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262 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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When are you required to test the crew oxygen mask? |
The crew O2 mask check is part of the Safety Check. |
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What type of cargo may be carried in the AFT cargo compartment that may NOT be carried in the FWD cargo compartment?
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Live cargo |
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What is the radar hazard area?
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2 feet |
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What is the minimum pavement for a 180 degree turn for the CR7
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CR7: 75 feet |
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What is the minimum pavement for a 180 degree turn for the CR9 |
CR9: 80 feet &1 inch |
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How many PBEs are required for dispatch?
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4, one for each Fire Extinguisher. |
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What test requires coordination between the Flight Attendant and Flightdeck Crew during the interior inspection? |
The testing of the lavatory smoke detectors requires verification by a Flightdeck crewmember that the “SMOKE FWD/AFT LAV” EICAS message is displayed. |
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What precaution must be taken before turning the NWS switch ON during the After Start Checklist?
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Be sure that the tow bar and/or chocks have been removed and ground crew clear. |
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If one of the STALL PTCT PUSHER switches is selected OFF will the stall pusher be operational?
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No. |
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How can the stick pusher be stopped?
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By pressing and holding the AP/SP DISC switch on the pilot or copilot control wheel, or by selecting either of the STALL PTCT PUSHER switches OFF. |
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May you depart with one of the STALL PTCT PUSHER switches off?
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No |
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Can cross side NAV data be displayed on the PFD and MFD?
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Yes, by rotating the NAV SOURCE knob on the DCP. |
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How is TCAS information displayed on the MFD?
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The TFC button on the DCP is used to select the TCAS page. As long as the FMS MAP range is currently selected to a range of 40NM or less, the TCAS information will be overlaid on the FMS MAP page, and larger ranges can be subsequently selected. If the current FMS MAP range is greater than 40nm, the TCAS MFD page will be presented. |
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How is EGPWS terrain information displayed on the MFD?
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Automatically if encountered, or overlaid if selected. |
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How is the EGPWS display removed from the MFD?
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Pushing the TERR/WX pushbutton on the DCP, or inhibit the EGPWS by selecting the TERRAIN OFF switchlight on the GND PROX Panel. |
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When the RA TEST button is pressed what should the radar altitude read?
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50 feet. |
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What is the function of the EICAS position on the Display Reversionary Panel?
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To display ED2 information on the MFD. |
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What does the response “TESTED” in reference to SIDE PANEL... on the Originating Check indicate? |
The Display Reversionary Panel has been selected to PFD and EICAS to check for proper display, and then returned to NORM, the RA test push button on the Air Data Reference Panel has been pressed to check that 50 feet is displayed on the PFD, and the center of the Baro knob has been pressed to ensure 29.92 is set on the altimeter, stall protection switch, clock, and wiper switch, etc. |
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To what figure should the MDA be set with a DA of 512 feet on a CAT I precision approach?
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520 feet. MDAs are in 10-foot increments for precision approaches. |
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What are the primary sources of AC power?
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Two engine and one APU driven generators |
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What is the normal source of DC power? Four Transformer Rectifier Units (TRUs) rated at |
120 amps each. |
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How many batteries are installed and where are they located?
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Two nicad batteries, one located in the aft equipment bay (APU), and the other located in the nose compartment with the TRUs (Main). |
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What are the individual components that make up an IDG (integrated drive generator)?
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A constant speed drive and an electrical generator. |
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Under what conditions will a GCU remove it’s associated generator from the bus system?
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Over or under voltage, over or under frequency, generator or bus overcurrent, or generator phase out of sequence. |
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What is an IDG? What are an IDGs two primary components? What is the function of the CSD? |
Two IDGs supply 115 volt, 400 Hz electrical power to four AC buses. The IDGs consist of two components: a CSD and an electrical generator. The generators must turn at a constant RPM to produce a constant 400 Hz. The CSD performs like an automatic transmission, using its own integral oil system to change variable engine speed to a constant generator RPM. |
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How can an IDG be manually disconnected from its engine?
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By pressing the IDG DISC switch on the Electrical Services Panel. |
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Once disconnected, can the IDG be reconnected in flight? |
No. |
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What does a green AVAIL light illuminated on the AC External switchlight indicate?
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Power is connected and is of correct phase, voltage, and frequency. |
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What is the function of the AC ESS XFER switchlight?
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To manually transfer or to indicate the AC ESS BUS is looking for power from an alternate source. |
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When will power to the AC Essential Bus automatically switch from AC Bus 1 to AC Bus 2?
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When AC Bus 1 is not powered. |
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What is power source priority for AC Bus 1, AC Bus 2?
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AC Bus 1 - GEN 1, APU, GEN 2, External Power. AC Bus 2 - GEN 2, APU, GEN 1, External Power. |
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How can AUTO XFER be manually inhibited?
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By pushing the AUTO XFER switchlight on the electrical services panel. |
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What does illumination of the amber FAIL lamp in the AUTO XFER switchlight indicate? Is this switchlight manual or automatic? What is the function of this switch, what does it do? |
, the GCU can inhibit the normal bus transfer logic. Normal bus priority logic allows for automatic bus transferring when the normal power generation source is changed or interrupted. When the GCU senses a FAULT condition in its associated main AC bus, the GCU will generate an AC 1(2) AUTO XFER caution message. Although the generator may still remain operating and the bus powered, the AUTO XFER FAIL will prohibit the normal automatic bus transfer. |
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What controls the operation of the DC TIE CONTACTORS?
