUs to provide NIPR, SIPR, JWICs, and red/black phones? |
SDN-TCV (SOF Deployable Node-Transit Case Variant) |
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What SHF terminal is 2MB capable used in support of deploying NSW TUs to provide NIPR, SIPR, JWICs, and red/black phones? |
SDN-m (SOF Deployable Node-Medium |
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What receive-mode only system provides both unclassified and classified weather information, map imagery, intel data, UAV video and CNN/FOX news? |
GBS (Global Broadcast Service) provides high-speed one way information to the warfighter. |
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How many waypoints can the AN/PSN-13S DAGR (Defense Advanced GPS Receiver) store? |
Up to 999 |
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Name two alternate methods of communications. |
Messenger Whistle signals Special signals Hand signals |
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What does CESE stands for? |
Civil Engineer Support Equipment |
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What is the process of Embarking CESE to the Marshalling area? |
Dispatch Collateral Equipment Fuel/De-fuel Wash Maintenance Checks Rewash Final Inspection. |
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What is the process of Embarking Cargo to the Marshalling area? |
Stage Inventory Clean Build Secure Final Inspection. |
|
|
What is the process of Embarking Equipment/Cargo for Air and Sea Shipment? |
All Equipment/Cargo should be inventoried, Weighed, Marked and JI’ed (Joint Inspection by AMC). |
|
|
What is the primary and secondary means for loading cargo by Air and Sea Shipment? |
463L Pallet and ISU |
|
|
What is the total weight for a 463L? |
290 lbs |
|
|
What is the total weight for a 2 side nets and 1 top net? |
65 lbs |
|
|
What is the maximum weight for 463L pallet? |
10K lbs |
|
|
What is the color of the Side Nets? |
Green |
|
|
What is the size of a 463L pallet? |
88” X 108” |
|
|
What is the maximum height for 463L pallet? |
96” |
|
|
What is TPFDD? |
Time Phased Force Deployment Data |
|
|
How is TPFDD used? |
It is the information used to plan and execute the movement of personnel and equipment to support OPLANS. |
|
|
What does JOPES stands for? |
Joint Operations Planning and Execution System |
|
|
What does TUCHA DATA stands for and how is it used? |
Type Unit Characteristics Data: it’s used for Data filing for different military unit’s configurations (EOD, SBT, and SEAL Team). |
|
|
What are three camp layout considerations? |
Key Terrain Feature Security/Defensive Posture Health and Sanitation |
|
|
What does the acronym KOCOA means? |
Key Terrain Features Observation and Fields of Fire Cover and Concealment Obstacles (Man made or Natural) Avenues of approach. |
|
|
Define Cover and Concealment in KOCOA? |
Cover and Concealment in a Camp Layout is important for Camp Security, Protections and Safety. |
|
|
How many meters apart should you disperse Camp Facilities and Utilities? |
35 Meters |
|
|
How many meters apart should utilities for a natural water sources? |
100 Meters |
|
|
How far apart should the TOC and Ant Farm be? |
100 Meters |
|
|
What does ECP stands for? |
Entry Control Point. |
|
|
What are the three types of ECP’s for Defensive Posture? |
Serpentine, Bunker and Observation. |
|
|
For Health reasons, what is the distance from Food/Water should the Heads be? |
100 Yards |
|
|
What considerations for waste water (Black and Gray) for Health and Sanitation are? |
Wind Direction |
|
|
How many yards should Garbage Disposal/Burn Pit area be from a natural water source? |
100 Yards |
|
|
What are the three considerations for setting up Generators must be? |
Sheltered, Grounded and Contained |
|
|
What is the diameter size of a grounding rod and at least how deep should it be buried in the ground? |
Diameter is 5/8” and least 8’ Deep. |
|
|
What does acronym ROWPU means? |
Reverse Osmosis Water Purification Unit |
|
|
How many gallons can ROWPU purify in one hour of soiled water? |
600 Gallons |
|
|
