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160 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Quality control of reagent strips is performed:
A. Using positive and negative controls B. When results are questionable C. At least once every 24 hours D. All of the above |
D. All of the above
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Leaving a reagent strip in the specimen for too long
will: A. Cause runover between reagent pads B. Alter the color of the specimen C. Cause reagents to leach from the pads D. Not affect the chemical reactions |
C. Cause reagents to leach from the pads
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Failure to mix a specimen prior to inserting the
reagent strip will primarily affect the: A. Glucose reading B. Blood reading C. Nitrite reading D. Ph reading |
B. Blood reading
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Testing a refrigerated specimen that has not warmed to
room temperature will adversely affect: A. Enzymatic reactions B. Dye-binding reactions C. The sodium nitroprusside reaction D. Diazo reactions |
A. Enzymatic reactions
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The reagent strip reaction that requires the longest
reaction time is the: A. Bilirubin B. pH c. Enzymatic reactions D. Glucose |
c. Enzymatic reactions
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All of the following are important to protect the
integrity of reagent strips except: A. Removing the desiccant from the bottle B. Storing in an opaque bottle C. Storing at room temperature D. Resealing the bottle after removing a strip |
A. Removing the desiccant from the bottle
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The principle of the reagent strip test for pH is the:
A. Protein error of indicators B. Greiss reaction C. Dissociation of a polyelectrolyte D. Double indicator reaction |
D. Double indicator reaction
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A urine specimen with a pH of 9.0:
A. Is indicative of metabolic acidosis B. Should be recollected C. May contain calcium oxalate crystals D. Is seen after drinking cranberry juice |
B. Should be recollected
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In the laboratory, a primary consideration associated
with pH is: A. Identification of urinary crystals B. Monitoring of vegetarian diets C. Determination of specimen acceptability D. Both A and C |
D. Both A and C
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Indicate the source of the following proteinurias by
placing a 1 for prerenal, 2 for renal, or 3 for postrenal in front of the condition. A. ____Microalbuminuria B. ____Acute phase reactants C. ____Pre-eclampsia D. ____Vaginal inflammation E. ____Multiple myeloma F. ____Orthostatic proteinuria G. ____Prostatitis |
2
1 2 3 1 2 3 |
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The principle of the protein error of indicators reaction
is that: A. Protein changes the pH of the urine B. Albumin accepts hydrogen ions from the indicator C. The indicator accepts ions for albumin D. Albumin changes the pH of the urine |
B. Albumin accepts hydrogen ions from the indicator
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All of the following will cause false-positive protein
reagent strip values except: A. Proteins other than albumin B. Highly buffered alkaline urines C. Delay in removing the reagent strip from the specimen D. Contamination by quartenary ammonium compounds |
A. Proteins other than albumin
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A patient with a 1 protein reading in the afternoon
is asked to submit a first morning specimen. The second specimen also has a 1 protein. This patient is: A. Positive for orthostatic proteinuria B. Negative for orthostatic proteinuria C. Positive for Bence Jones protein D. Negative for clinical proteinuria |
B. Negative for orthostatic proteinuria
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Testing for microalbuminuria is valuable for monitoring
patients with: A. Hypertension B. Diabetes mellitus C. Cardiovascular disease risk D. All of the above |
D. All of the above
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All of the following are true for the Micral-Test for
microalbumin except: A. It is run on first morning specimens B. It contains an antibody-enzyme conjugate C. Two blue bands are formed on the strip D. Unbound antibody attaches to immobilized albumin |
C. Two blue bands are formed on the strip
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All of the following are true for the Immunodip test
for microalbumin except: A. Unbound antibody migrates farther than bound antibody B. Blue latex particles are coated with antibody C. Bound antibody migrates further than unbound antibody D. It utilizes an immumochromographic principle |
C. Bound antibody migrates further than unbound
antibody |
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The principle of the protein-low reagent pad on the
Multistix Pro is the: A. Binding of albumin to sulphonphtalein dye B. Immunologic binding of albumin to antibody C. Reverse protein error of indicators reaction D. Enzymatic reaction between albumin and dye |
A. Binding of albumin to sulphonphtalein dye
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The principle of the creatinine reagent pad on
