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489 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
|
the muscles involved in elbow flexion(in order of importance)
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brachialis
biceps brachii brachioradialis |
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muscles involved in elbow extension
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triceps brachii
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where all 3 heads of triceps attach distally
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olecranon
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the nerves and arteries that go through the triangular interval
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radial nerve
deep brachial artery |
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muscles involved in pronation
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pronator teres
pronator quadratus |
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muscles involved in supination (strongest first)
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biceps brachii
supinator |
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the synergist muscle in pronation/supination
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brachioradialis
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what muscle do you use for strength recruitment for supination?
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biceps brachii
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what do you do for strength recruitment for pronation?
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add humeral abduction
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the location of the attachments of the pronator and supinator muscles can lead to what?
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fracture sites
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describe nursemaids elbow and the clue that is expressed when someone has this condition
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when the radial head is dislocated (pulled out)
when someone's arm automatically rests on their chest |
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what is the technical term for little league elbow/golfer's elbow?
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medial epicondylitis
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the medial epicondyle runs through what tunnel?
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cubital tunnel
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what are the superficial muscles of the anterior forearm?
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flexor carpi ulnaris
palmaris longus flexor carpi radialis pronator teres |
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what muscle in the forearm is absent in 13% of the population?
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palmaris longus
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what are the intermediate muscles of the anterior forearm?
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flexor digitorum superficialis
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as the flexor digitorum tendons are going through the flexor retinaculum, what is the arrangement?
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digits 3 and 4 lie on top of 2 and 5
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what are the deep muscles of the anterior forearm?
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flexor digitorum profundus
flexor pollicis longus pronator quadratus |
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what causes carpel tunnel "like" symptoms?
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when the median nerve is compressed between the two heads (humeral and ulnar) of the protanor teres
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What nerve and artery run through Guyon's tunnel?
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Ulnar nerve and artery
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what are the arteries that supply the anterior forearm?
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(brachial artery)
radial artery ulnar artery |
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what is the artery involved with the superficial palmar arch?
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ulnar artery
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what is the artery involved with the deep palmar arch?
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radial artery
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How are arteries names?
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by where they go
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What is wrong with the right hand of the cadaver on table 2?
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there is no palmar arch
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what is the action of the brachioradialis?
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it is a forearm flexor and stablizer
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what is the technical name of tennis elbow?
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lateral epicondylitis
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what nerves and arteries innervate/supply the posterior forearm?
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(posterior interosseous n)deep branch of the radial nerve
posterior interosseous artery |
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what are the borders of the anatomical snuffbox?
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extensor pollicis brevis
extensor pollicis longus extensor retinaculum abductor pollicis longus |
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what runs through the carpal tunnel?
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median nerve
4 tendons of flexor dig. superf. 4 tendons of flex. dig. profund. tendon of flex. palmaris longus |
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surgery of the carpel tunnel often leads to what syndrome?
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compartment syndrome (infection...must open the compartment and drain pus out)
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muscles involved in abduction of wrist
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flexor carpi radialis
extensor carpi radialis longus & brevis |
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muscles involved in adduction of wrist
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flexor carpi ulnaris
extensor carpi ulnaris |
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muscles involved in wrist flexion
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flexor carpi ulnaris
flexor carpi radialis palmaris longus |
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muscles involved in wrist extension
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extensor carpi ulnaris
extensor carpi radialis longus and brevis |
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the synergist muscles in wrist flexion
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flexor pollicis longus
flexor digitorum superficialis flexor digitorum profundus |
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synergist muscles in wrist extension
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extensor pollicis longus
extensor indices extensor digitorum extensor digiti minimi |
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synergist muscles in wrist abduction
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abductor pollicis longus
extensor pollicis brevis extensor pollicis longus |
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synergist muscles in wrist adduction
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extensor digiti minimi
flexor digitorum profundus |
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where does a wrist ganglia come from and what harm can it cause?
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synovial sheath or joint cavity
may compress nearby nerve |
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What are possible treatments of wrist ganglia
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watching
aspirating injection surgery bust it with a book |
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what causes Dupuytren's Contracture and what is the most commonly affected digit?
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Shortening of the palmar fascia
4th digit |
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How do you treat Dupuytren's Contracture?
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Surgery
Carve out fat and tissue |
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Describe trigger finger
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Inflamed nodule of tendon gets trapped behind tendon sheath, and finger becomes stuck in flexed position. it extends in a delayed manner.
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Describe symptoms of DeQuervain's tenosynovitis
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Pain at base of radial side of thumb. Difficulty grasping when strength is required. Pain intensifies with ulnar deviation.
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What are the borders of DeQuervain's tenosynovitis?
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extensor pollicis longus
abductor pollicis longus extensor pollicis brevis floor - scaphoid |
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what is the treatment of DeQuervain's tenosynovitis?
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corticosteroid injections
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what tendon and ligament is involved in Guyon's tunnel?
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Pisohamate ligament
tendon of flexor carpi ulnaris |
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what are the symptoms of guyon's tunnel?
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carpal tunnel like symptoms over digits 4 and 5
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Another place where you can get ulnar nerve impingement besides guyon's tunnel?
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cubital tunnel
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Lumbricals 1 and 2 are innervated by...
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Digital branches of median nerve.
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lumbricals 3 and 4 are innervated by...
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deep branch of ulnar nerve.
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proximal and distal attachments of the lumbricals
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flexor digitorum profundus tendons
dorsal hood |
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action of the lumbricals
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flex MCP joints and extend interphalangeal joints.
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the innervation of the 4 palmar interossei
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deep branch of the ulnar nerve (C8, T1).
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What are the proximal and distal attachments of the palmar interossei?
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MCP at 1st, 2nd, 4th, and 5th digits
extensor hoods and proximal phalanx of thumb |
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Action of the palmer interossei
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Adduction
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the 1st palmar interossei muscle is usually known as what other muscle?
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the deep part of flexor pollicis brevis
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innervation of the dorsal interossei
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deep branch of ulnar nerve (C8,T1)
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proximal and distal attachments of dorsal interossei
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adjacent sides of metacarpals
base of proximal phalanx and extensor hoods |
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action of dorsal interossei
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abducts digits 2-4 at MCP joints
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All thenar muscles are innervated by ...
