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243 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Who developed Infection Control and epidemiology ? |
John Snow |
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Who advocated handwashing to prevent puerperal sepsis? |
Ignaz Semmelweis |
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What is the smallest unit of measure? |
Nanometer |
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Who developed the technique of vaccination to prevent small pox? |
Edward Jenner |
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Who disproved spontaneous generation of microbes? |
Louis Pasteur |
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Who was involved in Simple staining, Development of a method to prove the cause of an infectious disease and Techniques for isolating microbes in the laboratory |
Robert Koch |
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The microbial production of alcohol from sugar is? |
Fermentation |
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Microorganisms characterized by the absence of a nucleus? |
Prokaryotes |
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The microbes commonly known as _________ are single celled eukaryotes that possess no cell wall and are generally motile |
Protozoa |
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They are eukaryotes, have a cell wall and Yeasts are unicellular. Theses are characteristics of? |
Fungi |
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They are acellular, not composed of cells, They are obligatory parasites, They are smaller than prokaryotic cells. Theses are characteristics of? |
Viruses |
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The application of living organisms to restore a polluted environment is called? |
Bioremediation |
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The cell of a _________ are composed of peptidoglycan;_________ have cell walls composed of something other than peptidoglycan |
Bacteria; archea |
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What tells you how many protons are in an atom? |
Atomic number |
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When an atom loses an electron it becomes ___________? |
A Cation |
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pH is the measurement of the amount of hydrogen (H+) ions in a solution. As the concentration of ions increases, pH goes __________? |
Down |
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Smallest unit of an element? |
An atom |
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Matter composed of only one kind of atom? |
Element |
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Matter composed of two or more different kinds of atoms chemically combined? |
Compound |
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Two or more atoms chemically combined? |
Molecule |
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Organic compounds are those that contain carbon and hydrogen. Which is an organic compound? 1. Methane CH4 2. Carbon dioxide CO2 3. Water H20 |
Methane CH4 |
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Match the building blocks to the Organic molecules
1. Carbohydrates A. Amino acids 2. Protein. B. Glycerol and 3. Lipids fatty acids 4. Nucleic acid. C. Nucleotides D. Mono- saccharides |
1. Carbohydrates- monosaccharides 2. Protein- amino acids 3. Lipid- glycerol and fatty acids 4. Nucleic acid- nucleotides |
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External structural components of ______________ are Cell membrane, Cell wall and Lipopolysaccharide (LPS) layer in gram-negative bacteria |
Bacteria |
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The short, numerous appendages used by some bacterial cells for adhering to surfaces are called? |
Fimbriae |
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The transfer of genes during bacterial conjugation involves a rigid tubular appendages are called? |
Sex pili |
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__________ is composed primarily of phospholipids and proteins (phospholipid bilayer) as described by the fluid mosaic model. |
The cell membrane |
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Is Gram- positive cells: Lipid A, Lipopolysaccharide mismatched? True or false |
True |
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Crenation, the shriveling of cells due to loss of water, occurs when cells are paved in what type of solution? |
Hypertonic |
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Is glycocalyx: holds genetic information mismatched? True or false |
True |
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Dormant, resistant cells formed during unfavorable conditions |
Endospores |
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Who was the first person in history to view protozoa and bacteria called animalcules? |
Antoni Van Leeuwenhoek |
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A microbiologist is observing an amoeba at 450x using a compound light microscope. If the ocular lens of the microscope has a magnification of 10x, what us the magnification of the objective being used? |
45x |
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The ability to distinguish between two adjacent objects is called |
Resolution |
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What is the purpose of staining samples? |
To increase the contrast and visibility of the specimen |
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Who introduced binomial nomenclature as a way to classify and identify similar organisms? |
Linnaeus |
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In the binomial system of nomenclature, which term is always written in lowercase letters? |
Species |
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According to the binomial nomenclature system is this correct? Streptococcus pyogenes (all italized) |
Yes |
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The round shape of bacteria is called? |
Cocci/ Coccus |
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After gram staining the pink round bacteria it would be classified as? |
Gram negative |
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A gram-positive bacteria is simple stained using the dye safrinin red. What color will it appear when observed in the microscope? |
Red/pink |
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What has a thick layer of peptidoglycan layer, no outer layer, gram Stain purple. |
Gram positive bacteria |
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If you have a sugar and water solution, sugar would be? |
The solute |
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What process is Diffusion, Osmosis and Facilated diffusion part of? |
passive process |