What publication assist management at all levels in properly discharging their responsibilities in the efficient management of the transportation program? |
P-300 |
|
|
What does the P-11200 do for the Naval Construction Force (NCF)? |
To establish policy, assign action and provide guidance for Equipment Management Program. |
|
|
What publication ensures optimum service life of the equipment is conducted safely and efficiently. |
P-307 |
|
|
What is MHE stands for? |
Material Handling Equipment |
|
|
How to check out a Government vehicle? |
Fill out a vehicle request form and turn it in to the Dispatcher or Lead Mechanic with a 48 hours wait time. Dispatcher will issue a trip ticket and keys to the vehicle for operation, after you turn in a Pre-Start Card. |
|
|
What is a Pre-start card for? |
The first operator to check out the vehicle needs to checks over the vehicle for damage, cleanliness, leaks, operational function checks. |
|
|
How to turn a vehicle? |
Turn in the keys after cleaning, refueling and inspected by the Dispatcher or Lead Mechanic. |
|
|
All vehicle accidents should notify who? |
Dispatcher or Lead Mechanic. |
|
|
What is the form to fill out when you have an accident? |
SF-91 |
|
|
What is the maintenance schedule for all Government Vehicles not in Live Storage Program? |
40 Days Cycle |
|
|
What type of license authorizes to operator a government motor vehicle? |
OF/346 |
|
|
Publication 11260/2 authorizes to operate what equipment? |
Construction and weight handling equipment. |
|
|
Vehicles not able to operator in a safe operating conditions or mechanical failure are considered what? |
Deadline |
|
|
What are NORS and ANORS stands for? |
Not Operationally ready Supply and Anticipated Not Operationally Ready Due to Supply |
|
|
What program is used to support CESE required only for contingency and emergency operation that are stored on an 80 days preventive maintenance cycles. |
Live Storage |
|
|
What is NSWTG stands for? |
Naval Special Warfare Task Group |
|
|
A NSWTG is a Provisional NSW task organization that does what? |
Plans, conducts, and support special operation in support of joint force SOC and/or fleet commanders. |
|
|
Who normally commands NSWTG? |
Commander (O-5) |
|
|
NSWTG is comprised of what? |
C2 element and one or more subordinate Task Units |
|
|
What does NSWTU stands for? |
Naval Special Warfare Task Unit |
|
|
Who normally commands NSWTU? |
Senior Seal Lieutenant and above (O-3 to O-4) |
|
|
NSWTU is comprised of what? |
C-2 element and one or more SEAL PLTs, and other units (mobility and communication) |
|
|
What does JSOTF stands for? |
Joint Special Operations Task Force |
|
|
Who is the Commanding Officer of Naval Special Warfare Squadron (NSWRON)? |
The SEAL Team Commanding Officer that is attached to the Squadron. |
|
|
The SEAL Platoon is made up of 2-3 Officers and how many enlisted? |
12-14 enlisted |
|
|
True or False: All SEAL PLTs personnel are dive, parachute and demolition qualified and proficient in small-unit tactics and maritime operations. |
TRUE |
|
|
What component is made up of small C2 element and one or more SEAL Platoons. |
SEAL Task Unit |
|
|
What does RHIB stands for? |
Rigid Hull Inflatable Boat Detachment |
|
|
The NSW RHIB carries up to eight SEALs with one CRRC and how many crewmembers? |
3 Crewmembers |
|
|
The 82-foot MK V SOC is designed for what? |
Insertion/Extraction of SOF in a low to medium threat environment. |
|
|
Terrorist operations are meticulously planned; what three elements are accomplished to minimize the risk of failure? |
Detailed reconnaissance missions Training Rehearsals |
|
|
Name three types of tactics that are employed by terrorists? |
Hostage Taking, Kidnapping, Bombing, Hijacking, Seizure,Raids or Attacks on Facilities, Sabotage, Hoaxes, Arson, Assassination, WMD, Information Warfare(Computer Hacker) |
|
|
Terrorist attack methodology is comprised of six phases; target options; selection surveillance; target selection; target surveillance; training and preparation; and attack. Which of these six phases presents the greatest weakness and why? |
Target surveillance, because an effective counter-surveillance program may be able to detect surveillance and alert the target of an impending attack. |