The one exception is... |
recurrent branch of median nerve (C8,T1)
adductor pollicis |
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attachments of abductor pollicis brevis
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scaphoid and trapezium
1st phalanx and extensor hood. |
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action of abductor pollicis brevis
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abducts thumb at MCP
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flexor pollicis brevis has 2 heads (superficial/deep head) and their attachments are
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trapezium
proximal phalanx |
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action of the flexor pollicis brevis is
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flexes thumb at MCP joint
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attachments of opponens pollicis
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trapezium and palmer aponeurosis
1st metacarpal |
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actions of opponens pollicis
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rotates/flexes 1st metacarpal on trapezium
also opposition |
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All of the hypothenar muscles are innervated by
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deep branch of ulnar nerve (C8,T1)
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attachments of abductor digiti minimi
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pisiform and tendon of flexor carpi ulnaris
proximal phalanx of 5th digit |
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action of abductor digiti minimi
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abducts 5th digit at MCP joint
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attachments of flexor digiti minimi
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hook of hamate
proximal phalanx of 5th digit |
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action of flexor digiti minimi
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flexes 5th digit at MCP joint
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attachments of opponens digiti minimi
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hook of hamate
5th metacarpal |
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action of opponens digiti minimi
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laterally rotates 5th metacarpal toward palm
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innervation of the adductor pollicis
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deep branch of ulnar nerve (C8,T1)
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proximal attachments of the 2 heads of the adductor pollicis
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transverse: 3rd metacarpal
oblique: capitate and metacarpals 2 and 3 |
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distal attachments of the 2 heads of the adductor pollicis
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proximal phalanx and extensor hood of thumb
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actions of adductor pollicis
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adducts thumb and opposes other digits in gripping
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what artery passes between the 2 heads of the adductor pollicis to enter the deep palm and form the deep palmar arch?
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radial artery
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innervation of the palmaris brevis
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superficial branch of the ulnar nerve (C8,T1)
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palmaris brevis is what type of muscle?
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cutaneous muscle
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attachments of palmaris brevis
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palmar aponeurosis and flexor retinaculum
dermis |
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action of palmaris brevis
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improves grip
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recurrent branch of median nerve is what type of nerve?
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motor
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The million dollar nerve is what nerve?
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the recurrent branch of the median nerve
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what does Allen's test test for?
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tests for anastamosis between radial and ulnar artery.
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abduction and adduction of the fingers occurs at
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the MCP (metacarpal phalangeal joint)
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the lumbrical muscles are oriented on which side?
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radial side
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How many cervical vertebrae
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7
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how many thoracic vertebrae
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12
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how many lumber vertebrae
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5
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how many sacral vertebrae
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5
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how many coccygeal vertebrae
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4
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Only how many percent of people will have the correct number of vertebrae?
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20%
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which vertebrae are the most stable (as far as number)?
the most variable? |
cervical
coccygeal |
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primary curvature is when the concavity is ...(anterior or posterior)?
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anterior
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secondary curvatures are concaved (anteriorly or posteriorly)?
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posteriorly
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usually, the 2 regions that are concave posteriorly are
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cervical and lumbar region
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a person with a humpback is usually diagnosed with...
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thoracic kyphosis
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when your lumbar region is extremely curved posteriorly, it is usually called...
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lumbar lordosis
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when your spine is curved laterally, it is called
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scoliosis
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if a person exhibits scoliosis, and bends over, you will see what on her back?
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one side will be elevated
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what is zygopophysis
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superior and inferior articular process of spine
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unique characteristics of cervical vertebrae are...
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anterior and posterior tubercles
foramen intertransversarium bifid spinous process |
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unique characteristics of thoracic vertebrae are...
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superior and inferior costal facet
articular facet for rib tubercle spinous processes slant inferior |
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unique characteristics of lumbar vertebrae are...
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superior facets are vertical and concave
inferior facets are vertical and convex spinous processes are horizontal and massive |
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sacralization of L5 is when...
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5th lumbar vertebrae becomes fused to sacrum
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lumbarization of S1 is when...
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first sacral vertebrae is not completely fused to the rest of the sacral vertebrae
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if the coccyx is fused, what can occur during delivery?
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it may be broken
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supraspinal ligament runs...
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across spinous processes
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flavum ligament has what color tinge and is full of what?
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yellow
elastin |
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cervical vertebrae gives most motion in
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lateral and side bending
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list the first 3 vertebral sections in the order of allowing the most rotation to the least rotation
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cervical
thoracic lumbar |
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list the first 3 vertebral sections in the order of allowing the most extension/flexion to the least
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cervical
lumbar thoracic |
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overall, the ... region of vertebrae allow the most range of motion
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cervical
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overall, the ... region of vertebrae allow the least range of motion.
why? |
thoracic
ribs |
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the 2 muscular retinacula of the back are the
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serratus posterior superior and the serratus posterior inferior
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what is the function of the serratus posterior superior and inferior?
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to bind down the powerful deep back muscles. act like retinaculum.
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erector spinae muscles are also known as
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sacrospinalis muscles
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the general term for the two groups of deep back muscles (Erector spinae and Transversospinalis) is...
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paraspinal muscles
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erector spinae muscles
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splenius
iliocostalis longissimus spinalis interspinales |
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the spinalis muscle is only in what region?
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thoracic region
|
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transversospinalis muscles
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*semispinalis
*multifidus rotatores intertransversarii *levatores costorum |
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the suboccipital region is bounded by what 3 muscles?
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rectus capitis posterior major
inferior capital oblique superior capital oblique |
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what nerve and artery run through the suboccipital region?
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suboccipital nerve
vertebral artery |
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the suboccipital nerve is from...
...and is an exception in that... |
dorsal ramus of C1
it is motor only |
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what do you never want to do (OMM wise) because of the vertebral artery?
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never want to do OMM in neck extension.
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suboccipital contents are
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dorsal rami 1 (suboccipital)
dorsal rami 2 (greater occipital) dorsal rami 3 (lesser occipital vertebral artery |
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dorsal ramus of C2 and C3 are...
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sensory only
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the mesoderm plays a special role in the formation of ... and ...
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muscles and bones
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somites are ... derived tissues
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mesodermally
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the ... induces differentiation of the somites
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notochord
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intermediate and lateral plate mesoderm differentiates at (the same time or different time)?
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same time
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somites are found from ... through ... regions
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occipital
sacral |
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somites further differentiate into ...
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dermotome
myotome sclerotome |
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lateral plate differentiates into ...
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splanchnopleure
somatopleure |
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what mesoderm surrounds the internal organs like the GI tract? (visceral)
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splanchnic mesoderm
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what mesoderm covers the inner surfaces of the forming body wall? (like upper extremities)
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somatic mesoderm
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by the 3rd week, is the mesoderm differentiated or undifferentiated?
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undifferentiated
|
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by what week is there divisions of the lateral plate?
|
early 4th week
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what becomes dermomyotome (dorsal), which gives rise to dermis of skin and muscle, and sclerotome (ventral/medial)?
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somites
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by when has the somites differentiated into dermomyotome and sclerotome?
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late 4th week
|
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all muscles of the body come from the ... layer of the somites.
They ... to their final location beginning in the 5th week. |
myotome
migrate |
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... are developing muscle cells. They will migrate
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myoblasts
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The vertebrae, intervertebral disks, and ribs arise from the ... part of the somite
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sclerotome
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what part of the lateral plate mesoderm gives rise to all the bones of your extremities?
|
somatopleure
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what are the 2 types of bone development and growth?
