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489 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
the muscles involved in elbow flexion(in order of importance)
brachialis
biceps brachii
brachioradialis
muscles involved in elbow extension
triceps brachii
where all 3 heads of triceps attach distally
olecranon
the nerves and arteries that go through the triangular interval
radial nerve
deep brachial artery
muscles involved in pronation
pronator teres
pronator quadratus
muscles involved in supination (strongest first)
biceps brachii
supinator
the synergist muscle in pronation/supination
brachioradialis
what muscle do you use for strength recruitment for supination?
biceps brachii
what do you do for strength recruitment for pronation?
add humeral abduction
the location of the attachments of the pronator and supinator muscles can lead to what?
fracture sites
describe nursemaids elbow and the clue that is expressed when someone has this condition
when the radial head is dislocated (pulled out)

when someone's arm automatically rests on their chest
what is the technical term for little league elbow/golfer's elbow?
medial epicondylitis
the medial epicondyle runs through what tunnel?
cubital tunnel
what are the superficial muscles of the anterior forearm?
flexor carpi ulnaris
palmaris longus
flexor carpi radialis
pronator teres
what muscle in the forearm is absent in 13% of the population?
palmaris longus
what are the intermediate muscles of the anterior forearm?
flexor digitorum superficialis
as the flexor digitorum tendons are going through the flexor retinaculum, what is the arrangement?
digits 3 and 4 lie on top of 2 and 5
what are the deep muscles of the anterior forearm?
flexor digitorum profundus
flexor pollicis longus
pronator quadratus
what causes carpel tunnel "like" symptoms?
when the median nerve is compressed between the two heads (humeral and ulnar) of the protanor teres
What nerve and artery run through Guyon's tunnel?
Ulnar nerve and artery
what are the arteries that supply the anterior forearm?
(brachial artery)
radial artery
ulnar artery
what is the artery involved with the superficial palmar arch?
ulnar artery
what is the artery involved with the deep palmar arch?
radial artery
How are arteries names?
by where they go
What is wrong with the right hand of the cadaver on table 2?
there is no palmar arch
what is the action of the brachioradialis?
it is a forearm flexor and stablizer
what is the technical name of tennis elbow?
lateral epicondylitis
what nerves and arteries innervate/supply the posterior forearm?
(posterior interosseous n)deep branch of the radial nerve

posterior interosseous artery
what are the borders of the anatomical snuffbox?
extensor pollicis brevis
extensor pollicis longus
extensor retinaculum
abductor pollicis longus
what runs through the carpal tunnel?
median nerve
4 tendons of flexor dig. superf.
4 tendons of flex. dig. profund.
tendon of flex. palmaris longus
surgery of the carpel tunnel often leads to what syndrome?
compartment syndrome (infection...must open the compartment and drain pus out)
muscles involved in abduction of wrist
flexor carpi radialis
extensor carpi radialis longus & brevis
muscles involved in adduction of wrist
flexor carpi ulnaris
extensor carpi ulnaris
muscles involved in wrist flexion
flexor carpi ulnaris
flexor carpi radialis
palmaris longus
muscles involved in wrist extension
extensor carpi ulnaris
extensor carpi radialis longus and brevis
the synergist muscles in wrist flexion
flexor pollicis longus
flexor digitorum superficialis
flexor digitorum profundus
synergist muscles in wrist extension
extensor pollicis longus
extensor indices
extensor digitorum
extensor digiti minimi
synergist muscles in wrist abduction
abductor pollicis longus
extensor pollicis brevis
extensor pollicis longus
synergist muscles in wrist adduction
extensor digiti minimi
flexor digitorum profundus
where does a wrist ganglia come from and what harm can it cause?
synovial sheath or joint cavity

may compress nearby nerve
What are possible treatments of wrist ganglia
watching
aspirating
injection
surgery
bust it with a book
what causes Dupuytren's Contracture and what is the most commonly affected digit?
Shortening of the palmar fascia