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Automatically controlled by the two DCPCs (DC power centers). |
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What is the ExpressJet policy on crewmembers resetting flightdeck electrical Circuit Breakers in flight? |
A circuit breaker must not be reset or cycled (i.e., opened or closed) unless doing so is consistent with explicit procedures specified in the OM/QRH or unless, in the judgment of the PIC that resetting or cycling of the circuit breaker is necessary for the safe completion of the flight. |
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If AC external power is to be utilized, explain how AC power is properly established?
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If the green AVAIL light is illuminated, press the external AC switchlight to supply the electrical system. |
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The CR7/9 DC system has how many batteries? Where are they located? One is referred to as the __?__ battery and the other is the _?_ battery. Which is bigger? What is continuously powered by both batteries? What role do the batteries play in a total AC power failure? Can you discharge an engine or APU fire bottle in a cold, dark airplane? |
Battery power distribution is used on the ground for APU starting and can provide an emergency DC power supply inflight, should all AC power be lost and the ADG fail. The APU battery is rated at 24 volt 43 amp/hr, and is located in the aft equipment bay. The MAIN battery has an output of 24 volts DC, and rates at 17 amp/hrs, located in the nose compartment with the TRUs. |
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What areas are protected by the fire and/or overheat protection system?
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Engines, APU, main landing gear bay and bleed ducts |
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What are the benefits of the dual detection loop system?
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Redundancy and Dispatchability Ref. CR7/9 OM 11-8.1 |
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How many Firex bottles are provided for engine fire extinguishing?
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2 Halon bottles. |
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How many Firex bottles are provided for APU fire extinguishing?
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1 Halon bottle. |
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When will APU fire extinguishing activate automatically?
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On the ground in the event of an APU fire. |
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After pressing the FIRE DETECTION/FIREX MONITOR test switch what is the indication of a successful test?
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A “FIRE SYS OK” advisory msg is displayed. Ref. CR7/9 OM 11-8.3 |
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What are the aural and visual indications of a successful APU Fire Warning test prior to APU start?
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A “FIRE SYS OK” advisory msg is displayed. Ref. CR7/9 OM 2-3.3 & 11-8.3 |
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What are the aural and visual indications of a successful Fire protection test during the Originating Check? |
“FIRE SYS OK” advisory msg is displayed. |
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How many smoke detectors are in the cargo compartment?
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3 in the forward cargo compartment and 2 in the aft cargo compartment Ref. CR7/9 OM 11-8.2 |
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Which areas are protected by the dual loop system?
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Engines, APU, and Bleed Ducts |
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What powers the fuel system ejector pumps (transfer, scavenge, main)?
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Motive Flow |
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What does selecting either of the fuel boost pump switch lights on cause?
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Arms both boost pumps, and if a low fuel feed pressure is detected, both pumps turn on |
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How can fuel be manually transferred from the left wing tank to the right wing tank?
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Normal crossflow is automatic, but manual crossflow is accomplished by selecting the XFLOW AUTO OVERRIDE to MAN, then selecting the wing you wish to send fuel to (R XFLOW). Fuel can also be balanced in flight using the GRAVITY XFLOW valve. |
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When is automatic fuel transfer initiated (wing tank to wing tank)?
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When a 200-lb. imbalance exists. |
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How is fuel heated?
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Engine oil to fuel heat exchangers. |
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In flight, if low pressure is detected in the left engine feed line, which boost pump ON light will illuminate?
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Both boost pump lights will illuminate if they are both selected ON Ref. CR7/9 OM 11-11.6 |
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On the ground, if low pressure is detected in the left engine feed line, which boost pump ON light will illuminate? |
Both, if both are selected ON. |
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How is fuel transferred from the center tank to the wing tanks?
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Through motive flow (transfer ejectors). Ref. CR7/9 OM 11-11.2 & 11.3 |
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Why are both fuel boost pumps selected off for single engine taxi?
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To prevent a fuel imbalance |
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An Amber FUEL IMBALANCE caution message is displayed when?
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When the fuel imbalance exceeds 800 lbs. |
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Where is engine fuel feed temperature displayed?
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On the FUEL synoptic page. |
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Where is bulk fuel temperature displayed?
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On the FUEL synoptic page. Ref. CR7/9 OM 11-11.1 |
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Are the fuel check valves that are checked during the first flight of the day checks depicted on the FUEL synoptic page? |
No. |
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How does fuel get to the APU?
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The APU fuel pump feeds fuel from the left wing tank. |
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What is a fuel collector tank and its purpose? |
All fuel supplied to the engines passes through collector tanks. The left and right collector tanks are seated inside the center tank at a point lower than both wing tanks. The tanks are kept full by gravity-feed lines to their respective wing tanks, and jet pumps when the engines are operating. |
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What are the two methods of fuel crossflow and how do you accomplish each? |
The CRJ 700/900 has two methods of fuel crossflow: powered (auto or manual) and gravity. Ref.CR7/9 OM 11-11.4 |
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How many fuel BOOST PUMPS does the CR7/9 have and how do they work? |
Control of the boost pumps is provided with two switchlights: L BOOST PUMP and R BOOST PUMP. Selecting either of the switchlights on, energizes and arms both boost pumps, and if a low fuel feed pressure is detected, both boost pumps turn ON. |
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What is the purpose of the first flight of the day check of the FUEL Check Valve on the Engine Start Check? |
A check valve is installed in between the fuel pump common manifold and the fuel feed manifold downstream of the main ejector. The check valve is installed to prevent the main fuel feed pressure from entering the common duct. |
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How and when do you accomplish the FUEL Check Valve test? |
First flight of the day after one engine has been started: • Check for L/R FUEL LO PRESS caution message on the secured |
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The pneumatic system can receive pressurized air from what sources?