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What is the most suitable microscope for viewing a virus? |
Transmission electron |
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What are the functions of the cell membrane in a bacteria |
- Energy storage - Harvest light energy for photosynthesis - Selectively permeable to most substances |
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I am a gram-negative bacillus that tolerates oxygen. I ferment lactose, used citric acid as my sole carbon source and PRODUCE ACETOIN but not hydrogen sulfide gas. Who am i? |
Enterobacter |
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The molecule that an enzyme Acts upon is known as its? |
Substrate |
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Is this matched correctly? Catabolic reaction : requires ATP True or false |
False |
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They may require coenzymes, They are catalytic protein and They are insensitive to pH are all features of? |
Enzymes |
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The principle source of readily usable Energy for cells is? |
ATP |
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What Is the metabolic pathway of glucose + oxygen--> carbon dioxide + water + energy |
Aerobic cellular Respiration |
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What Is the metabolic pathway of Pyruvate --> organic acids |
Fermentation |
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What Is the metabolic pathway of 10 step pathway 1 glucose --> 2 pyruvate |
Glycolysis |
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What Is the metabolic pathway of Acetyl-coa --> CO2 + Electron carriers |
Kreb's cycle |
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When a molecule that is not the normal substrate for an enzyme binds to the active site of the enzyme you have? |
Competitive inhibition of the enzyme |
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Denaturation is most often a problem with? |
Proteins |
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Beta-oxidation is a method of catabolizing this molecule |
Glycerol |
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What Is the major function of fermentation? |
It regenerates NAD+ for glycolysis |
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Beta-oxidation located in the Mitochondria in bacteria? True or false |
False |
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Some bacteria are able to reduce nitrite (NO3-) to nitrite (NO2-). when these bacteria are present in the human bladder, nitrite accumulation results and may be the indicator for a UTI. When nitrite is reduced it ________ electrons. |
Gain electrons Reduction Is Gain Oxidation Is Loss |
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A cell that uses an organic carbon source and obtains energy from chemicals would be called a |
Chemoheterotroph |
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A halophile might grow beat in this environment |
A jar of Greek olives |
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Match the temperatures they go best at
1. Mesophile. A. 50° to 60° C 2. Thermophile. B. 20° to 40 ° C 3. Psychrophile. C. 5° to 15° C 4. Acidphile. D. pH 0.0 to 4.5 |
1. Mesophile. B. 20° to 40° C 2. Thermophile. A. 50° to 60 ° C 3. Psychrophile. C. 5° to 15° C 4. Acidphile. D. pH 0.0 to 4.5 |
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What cannot grow in the presence of oxygen? |
Obligate anaerobe |
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What can grow in the presence or absence of oxygen? |
Facultative anaerobe |
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What is oxygen dependent- must have oxygen to grow |
Aerobe |
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What grows in an atmosphere of lower oxygen and often higher CO2 |
Microaerophile |
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Serial dilutions are used to |
Slow down the growth of microbes |
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During the process of tooth decay, multiple species of bacteria adhere to the solid surface of the teeth In sequential layers. The complex arrangement of bacteria forms a highly resistant microbial community known as a? |
Biofilm |
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Medium 1 is? |
Both selective and differential |
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The sequence of DNA that specifies a protein is? |
A gene |
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The sum of all the genetic information in a cell is? |
The genome |
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A small circular piece of DNA that replicates independently of the chromosome in bacteria is? |
Plasmid |
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The visible/physical appearance of a cell or organism |
Phenotype |
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Small molecules of DNA that replicate independently that may be found in prokaryotic genomes are called __________. These pieces of DNA are not essential to growth, metabolism, or production, but may carry virulence factors or fertility factors . |
Plasmids |
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Part of mRNA sequence is 5'-CGUCAAAAG -3'. Assuming that this part of the sequence encodes three amino acids, the sequence of amino acids could be? |
Arginine- Glutamine- Lysine |
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All organism in or an object have been inactivated or destroyed |
Sterile |
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A chemical used to reduce the number of bacteria to acceptable public health standards |
Sanitizer |
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A chemical used on inanimate objects to reduce the number of pathogenic microorganisms |
Disinfectant |
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A chemical agent which can be used on living tissue |
Antiseptic |
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The figure shows the results of an experiment with an antimicrobial chemical applied at 2 different temperatures, 20°C and 45°C. Which like represents the death rate at the LOWER temperature, 20°C? |
Line B |
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3 structures of DNA |
- The two strands of DNA molecule are antiparallel to each other - DNA contains the sugar deoxyribose - The two strand of DNA molecules are held together by hydrogen bonds |
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In the genetic code, each amino acid in a polypeptide is coded for by codon or |
Three nucleotides in mRNA |
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The semi-conservative process of which one DNA polynucleotides strand is built upon an existing single stranded DNA template is call (DNA to DNA)? |
