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212 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
The species most susceptible to penicillin toxicity are the:
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Hamster and guinea pig
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Ich is a disease of:
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Fish
|
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All primates should be tested for bovine, avian and human strains of tuberculosis
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True
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Vitamin C deficiency in guinea pigs is characterized by:
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Widespread hemorrage of muscles and joints
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The odor in ferrets is natural, and the result of an improper diet?
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False
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The most common cause of resperatory disease in rabbitrs is?
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Pasteurella
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concerning skin shedding in snakes/ The corneas become cloudy and bluish, but the corneal epithelium is not shed. (T/F)
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False
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The species of small mammals most likely to experience dystocia is the?
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guinea pig
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The species of small mammal which malocclusion of the premolars and molars is most commonly a serious problem is the?
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guinea pig
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Labratory animal medicine is best defined as:
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A specialty field of veterinary medicine concerned with diagnosis, treatment and prevention of disease of laboratory animals
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A rabbit doe typically nurses her young how many times a day?
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Once a day
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The United states department of agriculture quarantine period for psittacine birds arriving in the US from another country is?
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30 days
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The rhesus monkey is a nonhuman primate commonly used in research. It is considered a member of which group of monkeys?
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Old world monkeys
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"Kindling" is the term used to describe?
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Parturition of rabbits
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Concerning the regulation governing shipment of dogs, cats, and nonhuman primates: (T/F) All animals shipped must have been bred by a commercial vendor?
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False
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The only anilas considered in the animal welfare act in the US are, dogs and cats,birds,hamsters,guinea pigs, rabbits, nonhuman primates and cattle?
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False
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In female dogs, the entire estrous cycle spans:
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4-7mos
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In female cats the entire estrous cycle spans:
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21 days
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Bloody vulvar discharge is a sign of proestrus? (T/F)
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False
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The hematocrit (Packed cell volume) is the:
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Volume percentage of red blood cells in whole blood
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After a dog is determined to be infected with heartworms, the most appropriate additional diagnostic test before starting treatment include?
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Thoracic radiographs and chemistry panel
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The most common risk associated with bladder catheterization via the urethra is:
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bacterial infection
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The earliest time in gestation that radiographs can be used to diagnose pregnancy in dogs and cats is:
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45 days
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Pruritis is least likey to be seen in an animal with:
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Endocrine alopecia
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Regurgitation is?
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The expulsion of undigested food
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Muscle pain is a common sign of congestive heart failure? (T/F)
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False
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Pruritis is least likely to be seen in an animal with which of the following?
A:Flea-allergy dermatitis, B:Demodicosis, C:Sarcoptic mange, D:Endocrine alopecia |
Endrocrine Alopecia
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Common signs of CHF include all of the following except?
A:Ascites, B:dyspnea, C:Exercise intolerance, D:jugulr distention, E:muscle pain |
Muscle pain
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And 8 week old Collie puppy has had diarrhea for 3 days and you suspect a parasite infection. Gastrointestinal parasites this puppy is most likely to have include all of the following except?
A:coccidia, B:round worms, C:whipworms, D:hookworms, E:tapeworms |
Whipworms
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Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELIS) on serum from an apparently healthy cay is positive for feline leukemia virus infection. The most appropriate course of action is to?
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Retest the cat by ELISA or indirect fluorescent antibody test in 1 month or later
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Drug given to dogs by careful intravenous injection to kill adult heartworm is:
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Thiacetarsamide
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Major side effects of thiacetarsamide are?
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Hepatic and renal toxicity
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In cats, all of the following diseases may directly cause upper respiratory disease except:
A:Rhinotracheitis, B:Calicivirus infection, C:Chlamyhdial infection, D:Bacterial rhinitis |
Chlamyhdial infection
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A 3-year-old Golden Retriever is receiving 1 grain of Phenobarbital every 12 hours for epilepsy. One grain is equivalent to:
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65mg
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A 28# cocker spaniel has CHF and requires furosemide per os at 2mg/kg of body weight BID. At this dosage, this dog should be given:
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25mg every 12 hours
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A 55# dog develops acute pulmonary edema. The vet orderd treatment with 5% furosemide IV at 2mg/kg of body weight. What quantity of furosemide should you give?