microalbumin reagent strips is the: A. Double indicator reaction B. Diazo reaction C. Pseudoperoxidase reaction D. Reduction of a chromogen |
C. Pseudoperoxidase reaction
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The purpose of performing an albumin:creatinine
ratio is to: A. Estimate the glomerular filtration rate B. Correct for hydration in random specimens C. Avoid interference for alkaline urines D. Correct for abnormally colored urines |
B. Correct for hydration in random specimens
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A patient with a normal blood glucose and a positive
urine glucose should be further checked for: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Renal disease C. Gestational diabetes D. Pancreatitis |
B. Renal disease
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The principle of the reagent strip tests for glucose is
the: A. Peroxidase activity of glucose B. Glucose oxidase reaction C. Double sequential enzyme reaction D. Dye-binding of glucose and chromogen |
C. Double sequential enzyme reaction
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All of the following may produce false-negative glucose
reactions except: A. Detergent contamination B. Ascorbic acid C. Unpreserved specimens D. Low urine temperature |
A. Detergent contamination
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A positive Clinitest and a negative reagent strip glucose
are indicative of: A. Low levels of glucose B. Nonglucose reducing substances C. High levels of glucose D. Both A and B |
B. Nonglucose reducing substances
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The primary reason for performing a Clinitest is to:
A. Check for high ascorbic acid levels B. Confirm a positive reagent strip glucose C. Check for newborn galactosuria D. Confirm a negative glucose reading |
C. Check for newborn galactosuria
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The three intermediate products of fat metabolism
include all of the following except: A. Acetoacetic acid B. Ketoacetic acid C. Beta-hydroxybutyric acid D. Acetone |
B. Ketoacetic acid
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The most significant reagent strip test that is associated
with a positive ketone result is: A. Glucose B. Protein C. pH D. Specific gravity |
A. Glucose
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The primary reagent in the reagent strip test for
ketones is: A. Glycine B. Lactose C. Sodium hydroxide D. Sodium nitroprusside |
D. Sodium nitroprusside
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Ketonuria may be caused by all of the following
except: A. Bacterial infections B. Diabetic acidosis C. Starvation D. Vomiting |
A. Bacterial infections
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Urinalysis on a patient with severe back and abdominal
pain is frequently performed to check for: A. Glucosuria B. Proteinuria C. Hematuria D. Hemoglobinuria |
C. Hematuria
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Place the appropriate number or numbers in front of
each of the following statements. Use both numbers for an answer if needed. 1. Hemoglobinuria 2. Myoglobinuria A. ____Associated with transfusion reactions B. ____Clear, red urine and pale yellow plasma C. ____Clear, red urine and red plasma D. ____Associated with rhabdomylosis E. ____Precipitated by ammonium sulfate F. ____Not precipitated by ammonium sulfate G. ____Produced hemosiderin granules in urinary sediments H. ____Associated with acute renal failure |
1
2 1 2 1 2 1 1 2 |
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The principle of the reagent strip test for blood is
based on the: A. Binding of heme and a chromogenic dye B. Peroxidase activity of heme C. Reaction of peroxide and chromogen D. Diazo activity of heme |
B. Peroxidase activity of heme
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32. A speckled pattern on the blood pad of the reagent
strip indicates: A. Hematuria B. Hemoglobinuria C. Myoglobinuria D. All of the above |
A. Hematuria
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List the following products of hemoglobin degradation
in the corrct order by placing numbers 1–4 in front of them. A. ___Conjugated bilirubin B. ___Urobilinogen and stercobiligen C. ___Urobilin D. ___Unconjugated bilirubin |
2
3 4 1 |
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The principle of the reagent strip test for bilirubin is
the: A. Diazo reaction B. Ehrlich reaction C. Greiss reaction D. Peroxidase reaction |
A. Diazo reaction
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An elevated urine bilirubin with a normal urobilinogen
is indicative of: A. Cirrhosis of the liver B. Hemolytic disease C. Hepatitis D. Biliary obstruction |
D. Biliary obstruction
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The primary cause of a false-negative bilirubin reaction
is: A. Highly pigmented urine B. Specimen contamination C. Specimen exposure to light D. Excess conjugated bilirubin |
.0C. Specimen exposure to light
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The purpose of the special mat supplied with the
Ictotest tablets is that: A. Bilirubin remains on the surface of the mat. B. It contains the dye needed to produce color. C. It removes interfering substances. D. Bilirubin is absorbed into the mat. |