|
|
What are the five Force Protection conditions? |
Normal Alpha Bravo Charlie Delta |
|
|
What are the two types of vulnerability assessments? |
Area Specific (port,airfield), Assessment of own unit |
|
|
What is the main purpose for a unit to perform a vulnerability assessment? |
Examine for any weaknesses a unit has that might be susceptible to a terrorist attack |
|
|
How does weapons effect mitigation apply to a vulnerability assessment? |
Assesses the effects of any attacks through standoff distances, blast barriers, and structural hardening |
|
|
Why must an Anti Terrorism / Force Protection Plan be understandable? |
It must be kept understandable for all involved so that the information may be promulgated easily |
|
|
Who must complete Level I AT / FP training? |
All military service members and all DOD employees |
|
|
Dependent family members ages 14 and over must complete what level of training prior to a PCS OCONUS move? |
Level I |
|
|
Commands that have more than 300 attached personnel must have what appointed in writing? |
Anti Terrorism Officer |
|
|
Level I AT / FP training must be completed how often? |
Annually |
|
|
What importance does AOR Specific Training provide a unit or an individual? |
Provide detailed threat information covering transit routes and sites that will be visited |
|
|
Who must attend Level III Pre-Command AT Training before assuming command? |
O5 and O6 commanders or civilian equivalent |
|
|
What are the four Terrorist Threat Levels? |
Low, Moderate, Significant, High |
|
|
How many general orders are there for a Sentry watch? |
11 |
|
|
What are the three zones of an Entry Control Point? |
Assessment, Warning, and Threat Zones |
|
|
When doing a personnel search, what is the proper way to do a search? |
Have the person spread their feet shoulder width apart, stand on one side utilizing the crush squeeze method, search the body in 1/4 sections using the knife edge of your hand. |
|
|
What is the proper way to search a vehicle? |
Priority 1 - Trunk and Engine Department Priority 2 - Interior Priority 3 - Underneath Vehicle |
|
|
What is the purpose of anti swimmer patrols? |
The purpose is to deter swimmers on or near the surface |
|
|
Name the three control force actions for civil disturbances. |
Isolate the area, protect likely targets, and exert control |
|
|
Cavitation of a propeller occurs due to _____ mixing with water, which can reduce thrust. |
Air |
|
|
Define Mean High/ Low Water. |
Average high/ low water level over 19 yr period |
|
|
Spring and Neap tides occur when? |
During new, first quarter, last quarter and full moon. |
|
|
The velocity of current is commonly called |
Drift |
|
|
The front and rear end of a boat are known as |
Bow and stern |
|
|
The beam of a vessel is located where? |
Amidships |
|
|
The compass error, which results from the offset of true geographic north to magnetic north, is __________________. |
Variation |
|
|
Deviation error is caused by |
Ship acting as a magnetic |
|
|
On a compass rose the inner circle indicates |
Magnetic North |
|
|
A ships position is known as |
Fix |
|
|
Name three items required to be onboard a F-470 prior to getting underway. |
Anchor and line, first aid kit, flare kit, foot pump and hose, compass, paddles, VHF radio. |
|
|
A reaction boat operates in which defensive zone? |
Threat |
|
|
Which boat formation is warranted when there is a suspicion the area is mined? |
Column |
|
|
Who issues fire commands onboard a boat? |
Coxswain |
|
|
Check Fire command means |
All gunners cease fire temporarily to check effect |
|
|
Weapons Free command indicates |
Firing is at gunners discretion |
|
|
What are the three elements of a strip map? |
Check points, starting points, critical points |
|
|
Who is responsible for the planning and preparation of a convoy? |
Convoy Commander |
|
|
Who is responsible for sectors of fire? |
Crew Served Weapons Operator |
|
|
Who is responsible for patients and casualties? |
Combat Life Savers/Medics |
|
|
During convoy operations who is responsible for standard equipment requirements such as food, ammunition, fuel, and water? |