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1ml
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A 28# mongrel has been vomiting for 3 days and is estimated to be 8% dehydrated. What approximate fluid volume should you give to rehydrate this dog?
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1000ml
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When administering IV fluids to a cat or dog, care must be taken to monitor for overhydration. The best initial indicator of overhydration is:
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Continued weight gain after the animal has been rehydrates appropiately
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You are using a microdrip to administer IV fluids to a cat. The cat must receive 360ml of fluid during a 24 hour period. At what rate should the fluid be infused?
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15drops/min
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You are attempting to infuse IV fluids to a cat, but the fluid is not flowing well. Which of the following is least likely to cause this problem?
A:the infusion line is kinked, B:the vein is obstruced, C:the bottle is held above the level of the vein, D:the needle or cath has become dislodged from the vein |
The bottle is held above the level of the vein
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In addition to IV administration, routes of fluid administration in small animals include all of the following except:
A:Per os, B:intraperitoneal, C:subcontaneous, D:intrathoracic, E:intraosseous |
Intrathoracic
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An example of an isotonic fluid is:
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0.9% saline
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Nutritional support can be given to anorectic animals by any of the following except:
A:Pharyngostomy tube, B:nasosophageal tube, C:Duodenostomy tube, D:Gastrotomy tube |
Duodenostomy tube
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When an owner calls saying their larger dog was fine about 1hour ago then starting rectching as well well as the stomach looks distended, what is the appropriate advice to give to this client?
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This could be a life-threatening emergency snd she should bring the dog to the clinic immediately
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The preferred enema solution for cats and dogs is:
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Warm tap water
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First aid for limb fracture should include all of the following except:
A:controlling hemorrhage, B:coving up wounds with sterile dressing, C:realigning the bone fragments, D:immobalizing the limb |
Realigning the bone fragments
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The anticonvuslant preferred for long term seizure control in dogs is:
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Phenobarbital
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In cats, a deficiency of which nutrient can cause central retinal degeneration?
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Taurine
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Which species normally has the highest urine specific gravity (1.065) of the following?
A:horses, B:cattle, C:pigs, D:cats, E:dogs |
Cats
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Careless application of a tourniquet to a limb during onychectomy in a cat may result in:
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Temporary radial nerve paralysis
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The most common cryogenic agent used in vet medicine is:
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Liquid nitrogen
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What is the appropriate treatment for a puppy with 2day duration of diarrhea with unknown origin?
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Bland diet
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What is the most common manifestiation/problem of transfusion with incompatible blood in cats?
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Resp arrest
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How long affter getting a panleukipenia vx should an owner wait to bring the kitten into a contaminated house?
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2 weeks
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Ferrets are highly susceptible to:
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canine distemper
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What is the gestation period for ferrets?
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42days
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What is the gestation period for a llama?
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330-360days
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Snakes usually only have a single functioning:
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Lung
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What type of gastointestinal system do giraffes have?
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Foregut fermentation with 4 forestomachs, similar to cattle
|
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From birth to weaning, a young llama is called a:
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Cria
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To aviod skin problems chinchillas should be provided with?
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With dust baths and a cool, dry environment
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female guinea pigs should be bred before 6-9 months to prevent:
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permanent fusion of pelvic symphysis
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The digestive system of elephants is similar to that of:
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Horses
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how often do rabbits normally nurse their young?
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SID
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the gestation length of a guinea pig is:
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63days
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WHich of the following species bears young that are percocial?
A:rat, B:mouse, C:gerbal, D:guinea pig |
Guinea pig
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Which of the following has the longest gestation period?