A. Bilirubin remains on the surface of the mat.
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The reagent in the Multistix reaction for urobilinogen
is: A. A diazonium salt B. Tetramethylbenzidine C. p-dimethylaminobenzaldehyde D. Hoesch reagent |
C. p-dimethylaminobenzaldehyde
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The primary problem with urobilinogen tests using
Ehrlich reagent is: A. Positive reactions with porphobilinogen B. Lack of sensitivity C. Positive reactions with Ehrlich reactive substances D. Both A and C |
D. Both A and C
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In the Watson-Schwartz differentiation test, the substance(
s) not extracted into butanol is/are: A. Urobilinogen B. Porphobilinogen C. Ehrlich reactive substances D. All of the above |
B. Porphobilinogen
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The Hoesch test is used to monitor or screen patients
for the presence of: A. Urobilinogen B. Nitrite C. Porphobilinogen D. Leukocyte esterase |
C. Porphobilinogen
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The reagent strip test for nitrite used the:
A. Greiss reaction B. Hoesch reaction C. Peroxidase reaction D. Pseudoperoxidase reaction |
A. Greiss reaction
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All of the following can cause a negative nitrite reading
except: A. Gram-positive bacteria B. Gram-negative bacteria C. Random urine specimens D. Heavy bacterial infections |
B. Gram-negative bacteria
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A positive nitrite test and a negative leukocyte
esterase test is an indication of a: A. Dilute random specimen B. Specimen with lyzed leukocytes C. Vaginal yeast infection D. Specimen older than 2 hours |
D. Specimen older than 2 hours
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All of the following can be detected by the leukocyte
esterase reaction except: A. Neutrophils B. Eosinophils C. Lymphocytes D. Basophils |
C. Lymphocytes
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Screening tests for urinary infection combine the
leukocyte esterase test with the test for: A. pH B. Nitrite C. Protein D. Blood |
B. Nitrite
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The principle of the leukocyte esterase reagent strip
test uses a: A. Peroxidase reaction B. Double indicator reaction C. Diazo reaction D. Dye-binding technique |
C. Diazo reaction
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48. The principle of the reagent strip test for specific
gravity uses the dissociation constant of a/an: A. Diazonium salt B. Indicator dye C. Polyelectrolyte D. Enzyme substrate |
C. Polyelectrolyte
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A specific gravity of 1.030 would produce the reagent
strip color: A. Blue B. Green C. Yellow D. Red |
C. Yellow
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Reagent strip–specific gravity readings are affected by:
A. Glucose B. Radiographic dye C. Alkaline urine D. All of the above |
C. Alkaline urine
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Macroscopic screening of urine specimens is used to:
A. Provide results as soon as possible B. Predict the type of urinary casts present C. Increase cost-effectiveness of urinalysis D. Decrease the need for polarized microscopy |
C. Increase cost-effectiveness of urinalysis
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Variations in the microscopic analysis of urine include
all of the following except: A. Preparation of the urine sediment B. Amount of sediment analyzed C. Method of reporting D. Identification of formed elements |
D. Identification of formed elements
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All of the following can cause false-negative microscopic
results except: A. Braking the centrifuge B. Failing to mix the specimen C. Dilute alkaline urine D. Using midstream clean-catch specimens |
D. Using midstream clean-catch specimens
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The two factors that determine relative centrifugal
force are: A. Radius of rotor head and rpm B. Radius of rotor head and time of centrifugation C. Diameter of rotor head and rpm D. RPM and time of centrifugation |
C. Diameter of rotor head and rpm
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When using the glass slide and coverslip method,
which of the following might be missed if the coverslip is overflowed? A. Casts B. RBCs C. WBCs D. Bacteria |
A. Casts
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Initial screening of the urine sediment is performed
using an objective power of: A. 4 B. 10 C. 40 D. 100 |
B. 10