Replication |
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Transcription produces |
RNA molecules |
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The sites of protein synthesis in the bacterial cell occurs in/on |
Ribosomes |
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These 3 are used in the translation process of protein synthesis |
- mRNA - rRNA - tRNA
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What is the strand of DNA that would base pair with the sequence TACAGGCCTTT during DNA replication? |
TACAGGCCTTT= ATGTCCGGAAA |
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The ames test is used to test whether or not a chemical is? |
Mutagenic |
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What chemical category does betaine and other iodophores belong in? |
Halogens |
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What chemical category does cepacol and other quats belong in? |
Surfactants/ detergents |
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What chemical category does hydrogen peroxide belong in? |
Oxidizing agents |
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What chemical category does thimerosal and mercurochrome belong in? |
Heavy metals |
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Paul Ehrlich foresaw that the key to successful chemotherapy against microbes is _________ that is, the ability of a antimicrobial drug to be more toxic to a pathogen than to the pathogen's host |
Selective toxicity |
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Antimicrobials like tetracycline that are effective against gram-negative organisms, gram-positive organisms, chlamydia and Rickettsias are termed? |
Broad spectrum drugs |
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Why are some drugs that inhibit protein synthesis in bacteria also harmful to humans? |
Eukaryotic mitochondria have 70S ribosomes |
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A patient develops a C. Diff colon infection as a result of antibiotic therapy for a respiratory infection. Explain why? |
The antibiotics have disrupted the normal microbiota of the intestines |
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Antibiotics, such as cephapexin, which contains beta lactam rings act against bacteria by |
Interfering with cell wall synthesis |
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Can bacteria become resistant to antimicrobial drugs by planning new mutations to deactivate the drugs? |
No. (Producing enzymes deactivate drugs) |
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All viruses follow the same general life cycle True or false |
True |
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Viruses lack? |
- Cytosol - Organelles - Ribosomes
They have nucleic acid |
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The caps of a virus is made out of _________ while the envelope is made out of __________ |
Protein; phospholipid |
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Scientists have determined that prion diseases are not caused by a type of slow virus because prions _____________ |
Contain no nucleic acid |
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In the early 1900s, F Peyton Rous discovered the cancer-causing virus RSV. This virus had a genome that contained |
An oncogene |
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What is the order of a typical viral replication cycle? |
Adsorption, entry or penetration, uncoating, synthesis, assembly and maturation, exit |
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A virus that is specific for a bacterial host is called a? |
Phage |
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Is this mismatched? Cancer: invasive neoplastic cells |
Yes it is |
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West Nile virus encephalitis is caused by WNV. Wild birds, notably house sparrows are natural host to WNV. the virus is normally carried into humans by the bites of mosquitos. The mosquito passes the virus from birds to humans. From this description, WN encephalitis is a ___________ and the mosquito is the ___________ |
Zoonosis; vector |
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E. Coli are normally present in large numbers in the healthy intesties; however their infection in the urinary tract usually results in disease. An organism that is not normally pathogenic but may cause disease when present in the wrong location is known as |
Opportunistic |
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Normal microflora may be found in |
- Nasal mucosae - Stomach - Vagina |
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The disease known as tetanus or lock jaw is caused by the baterium clostridium tetani. An individual contracts the disease when bacterial endospores present in the environment are inoculated into a wound; the bacteria are not spread from person to person. This type of disease is |
Non-communicable and infectious |
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Which of the following is a sign of disease? - Nausea - Malaise - Muscle pain - Rash |
Rash |
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What term applies to the presence of microbes in or on the body? |
Contamination |
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A general term for a continual source of infection is? |
Reservoir |
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A fungal diseases can be transmitted through the air (more than 1 meter) via fungal spores. This type of disease transmission is called? |
Vehicle transmission |
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Ebola fever, which develops rapidly but last only a short time is best described as an? |
Acute disease |
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A common portal of entry for microorganisms is |
Mucous membrane |
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A short time of generalized, mild symptoms preceding illness is the? |
Prodromal period |
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Some viruses can become latent and dormant in the host cells. The host may show no viral activity for years. This can be caused by? |
Permanent incorporation of the provirus into the host DNA |
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One aspect to consider when prescribing an antibiotic is the efficacy of the drug. One test to determine the effectiveness of the drug is? |
Minimum inhibitory concentration test |
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Viruses have an extracellular state and an intracellular state. What comprised the intracellular state of a virus? |
Nucleic acid |
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Replication of DNA virus occurs in the _________ of a host cell; while replication of a RNA virus occurs in the _________ of a host cell |