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The 6th or 10th stage bleed air, APU, and external ground air. |
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How is the distribution of bleed air managed?
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Automatically controlled by the two ACSCs when in auto, and can be manually controlled using the BLEED AIR control panel. |
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What determines whether 6th or 10th stage bleed air is used?
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The ACSC automatically determines which bleed air source is to be used based on system demand. |
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When are the bleed valves selected to manual?
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When the QRH or OM calls for it. |
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Can the APU supply the bleed air to the anti-ice system?
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No. |
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With the bleed valves selected closed can external air be used?
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Yes. |
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With the bleed valves selected to AUTO, will selecting the bleed source to R ENG change the bleed source? |
No, the bleed source rotary switch is only operable when the bleed valves switch is selected to MANUAL. |
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What actions are initiated on the pneumatic system by selecting the START pushbutton?
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The isolation valve OPENS, the pack valves CLOSE, the associated start valve OPENS, and the engine air turbine starter (ATS) is engaged. |
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With the APU operating what parameters must be met for the automatic switching from APU bleed air to engine bleed air after takeoff? |
Gear up, flaps 20° or less and the thrust levers reduced from the TOGA detent. |
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On approach, with the APU operating what other parameters must be met for automatic switching of the bleed air from the engines back to the APU? |
Flaps>20° or gear down. |
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With the BLEED VALVES selected to MANUAL, can the APU supply the anti ice system?
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No, in MANUAL mode with the APU as the bleed source, selection of wing or cowl anti ice will cause the APU LCV to close, but will not open the engine bleed valves. |
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What is the primary function of the APU?
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To provide AC electrical power |
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What is the secondary function of the APU?
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To supply pneumatic power to the engine air turbine starters (ATS) and for air conditioning packs. |
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What DC voltage is required to start the APU from battery power?
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22 Volts from main and APU batteries |
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How is the APU fuel feed SOV opened?
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It opens when the APU PWR FUEL switchlight is pressed in (on). |
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Under what conditions will the APU SOV close automatically?
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If a fire is detected, the ECU will close the SOV |
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What does the amber PUMP FAIL light illuminating in the APU PWR FUEL switchlight indicate?
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APU pump has failed. |
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What does the amber SOV FAIL light illuminating in the APU PWR FUEL switchlight indicate?
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Indicates failed APU fuel feed SOV. |
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What does the white START light illuminating in the APU PWR FUEL switchlight indicate?
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APU starter motor is engaged. |
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What does the green AVAIL light illuminating in the APU PWR FUEL switchlight indicate?
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APU is available for electrical loading. |
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What indications are you looking for when the START/STOP switch is pressed for APU start?
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Amber START light in switch illuminates, APU START status message appears, and prior to 60% RPM, START light and status message go out. |
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What 4 indications are you looking for when the APU PWR FUEL switch is pushed?
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APU IN BITE status message, APU SOV OPEN status message, APU gauges appear and APU door opens. |
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During APU start at what RPM should the white Status APU START and the START light in the START/STOP switch/light go out? |
Before 60%. |
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Can the APU supply bleed air to the packs during the climb phase of flight?
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Only with the BLEED SOURCE switch selected to APU and the BLEED VALVE selector switched to MANUAL, up to 25,000 feet. |
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What are the APU starter limits?
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Three starts in one hour with 2 minutes between starts. |
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What is the maximum altitude for the APU to be used for engine starting? |
21,000 feet Note: This is good to know but is not a memory item. It is a system limitation that appears in QRH checklist. There is no procedure to start an engine in flight from memory. |
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What type of fire protection does the APU have?
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Dual loop detection with one bottle for extinguishing. |
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What is initiated by pressing the START switchlight on the START/IGNITION panel?
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The isolation valve opens, FADEC opens the starter valve on the associated engine to allow pressure from the bleed air manifold to engage the air turbine starter, white light illuminates in the associated START switchlight, L or R ENGINE START status message is posted. |
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What is initiated by advancing the associated power lever during the start sequence?
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The FADEC turns on the ignition, introduces fuel, monitors for engine lightoff, and controls engine acceleration. |
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Is AC electrical power required for engine starting?
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No. |
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When starting with DC power only, which engine is started first?
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The right engine should be started first. |
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Above what RPM may the starter not be engaged?
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45% N2 |
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For what conditions will the FADEC auto abort during start?
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On the ground, FADEC will abort an engine start for a HOT or HUNG start. |
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Under what conditions will both ignition systems be activated?
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Activated by FADEC when the Stall Warning Computer senses the trip points have been exceeded, when starting an engine in flight, when continuous ignition is selected and during flameout. |
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The CR7/9 has how many hydraulic systems? |
There are three systems with two pumps each. System one and two have an engine driven pump, EDP, mechanically driven by the accessory drive of the engine, and a backup electrically driven ACMP, powered from the opposite side IDG. System 3 has two ACMPs with 3A as the main pump. The 3A switch has only two selections, ON & OFF, |
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systems? In cruise flight you experience a left engine failure. How many hydraulic systems are lost? How many hydraulic pumps are lost? |
Ref. CR7/9 OM 11-12 |
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How are the primary flight controls actuated?