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intramembranous ossification and endochondral ossification
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intramembranous ossification is also known as dermal ossification, which takes place in ...
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the dermis of the skin
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endochondral ossification is when a hyaline cartilage model is ...
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converted into bone.
|
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long bones are mostly what type of bone development and growth?
|
endochondral ossification
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intramembranous bone formation occurs in the ... bones of the skull and face
|
flat
|
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... cells migrate to the area of the dermis (where bones are made)
|
mesenchymal
|
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in endochondral bone formation, most of the bones of the body are first laid down as ...
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cartilaginous models.
|
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in endochondral bone formation, if the epiphyseal plate is present, the cartilage will (continue to grow or stop growing)?
|
continue to grow
|
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for bone development, mesenchymal migration occurs when?
|
4th-5th week
|
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for bone development, condensation of mesoderm occurs when?
|
5th-6th week
|
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for bone development, chondrification occurs when?
|
6th week
|
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for bone development, primary ossification usually starts when?
(although a few bones don't develop until after birth) |
7-12 weeks
|
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for bone development, secondary ossification centers usually begin when?
|
from birth to 9th year, depending on the specific bone
|
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for bone development, fusion of epiphyseal plates usually occurs between what time frame?
|
18th to 25th year
|
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interphalangeal joints, knee joints, and sternoclavicular joints are all examples of what type of joint?
|
synovial joint
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a single vertebrae is fromed from ...
the sclerotome divides into 2 parts. what are they? |
2 separate somites.
anterior and posterior part. |
|
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the intervertebral disk is also derived from...
|
mesoderm
|
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After the migration of sclerotome, a remenant of ... is found in the middle of the vertebral disk.
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notochord
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the remnant of the notochord is also known as ...
|
nucleus pulposus
|
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in the vertebral development, if a migration error occurs, and parts of segments are missing, what disorder can develop?
|
scoliosis
|
|
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do newborns still have cartilage in their vertebrae?
|
yes
|
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Fusions of the sacral development begin with the ... segments and end with the ... ones
|
lowest
uppermost |
|
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the holes in the sacrum are remnants of ...
|
intervertebral notch
|
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the body wall musculature arises from ... of somites
|
dermomyotome
|
|
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about when do the myoblasts arise from the dermomyotome and begin to migrate within the mesoderm?
|
5th week
|
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the ..., which arises from the myotome, is also known as the epaxial group.
|
epimere
|
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the ..., which arises from the myotome, continues to migrate further to follow the developing embryo.
|
hypomere
|
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... forms deep back muscles late in the 5th week.
|
epimere
|
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... forms appendicular and body wall muscles late in the 5th week.
|
hypomere
|
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(body wall musculature)
myoblasts --> --> |
myotube --> myofiber
|
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as muscle grows in length, ... cells fuse with the muscle fibers to help it elongate
|
satellite
|
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(core differentiation of limbs)
what does apical ectodermal ridge do? |
directs growth out to the limb
|
|
|
... genes 9-13 regulate bone type, shape, and growth and will be differentially expressed as the limb grows.
|
homeobox
|
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generally, ... mesoderm migrates superficial to ..., so bones are deepest and muscle is most superficial.
|
hypomere
somatopleure |
|
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muscles ventral to bones are ... (anterior division), those dorsal to bones are ... (posterior division).
|
preaxial
postaxial |
|
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... of the entire lower extremity at about the mid-thigh level makes the dorsal surface of the leg ..., and the ventral surface of the leg ...
|
rotation
anteriorly posteriorly |
|
|
... extremity develops earlier than ... extremity
|
upper
lower |
|
|
what anomaly of limb development results due to reduced motion in utero? and why?
|
Club foot; foot shape conforms to wall of uterus
|
|
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what is meromelia?
|
missing limbs or parts of limbs
|
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what is polydactily?
|
extra digits
|
|
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what is syndactyly?
|
where digits don't totally separate
|
|
|
(thoracic boundaries)
upper right quadrant contains |
liver
gall bladder |
|
|
(thoracic boundaries)
upper left quadrant contains |
spleen
stomach pancreas |
|
|
where does the diaphragm and abdominal musculature attach to?
|
xyphoid process
|
|
|
rib 2 attaches to where on the sternum?
|
sternal angle
|
|
|
the sternal angle is an important anatomical landmark for what?
|
the disk between T4 and T5
|
|
|
what are the functions of the thorax?
|
protection of vital organs
breathing provides attachment for upper extremities conduit |
|
|
How many body attachments/joints are there for the thorax?
what are they? |
1; sternoclavicular joint
|
|
|
thoracic vertebrae allow for what type of movements?
|
lateral bending and rotation
|
|
|
C1 rami is ...
|
motor only
|
|
|
2 pedicles and 2 laminae =
|
vertebral arch
|
|
|
what separates individual vertebrae and transmits dorsal and ventral roots of spinal nerves into and out of vertebral canal?
|
intervertebral foramina
|
|
|
what is formed by all vertebral foramina and ligaments and disks that interconnect them?
|
vertebral canal
|
|
|
what contains meninges, spinal cord, and roots of spinal nerves?
|
vertebral canal
|
|
|
what are the secondary curvatures?
which way do they curve? |
cervical and lumbar
directed anteriorly |
|
|
what are the primary curvatures?
Which way do they curve? |
thoracic and sacral
directed posteriorly |
|
|
How many bones are there normally in a coccyx?
|
4
|
|
|
there are normally a total of ? vertebrae
|
33
|
|
|
what surrounds the nucleus pulposus?
|
annulus fibrosis
|
|
|
a herniated disc an cause ...
|
a compressed nerve root
|
|
|
what is the postnatal remnant of the fetal notochord?
|
nucleus pulposus
|
|
|
herniated disks usually occur in what regions?
|
lower cervical
lower lumbar |
|
|
at cervical levels, a herniated disc most commonly occurs at discs between ... and ... and compresses ... spinal nerve
|
C6, C7
C7 |
|
|
at lumbar levels, a herniated disc most commonly occurs at discs between ... and ... vertebrae, or between ... and ... vertebrae.
may result in ... (pain that radiates from back into the thigh, leg, and foot) |
L4, L5
L5, S1 sciatica |
|
|
what is the term for "hunchback"? (abnormal increase in posterior curvature of the spine)
|
kyphosis
|
|
|
what is the term for "swayback"? (abnormal increase in the anterior curvature of the spine)
|
lordosis
|
|
|
lordosis may be caused by
|
weakening of the anterior abdominal wall due to weight gain.
|
|
|
what can be caused by an absent half of a vertebra or a wedge-shaped vertebra or by an asymmetric weakness of back musculature?
|
scoliosis
|
|
|
the two main types of spina bifida are ...
|
occulta
cystica |
|
|
describe spina bifida occulta
|
spinous process fails to form.