Nucleus; cytoplasm |
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A virus that is specific for a plant is called? |
Viroid |
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What do you call chemicals that act against any disease? |
Chemotherapeutic agents |
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Inexpensive, Easily administered And Chemically stable for long term storage describe what? |
ideal antimicrobial agent |
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What is a disadvantage associated with the used of broad-spectrum antibiotics? |
They kill normal microbiota |
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What is the minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC)? |
the smallest amount of drug that will inhibit the growth and reproduction of a pathogen |
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The genomes of viruses are composed of which nucleic acid? |
DNA or RNA |
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The phospholipid portion of enveloped viruses come from? |
Host cell membranes |
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What is the name of the proteinaceous subunit that makes up the viral capsid? |
Capsomere |
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All prion diseases result in what symptoms |
Fatal neurological degeneration |
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____________ is a symbiotic relationship in which one organism benefits and the other organism neither benefits nor is harmed |
Commensalism |
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Microorganisms that are able to colonize the skin or mucosal surfaces for a limited period of time are called? |
Transient microbiota |
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What is an example of a parenteral route of infection? |
Stepping on a nail |
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What type of disease develops and lasts for a long period of time? |
Chronic |
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What term best describes the total number of disease cases in an area during a given period of time? |
Prevalence |
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What term best describes an epidemic that occurs simultaneously on more than one by continent? |
Pandemic |
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What can happen if an antimicrobial agent affects both pathogen and normal microbiota? |
A secondary infection can develop |
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Most antifungal agents target what cellular structure? |
Cytoplasmic membrane |
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What route of administration results in the lowest drug concentrations in the body? |
Local |
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Some antimicrobials can permanently affect a developing fetus True or false |
True |
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You are speaking with a patient who has been prescribed amoxicillin for a middle ear infection. This statement would indicate a good understanding of the instructions |
"I will take the full course of the antibiotics and return for a re-check" |
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When an organism evade the body's external defenses, multiplies and becomes established in the body is known as |
An infection |
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What contributes to protecting the eyes from microbial invasion? |
Tears contain lysozyne ans salt and mechanical flush particles from the eyes |
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The presence of normal microbiota that protects the body by competing with pathogens in a variety of ways to prevent pathogen's from invading body refers to |
Microbial antagonism |
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Which cell becomes a macrophage when leaving the blood stream? |
Monocyte |
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What is the process in which cell squeeze through the lining of capillaries to attack invading microbes? |
Diapedesis |
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The first line of defense include both cellular and humoral immunity? True or false |
False |
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Skin and mucous membranes, Complement and Inflammation are all part of? |
Non specific immunity |
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Does the alkali pH of the skin's surface inhibit growth of bacteria? |
No, high salt inhibits growth |
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These 3 blood cell types are part of the body's second line of defense |
- Neurophils - Granulocytes - Leukocytes |
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What does cells of the immune system that ingest pathogens refer to ? |
Phagocytosis |
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Serum proteins involved in nonspecific defense are part of |
The complement system |
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All of the cells or formed elements in the blood originate in? |
The spleen |
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Molecules that damage cells and result in cell lysis are called? |
Toll like receptors |
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A substance formed by virally infected cells which protects uninfected cells from the virus is |
Lysozyme |
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The redness and heat of an inflamed area are due to |
Vasoconstriction |
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A differential blood count shows that your patient has a high eosinophil count that amounts to 8% of his total white blood cells. This patient had spent the last three years as an antrpologist living among people in a remote part of Africa. What do you expect from his blood profile? |
The patient has eosinophilia usually causes by an infection with a parasitic worm |
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Phagocytic white blood cells include? |
Neutrophils |
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The condition that is caused by exogenous and endogenous pyrogens is? |
Fever |
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Immunity following recovery from mumps is an example of ? |
Naturally acquired active immunity |
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Substances recognized by the immune system as foreign which stimulate an immune response are? |
Antigens |
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Proteins produced by the body in response to foreign substances entering the body are known as |
Antibodies |