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Hydraulic power. |
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The rudder system is powered by which hydraulic system?
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All three systems. |
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How many hydraulic systems are on the CR7/CR9?
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3 |
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Which of the hydraulic systems have engine driven pumps as well as electric pumps?
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Systems 1 and 2 |
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What does the AUTO position on the HYD 1, 2 and 3B do?
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Causes the B pumps to operate when their respective bus is powered and the flaps are not at 0° |
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Do the B pumps activate automatically after an engine failure?
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No |
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How many hydraulic pumps are lost following and engine failure?
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Only the engine driven pump |
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Which ACMP runs continuously during normal operations?
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3A |
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How is hydraulic system fluid cooled?
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Systems 1 & 2 are cooled by a ram-air/oil heat exchanger and system 3 hydraulic pumps are located in the wheel well area and do not require dedicated cooling. |
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With all AC busses powered and pumps 1B and 2B selected to the AUTO position, when will the pumps operate?
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When the flaps are out of the 0 position. |
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Which hydraulic pump automatically operates from the ADG Bus during ADG deployment?
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Pump 3B |
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How does the crew know there is adequate hydraulic fluid quantity?
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By checking the HYD synoptic page and verifying fluid quantities are green. |
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What are the Normal Hydraulic quantities?
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Green quantity indications. |
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What is the purpose of the two guarded switches labeled L HYD SOV and R HYD SOV ? |
control the operation of the hydraulic shut off valves. These switches provide an alternate means of closing the HYD SOVs and shutting off the flow of hydraulic fluid from the EDPs, without having to shutdown the engine. |
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What is the purpose of the HYD SOV switchlights on the overhead panel?
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To close the respective hydraulic SOV without the need to shutdown the engine. |
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What does the EICAS caution message “ELT ON” mean?
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ELT is transmitting |
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What is the correct position for the ELT switch?
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Arm/Reset |
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What is the function of the N/100% selector on the crew O2 mask?
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To select either a mixture of ambient air with oxygen or 100% oxygen. |
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How is oxygen supplied to the passengers?
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Chemical oxygen generators mounted in overhead compartments. Ref. CR7/9 OM 7-2.15 |
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At what cabin altitude does the amber CABIN ALT caution activate?
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Greater than 8,500 feet, but less than 10,000 feet. |
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At what cabin altitude does the red CABIN ALT warning activate?
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Greater than 10,000 feet. Ref. CR7/9 OM 11-7. |
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You are boarding and a FAA Inspector presents his 110-A and informs you he is going to conduct an enroute inspection. The EICAS oxygen pressure is 1050 psi. What are your options? |
First, make an entry in the DMIL that the oxygen pressure is below the requirement for 2 Crew and 1 OBS. Then the two options are to have the oxygen serviced to above the required amount, in this case 1107 psi. If no service is available or with the Dispatcher you determine the flight will be unduly delayed, the jumpseat may be deferred. |
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How is cabin pressurization maintained?
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Cabin pressurization is maintained by regulating the amount of air leaked overboard through an outflow valve. |
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What does the LDG ELEV knob on the pressurization control panel do?
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Sets the landing elevation on the status page |
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What is CPAM? What does CPAM do? |
A micro-processor in the pressure control panel (CPCP computer) along with the active CPC provide (CPAM) functions including pressurization presentation data for the EICAS display The EICAS indications provided by are: • cabin rate of climb RATE |
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What happens if CPAM fails? |
When the cabin altitude reaches 8,500 ft., the active controller and the CPCP computer generate a CABIN ALT caution message. If the cabin were to exceed 10,000 ft. or greater, a CABIN ALT warning message along with a ’CABIN PRESSURE’ aural is provided. The CPCP computer also illuminates the NO SMOKING/FASTEN SEAT BELT signs if in AUTO. At 14,000 ft. the passenger oxygen masks auto deploy. In case of CPCP computer failure, the redundant CPC generates the EICAS messages, but the auto drop-down passenger mask function, along with the auto SEAT BELT/NO SMOKING function are lost. |
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What happens when EMER DEPR switchlight is pressed in (on)?
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Pressing the EMER DEPR switchlight causes the Cabin Pressure Controller to drive the outflow valves fully open, climbing the cabin to 14,500+/- 500 feet or ambient if lower. |
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What does pressing the PRESS CONTROL switch light twice do?
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Switches Pressure Controllers. |
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Flying at FL 200, the EMER DEPRESS switch/light is pressed, what pressure altitude should the cabin reach?
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14,500 +/-500 feet. |
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Where is the unpressurized takeoff procedure found? |
CR7 & CR9 QRH VOL 1 |
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Where is the unpressurized landing procedure found?
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CR7 & CR9 QRH VOL 1 |
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When might you be required to perform an unpressurized takeoff?
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APU deferred and anytime directed by the takeoff data |
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What is the maximum cabin pressure differential for opening the cabin door at the gate?
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The cabin must be completely depressurized prior to opening any of the airplane doors. |
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What is the function of the PRSOV on the CR7/9, what controls them, do they fail open or closed, and can you manually close it? |
Each engine has an engine bleed valve, also known as a PRSOV. The valves feature a pressure regulating function to limit engine pressure discharge to 45 PSI (+/- 3 psi), and thus valve position is relative to engine speed. The valves are electrically controlled by their associated ACSC, needing electricity and bleed air to open, (they fail closed). |
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How many motors are available to activate the outflow valve?