A:mouse, B;rat, C:guinea pig, D:chinchilla, E:hamster |
Chinichilla
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As you enter an ostrich enclosure, a male develops a spiral appearance to the neck. This is sign of:
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Aggression
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In nonhuman primates, venous blood is most easily collected from the:
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Femoral vein
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Penicillin and other penicillin-like antibiotics are NOT recommended for use in rodents and lagomorphs(rabitts, hares) because:
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They posses Gram-positive gut microorganisms; elimination of these organisms may result in fatal colibacillosis
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What nutrient is not synthesized by guinea pigs?
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Vitamin C
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Medical records:
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Are essential for the defense of civil or criminal suits for malpractice
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when are medical records considered invalid?
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When records have been altered
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When is maintenance of a written record/log required by federal law?
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Dispensing of controlled substances
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Clients are most likely to stop patronizing a particular vet practice because of:
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perceived lack of concern by the staff
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The major reason cited by employees who quit working for a practice is:
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Lack of reconition
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Used to scale below the gum line?
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Curette
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In horses, dental prophylaxis (floating) is recommended to:
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maintain normal occlusion
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In nonhuman primates, venous blood is most easily collected from the:
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Femoral vein
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Penicillin and other Penicillin-like antibiotics are NOT recommended for the use in rodents and lagomorphs (rabbits, hares) because:
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they possess Gram-positive gut microorganisms; elimination of these organisums may result in fatal colibacillosis
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Which nutrient is not synthesized by guinea pigs?
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Vitamin C
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Are essential for the defence of civil or criminal suits for malpractice
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Medical Records
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Medical records are considered legally valid unless
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they have been altered
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Is financial information and credit card info a problem with medical records?
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Normaly NOT a problem orented with medical records
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You need a written record /log required be federal law for what?
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Controlled Substances
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Clients are most likely to stop patronizing a particular veterinary practice because of
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Perceived lack of concern by the staff
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Clients patronize a veterinary practice for 2 main reasons: to resolve their animal's health problems and to:
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Feel that they are providing excellent care for their animal
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In interacting with a client, a crucial point on the interaction is:
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Any aspect of the interaction that forms the clinet's opinion about your practice
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The major reason cited by employees who quit working for a practice is
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Lack of recognition
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Used to scale below the gum line (subgingival):
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Curette
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In horses, dental prophylaxis (floating) is recommended to
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maintain normal occlusion
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In horses, dental calculus
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develops when their is malocclusion
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A horse's teeth should be floated
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Every year or more frequently, depending on diet