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A ring of lymphoid tissue that appears as a swelling of the mucous membrane in the oral cavity is called? |
Tonsil |
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Small organs associated with lymphatic vessels are terms |
Lymph nodes |
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___________ supplies immunity by Opsonization of target antigens, Neutralizing toxins and viruses and Activating complement and inflammation |
Antibodies |
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The blood cell responsible for producing antibodies is the? |
B-lymphocyte |
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A sick child comes to the urge care clinic with an upper respiratory infection, either influenza or RSV. antibody tests are ordered to determine the source of illness. The results are: anti-influenza antibodies are primarily IgM and anti-RSV antibodies are all IgA and IgG. What is the most appropriate interpretation? |
The child has a current influenza infection and has had previous exposure to RSV |
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The immune system's ability to recognize self-antigens and not Acts against normal body cells I known as ? |
Self tolerance |
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The amount of antibody titer produced during the primary response is |
Less than that of the secondary response |
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The active agents of humoral immunity includes? |
B cells and antibodies |
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The thymus, Lymph nodes and Hematopoietic stem cells are components of the what system? |
The lymphatic system |
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The antigens that a T cell recognizes in order to determine "self" are termed |
Major histocompatibility (MHC) antigens |
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A man had chicken pox when he was an infant. Now thirty years later his infant daughter contracted chicken pox, and he is able to care for her without fear of contracting the disease. what adaptive immunity is most important for this protection against the disease? |
Memory |
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Pentacel is a vaccine against diptheria, tetanus, pertussis, polis, and the haemophilus influenzae. This type of vaccine is a |
Combination vaccine |
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What type of cell is most heavily depleted during an HIV infection? |
Helper T cells |
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A type of vaccine which may cause a very mild infection but no serious disease under normal conditions is an |
Attenuated vaccine |
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Passive immunotherapy is used when |
Protection against a recent infection is needed immediately |
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This is typically not part of an ART cocktail for treating AIDS |
Corticosteroids |
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This is not a primary immunodeficiency disease |
AIDS |
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What behaviors increase the risk of HIV infections? |
- Anal intercourse - IV drug use - sexual promiscuity |
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The enzyme used by HIV to create a DNA copy of its RNA genome is |
Reverse transcriptase |
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This is not a criterion for diagnosing AIDS in a patient who was HIV positive? |
A rise in the population of CD4 cells |
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A life threatening allergic reaction to an injected vaccine is ? |
Anaphylactic shock |
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The most important vasodilator acting in acute inflammation is? |
Histamine |
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HIV can be spread in all of the following bodily fluids |
- Blood - Semen - Breast milk |
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A small percentage of HIV-Infected individuals are long term nonprogessors due to |
Mutated coreceptors for the virus or mutated virus/virion |
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Describe attributes of adaptive immunity |
Specificity, clonality, self tolerance, memory and inducibility |
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What type of vaccine will contain adjuvant to increase the effectiveness of the vaccine? |
Inactivated vaccine |
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The CDC recommends that adults obtains at least one booster against the caustic agent whooping cough (pertussis dtap) True or false |
True |
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Polio vaccines should be boosted every ten years though out adult life True or false |
False |
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Cell-mediated immunity would be employed in the neutralization of exotoxin? True or false |
False |
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A person with AIDS would be expected to have a severely depleted population of |
- CD4 cells - helper T cells - Th cells |
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What is a complication that may result from a streptococcus pyogenes skin infection? |
Erysipelas |
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Impetigo can be cause by |
Staphylococcus aureus |
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Necrotizing fasciitis is caused by |
Streptococcus pyogenes |
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Spreading black necrosis, swelling, pain, and froth or bubbles ar characteristics of |
Gas gangrene |
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Anthrax derives it's name from what aspects of the disease? |
The appearance of eschars on the skin |
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Common skin warts are the result of infection with? |
Papillomavirus |
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Localized swelling of a scratch accompanied by fever, malaise and swollen lymph nodes may result from infection with? |
Bartonella henselae (cat scratch) |
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Shingles or herpes zoster is a reactivation of the virus that cases ? |
Chicken pox |
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What disease can cause birth defects? |
Rubella |
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A small puncture would on a woman's arm has become swollen, hot to the touch, and intensely painful. There is tissue necrosis but it is not gassy and under the microscope gram-positive cocci chains are present. What microbes is likely responsible? |
Streptococcus pyogenes |
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Under some circumstances __________ is beneficial, but under other conditions the bacteria becomes over abundant leading to inflammation of hair follicles |