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Three DC motors |
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During a cargo overheat condition, what does the AIR position of the CARGO switch provide?
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Selecting AIR removes power from the over-temp circuit and removes the EICAS message. |
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What does the COND AIR position of the CARGO switch provide?
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Recirculated cabin exhaust air mixed with fresh air warmed by a thermal heater to the cargo bay area. |
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When is COND AIR required to be used in the CARGO compartment?
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When live cargo is carried. |
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May live cargo be carried in the FWD cargo compartment?
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No, only the aft cargo compartment is ventilated. Ref. CR7/9 OM 11-7.4 FOM 7-1.19 |
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Why does the “CARGO OVERHEAT” abnormal procedure have you select the AIR position?
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Overheat protection is only provided in COND AIR, power for the over-temperature circuit is removed when in AIR. |
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The CR7/9 has how many cargo bays? Are both pressurized? If shipping live cargo is there a reason to use a specific cargo bay? |
While both cargo bays are pressurized, only the aft cargo bay is ventilated with recirculated cabin air. |
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When would the Ram Air switch be used?
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During unpressurized flight, or when QRH directed. Ref. CR7/9 OM 11-7.1 |
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Briefly describe the bleed air leak detection and warning system, dual or single loop, what is monitored, etc. |
The EICAS presentation divides the detection system into four zones: left and right bleed duct, and left and right anti-ice duct. Dual loops are used for leak detection in the bleed ducts within the engine pylon and aft equipment bay, and the anti-ice ducts located inside the aft equipment bay and wing leading edges. Both loops must detect a leak (high temp) before the applicable warning is generated. |
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What is an ACSC? What does it do? |
Air Conditioner System Controller. Two dual-channel ACSCs monitor and control the air conditioning and bleed air systems. Only one channel of each controller is active at once, with ACSC 1 controlling the left pack, and ACSC 2 controlling the right. The active and standby channels are linked and cross talk for redundancy. |
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What is a RARV? Do the CR7 and CR9 have a RARV? |
Ram Air Regulating Valve. The CRJ 900 PACK also incorporates a RARV. The RARV Is automatically controlled by the ACSCs, and regulates the ram air flowing over the pre-cooler. This adjusts the temperature of the bleed air entering the heat exchangers. |
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When will passenger oxygen automatically deploy? |
Cabin altitude >14,000 feet |
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What happens to the pack during a “PACK TEMP” condition?
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The affected pack turns off. |
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How are the pack heat exchangers cooled?
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By air from the ram air scoop. |
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At flight level 330 for some reason you press the Ram Air Ventilation switchlight in. What will happen?
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Nothing, Check valve |
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What is AILC and what does it do?
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Anti-Ice and Leak Detection Controller. The AILC monitors the bleed air and anti-icing ducts for leakage. |
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How does the Anti Ice Leak detection Controller (AILC) maintain wing anti icing with the slats extended? |
Two separate temperatures are used. With slats extended, wing anti-ice valves are modulated to maintain a higher temperature |
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Does the power have to be maintained above the white arcs on the N2 gauge when using wing anti ice?
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No, the white arc is generated by the anti-ice switch position and is a reminder that for OPTIMUM anti icing the N2 core speed should be kept |
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How can the left engine provide bleed air to the right wing?
|
By using the WING A/I CROSS BLEED switch on the bleed air panel. Ref. CR7/9 OM 11-13.1 |
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What does the WING OVHT EICAS message mean?
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Indicates an overheat condition in either the left or right wing anti-ice duct. |
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Wing anti ice valves fail to the closed position, what position do the cowl valves fail?
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Open. The cowl anti ice valves require air pressure and electrical power to close. |
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Is there bleed leak detection in the aft equipment bay?
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Yes, the two channel Anti Ice Leak detection Controller monitors the dual loop system in the equipment bay. |
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In flight you encounter icing conditions and select wing and cowl anti-ice ON. How do you know what adjustment to make for engine power? |
When the thrust levers are in any of the detents and new air conditioning or anti-icing demands are placed on the engines, the N1 target rpm will change to compensate for the new bleed air demands. When the thrust levers are in the cruise range and the bleed air or anti-icing configuration is changed, the N1 digital reference and N1 caret are changed to reflect the new maximum cruise (CRZ) thrust limit. If operating at or near maximum cruise power, it may be required to adjust the thrust levers to prevent exceeding the new maximum cruise thrust limit. |
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With a probe heater switch in the OFF position, will the probe be heated in flight?
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Yes, the Air Data Sensor Heater Controllers (ADSHCs) heat all probes in flight regardless of switch position. |
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What besides the beacon is turned on with the Beacon switch while on the ground?
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The FDR. |
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Where are the Recog/Taxi lights located?
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In the wing roots. |
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Which external lights must be on for all night taxi operations? . |
NAV, BEACON, RECOG/TAXI and WING INSP lights |
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Why is the Flightdeck Dome light turned off on the Shut Down Check?
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It is possible to leave the dome light on and discharge the battery. |
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What does the AUTO position of the PASS SIGNS switches provide? . |
If cabin altitude exceeds 10,000 feet, the NO SMOKING and SEAT BELTS signs illuminate. If the landing gear is extended, or if the flaps are greater than 0°, the SEAT BELTS sign illuminates |
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What is the position of the Emergency Lights switch in normal operation?