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Which of the following should be used to reduce light
intensity in bright-field microscopy? A. Centering screws B. Aperture diaphragm C. Rheostat D. Condenser aperture diaphrgam |
C. Rheostat
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Which of the following are reported as number per
LPF? A. RBCs B. WBCs C. Crystals D. Casts |
D. Casts
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The Sternheimer-Malbin stain is added to urine sediments
to do all of the following except: A. Increase visibility of sediment constituents B. Change the constituents refractive index C. Decrease precipitation of crystals D. Delineate constituent structures |
C. Decrease precipitation of crystals
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Nuclear detail can be enhanced by:
A. Prussian blue B. Toluidine blue C. Acetic acid D. Both B and C |
D. Both B and C
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Which of the following lipids is/are stained by Sudan
III? A. Cholesterol B. Neutral fats C. Triglycerides D. Both B and C |
D. Both B and C
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Which of the following lipids is/are capable of polarizing
light? A. Cholesterol B. Neutral fats C. Triglycerides D. Both A and B |
A. Cholesterol
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The purpose of the Hansel stain is to identify:
A. Neutrophils B. Renal tubular cells C. Eosinophils D. Monocytes |
C. Eosinophils
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The purpose of the Hansel stain is to identify:
A. Neutrophils B. Renal tubular cells C. Eosinophils D. Monocytes |
B. Renal tubular cells
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Differentiation among RBCs, yeast, and oil droplets
may be accomplished by all of the following except: A. Observation of budding in yeast cells B. Increased refractility of oil droplets C. Lysis of yeast cells by acetic acid D. Lysis of RBCs by acetic acid |
C. Lysis of yeast cells by acetic acid
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The finding of dysmorphic RBCs is indicative of:
A. Glomerular bleeding B. Renal calculi C. Traumatic injury D. Coagulation disorders |
A. Glomerular bleeding
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Leukocytes that stain pale blue with Sternheimer-
Malbin stain and exhibit brownian movement are: A. Indicative of pyelonephritis B. Basophils C. Mononuclear leukocytes D. Glitter cells |
D. Glitter cells
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Mononuclear leukocytes are sometimes mistaken for:
A. Yeast cells B. Squamous epithelial cells C. Pollen grains D. Renal tubular cells |
D. Renal tubular cells
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When pyuria is detected in a sediment, the slide
should be carefully checked for the presence of: A. RBCs B. Bacteria C. Hyaline casts D. Mucus |
B. Bacteria
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Transitional epithelial cells are sloughed from the:
A. Collecting duct B. Vagina C. Bladder D. Proximal convoluted tubule |
C. Bladder
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The largest cells in the urine sediment are:
A. Squamous epithlial cells B. Urothelial epithelial cells C. Cuboidal epithelial cells D. Columnar epithelial cells |
A. Squamous epithlial cells
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A clinically significant squamous epithelial cell is the:
A. Cuboidal cell B. Clue cell C. Caudate cell D. Columnar cell |
B. Clue cell
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Forms of transitional epithelial cells include all of the
following except: A. Spherical B. Caudate C. Convoluted D. Polyhedral |
C. Convoluted
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Increased transitional cells are indicative of:
A. Catheterization B. Malignancy C. Pyelonephritis D. Both A and B |
D. Both A and B
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A primary characteristic used to identify renal tubular
epithelial cells is: A. Elongated structure B. Centrally located nucleus C. Spherical appearance D. Eccentrically located nucleus |
D. Eccentrically located nucleus
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Following an episode of hemoglobinuria, RTE cells
may contain: A. Bilirubin B. Hemosiderin granules C. Porphobilinogen D. Myoglobin |
B. Hemosiderin granules
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The predecessor of the oval fat body is the:
A. Histiocyte B. Urothelial cell C. Monocyte D. Renal tubular cell |
D. Renal tubular cell
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A structure believed to be an oval fat body produced