Propionbacterium acnes |
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The presence of koplik's spots is sufficient in diagnosis of? |
Measles |
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Encephalitis is an infection of? |
The brain |
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Newborn exposed to the gram-positive bacterium __________ during vaginal birth are at risk for developing neonatal meningitis |
Streptococcus agalactiae |
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Contaminated food is the source of ___________, which causes meningitis in the elderly and susceptible persons |
Listeria monicytogenes |
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The type of bacterial meningitis that becomes epidemic among young adults is caused by |
Neisseria meningitidis |
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An intracellular parasite primarily transmitted as an STD is the agent __________ which may cause enough damage to result in blindness |
Trachoma |
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The highly destructive form of Hansen's disease is the result of |
Poor immune response to mycobacterium leprae |
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Viral meningitis is also called "aseptic meningitis because |
It indicates no bacteria are involved |
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Poliovirus is most often transmitted via |
Contaminated water |
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African sleeping sickness is fatal if not treated because the parasite |
Evades destruction by the immune system by changing surface antigens |
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A child is brought to the hospital with a high fever, nausea, and vomiting and complaining of a headache. The CSF collected by spinal tap is cloudy and contains spherical cells which stain gram-negative. These signs and symptoms are consistent with |
Bacterial meningitis probably due to streptococcus |
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One summer, bird watcher and zookeeper in a major city notice that more birds than usual are dying. At the same time reports of human encephalitis cases increase sharply. The CSF of human patients is clear. Similar enveloped RNA virus particles are detected in samples from.both birds and humans. What disease might be responsible for the outbreak? |
Arbovirus |
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Nasal or ocular contact with water containing _________ may result in primary amebic meningoencephalitis |
Both acanthomoeba and naegleria |
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The disorder __________ is a condition of systemic infections with streptococcus in which antigen-antibody complexes form in the blood and gets trapped in the kidneys |
Glomerulonphritis |
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During the spring calving season, a ranch hand begins to run a fever and feel nauseous and achy. After he develops a headache and vomiting, he goes to the clinic. A microscopic exam of a urine sample reveals long thin microseconds which move very rapidly in a corkscrew pattern. The man contracted? |
Leptospirosis |
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The majority of cases of staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome occur in |
Menstruating women |
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The typical signs of primary syphilis is |
A chancre at the site of infection |
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The presence of gram-negative diplococci in pus from an inflamed penis is diagnostic for infection by |
Neisseria gonorrhoeae |
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Chancroid is caused by |
haemophilus ducreyi |
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The yeast infections caused by __________ can become systemic in AIDS patients |
Candidiasis |
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A patient complains of fever, pain on one side of the Body and fatigue. The clinician notes the patient's blood pressure is somewhat elevated. The patient reports experiencing some painful urination for a few days during the previous week tests on urine sample reveal the presence of motile gram-negative bacilli. What describes with scenario? |
- Enteric bacteria - UTI caused by fecal contamination of the urethra - E. Coli |
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Folliculitis when it occurs at the base of the eyelid |
Sty |
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Multiple furuncle grow together to produce these |
Carbuncles |
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Infection of hair follicle, often called a pimple |
Folliculitis |
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Spread of hair follicle infection into surrounding tissue |
Furuncles |
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I am an obligately aerobic gram-negative bacillus, resistant to antibiotics frequently implicated in nosocomial infections of burn patients. I produce a noticeable green pigment and i have a distinctive aroma. What am i |
Pseudomonas |
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A disease caused by a fungus is |
A mycosis |
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Ringworm is caused by a |
Fungus |
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Double vision, floppy paralysis |
Botulism |
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Loss of cutaneous sensation |
Hansen's disease/ leprosy |
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Spastic paralysis, clenched teeth |
Tetanus |
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Premature abortion and fetal death, meningitis |
Listeriosis |
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____________ is the vector responsible for transmitting rocky Mountain spotted fever B |
Tick |
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____________ is the vector responsible for transmitting leishmaniasis |
Sand fly |
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____________ is the vector responsible for transmitting rabies |
Bat |
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____________ is the vector responsible for transmitting west Nile virus |
Mosquito |
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Intact skin will not prevent entry of this disease |
Scabies |
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The leading cause of nontraumatic blindness is |
Chlamydia trachomatis |
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The characteristic between impetigo and erysipelas is |
Impetigo mainly occurs in children and erysipelas occurs in the elderly |