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ARM |
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With the Emergency Lights switch in the ARM position, when would the Emergency lights activate?
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Loss of power to the DC or AC Essential Buses. |
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How long will the emergency lights provide illumination?
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Approximately 15 minutes of lighting |
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How are the floor track lights powered?
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Photo luminescent strips absorb light energy and will glow in the dark. |
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What functions do the LH/RH ENG FIRE PUSH switchlights perform when pressed in?
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Arms squibs on both engine bottles, fuel, hydraulic, and bleed-air SOVs closed on affected engine, affected engine-driven generator shuts down. |
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Pushing the APU Fire PUSH switch, on the glareshield, performs what functions?
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·Bottle squib is armed, green bottle light illuminates |
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What warnings are provided to warn the pilot of approaching stall?
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Aural, visual, and tactile (stick shaker). If no corrective action is taken, the stick pusher is activated. |
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How is the stall warning system tested?
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Captain & First Officer STALL PTCT switches - ON. STALL switchlight - Press momentarily: CONT IGNITION status message illuminated. Stick Shakers - ON. Stick Pusher - ON. STALL switchlights (2) - Illuminated. STALL switchlights (2) - Extinguish. Stick Shakers/Pushers - OFF. CONT IGNITION message - Extinguish. |
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What aural messages should be heard during the EGPWS test? |
“GLIDE SLOPE...PULL UP...TERRAIN...WINDSHEAR”. |
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How is a Windshear Alert provided to the flight crew?
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By amber Windshear caption on the PFD and the AMI indicators. |
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How is a Windshear Warning provided to the flight crew?
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By a red Windshear caption on the PFD, AMI indicators, flight director guidance, and an audio warning “WINDSHEAR”. |
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Is Windshear escape guidance provided?
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Windshear escape guidance is provided for decreasing performance shears only. |
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Is the proper Pilot reaction to Windshear alerts to follow the Flight Director Command Bars or to follow the AMI indicators? |
Follow the flight director command bars but, the flight director command bars will provide you windshear escape guidance only for decreasing performance shears. |
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What is the purpose of the ROLL SEL switchlight on the glareshield panel?
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The amber ROLL SEL portion illuminates after the ROLL DISC handle has been pulled, giving cross side spoileron control. The pilot with the operating aileron then presses the ROLL SEL switchlight to signal the SSCU to give control of both spoilerons to his control column. The PLT/CPLT part of the switchlight illuminates to indicate which pilot has selected control. |
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During a jammed aileron condition what does the amber ROLL SEL light in the ROLL SEL switch come on to indicate? |
The roll disconnect handle has been pulled and that the ROLL SEL switch on the unjammed side must be pressed to transfer the spoileron control to the operable side. |
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Does the ROLL SEL switch have to be selected for the operable aileron circuit after an aileron PCU runaway? |
No. PLT ROLL or CPLT ROLL has been automatically selected for spoileron control. |
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What guidance does the Flight Director provide in Takeoff mode?
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Optimized pitch attitude referenced to V speeds (V2 and VR ratio) and flap setting. Lateral Guidance -Weight off wheels heading hold with 5 Angle of Bank authority. |
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When is SPEED mode selected on takeoff?
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When the aircraft accelerates to V2+15 KIAS. |
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When should APPR mode be selected when being vectored for an ILS approach?
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When cleared for the instrument approach. |
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How can you center the Heading Bug on the FCP?
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Pushing the center of the heading knob aligns the heading bug to the current aircraft heading. Ref. CR7/9 OM 11-2.3 |
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Pushing the button on the FCP SPD knob performs what function?
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Changes the FCC speed reference from IAS to MACH commands. |
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Pushing the button in the FCP CRS knob performs what function?
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Centers the HSI needle TO the tuned VOR station. |
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What is the function of the B/C button on the FCP?
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Arms the Back course Mode to track the received LOC course reciprocal. |
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Selecting APPR mode enables what?
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Commands LOC and GS capture and tracking and clears TURB and 1⁄2 Bank. Also provides more precise tracking and activates both Flight Directors. |
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What is the function of the XFR switch?
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Selects the active flight director, which will follow guidance commands from the selected side flight control computer |
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What is the primary means to turn OFF the Autopilot?
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Either AP DISC button on the control wheel. |
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What are the manual methods used to turn OFF the Autopilot?
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·Either AP DISC button on the control wheel (normal) ·Activating the Stab trim ·Either TOGA pushbutton ·YD DISC button |
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` What does the Airspeed Trend Vector indicate?
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Predicts where the IAS will be in ten seconds. |
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How is the stall speed displayed to the pilots?
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By the Low Speed Cue (red/black checkerboard). |
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If the pilot’s PFD CRT fails, how can the PFD be displayed on the MFD?
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By selecting PFD 1 on the pilot’s Display Reversionary Panel. |
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What is meant by the response “As Required” to the “CVR CIRCUIT BREAKER” query on the shutdown checklist to the line? |
If a possible NTSB Reportable Incident, as defined in the FOM, has occurred, pull the CVR circuit breaker (CBP-2 V-7), and state “Pulled” otherwise state “Normal.” |
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In the event the Primary EICAS CRT (ED1) fails how is the information then displayed?
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Automatically on ED2 |
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How can the information normally displayed on ED2 be seen?