a Maltese cross formation under polarized light but does not stain with Sudan III. The structure: A. Contains cholesterol B. Is not an oval fat body C. Contains neutral fats D. Is contaminated with immersion oil |
A. Contains cholesterol
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The finding of yeast cells in the urine is commonly
associated with: A. Cystitis B. Diabetes mellitus C. Pyelonephritis D. Liver disorders |
B. Diabetes mellitus
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The primary component of urinary mucus is:
A. Bence Jones protein B. Microalbumin C. Tamm-horsfall protein D. Orthostatic protein |
C. Tamm-horsfall protein
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The majority of casts are formed in the:
A. Proximal convoluted tubules B. Ascending loop of Henle C. Distal convoluted tubules D. Collecting ducts |
C. Distal convoluted tubules
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Cylindroiduria refers to the presence of:
A. Cylindrical renal tubular cells B. Mucus resembling casts C. Hyaline and waxy casts D. All types of casts |
D. All types of casts
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A person submitting a urine specimen following a
strenuous exercise routine can normally have all of the following in the sediment except: A. Hyaline casts B. Granular casts C. RBC casts D. WBC casts |
D. WBC casts
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Prior to identifying an RBC cast, all of the following
should be observed except: A. Free-floating RBCs B. Intact RBCs in the cast C. Presence of a cast matrix D. A positive reagent strip blood reaction |
B. Intact RBCs in the cast
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WBC casts are primarily associated with:
A. Pyelonephritis B. Cystitis C. Glomerulonephritis D. Viral infections |
A. Pyelonephritis
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The shape of the RTE cell associated with renal tubular
epithelial casts is primarily: A. Elongated B. Cuboidal C. Round D. Columnar |
C. Round
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When observing RTE casts, the cells are primarily:
A. Embedded in a clear matrix B. Embedded in a granular matrix C. Attached to the surface of a matrix D. Stained by components of the urine filtrate |
C. Attached to the surface of a matrix
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The presence of fatty casts is associated with:
A. Nephrotic syndrome B. Crush injuries C. Diabetes mellitus D. All of the above |
D. All of the above
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39. Nonpathogenic granular casts contain:
A. Cellular lysosomes B. Degenerated cells C. Protein aggregates D. Gram-positive cocci |
A. Cellular lysosomes
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All of the following are true about waxy casts except
they: A. Represent extreme urine stasis B. May have a brittle consistency C. Require staining to be visualized D. Contain degenerated granules |
C. Require staining to be visualized
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The observation of broad casts represents:
A. Destruction of tubular walls B. Dehydraton and high fever C. Formation in the collecting ducts D. Both A and C |
D. Both A and C
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All of the following contribute to the formation of
urinary crystals except: A. Protein concentration B. ph C. Solute concentration D. Temperature |
A. Protein concentration
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The most valuable initial aid for the identification of
crystals in a urine specimen is: A. ph B. Solubility C. Staining D. Polarized microscopy |
A. ph
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Crystals associated with severe liver disease include
all of the following except: A. Bilirubin B. Leucine C. Cystine D. Tyrosine |
C. Cystine
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All of the following crystals routinely polarize except:
A. Uric acid B. Cholesterol C. Radiographic dye D. Cystine |
D. Cystine
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Differentiation between casts and fibers can usually
be made using: A. Solubility characteristics B. Patient history C. Polarized light D. Fluorescent light |
C. Polarized light
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Match the following crystals seen in acidic urine with
their description/identifying characteristics: ____Amorphous urates 1. Envelopes ____Uric acid 2. Thin needles ____Calcium oxalate 3. Yellow-brown, monhydrate whetstone ____Calcium oxalate 4. Pink sediment dihydrate 5. Ovoid |
4
3 5 1 |