no symptoms. may have tuft of hair in skin over defected area. |
|
|
what are the two types of spina bifida cystica?
|
meningocele
myelomeningocele |
|
|
spina bifida is most commonly seen at what regions?
|
lower lumbar
sacral vertebral levels |
|
|
describe the differences between meningocele and myelomeningocele (spina bifida cystica)
|
the spinal cord protrudes and stretches the lumbosacral spinal nerves in myelomeningocele.
|
|
|
what joint is formed between the facets of superior and inferior processes at the junction of each pedicle and lamina?
|
zygapophyseal joints
|
|
|
what ligament covers the anterolateral parts of vertebral bodies and disks and functions to limit vertebral extension?
|
anterior longitudinal ligament
|
|
|
what ligament covers the posterior parts of vertebral bodies and disks and functions to limit vertebral flexion?
|
posterior longitudinal ligament
|
|
|
what extends between laminae of adjacent vertebrae and functions to limit vertebral flexion and help maintain normal vertebral curvature?
|
elastic ligamentum flavum
|
|
|
what vertebra does spondylolysis and spondylolisthesis usually occur?
|
around L5
|
|
|
where does the "collar" of the scottie dog lie?
|
isthmus or pars interarticularis
(between the transverse process and inferior articular process) |
|
|
what are the usual symptoms of a "scottie dog" collar?
|
bilateral lower back pain that radiates into both lower limbs and weakness in muscles of the legs
|
|
|
what is spondylolysis
|
defect or fracture of the isthmus, with no anterior displacement of the vertebral body
|
|
|
what is spinal stenosis and what is a possible cause?
|
a narrowing of the vertebral canal.
spondylolysis |
|
|
what is it called when there is a unilateral or bilateral defect or fracture of the isthmus accompanied by anterior displacement of the vertebral body?
|
spondylolisthesis
|
|
|
what kind of movement does ribs 1-7 have?
|
pump handle movement
|
|
|
what kind of movement do ribs 8-10 have?
|
bucket handle movement
|
|
|
ribs 11 and 12 are imbedded in where?
|
the muscles of the abdominal wall
|
|
|
the costal vertebral joint involves what specific parts of the body?
|
head of the rib and body of vertebrae and discs
|
|
|
the costotransverse joint involves what?
|
the tubercle of the rib and the transverse processes of the vertebrae
|
|
|
where is the most common fracture point on the rib and what can it lead to?
|
just anterior to the angle of the rib.
pneumothorax |
|
|
which rib is located at the sternal angle?
|
2nd
|
|
|
what in the sternum could calcify?
|
xyphoid process
|
|
|
what term refers to the space for passage of things going in and out of the thorax? ... aka...
|
mediastinum
thoracic outlet |
|
|
what might develop in the superior/anterior mediastinum?
what are the symptoms? |
thymoma
chest pain and obstructed left brachiocephalic vein. |
|
|
apices of lung and pleura project up through what opening into the neck?
|
thoracic outlet
|
|
|
if there is a cervical rib, what might be compressed?
|
T1 spinal nerve and subclavian artery
|
|
|
Having a diminished radial pulse and pain and paresthesis in the medial forearm are symptoms for having what?
(signs of Horner's syndrome - damage to sympathetic nervous system - may also be seen) |
cervical rib
|
|
|
freely movable joints are called ... and have ...
|
diarthrosis
synovial fluid |
|
|
partly movable joints are called ... and have ...
|
amphiarthrosis
cartilage |
|
|
immovable joints are called ... and have ...
|
synarthrosis
dense tissue |
|
|
ball and socket joints (shoulder and hip) and hinge joints (elbow and knee) are examples of ... joints
|
diarthrodial joints
|
|
|
symphysis (intervertebral and pubic joints) are examples of ... joints
|
amphiarthrodial joints
|
|
|
sutures in skull, interosseous membrane, and gomphosis (tooth socket) are all examples of ... joints.
|
synarthrodial joints
|
|
|
what is the origin of a typical intercostal nerve?
|
ventral ramus of spinal nerve
|
|
|
location of VAN
|
the superior part of the intercostal space and between intercostal muscle layers 2 and 3
(inferior edge of rib) |
|
|
"C3,4,5, keep the diaphragm alive" describes what nerve?
|
phrenic nerve
|
|
|
the phrenic nerve is only ... innervation to the diaphragm
|
motor
|
|
|
most of the sensory innervation from the diaphragm is from
|
intercostal nerves
|
|
|
the sympathetic chain is located on each side of the vertebral column and the sympathetic info has to begin at one of the ... - ... levels
|
T1-L2
|
|
|
... are found in ganglia
|
cell bodies
|
|
|
what is a group of nerve cell bodies located outside of the CNS? (in the PNS)
|
ganglion
|
|
|
what is a group of cell bodies called within the CNS?
|
nucleus
|
|
|
the 3 primary origins of arteries to the thoracic wall are...
|
internal thoracic artery
musculophrenic artery aorta (posterior intercostal aa) |
|
|
the internal thoracic artery supplies the anterior intercostal aa of (##)
|
1-6
|
|
|
the musculophrenic artery supplies the anterior intercostal aa of (##)
|
7-9
|
|
|
the aorta supplies the posterior intercostal aa of (##)
|
1-11
|
|
|
With intercostal ..., origins are anterior and posterior, and with intercostal ..., origins are only posterior
|
arteries
nerves |
|
|
there are no anterior intercostals (##)
|
10-11
|
|
|
breasts are modified... and produce milk
|
sweat glands
|
|
|
there are #-# lobes, which are connected to the nipple by ...
|
15-20
lactiferous ducts |
|
|
... separates lobes in breasts and attach to skin.
|
suspensory (cooper's) ligaments
|
|
|
most of the lymphatic drainage in the breasts go to ...
|
axillary lymph nodes
|
|
|
parts of the medial lymphatic drainage go to the ...
|
parasternal lymph nodes
|
|
|
most adenocarcinomas are ... carsinomas
|
lactiferous duct
|
|
|
> 50% of adenocarcinomas occur in the ... quadrant
|
upper, lateral
|
|
|
the signs of late-stage adenocarcinoma of the breasts are...
|
retraction of the nipple, dimpling of the skin (due to invasion of suspensory ligaments)
|
|
|
what procedure removes breast, pectoralis major and minor, axillary lymph nodes and vessels, and tributaries of the axillary vein?
|
radical masectomy
|
|
|
when doing a radical masectomy, what nerves must you be aware of?
|
long thoracic nerve and thoracodorsal nerve
|
|
|
the retromammary space is located where?
|
anterior to the fascia above the pectoralis major
|
|
|
cooper's ligaments attach ... to ...
|
skin to fascia
|
|
|
what is the lobe that first collects the lymph from a cancerous lesion called?
|
sentinal lobe
|
|
|
irritative phrenic nerve lesions causes
|
involuntary contractions of the diaphragm and may result in hiccups
|
|
|
paralysis and paradoxical movement of one half of the diaphragm. Paralyzed dome of diaphragm fails to decend upon inspiration, and is forced superiorly by an increase in intra-abdominal pressure. These are due to ...
|
destructive phrenic nerve lesions
|
|
|
when you insert a needle in the pleral cavity in the 9th intercostal space to sample or withdraw fluid from a costodiaphragmatic recess, it is called
|
thoracocentesis
|
|
|
what covers the external surfaces of bones?
|
periosteum
|
|
|
fractures can lead to ... which is loss of bone tissue due to loss of arterial blood supply
|
avascular necrosis
|
|
|
what does this describe?