Vehicle Commander |
|
|
Who can fill any position in the convoy when in duress? |
Security Personnel |
|
|
True or False. The File formation offers simplicity and minimizes IED blasts. |
FALSE |
|
|
Which vehicle formation allows for greater headlight coverage? |
Staggered |
|
|
What two techniques limit 3rd party vehicle infiltration? |
Inverted T/ diamond |
|
|
During convoy operations what technique is used to physically block the road from oncoming traffic? |
Blocking |
|
|
What technique has the second vehicle take the off ramp to observe the top of an overpass? |
Deliberate high clear |
|
|
Who takes control of the steering wheel in the downed driver battle drill? |
Vehicle Commander |
|
|
While performing the In-stride vehicle recovery who hooks up the tow and release straps? |
Driver/Vehicle Commander |
|
|
Who makes the call for a Dismount/Re-mount? |
Vehicle Commander |
|
|
In the blow Thru drill,what action should you take? |
Speed up, signal direction of enemy, return fire, move to rally point, establish 360 degree security, report, continue mission. |
|
|
What is the first step of mission planning? |
Mission analysis |
|
|
What does COA stand for? |
Coarse of Action |
|
|
Name the five steps of mission planning. |
Mission analysis COA development COA Wargame COA Comparison and development Orders development (and Transition) |
|
|
What does SMEAC stand for? |
Situation Mission Execution Administration and Logistics Command and Signal |
|
|
What segment of SMEAC gives the who, what, when, where and why? |
The mission statement is a clear and concise statement of the mission. |
|
|
In what section can you find the commander's intent? |
Execution |
|
|
What section contains information or instructions pertaining to rations, ammo, resupply and admin matters? |
Administration and logistics |
|
|
The Inport Security Plans (ISP) supplements what standing plan? |
AT/FP plan |
|
|
What format is used to to brief ongoing crews. |
SMEAC |
|
|
What does the acronym WARNO stand for? |
Warning Order |
|
|
What does COC stand for? |
Combat Operations Center |
|
|
What is the prupose of the COC? |
To provide the battalion commander centralized command and control facilities fpr all combat tactical and operational operations conducted under his/her command. |
|
|
Name the three officers of the COC watch. |
Operations Intelligence COC |
|
|
What are the four DOD threat level assessment factors? |
Operational capability Intentions Activity Operating environment |
|
|
Terrorist threat levels are set based on the analysis of a combination of threat assessment factors. |
TRUE |
|
|
What are the four threat levels? |
Low, moderate, significant and High |
|
|
What does CMS stand for? |
Communications Security Material System |
|
|
Who is responsible for proper security, control, accountability and destruction of CMS in their workspace? |
Everyone, whether you are a CMS user or a witness. |
|
|
How should COMSEC and non-COMSEC material be stored? |
Separately. COMSEC material of different security classifications may be stored in the same drawer but segrated by classification for destruction in a timely manner. |
|
|
During a routine destruction, when would superseded COMSEC material be be destroyed? |
As soon as possible after supersession |
|
|
Name two voice circuit techniques. |
Listen before transmitting Speak clearly and slowly Use standard pronunciation Speak in a moderately strong voice |
|
|
Name the two types of tactical circuits. |
Short range and long range |
|
|
When are administrative circuits normally used? |
In port |
|
|
What are the two types of nets? |
Directed net and free net |
|
|
What are the two types of execution methods? |
Delayed and Immediate |
|
|
What OPNAV instruction is used for safety policy and procedures for conducting High Risk training? |
OPNAVINST 1500.75A |
|
|
What OPNAV instruction is used for the Standard Organization and Regulations of the US Navy? |
OPNAVINST 3120.32C |
|
|
What plan is used in case of mishap and is required during high risk training evolutions? |
Emergency Action Plan |