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Match the following crystals seen in alkaline urine
with their description/identifying characteristics: ____Triple phosphate 1. Yellow granules ____Amorphous phosphate 2. Thin prisms ____Calcium phosphate 3. “Coffin lids” ____Ammonium biurate 4. Dumbbell shape ____Calcium carbonate 5. White precipitate 6. Thorny apple |
3
5 2 6 4 |
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Match the following abnormal crystals with their
description/identifying characteristics: ____Cystine 1. Bundles following refrigeration ____Tyrosine 2. Highly alkaline pH ____Cholesterol 3. Bright yellow clumps ____Leucine 4. Hexagonal plates ____Ampicillin 5. Flat plates, high specific gravity ____Radiographic 6. Concentric circles, radial dye striations ____Bilirubin 7. Notched corners 8. Fine needles seen in liver disease |
4
8 7 6 1 5 3 |
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Match the following types of microscopy with their
descriptions: ____Bright-field 1. Indirect light is reflected off the object ____Phase 2. Objects split light into two beams ____Polarized 3. Low refractive index objects may be overlooked ____Dark-field 4. Three-dimensional images ____Fluorescent 5. Forms halo of light around object ____Interference 6. Detects electrons emitted contrast from objects 7. Detects specific wavelengths of light emitted from objects |
3
5 2 1 7 4 |
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The majority of glomerular disorders are caused by:
A. Sudden drops in blood pressure B. Immunologic disorders C. Exposure to toxic substances D. Bacterial infections |
B. Immunologic disorders
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Dysmorphic RBC casts would be a significant finding
with all of the following except: A. Goodpasture syndrome B. Acute glomeruonephritis C. Chronic pyelonephritis D. Henoch-Schönlein purpura |
C. Chronic pyelonephritis
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Occassional episodes of macroscopic hematuria over
periods of 20 or more years are seen with: A. Crescentic glomerulonephritis B. IgA nephropathy C. Nephrotic syndrome D. Wegener’s granulomatosis |
B. IgA nephropathy
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Antiglomerular basement membrane antibody is seen
with: A. Wegener’s granulomatosis B. IgA nephropathy C. Goodpasture syndrome D. Diabetic nephropathy |
C. Goodpasture syndrome
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Antineutrophilic cytoplasmic antibody is diagnostic for:
A. IgA nephropathy B. Wegener’s granulomatosis C. Henoch-Schönlein purpura D. Goodpasture syndrome |
B. Wegener’s granulomatosis
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Respiratory and renal symptoms are associated with all
of the following except: A. IgA nephropathy B. Wegener’s granulomatosis C. Henoch-Schönlein purpura D. Goodpasture syndrome |
A. IgA nephropathy
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Broad and waxy casts are most frequently seen with:
A. Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis B. Membranous glomerulonephritis C. Chronic glomerulonephritis D. Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis |
C. Chronic glomerulonephritis
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The presence of fatty casts is associated with all of the
following except: A. Nephrotic syndrome B. Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis C. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus D. Minimal change disease |
C. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
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High levels of proteinuria are early symptoms of:
A. Alport syndrome B. Diabetic nephropathy C. IgA nephropathy D. Nephrotic syndrome |
D. Nephrotic syndrome
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Ischemia frequently produces:
A. Acute renal tubular necrosis B. Minimal change disorder C. Acute renal failure D. Both A and C |
D. Both A and C
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A disorder associated with polyuria and low specific
gravity is: A. Renal glucosuria B. Cystitis C. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus D. Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis |
C. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
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An inherited or accquired disorder producing a generalized
defect in tubular reabsorption is: A. Alport syndrome B. Acute interstitial nephritis C. Fanconi syndrome D. Renal glucosuria |
C. Fanconi syndrome
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The presence of renal tubular epithelial cells and