-Antibodies attack ACh receptors, --> defective neuromuscular transmission. -mainly affects muscles innervated by cranial nerves (ocular muscles). More use --> more weakness. -Cardiac and smooth muscles are not affected |
myasthenia gravis
|
|
|
what does this describe?
-an immunologic disorder of calcium ion channels in the nerves at the end plate. -affects proximal muscles in limbs. Spares muscles innervated by cranial nerves. -repetition of contraction --> increase in strength. |
Lambert-Eaton Syndrome
|
|
|
Cardiac muscle forms ... of heart.
the contraction is initiated by cardiac conduction system and modified by ... |
myocardium
autonomic nerves |
|
|
smooth muscles produce rythmic contractions to move substances (...), restricts blood vessels, and forms sphincters.
involuntary control by ... |
peristalsis
autonomic nerves |
|
|
most small arteries communicate with each other through ...
|
anastomoses (collateral circulation)
|
|
|
arteries that lack collateral circulation are called
|
anatomic end arteries
|
|
|
blood has passed through 1 venous capillary bed before returning to heart. This describes...
|
valval and pulmonary veins
|
|
|
blood has passed through 1 venous capillary bed already, and will pass through another one before returning to the heart. This describes...
|
portal veins
|
|
|
interconnections between small arteries and veins are known as ...
|
arteriovenous shunts
|
|
|
shunts in skin are for...
|
thermoregulation
|
|
|
shunts in walls of intestines are for...
|
diverting blood to the hepatic portal system when nutrients are not being absorbed.
|
|
|
this describes...
-arteriovenous shunts show hyperactive vasoconstriction, leading to cooling of hands and feet. -cyanosis possible in fingers and toes |
Raynaud's disease
|
|
|
lymphatic vessels that absorb large fatty acids from intestine are called...
|
lacteals
|
|
|
what is the flow of the lymphatic system?
|
lymph capillaries --> lymph vessels --> lymph nodes --> lymph trunks
|
|
|
lymph enters where internal jugular vein and subclavian vein meet by way of ... on the right, or ... on the left
|
right lymphatic duct
thoracic duct |
|
|
what do lymph nodes do?
|
filter and process lymph
|
|
|
blood has passed through 1 venous capillary bed before returning to heart. This describes...
|
valval and pulmonary veins
|
|
|
blood has passed through 1 venous capillary bed already, and will pass through another one before returning to the heart. This describes...
|
portal veins
|
|
|
interconnections between small arteries and veins are known as ...
|
arteriovenous shunts
|
|
|
shunts in skin are for...
|
thermoregulation
|
|
|
shunts in walls of intestines are for...
|
diverting blood to the hepatic portal system when nutrients are not being absorbed.
|
|
|
this describes...
-arteriovenous shunts show hyperactive vasoconstriction, leading to cooling of hands and feet. -cyanosis possible in fingers and toes |
Raynaud's disease
|
|
|
lymphatic vessels that absorb large fatty acids from intestine are called...
|
lacteals
|
|
|
what is the flow of the lymphatic system?
|
lymph capillaries --> lymph vessels --> lymph nodes --> lymph trunks
|
|
|
lymph enters where internal jugular vein and subclavian vein meet by way of ... on the right, or ... on the left
|
right lymphatic duct
thoracic duct |
|
|
what do lymph nodes do?
|
filter and process lymph
|
|
|
what does this describe?
overproduction or lack of absorption of cerebrospinal fluid. Could be through blockage inside ventricles in brain. |
hydrocephalus
|
|
|
what kind of fluid is located in pleural, pericardial, and peritoneal cavities? It promotes friction-reducing movements of lungs, heart, and gastrointestinal viscera
|
serous fluid
|
|
|
What is the fluid that is made in the inner ear and is essential for hair function?
|
endolymph
|
|
|
What is the fluid that provides nutrients for the lens and cornea of the eye? It determines intraocular pressure. Elevated pressure --> optic nerve compression --> glaucoma.
|
aqueous humor
|
|
|
In the CNS, neurons in nucleus are derived from the...
|
neural tube
|
|
|
myelination in CNS is called ...
They myelinate ... axons and don't regenerate if cut. |
oligodendrocytes
multiple |
|
|
myelination in PNS is called ...
They myelinate ... axons and regenerate if cut. |
Schwann cells
single |
|
|
What does this describe?
-affects both sensory and motor symptoms through inflammatory reaction in oligodendrocytes (CNS). -impairs and blocks transmission. -optic nerve affected. Optic neuritis is a presenting sign in 40% of diagnosed patients. |
multiple sclerosis
|
|
|
what does this describe?
-acute inflammatory reaction in schwann cells in PNS. -impairs, blocks impulse transmission. -motor neurons always affected --> weak limbs, cranial nerve innervated muscles, and respiratory muscles. -sensory deficits mild or absent |
Guillain-Barre Syndrome
|
|
|
what does this describe?
-Tumors compress cranial nerve 8 and affects hearing and balance |
schwannomas
|
|
|
neurons in ganglia come from ...
|
neural crest ectoderm
|
|
|
the sympathetic division uses ... for preganglionic sympathetic axons and uses ... for all postganglionic sympathetic axons, except for those innervating sweat glands and erectile tissues, which uses ...
|
acetylcholine
norepinephrine acetycholine |
|
|
what do arrector pili muscles do?
|
make your hair stand on end
|
|
|
which autonomic system has long 1st order neurons?
|
parasympathetic
|
|
|
which autonomic system has short 1st order neurons?
|
sympathetic
|
|
|
the parasympathetic division uses ... for all pre and post ganglionic axons
|
acetylcholine
|
|
|
what does dorsal rami innervate?
ventral rami? |
The skin of the medial 2/3 of the back, and the deep back muscles.
Most everything else |
|
|
what is a dermatome?
|
a spinal nerve and the skin area that it innervates. it's sensory only
|
|
|
what branches carry autonomic sensory fibers to organs in thorax, abdomen, and pelvis?
|
splanchnic branches
|
|
|
dermatomes for anterior side
neck nipple belly button hip down to groin area |
C3-neck
T4-nipple T10-belly button L1-hip down to groin |
|
|
dermatomes for posterior side
neck waist top of crack penis anus hole |
C4 and C5 - neck
T11 and T12 - waist S1 - top of crack S2 and S3 - penis S5 - anus hole |
|
|
what is commonly known as shingles, and runs along a dermatome?
|
herpes zoster
|
|
|
what does this describe?