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By changing the selector knob on the Display Control Panel to EICAS, the status and synoptic pages are shown on the associated MFD |
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What happens and what can be done if ED1 fails? |
ED1 fails, the primary page is automatically displayed on ED2 and the ECP is deactivated. This ensures that the engine instruments and CAS messages are always in view. Failure of ED2 also deactivates the ECP. Changing the selector knob to EICAS on either DRP will make the status and synoptic pages available on that MFD. Ref. CR7/9 OM 11-14.11 |
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What does the aural warning “CONFIG TRIM” indicate on takeoff?
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The horizontal stabilizer, rudder or aileron trim is outside the takeoff (green) range. |
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What are the four levels of CAS messages? |
· Warning · Caution · Advisory · Status |
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How are CAS Warnings indicated? |
· Triple Chime · Flashing Warning lights · Red light on the faulted switch or red EICAS indication · Sometimes an aural tone · Sometimes a voice message |
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If the ECP fails, what four buttons remain active? |
The PRI, STAT, CAS, and STEP buttons bypass the microprocessor, and should function even if the ECP has failed. |
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Pushing the CAS Pushbutton on the EICAS Control Panel (ECP), performs what function?
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Will ‘box’ the caution messages and display a MSGS icon, pushing again will display all caution messages. |
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What is used to lower the landing gear if there is a failure in the gear control circuitry or HYD system 3? |
By pulling the landing gear manual release handle, the uplocks are released, the nose strut is pulled into place by drag assisted by hydraulic actuator (Hyd Sys 2). The main gear partially freefalls, then is assisted to the down and locked position by the MLG auxiliary actuators. |
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Can the landing gear warning horn be muted?
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Yes, under some conditions. |
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How do you perform an Anti-Skid test?
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The ASCU (ANTI SKID CONTROL UNIT) does an automatic continuous self test and an initial start-up self test, however on the first flight of the day it is turned OFF and re-ARMED manually to verify Anti-skid messages. |
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At what brake temperature readout do the units turn white?
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They are white from 07. |
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At what brake temperature readout do the units turn red?
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They are red from 15. |
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Upon entering the flightdeck you notice a BTMS indication of 1, but the boxes are red. What action do you take? |
Call maintenance because an overheat of at least 15 has occurred. |
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What is the difference between a Huffer and a bottle, used for air starting?
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A bottle is a large cylinder containing a charge of high pressure air. A Huffer is a self contained high pressure air generation source. It has an engine and air pump but no storage. |
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Can you operate the air conditioning from a bottle?
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No. |
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What is a Crossbleed start?
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Starting an engine using bleed air from the running engine. |
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What are the necessary precautions when performing a Cross Bleed Start? |
· Position aircraft away from congested areas. · Never perform a crossbleed start at the gate. · Advise ATC you will be performing a Crossbleed start. · It may be necessary to move the aircraft to a start up pad. · The PIC could be responsible for damages caused by jet blast. |
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What detents are provided for the thrust levers?
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SHUT OFF, IDLE, CLIMB, TOGA, MAX POWER. |
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What is the indication the starter has cutout?
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At approximately 50% N2 L(R)AUTOIGNITION and L(R) ENGINE START messages extinguish. |
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What powers the FADEC?
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Below 50% N2 the aircraft electrical system powers the FADEC. Above 50% N2 an alternator on the accessory gearbox powers the FADEC. |
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The loss of an engine on takeoff will cause FADEC to increase power to what setting?
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APR, when the thrust levers are in the TOGA detent. |
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How many channels does each FADEC have?
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Two, one normally in command and the other in standby. |
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How is MCT selected?
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When the CLIMB detent is selected and an engine fails, MCT is set on the operating engine. |
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You aborted the engine start because you noticed a rapidly rising ITT. Must maintenance be notified?
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Maintenance must be notified if the ITT exceeded 815, or if a HOT Icon appeared, or if a malfunction is suspected. |
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Describe the proper procedure for setting takeoff power.
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The PF will press the TOGA switch, advance the thrust levers to approximately 75% N1, allow the engines to spool up together and the ITT to stabilize, then advance the thrust levers to the TOGA detent. The PF will then call “Set Power”. The PM then verifies the thrust levers are in the TOGA detent, and actual N1 agrees with N1 digital reference and N1 caret. PM then states “Power Set”. |
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Which engine ignition system(s) are supplied continuous ignition with the CONT switch/light?
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Both |
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Which ignition system does the DC Battery Bus power?
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B |
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When does continuous ignition come on automatically?
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FADEC will activate continuous ignition based upon angle-of-attack data from the stall warning computer. |
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What powers the Thrust reversers?
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Hydraulic systems 1 and 2. |
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Pushing the TOGA button(s) before takeoff, performs what function?
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Activates the Vertical and Lateral Takeoff (TO/TO) modes, also provides a runway update to the FMS. |
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Pushing TOGA for a Go-Around provides what FD guidance?
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Current heading hold with 5 Angle of Bank authority and 8 pitch. |
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What is the function of the pitch and roll disconnect handles?
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To disconnect control wheels in case of a jammed elevator or aileron. |
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What does the white status message FLAPS HALF SPEED indicate?
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Reduced flaps deployment and retraction rate. |
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What conditions must be met for GLD automatic arming?
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GLD switch - AUTO, and L & R thrust lever TOGA. |
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What conditions must be met for GLD deployment?
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GLD switch - AUTO, |
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What is APR?
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Automatic Performance Reserve. |
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What does APR provide?