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You make a radiograph of a dog's pelvis that measures 16cm in diameter. You manually process the film for 5 min in the developer and 10 mins in the fixer. The radiograph is too dark. What is the most likely reason the film turned out too dark
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Chemicals were 73 degrees F
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Which technique produces an image with the greatest radiographic density
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200mA, 1/10sec
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What happens when radiographic film is stored past the expiration date listed on the carton
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The film becomes fogged
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Which grid requires the highest exposure technique
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15:1
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You make a radiograph using 10 mAs and 60kVp. You decide to double the radiographic density for a second film. Which technique should you use
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200mA, 0.10sec, 60kVp
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When making vertebral radiographs, it is important to collimate the beam down to the width of the vertebra. Why is this necessary
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Collimation reduces scatter radiation
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Why are screens used in veterinary radiography
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screens do not require as much radiation to produce the same radiographic density as direct exposure film
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mAs controls the
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quantity of electrons emitted
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Why should a radiation film badge be worn at collar level
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to monitor exosure of the thyroid gland and lenses of the eye
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What element clears the remaining silver halide crystals from exposed x-ray fil
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Fixer
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When radiographing the thorax, when should the x-ray film be exposed
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Peak inspiration
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Which of the following controls the contrast on the radiograph
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kVp
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A clear strip at the top of a manually processed film may be caused by
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low developer level
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What is the maximum intensity of the safelight on developing rooms
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7.5 watts
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If mAs is used to decrease radiographic density, by how much must 40 mAs be decreased to half the density
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20 mAs
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If your focal-film distance is increased from 36 inches to 72 inches, how must the mAs be adjusted to maintain the same radiographic density
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decraesed by a factor of 8
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Which technique would produce an abdominal radiograph with the greatest contrast
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16mAs, 46 kVp
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A radiograph made using 20 mAs and 80 kVp is too dark. Which technique is reasonable to use for the second attempt
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10 mAs, 80 kVp
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In comparison with low-mAs, high kVp techniques, high-mAs, low kVp techniques are recommended for abdominal radiography in dogs because high-mAs, low-kVp techniques
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produce radiographs of higher contrast
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The length of a quarantine period in disease control is based on the
|
Incubation period
|
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Screening for heartworm microfilariae in dogs and treatment to remove adult heartworms and microfilariae from infected dogs before signs of cardiopulmonary disease develop are an example of
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Secondary prevention
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The capacity of an agent to cause disease in a susceptible host defines its
|
Virulence
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The species or environment in which a pathogenic organism is maintained and upon which the organism depends for survival is called a
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Reservoir
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An infection that results in NO perceptible slinical signs is called
|
an inapparent infection
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In a herd of 120 llamas, 75 have had diarrhea and comiting within the last 24 hours. All of the animals were normal 48 hours ago. Only adult animals are affected. The most likely source of the outbreak is
|
Exposure to a common source
|
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Arthropods that transmit microorganisms from one animal to another without multiplication or maturation of the microorganisms in the arthropod are known as