-caused by lesion in sympathetic neurons. patients have anhydrosis (unable to sweat on corresponding side of face), ptosis (drooping eyelid), and miosis (pupil constriction) |
Horner's syndrome
|
|
|
what does this describe?
-degeneration of preganglionic sympathetic and parasympathetic neurons. -leads to impotence, urine retention, dizziness on standing, blurred vision, inability to sweat. |
shy-drager syndrome
|
|
|
what does this describe?
-absense of peristalsis -failure of neural crest cells either to migrate to the wall of the descending colon, or rectum to differentiate into terminal parasympathetic ganglia. |
Hirschsprung's disease
|
|
|
a reflex must have...
|
at least one sensory neuron and one motor neuron
|
|
|
Contraction of smooth muscle, secretion of gland, and a change in rate and force of heart muscle are all examples of ...
|
autonomic reflexes
|
|
|
pupillary light reflex, blink reflex, and gag reflex are all examples of
|
cranial nerve reflexes
|
|
|
anterior part of the arm...
action? innervation? blood supply? exceptions? |
forearm flexors
musculocutaneous n. brachial a. 1)coracobrachialis-humeral adductor and flexor 2)biceps brachii (long head) - humeral flexor 3)brachialis is innervated by radial nerve also |
|
|
posterior part of arm...
action? innervation? blood supply? Exceptions? |
forearm extensors
radial n. deep brachial artery 1)triceps brachii(long head) - humeral extension |
|
|
anterior forearm
action? innervation? blood supply? exceptions? |
wrist flexors
median n. radial and ulnar aa. 1)pronator teres - pronates 2)flexor carpi ulnaris and 1/2 of flexor digitorum profundus is innervated by ulnar n. |
|
|
posterior forearm
action? innervation? blood supply? exceptions? |
wrist extensors
radial n. posterior interosseous a. 1)supinator - supinates forearm 2)brachioradialis - forearm flexor |
|
|
Hypothenar and central compartment is generally innervated by...
exceptions? |
ulnar nerve
1)1st and 2nd lumbricals innervated by median n. |
|
|
The thenar compartment is generally innvervated by...
exceptions? |
median nerve
1) adductor pollicis - ulnar n. |
|
|
All compartments of the hand are supplied by ... via...
|
ulnar and radial aa.
via superficial and deep palmar arches |
|
|
what is this describing?
-clavicle or scapula and trunk -sternoclavicular joint contains an articular disk (divided into 2 joint cavities) -acromioclavicular joint |
pectoral girdle
|
|
|
what is this describing?
-common around middle third and lateral third. -medial 2/3 can be elevated by sternocleidomastoid muscle, later 1/3 can be depressed by weight of limb or adducted by pectoralus major. -can cause laceration of C8 and T1 in medial cord. |
fracture of clavicle
|
|
|
what are the 2 planes of the 4 quadrants of the abdominal wall?
|
mid-sagittal (median) plane
transumbilical plane |
|
|
the transumbilical plane of the abdomen intersects at the disk between which 2 vertebrae?
|
L3 and L4
|
|
|
the transpyloric plane of the abdomen is important for ...
|
imaging
|
|
|
the transtubercular plane in the abdomen intersects the tubercles at the top of the ...
|
iliac crest
|
|
|
What are the 8 layers of the abdominal wall (from superficial to deep)?
|
skin
Camper's fascia Scarpa's fascia external abdominal oblique m. internal abdominal oblique m. transverse abdominal oblique m transversalis fascia peritoneum |
|
|
camper's fascia is the ... layer
|
fatty
|
|
|
scarpa's fascia is the ... layer
|
membranous
|
|
|
what is deep to the transversus abdominal muscle and in contact with the rectus abdominis below the arcuate line?
|
transversalis fascia
|
|
|
what is the tissue layer where ovaries and testes develop?
|
extraperitoneal fat
|
|
|
What is a serous membrane that lines the walls of the abdominopelvic cavity and invests gastrointestinal structures below the diaphragm?
|
peritoneum
|
|
|
what are the 2 layers of the peritoneum and what to they line?
|
Parietal layer - lines the abdominopelvic walls
visceral layer - covers gastrointestinal structures |
|
|
what is the potential space between parietal and visceral layers of the peritoneum?
|
peritoneal cavity
|
|
|
what is this?
An accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity and may be caused by peritonitis or result from congestion of the venous drainage of the abdomen. |
ascites
|
|
|
what are the folds or reflections of the peritoneum called?
|
mesentaries
|
|
|
what can occur when you have a weak abdominal wall and increased abdominal pressure?
|
hernia
|
|
|
the external and internal oblique and the transversus abdominis muscles all wrap around and form a ... around the rectus abdominus?
|
sheath
|
|
|
transversus abdominus fibers run ...
|
horizontally
|
|
|
what muscle does this describe?
flexes lumbar vertebrae, and with other muscles of abdominal wall, compresses the abdomen, which leads to increased intra-abdominal pressure |
rectus abdominis muscle
|
|
|
the transverse lines in between each section of the rectus abdominal muscles is called a
|
tendinous intersection
|
|
|
the midline traveling down the rectus abdominis muscle is called ...
|
linea alba
|
|
|
where does the external oblique form the sheath around the rectus abdominal muscle? (above the arcuate line)
|
anterior
|
|
|
the fibers of the external oblique run ...
|
medially and inferiorly
|
|
|
the fibers of the internal oblique run ...
|
superiorly and medially
|
|
|
the external and internal oblique muscles become the internal and external oblique aponeurosis at the ...
|
midclavicular line
|
|
|
where does the internal oblique form the sheath around the rectus muscle (above the arcuate line)?
|
both anteriorly and posteriorly
|
|
|
where does the transversus abdominis form the sheath around the rectus muscle (above the arcuate line)?
|
posteriorly
|
|
|
what is this?
-The lower edge of the posterior rectus sheath, just when it moves anteriorly? -located between umbilicus and pubic symphysis |
arcuate line
|
|
|
inferior to the rectus sheath, the layer behind the rectus abdominus muscle is ...
|
transversalis fascia
|
|
|
the pyramidalis muscle is (always present, sometimes present, or never present)?
|
sometimes present
|
|
|
What are the nerves (and their spinal origins) that innervate the skin, fascia, and muscles of the anterolateral abdominal wall?
|
Thoracoabdominal nn. (T7-T11)
Subcostal n. (T12) Iliohypogastric n. (L1) Ilioinguinal n. (L1) |
|
|
what is special about the Iliohypogastric n. and the ilioinguinal n.?
|
they are sensory only
|
|
|
What arteries supply the rectus abdominis muscle?
|
inferior and superior epigastric aa.
|
|
|
name the 2 branches of arteries of the abdominal wall that come off the internal thoracic artery and where they lie.
|
musculophrenic a: along costal margin
superior epigastric a: in rectus sheath |
|
|
For the abdominal wall, name the 2 arteries that branch off the aorta.
|
Posterior intercostal aa (10th and 11th)
subcostal a. (12th) |
|
|
for the abdominal wall, name the branch that comes off the external iliac artery and where it is located
|
inferior epigastric a: in rectus sheath
|
|
|
What is this?