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An automatic power increase on the operating engine in the event of an engine failure, during takeoff or go-around. |
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How is the APR system armed?
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The APR feature is armed automatically for takeoff or go-around. |
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What is APR? What arms APR? |
When an engine fails, the APR feature of the FADEC will automatically increase the thrust for the operating engine to the emergency thrust power setting of APR power. The APR feature is armed during takeoff when the N1 rpm of both engines are within 8% of scheduled takeoff power. On the approach, APR is armed for the go around when the approach bit is set |
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How do you select FLEX power? How can you deselect FLEX power if needed due to change of plans and/or a new TDM? |
Moving the thrust levers out and then back into the TOGA detent will clear FLX power and set normal TO power. |
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What is the function of the VOICE/BOTH switch on the audio control panels?
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Voice position: Station IDs are filtered out allowing only voice signals to be heard. Both position: Station IDs and voice signals are audible. |
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What is the function of the EMER position of the Emergency/Normal switch on the Audio Control Panels? |
Pilot: Two-way communication on VHF 1, audio on NAV1 and aural warnings. Copilot: Two-way communication on VHF2, audio on NAV2 and aural warnings. |
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In the event RTU 1 fails how can the # 1 radios be tuned?
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Press RTU 1 INHB switch/light on the backup tuning unit and the 1⁄2 pushbutton on RTU 2, the Radio page on the FMS can also be used. |
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The CR9 Radio Tuning Units provide what additional feature not found on the CR7?
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They provide centralized control and display for the HF radios. |
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What are the normal TCAS selections?
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AUTO, ON (traffic), REL, and NORM. |
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What effect if any will an inoperable transponder have on TCAS?
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Depending on the failure TCAS may stop displaying traffic and not give TA, RA or aural alerts. |
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What is the function of the XFR switch on the Radar Control Panel?
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It transfers control of the WX radar display range to pilot’s or copilot’s display control panel. |
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For what is the GCS (Ground Clutter Suppression) function used?
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It decreases the intensity of ground returns in order to allow precipitation returns to be assessed more accurately. |
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Is there a requirement to monitor a company frequency enroute?
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Yes |
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A small number of our CR7 aircraft are equipped with IRS. What is IRS and what does it do? |
Inertial Reference System. The IRS outputs attitude, heading, angular rates, linear acceleration and present position to various aircraft systems and displays. IRS performs two primary Attitude and Heading Determination , AND Position Determination |
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TheInertialReferenceSystemModeSelectUnithasthreemodes,OFF,NAV,andATT. What does each one do? |
• OFF – Removes power from IRS. • NAV – IRS operates in navigation mode. In navigation mode, the IRS outputs both ATT/Heading information and position information. |
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Is it possible to update the IRS position in flight in NAV mode? |
No. The IRS normally operates in navigation (NAV) mode. |
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In cruise flight you see a CDU message that says, IRS-FMS DISAGREE. Where can you find guidance on what this means and what you should do? |
The IRS position solution is different from that of the FMS. This message shows when the difference is 2.5 NM or greater within the first hour of flight. After the first hour this message shows if the IRS drift rate exceeds 2.5 NM per hour. However, if the FMS position has not been initialized or if the IRS was initialized in the air, it is annunciated only if FMS and IRS positions differ by more than 30.0 NM. Determine if a position update can correct the problem or if the IRS sensor should be disabled |
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You are completing the Safety Check on a CRJ 700 that is equipped with IRS. E xplain the step, IRS (If installed)......NAV. |
IRS Rapid Realignment: |
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You are completing the Shutdown Check on a CRJ 700 that is equipped withIRS. Explain the step, IRS (If installed)......OFF |
Wait a minimum of 3 minutes after setting the parking brake before turning off IRS 1 and IRS 2. After selecting OFF, wait a minimum of 20 seconds before depowering the aircraft. |
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Where do you find the proper radio frequency to monitor during flight?
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Communication maps for Delta Radio (COMM-1), ASA DTMF (COMM-2) and ARINC ( ARINC-1 or ARINC-5 for Mexico) are located in the ENROUTE section of the Jeppesen manual. |
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What is the function of MACH trim?
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The Mach trim system automatically adjusts the stabilizer trim as the aerodynamic center of pressure moves rearward above Mach .4. |
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In the event RTU 2 fails how can the # 2 radios be tuned? |
Press RTU 2 INHB switchlight on the back-up tuning unit and the 1⁄2 pushbutton on RTU 1, the Radio page on the FMS can also be used. |
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What is the priority of the stabilizer trim system? |
· Pilot manual trim · Co-pilot manual trim · Autopilot trim · Auto trim · Mach trim |
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What does it mean when a DISPLAY COOL caution message is displayed in flight?
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It indicates a low airflow condition. |
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What can be done to extinguish a DISPLAY COOL message that is posted in flight?
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Follow QRH procedure – use alternate fan STBY setting for flightdeck air. |
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What is the function of the NORM position for the DISPLY FAN on the AVIONICS COOLING panel?
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Two fans are provided for CRT cooling. One fan is primary in-flight with another for ground operations. |
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What is checked on the Aileron and Rudder Trim panel during the Originating Check?
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Verify free movement in both directions, and then set to center. |
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What happens if you press the DISC button on the yaw damper control panel?
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Both yaw dampers will disconnect. |
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Will the autopilot engage with the amber “YAW DAMPER” message posted?
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No, at least one yaw damper must be engaged for the autopilot to engage. |