|
Mechanical vectors
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Animals that begin shedding an infectious agent before showing clinical signs are known as
|
Incubatory carriers
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The place from which an etiologic agent passes directly to a susceptible host is known as the
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Source
|
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Food-borne Clostridium perfringens infection in people is usually associated with
|
Institutions or commercial food sites where many people handle a food before it is served and where larger quantities are prepared
|
|
Brucellosis (undulant fever) in people results most commonly from
|
Occupational exposure and drinking unpasteurized milk
|
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Animals are legally classified as
|
Personal property
|
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If a client's dog bites the client while a veterinarian is examing the animal
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The vet could be held liable for the client's injuries if the vet knew the dog was dangerous and asked the client to restrain it anyway
|
|
Under the Federal Controlled Substance Act
|
Schedule-I drugs have a high human abuse potential and are currently not accepted for use in treatment in the US
|
|
A particularly common source of malpractice suits against practitioners involves
|
Injury of clients while they are physically restraining their animals
|
|
The red blood cells of animals with iron-deficiency anemia are classically
|
Hypochromic and microcytic
|
|
Dehydration is characterized by
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Increased packed cell volume and increased plasma protein level
|
|
Variation in erythrocyte size on blood smears is called
|
Anisocytosis
|
|
Variation in erythrocyte shape on a blood smear is called
|
Poikilocytosis
|
|
A leukocyte with a nucleus in the shape of a "spoked wheel" is called
|
Plasma cell
|
|
The test for erythrocyte antiglobulin is called the
|
Comb's Test
|
|
Monocytosis is a characteristic sign of
|
systemic inflammatory response
|
|
Which blood cells have the longest lifespan
|
Erythrocytes
|
|
Toxic anemia caused by oxidant drugs or toxins is characterized by deposits of denatured hemoglobin called
|
Heinz bodies
|
|
Tropical pancytopenia is a tick-borne rickettsial infection known as
|
Ehrlichiosis
|
|
The most severe inherited coagulation defect of companion animals is
|
Von Willebrand's disease
|
|
Platelet adhesion, an important initial event in the control of bleeding, is primarily mediated by
|
Von Willebrand factor
|
|
The most common inherited bleeding disorder of people and dogs is
|
Von Wilebrand's disease
|
|
The inheritance pattern of hemophilia is
|
Sex-linked recessive
|
|
A common cause of bleeding tendency in aged patients is
|
Platelet dysfunction secondary to uremia (end-stage kidney disease)
|
|
Parvovirus infection in people and animals can produce
|
Transient bone marrow failure
|
|
Fibrin clot formation is the result of
|
Thrombin interaction with fibrinogen
|
|
Vitamin K-dependent clotting factors are synthesized in the
|
Liver
|
|
The dog breed most commonly affected with Von Willebrand's disease is the
|
Doberman Pinscher
|
|
A typical sign of thrombocytopenic bleeding is
|
Petechiae and eccymoses
|
|
The classic sign of bleeding in animals with hemophilia is
|
hematoma formation
|
|
The characteristic type of bleeding in animals with Von Willebrand's disease involves the
|
Mucosal surfaces
|
|
Aspirin is used to prevent and treat thrombosis because it
|
Impairs platelet function
|
|
The bone marrow precursor cell of the blood platelet is the
|
Megakaryocyte
|
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Which of the following is typical of fluid removed from the peritoneal cavity of a cat with effusive feline infectious peritonitis
|
Straw-colored, high protein fluid containing primarily neutrophils
|
|
A Coomb's test is used to help diagnose
|
Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
|
|
Which organisms are referred to as "Marginal Bodies"
|
Anaplasma
|
|
The major function of eosinophils is probably to
|
promote inflammation
|
|
A 3 week old foal with recurrent infections has normal blood lymphocyte numbers and low serum immunoglobulin levels. The most likely cause of these findings is
|
Failure to absorb colostrum
|
|
"Blue eye" is a complication encountered in dogs vaccinated with
|
Live canine adenovirus vaccine
|
|
The reaction to intradermal injection of tuberculin is an example of
|
delayed hypersensitivity
|
|
In animals that are allergic to penicillin, the drug molecule acts as
|
a Hapten
|
|
The reaction to intradermal injection of tuberculin is of maximal intensity within
|
48-72 hours
|
|
The most likely cause of vaccine failure in a 14 week old puppy given canine distemper vaccine is
|
Distemper infection before vaccination
|
|
Bacteria are cleared from the circulation mainly by
|
Phagocytosis by macrophages in the liver and spleen
|
|
The intestine of newborn domestic animals becomes impermeable to colostral immunoglobulins by approximately
|
24 hours of age
|
|
Specimens for hematologic analysis should be collected in vacuum tubes with a stopper of what color
|
Lavender
|
|
Before staining, blood smears should be fixed in
|
Methanol
|
|
The blood smear of a normal patient should have how many platelets per oil-immersion field
|
3-5
|
|
Which type of cell is NOT found in an avian blood smear
|
Neutrophil
|
|