-tributaries of the portal vein -anastomose with cutaneous veins around the umbilicus (portal-caval anastomosis) -Caput medusae |
Paraumbilical veins
|
|
|
What are the 2 veins of the abdominal wall?
|
Paraumbilical veins
thoracoepigastric vein |
|
|
Obstruction of either the inferior vena cava or the hepatic portal vein, both of which drain structures below the diaphragm, may result in what?
|
varicosities of the superficial epigastric veins
|
|
|
in the abdomen, do veins parallel the arteries?
|
yes
|
|
|
If you see engorged veins on the surface of the abdomen, it is indicative of what type of problem?
|
liver problem
|
|
|
What type of muscle tissue gives strong, quick discontinuous voluntary contraction?
|
striated skeletal muscle
|
|
|
which type of muscle tissue gives strong, quick continuous involuntary contraction??
|
striated cardiac muscle
|
|
|
which type of muscle tissue gives a weak, slow involuntary contraction?
|
smooth muscle
|
|
|
Smooth muscle tissue is generally of what origin?
|
mesodermal origin
|
|
|
myofilaments are part of what?
|
cytoskeleton
|
|
|
actin is found in all cells in a form that is called...
|
G-actin
|
|
|
What are thin filaments?
thick filaments? |
F-actin
Myosin |
|
|
muscle cells are surrounded in part or entirely by a plasma membrane called...
|
sarcolemma
|
|
|
What is the protoplasm of a muscle cell called?
|
sarcoplasm
|
|
|
In a muscle cell, what is the (smooth) endoplasmic reticulum called and what is its main function?
|
sarcoplasmic reticulum
store calcium |
|
|
In a muscle cell, what is a mitochondria called?
|
sarcosome
|
|
|
What is a linear unit called in a muscle cell?
|
sarcomere
|
|
|
what is a muscle cell called?
|
myofiber
|
|
|
The sarcolemma is comprised of the ... of the cell and an extracellular amorphous ... (or external ...) in which collogen and reticular fibers may also be embedded.
|
plasma membrane
basal lamina lamina |
|
|
The ... is a layer of connective tissue that separates each individual skeletal muscle cell from the other skeletal muscle cells.
|
endomysium
|
|
|
Groups of muscle fibers are termed ... and the C.T. capsule that separates or surrounds them is the ...
|
fascicles
perimysium |
|
|
Surrounding the entire muscle is a layer of connective tissue (like a sac) called ...
It blends in with the tendons and helps give the muscle strength to hold it together. |
epimysium
|
|
|
The size of skeletal muscle fiber cells can be very large, as thick as ... microns.
|
100
|
|
|
The many nuclei of skeletal muscle fibers migrate to the ... of the cell
|
margins (periphery)
|
|
|
Thin and thick filaments of skeletal and cardiac muscles are arranged into ...
|
myofibrils
|
|
|
The light area on a myofibril is called the ..., which contain mainly ... filaments
The dark area is called the ..., which contain mainly ... filaments |
I band; thin filaments
A band; thick filaments |
|
|
What is the fundamental contractile unit of striated muscle?
"from Z to shining Z" |
sarcomere
|
|
|
... are the site of electrical activation of the surface of the sarcoplasmic reticulum, which surrounds the myofibrils in the sarcoplasm.
|
t-tubules
|
|
|
"triads" are only found in ... muscles
|
skeletal
|
|
|
the actin-myosin interaction depends primarily on what 2 regulatory proteins?
|
troponin (balls)
tropomyosin (strings) |
|
|
The three subunits of troponin are
|
TnT
TnC TnI |
|
|
the H-zone contains only ...
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myosin
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The I band contains only
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actin
|
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what band contains mainly myosin?
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H-band
|
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What band contains troponin, tropomyosin, and actin?
|
I band
|
|
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what band contains troponin, tropomyosin, actin, and myosin?
|
A band
|
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cardiac muscle cells have ... located nuclei (usually 2)
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centrally
|
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... are pores in between 2 adjacent cardiac muscle cells. They are located on parts that go laterally. They also allow for exchange of material/signals
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gap junctions
|
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what types of junctions act to linearly couple the force generated in one myofibril with the force produced in the corresponding myofibril in a linearly adjacent cell?
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adhearing junctions
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SR and T tubule arrangement in skeletal muscle is...
in cardiac muscle is... |
triad
diad |
|
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which muscle type has the largest number of mitochondria?
|
cardiac muscle
|
|
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What type of cell is found in the ventricle of the heart?
it is an extra large cell and has large amounts of sarcoplasm and no T-tubules it's part of the system that provides automaticity to the heart beat |
purkinje cell
|
|
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The contraction of the heart muscle ... depend upon input from the CNS, but the ANS does regulate the frequency of contractions.
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does not
|
|
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smooth muscle cells are very small, about ... microns
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10
|
|
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nuclei in smooth muscle cells are located ...
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centrally
|
|
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dense bodies of smooth muscle contain ...
they are also the attachment points for thin filaments, which are the equivalent of the ... in striated muscle |
alpha actinin
Z-line |
|
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smooth muscles have a combination of both types of innervations; through ... or ...
|
gap junctions
direct innervation |
|
|
is there regeneration of
cardiac muscle? skeletal muscle? smooth muscle? |
no
limited (satellite cells) yes |
|
|
this describes...
-prime mover -both initiates and maintains the motion (is always contracting throughout) |
agonist
|
|
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name the 3 types of muscle contractions in the order of increasing ATP use
|
concentric (work)
isometric (no work) eccentric (negative work) |
|
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The brachialis doing elbow flexion is an example of an ...