casts is an indication of: A. Acute interstitial nephritis B. Chronic glomerulonephritis C. Minimal change disease D. Acute tubular necrosis |
D. Acute tubular necrosis
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Differentiation between cystitis and pyelonephritis is
aided by the presence of: A. WBC casts B. RBC casts C. Bacteria D. Granular casts |
A. WBC casts
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The presence of WBCs and WBC casts with no bacteria
seen is indicative of: A. Chronic pyelonephritis B. Acute tubular necrosis C. Acute interstitial nephritis D. Both B and C |
A. Chronic pyelonephritis
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End-stage renal disease is characterized by all of the
following except: A. Hypersthenuria B. Isosthenuria C. Azotemia D. Electrolyte imbalance |
A. Hypersthenuria
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Broad and waxy casts are most likely associated with:
A. Nephrotic syndrome B. Chronic renal failure C. Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis D. Acute renal failure |
B. Chronic renal failure
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Postrenal acute renal failure could be caused by:
A. Ischemia B. Acute tubular necrosis C. Acute interstitial nephritis D. Malignant tumors |
D. Malignant tumors
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The most common composition of renal calculi is:
A. Calcium oxalate B. Magnesium ammonium phosphate C. Cystine D. Uric acid |
A. Calcium oxalate
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Urinalysis on a patient being evaluated for renal calculi
would be most beneficial if it showed: A. Heavy proteinuria B. Calcium oxalate crystals C. Macroscopic hematuria D. Microscopic hematuria |
D. Microscopic hematuria
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All states require newborn screening for PKU for early:
A. Modifications of diet B. Administration of antibiotics C. Detection of diabetes D. Initiation of gene therapy |
A. Modifications of diet
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All of the following disorders can be detected by
newborn screening except: A. Tyrosyluria B. MSUD C. Melanuria D. Galactosemia |
C. Melanuria
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The best specimen for early newborn screening is a:
A. Timed urine specimen B. Blood specimen C. First morining urine specimen D. Fecal specimen |
B. Blood specimen
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Abnormal urine screening tests categorized as an
overflow disorder include all of the following except: A. Alkaptonuria B. Galactosemia C. Melanuria D. Cystinuria |
D. Cystinuria
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Which of the following disorders is not associated
with the phenylalanine-tyrosine pathway? A. MSUD B. Alkaptonuria C. Albinism D. Tyrosinemia |
A. MSUD
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Urine screening tests for PKU utilize:
A. Microbial inhibition B. Nitroso-napthol C. Dinitrophenylhydrazine D. Ferric chloride |
D. Ferric chloride
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The least serious form of tyrosylemia is:
A. Immature liver function B. Type 1 C. Type 2 D. Type 3 |
A. Immature liver function
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An overflow disorder of the phenylalanine-tyrosine
pathway that could produce a false-positive reaction with the reagent strip test for ketones is: A. Alkaptonuria B. Melanuria C. MSUD D. Tyrosyluria |
B. Melanuria
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An overflow disorder that could produce a falsepositive
reaction with clinitest is: A. Cystinuria B. Alkaptonuria C. Indicanuria D. Porphyrinuria |
B. Alkaptonuria
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A urine that turns black after sitting by the sink for
several hours could be indicative of: A. Alkaptonuria B. MSUD C. Melanuria D. Both A and C |
D. Both A and C
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Ketonuria in a newborn is an indication of:
A. MSUD B. Isovaleric acidemia C. Methylmalonic acidemia D. All of the above |
D. All of the above
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Urine from a newborn with MSUD will have a
significant: A. Pale color B. Yellow precipitate C. Milky appearance D. Sweet odor |
D. Sweet odor
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A substance that reacts with p-nitroaniline is:
A. Isovaleric acid B. Propionic acid C. Methylmalonic acid D. Indican |
C. Methylmalonic acid
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Which of the following has a significant odor?