Which of the following is a platelet precursor
|
Megakaryocyte
|
|
In which species are nucleated erythrocytes a normal finding
|
Chickens
|
|
Variation in the size of erythrocytes is known as
|
Anisocytosis
|
|
Abnormally shaped erythrocytes are collectively referred to as
|
Poikilocytosis
|
|
An abundance of eosinophils on a peripheral blood smear is most commonly associated with
|
Allergic conditions
|
|
If the sealant clay fails to stay in the microhematocrit tube suring centrifugation, the most likely cause is
|
worn tube cushions or gasket
|
|
As a minimum standard, blood collection tubes containing EDTA should be filled
|
Half way to the top
|
|
The most common bleeding disorders seen in companion animals are related to:
|
thrombocytopenia
|
|
Specimens for coagulation testing should be collected in tubes containing
|
sodium citrate
|
|
Which of the following is NOT a test of hemostasis
|
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
|
|
Which technique is most likely to prevent hemolysis during blood collection
|
Use a small gauge needle (>21)
|
|
A microscope should be professionally cleaned
|
Yearly or more often, as needed
|
|
In an infected animal, life cycle stages of which parasite are LEAST likely to be found on the fecal flotation preparation
|
Giardia cati
|
|
Ova of Capillaria plica are most likely to be found in
|
Urine
|
|
The parasite that appears as a punctuate small rod-like or ring-like structure on the periphery of red blood cells in a peripheral blood smear is
|
Hemobartonella felis
|
|
Which method is NOT used for detection of heartworm microfilariae
|
Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay
|
|
Which method is least appropriate for urine collection
|
aspiration of urine from a cage floor or litter box
|
|
In which type of patient should cystocentesis NOT be performed
|
Adult male cat with disease of the bladder wall
|
|
A normal colored but slightly opaque urine sample is most likely to contain
|
many white blood cells and/or phosphate crystals
|
|
A urine specimen with a "fruity" odor is most likely to contain
|
Acetone
|
|
What is the most common cause of erroneous results from urine testing with dipsticks
|
Moisture damage to the strip
|
|
When present in the urine, bilirubin can be broken down by
|
Exposure of the specimen to light
|
|
White blood cell casts in a urine sample suggest
|
Disease of the kidney
|
|
Calcium oxalate crystals in urine sediment are most often associated with
|
Ethylene glycol (antifreeze) toxicity
|
|
The sensitivity of enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay is related to the
|
ability to detect minimal concentrations of the antigen
|
|
A positive enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay for feline leukemia virus (FeLV) ay indicate any of the following EXCEPT
|
The cat will definitely die from FeLV infection
|
|
A 7 year old outdoor male cat has a history and clinical signs strongly suggestive of heartworm infection. However, filter tests for heartworm microfilariae and enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay are both negative. What is the most likely explanation
|
The cat may have small numbers of adult heartworms
|
|
Concerning cats whose saliva tests are positive for feline leukemia virus, which statement is most accurate
|
They can transmit the virus to other cats
|
|
During evening office hours you collect a blood sample from a patient. You plan to send the sample to a reference lab for a complete blood count, and realize that there will be an overnight delay before the sample is processed. So to preserve the blood cell morphology, the appropriate procedure is to immediately make a blood smear and
|
leave the unfixed blood smear at room temperature and refigerate the tube of blood
|
|
The white blood cell count must be corrected when a blood smear is bound to contain
|
Nucleated red blood cells
|
|
A 9 wk old pup has a fever, mild vomiting, diarrhea and conjunctivitis with a slight serous ocular discharge. There is no history of vaccination. The most likely cause of these signs is
|
Canine distemper
|
|
To confirm the diagnosis of the pup, one should
|
Submit a conjunctival smear for fluorescent antibody testing
|
|
After proper incubation, samples from salmonella cultures should be streaked on
|
Hektoen agar and brilliant green
|
|
Suspected Salmonella colonies can be reliably identified by
|
Serologic tests
|
|
Which microorganism does NOT form individual colonies on blood agar
|
Proteus
|
|
E coli and salmonella differ by
|
Fermentation of lactose with gas production
|
|
A 24 hour culture of a specimen from a dog shows a gram negative, motile, oxidase-positive organism with bluish-green colonies on blood agar. On the basis of general and cultural characteristics, the organism is most likely
|
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
|
|
The organism that produces a characteristic fruity odor when grown on blood agar is
|
Pasteurella
|
|
Concerning the cytoplasmic membrane of bacteria, which statement is most accurate
|
It's the innermost membrane next to the cell wall
|
|
After the iodine step of Gram staining, Gram-positive organisms are
|
purple
|
|
After the acetone-alcohol step of Gram staining
|
Gram-negative bacteria are colorless
|
|
Anaerobic, endospore-forming, nonencapsulated bacteria are found in the genus
|
Clostridium
|
|
The technique of isolating bacteria in pure culture form was perfected by
|
Robert Koch
|
|
What component of a MacConkey agar makes this medium selective for Gram-negative organisms
|
Bile salts
|
|
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an exotoxin
|
Heat stable
|