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agonist
|
|
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what is the antagonist to the brachialis?
|
triceps brachii
|
|
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what is the strenth recruiter (assister) called?
|
synergist
|
|
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what is a synergist to brachialis?
|
biceps brachii
|
|
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what maintains the functional integrity of a joint(s) during a motion carried out by the agonist?
|
stabilizer
|
|
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what is the stabilizer to the brachialis?
|
brachioradialis
|
|
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what muscles are shoulder stabilizers?
|
deltoids
rotator cuff muscles (SITS) |
|
|
muscles attached to the anterior part of the shoulder girdle are (depressors, elevators, or both)?
|
depressors
|
|
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muscles attached to the posterior part of the shoulder girdle are (depressors, elevators, or both)?
|
both
|
|
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depressors of the shoulder are...
|
subclavius
pectoralis minor lower trapezius |
|
|
elevators of the shoulder are...
|
upper trapezius
levator scapulae rhomboids |
|
|
The scapula lies at about ... degrees on the thorax
|
30
|
|
|
What muscle adducts? (scapula)
|
rhomboids
|
|
|
What muscles abduct? (scapula)
|
serratus anterior
pectoralis minor |
|
|
What muscles are involved in glenohumeral abduction from 0-90 degrees?
|
supraspinatus
middle deltoid |
|
|
What muscles do glenohumeral abduction from 90-150 degrees?
|
(supraspinatus, middle deltoid)
plus... inferior trapezius serratus anterior |
|
|
What muscles do glenohumeral abduction from 150-180 degrees?
|
(supraspinatus, middle deltoid, inferior trapezius, serratus anterior)
plus... paraspinal (controlateral) |
|
|
What muscles do glenohumeral flexion from 0-60?
|
anterior deltoids
long head of biceps coracobrachialis |
|
|
What muscles do glenohumeral flexion from 60-120?
|
levator scapulae
inferior trapezius serratus anterior |
|
|
what muscles do glenohumeral flexion from 120-180?
|
paraspinal mm
|
|
|
what muscles do glenohumeral extension?
|
middle trapezius
posterior deltoid teres minor teres major rhomboids latissimus dorsi |
|
|
what muscles do scapulothoracic "extension" (or retraction/adduction)
|
latissimus dorsi
rhomboids middle trapezius |
|
|
what muscles do glenohumeral adduction?
|
pectoralis major
latissimus dorsi teres major rhomboids |
|
|
muscles involved with glenohumeral medial rotation
|
lats. dorsi
teres major subscapularis pecs major |
|
|
muscles involved with glenohumeral lateral rotation (used when we write)
|
teres minor
infraspinatus |
|
|
What may cause a subluxation of the acromion at the acromioclavicular joint?
|
shoulder trauma to the acromioclavicular joint
|
|
|
What connects the acromion to the coracoid process of the scapula, and prevents dislocation at the acromioclavicular joint?
|
coracoclavicular ligament
|
|
|
what is this?
-ball and socket -head of humerus and the glenoid fossa of the scapula |
glenohumeral joint
|
|
|
what are the rotator cuff muscles?
|
Supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, subscapularis (SITS)
|
|
|
what is this?
-tendons of muscles may become torn or inflamed (most commonly the tendon of the supraspinatus) -pain is anterior and superior to the glenohumeral joint during abduction |
inflammation of the rotator cuff
|
|
|
Humeral dislocation is when the head of the humerus is displaced ... and ..., just inferiorly to the coracoid process.
May stretch the ... or ... nerve. |
inferiorly and anteriorly
axillary or radial nerve |
|
|
If humeral fracture occurs at the surgical neck of the humerus, what can be damaged?
|
axillary nerve
posterior circumflex humeral a. |
|
|
if humeral fracture occurs at the greater tubercle, what occurs?
|
detachment of rotator cuff from humerus
|
|
|
If there was a transverse humeral fracture that occurred distal to the deltoid tuberosity, what would that lead to?
|
abduction of the proximal fragment by the deltoid muscle.
|
|
|
if there was a humeral fracture at the midshaft (spiral), that would damage
|
radial nerve
profunda brachial artery |
|
|
what are the boundaries of the axilla?
|
-medial: serratus anterior, ribs
-anterior: pectoralis major and minor -lateral: bicipital groove -posterior: scapula, subscapularis -superior: 1st rib, clavicle, scapula -inferior: skin |
|
|
name the branches of the axillary artery
|
1) superior thoracic
2) lateral thoracic, thoracoacromial 3)subscapular, anterior humeral circumflex, posterior humeral circumflex |
|
|
what is this?
-inflammation of extensor tendon due to forced flexion and extension of forearm at elbow. -pain over lateral epicondyle, which may radiate down the posterior aspect of forearm |
lateral epicondylitis
|
|
|
what is this?
-inflammation of common flexor tendon that results from repetitive flexion and pronation of the forearm at the elbow. |
medial epicondylitis (golfer's elbow)
|
|
|
what can occur if there is a fracture of the medial epicondyle of the humerous?
|
the ulnar nerve may be lesioned
|
|
|
the roots of the brachial plexus (C5-T1) are formed by ... rami
|
ventral
|
|
|
what does the musculocutaneous nerve (C5,6) innervate?
|
-coracobrachialis
-biceps brachii -brachialis -skin of lateral aspect of arm (lateral antebrachial cutaneous n) |
|
|
what does the axillary nerve (C5-6) innervate?
|
-deltoids
-teres minor -skin of the arm covering the attachment of the deltoid to the humerus |
|
|
what two arteries supply the muscles attached to the scapula?
|
suprascapular and transverse cervical arteries
|
|
|
what innervates the supraspinatus and infraspinatus mm?
|
suprascapular n.
|
|
|
what innervates the pec major and minor?
|
lateral and medial pectoral nn.
|
|
|
what innervates the upper part of subscapularis m?
|
upper subscapular
|
|
|
what innervates the latissimus dorsi m?
|
thoracodorsal n.
|
|
|
what does the lower subscapular nerve innervate?
|
-lower part of subscapularis m.
-teres major m. |
|
|
The location for Erb's palsy is the ventral rami of ...
It's most common and most frequently caused at birth (shoulder dystocia) and the symptoms are... |
C5-6
weakened muscles in upper limb; muscles acting at shoulder and elbow are weakened |
|
|
The location for Klumpke's palsy is the ventral rami of ...
It is a lower plexus injury and it's symptoms are... |
C8-T1
weakness of hand muscles innervated by C8 or T1 fibers, resulting in ape hand and a claw hand. Difficult to make fist. |
|
|
the long thoracic nerve innervates the ...
when it is severed, you get... often occurs because of Iatrogenic damage, which is... |
serratus anterior
winging of scapula damage due to medical or surgical treatment |
|
|
what is this describing?
-to collect and return interstitial fluid, including plasma protein to the blood, and thus help maintain fluid balance -to defend the body against disease by producing lymphocytes -to absorb lipids from the intestine and transport them to the blood |
functions of the lymphatic system
|
|
|
what are the 4 superficial veins of the arm?
|
cephalic
basilic median cubital median antebrachial |
|
|
the 5 axillary nodes are ...
|
anterior (pectoral)
posterior (subscapular) lateral (humeral) central apical |
|
|
what axillary node drains the outer portion of the breast?
|
pectoral
|
|
|
what axillary node drains the central nodes?
|
apical
|
|
|
what is it called when there is swelling due to obstruction of lymph channels and/or nodes?
|
lymphedema
|
|
|
most patients with lymphadema are ...
|
post breast cancer patients
|