A. Isovaleric acidemia B. Propionic acidemia C. Methylmalonic acidemia D. Indicanuria |
A. Isovaleric acidemia
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Hartnup disease is a disorder associated with the
metabolism of: A. Organic acids B. Tryptophan C. Cystine D. Phenylalanine |
B. Tryptophan
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5-HIAA is a degradation product of:
A. Heme B. Indole C. Serotonin D. Melanin |
C. Serotonin
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Elevated urinary levels of 5-HIAA are associated with:
A. Carcinoid tumors B. Hartnup disease C. Cystinuria D. Platelet disorders |
A. Carcinoid tumors
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False-positive levels of 5-HIAA can be caused by
a diet high in: A. Meat B. Carbohydrates C. Starch D. Bananas |
D. Bananas
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Place the appropriate letter in front of the following
statements. A. Cystinuria B. Cystinosis ____IEM ____Inherited disorder of renal tubules ____Fanconi syndrome ____Cystine deposits in the cornea ____Early renal calculi formation |
b
a b b a |
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Urine from patients with cystine disorders will
react with: A. Dinitrophenylhydrazine B. Sodium cyanide C. Ehrlich reagent D. 1-Nitroso-napthol |
B. Sodium cyanide
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Blue diaper syndrome is associated with:
A. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome B. Phenylketonuria C. Cystinuria D. Hartnup disease |
D. Hartnup disease
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Homocystinuria is caused by failure to metabolize:
A. Lysine B. Methionine C. Arginine D. Cystine |
B. Methionine
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Early detection is most valuable for correction of:
A. Homocystinuria B. Cystinuria C. Indicanuria D. Porphyrinuria |
A. Homocystinuria
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The Ehrlich reaction will only detect the presence of:
A. Aminolevulinic acid B. Porphobilinogen C. Coproporphyrin D. Protoporphyrin |
B. Porphobilinogen
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Acetylacetone is added to the urine prior to performing
the Ehrlich test when checking for: A. Aminolevulinic acid B. Porphobilinogen C. Uroporphyrin D. Coproporphyrin |
A. Aminolevulinic acid
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The classic urine color associated with porphyria is:
A. Dark yellow B. Indigo blue C. Pink D. Port wine |
D. Port wine
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Which of the following specimens can be used for
porphyrin testing? A. Urine B. Blood C. Feces D. All of the above |
D. All of the above
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The two stages of heme formation affected by lead
poisoning are: A. Porphobilinogen and uroporphyrin B. Aminolevulinic acid and porphobilinogen C. Coproporphyrin and protoporphyrin D. Aminolevulinic acid and protoporphyrin |
D. Aminolevulinic acid and protoporphyrin
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Hurler, Hunter, and Sanfilippo syndromes are hereditary
disorders affecting metabolism of: A. Porphyrins B. Purines C. Mucopolysaccharides D. Tryptophan |
C. Mucopolysaccharides
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Many uric acid crystals in a pediatric urine specimen
may indicate: A. Hurler syndrome B. Lesch-Nyhan disease C. Melituria D. Sanfilippo syndrome |
B. Lesch-Nyhan disease
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Deficiency of the GALT enzyme will produce a:
A. Positive Clinitest B. Glycosuria C. Galactosemia D. Both A and C |
D. Both A and C
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Match the metabolic urine disorders with their classic
urine abonormalities. ____PKU A. Sulfur odor ____Indicanuria B. Sweaty feet odor ____Cystinuria C. Orange sand in diaper ____Homogentisic acid D. Mousy odor ____Lesch-Nyhan disease E. Black color F. Blue color |
d
f a e c |
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Macroscopic hematuria
Proteinuria RBC casts Granular casts |
Acute glomerulonephritis
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Macroscopic hematuria
Proteinuria RBC casts |
Rapidly progressive
glomerulonephritis |
|
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Macroscopic hematuria
Proteinuria RBC casts |
Goodpasture syndrome
|
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Hematuria
Proteinuria Glucosuria Cellular and granular casts Waxy and broad casts |
Chronic glomerulonephritis
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Heavy proteinuria
Microscopic hematuria Renal tubular cells Oval fat bodies Fat droplets Fatty and waxy casts |
Nephrotic syndrome
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Microscopic hematuria
Proteinuria Renal tubular epithelial cells Renal tubular epithelial cell casts Hyaline, granular, waxy, broad casts |
Acute tubular necrosis
|
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Glucosuria
Possible cystine crystals |
Fanconi syndrome
|
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Low specific gravity
Polyuria |
Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
|