|
|
What are the three basic features of effective unit training? |
1. Compatibility 2. Evaluation and Instruction 3. Analysis and Improvement |
|
|
What board does the CO use for developing the Unit training program? |
Planning Board for Training |
|
|
Who is the designated chairperson for Planning Board for Training? |
XO |
|
|
Name the three types of training plans? |
1. Long Range Training Plan 2. Quarterly Training Plan 3. Monthly/Weekly Training Plan |
|
|
Which training plan is used to list all inspections, certifications, assist visits, and TYCOM required exercises? |
Long Range Training Plans |
|
|
Who is responsible for approving quarterly schedules for the Quarterly Training Plan? |
Department Head |
|
|
What does the Jarb Stand for? |
Joint Acquisition Review Board |
|
|
What is a not a JARB process? 1. requirement validation process 2. funding process 3. research process 4. review process |
2. funding process |
|
|
The JARB Support cell is made up of how many Officers and how many enlisted persons? |
2 officers and 1 enlisted person |
|
|
What class of supply handles ammunition? |
Five |
|
|
What class of supply is medical equipment? |
Eight |
|
|
What is the JFUB? |
Joint Facilities Utilization Board |
|
|
Who is the Supply Officer of the CJSOTF? |
J8 |
|
|
Who is responsible for all Logistic requirements of the TF, including all Supply, Maintenance and Transportation needs. |
J8 |
|
|
Who is the TF Comptroller and is responsible and accountable for all Monetary Funds associated with the operation of the TF. |
J4 |
|
|
What is ARSOF? |
Army Special Operation Forces. |
|
|
What class of supply is Lubricants? |
Three |
|
|
What is a MIPR? |
Military Interdepartmental Purchase Request (MIPR) |
|
|
Which Officer is responsible to inventory and accept custody of those items by from the Army Property Book. |
PBO |
|
|
Are Combat forces initially deployed into theater with their ammunition basic loads? |
Yes |
|
|
What does ASA stand for? |
Ammunition support activities (ASA) |
|
|
How far from you should you throw a smoke grenade? |
30 ft |
|
|
How long is the delay for the smoke grenades? |
.7-2 seconds |
|
|
How long is smoke produced from a smoke grenade? |
50-90 seconds |
|
|
What is a minimum altitude pencil flare will travel? |
250 ft |
|
|
How long does the pencil flare last when released? |
4.5 seconds |
|
|
A 40MM Flare has a delay of how long? |
4-5 second |
|
|
The max burst height for the 40mm Flare is what? |
550 |
|
|
True or false. The bandolier is part of the pencil flare. |
TRUE |
|
|
How many holes are in the GREEN smoke grenade? |
4 |
|
|
How long does the 40MM flare last? |
40 seconds |
|
|
WHAT TYPE/CALIBER OF AMMO DOES IT USE? (P226) |
9mm |
|
|
HOW DOES IT OPERATE? (P226) |
RECOIL-OPERATED SEMI-AUTO IN EITHER SINGLE OR DOUBLE ACTION. |
|
|
DOES IT HAVE ANY SAFETIES? (P226) |
NO |
|
|
WHAT TYPE OF SAFETY FEATURES DOES IT HAVE? (P226) |
DECOCKING LEVER ON THE LEFT SIDE. |
|
|
WHAT IS THE AMMO CAPACITY? (P226) |
15+1 |
|
|
WHEN FIELD STRIPPING, WHAT IS THE FIRST STEP? |
CLEAR AND SAFE |
|
|
WHAT IS THE MAX EFFECTIVE RANGE? (M4) |
500M |
|
|
WHAT IS THE AMMO CAPACITY? (M4) |
30+1 |
|
|
WHAT TWO MAIN ASSEMBLIES DOES IT BREAK DOWN TO? (M4) |
THE UPPER AND LOWER RECIEVERS |
|
|
WHAT IS THE BARREL LENGTH? (M4) |
14.5 INCHES |
|
|
HOW DOES IT OPERATE? (M4) |
GAS OPERATED, MAGAZINE FED, FULL OR SEMI AUTO |
|
|
WHAT DOES IT WEIGH WHEN EMPTY? (.50 cal/M2HB) |
84LBS |
|
|
WHAT IS THE RATE OF FIRE?(.50 cal/M2HB) |
450-550 RPM |
|
|
WHAT IS THE BARREL LENGTH?(.50 cal/M2HB) |
45 INCHES |
|
|
WHAT TYPE OF OPERATION DOES IT DO?(.50 cal/M2HB) |
RECOIL OPERATED FULLY-AUTO 0R SINGLE SHOT BELT FED. |
|
|
WHAT IS THE MAX EFFECTIVE RANGE?(.50 cal/M2HB) |
1830METERS |
|
|
WHAT TYPE OF AMMO DOES IT USE?(M240) |
7.62MM LINKED |
|
|
WHAT IS ITS RATE OF FIRE?(M240) |
750-950 RPM |
|
|
WHAT TYPE OF OPERATION?(M240) |
GAS-OPERATED BELT FED FULLY-AUTO |
|
|
WHAT DOES THIS WEAPON ALLOW YOU TO DO THAT THE OTHERS DO NOT, WHEN IT COMES TO THE RATE OF FIRE?(M240) |
THE RATE OF FIRE IS ADJUSTABLE WITH THE GAS REGULATOR. |
|
|
What is the maximum range of the M4? |
3600 meters |