4th digit
How do you treat Dupuytren's Contracture?
Surgery
Carve out fat and tissue
Describe trigger finger
Inflamed nodule of tendon gets trapped behind tendon sheath, and finger becomes stuck in flexed position. it extends in a delayed manner.
Describe symptoms of DeQuervain's tenosynovitis
Pain at base of radial side of thumb. Difficulty grasping when strength is required. Pain intensifies with ulnar deviation.
What are the borders of DeQuervain's tenosynovitis?
extensor pollicis longus
abductor pollicis longus
extensor pollicis brevis
floor - scaphoid
what is the treatment of DeQuervain's tenosynovitis?
corticosteroid injections
what tendon and ligament is involved in Guyon's tunnel?
Pisohamate ligament
tendon of flexor carpi ulnaris
what are the symptoms of guyon's tunnel?
carpal tunnel like symptoms over digits 4 and 5
Another place where you can get ulnar nerve impingement besides guyon's tunnel?
cubital tunnel
Lumbricals 1 and 2 are innervated by...
Digital branches of median nerve.
lumbricals 3 and 4 are innervated by...
deep branch of ulnar nerve.
proximal and distal attachments of the lumbricals
flexor digitorum profundus tendons

dorsal hood
action of the lumbricals
flex MCP joints and extend interphalangeal joints.
the innervation of the 4 palmar interossei
deep branch of the ulnar nerve (C8, T1).
What are the proximal and distal attachments of the palmar interossei?
MCP at 1st, 2nd, 4th, and 5th digits

extensor hoods and proximal phalanx of thumb
Action of the palmer interossei
Adduction
the 1st palmar interossei muscle is usually known as what other muscle?
the deep part of flexor pollicis brevis
innervation of the dorsal interossei
deep branch of ulnar nerve (C8,T1)
proximal and distal attachments of dorsal interossei
adjacent sides of metacarpals

base of proximal phalanx and extensor hoods
action of dorsal interossei
abducts digits 2-4 at MCP joints
All thenar muscles are innervated by ...

The one exception is...
recurrent branch of median nerve (C8,T1)

adductor pollicis
attachments of abductor pollicis brevis
scaphoid and trapezium

1st phalanx and extensor hood.
action of abductor pollicis brevis
abducts thumb at MCP
flexor pollicis brevis has 2 heads (superficial/deep head) and their attachments are
trapezium

proximal phalanx
action of the flexor pollicis brevis is
flexes thumb at MCP joint
attachments of opponens pollicis
trapezium and palmer aponeurosis

1st metacarpal
actions of opponens pollicis
rotates/flexes 1st metacarpal on trapezium

also opposition
All of the hypothenar muscles are innervated by
deep branch of ulnar nerve (C8,T1)
attachments of abductor digiti minimi
pisiform and tendon of flexor carpi ulnaris

proximal phalanx of 5th digit
action of abductor digiti minimi
abducts 5th digit at MCP joint
attachments of flexor digiti minimi
hook of hamate

proximal phalanx of 5th digit
action of flexor digiti minimi
flexes 5th digit at MCP joint
attachments of opponens digiti minimi
hook of hamate

5th metacarpal
action of opponens digiti minimi
laterally rotates 5th metacarpal toward palm
innervation of the adductor pollicis
deep branch of ulnar nerve (C8,T1)
proximal attachments of the 2 heads of the adductor pollicis
transverse: 3rd metacarpal

oblique: capitate and metacarpals 2 and 3
distal attachments of the 2 heads of the adductor pollicis
proximal phalanx and extensor hood of thumb
actions of adductor pollicis
adducts thumb and opposes other digits in gripping
what artery passes between the 2 heads of the adductor pollicis to enter the deep palm and form the deep palmar arch?
radial artery
innervation of the palmaris brevis
superficial branch of the ulnar nerve (C8,T1)
palmaris brevis is what type of muscle?
cutaneous muscle
attachments of palmaris brevis
palmar aponeurosis and flexor retinaculum

dermis
action of palmaris brevis
improves grip
recurrent branch of median nerve is what type of nerve?
motor
The million dollar nerve is what nerve?
the recurrent branch of the median nerve
what does Allen's test test for?
tests for anastamosis between radial and ulnar artery.
abduction and adduction of the fingers occurs at
the MCP (metacarpal phalangeal joint)
the lumbrical muscles are oriented on which side?
radial side
How many cervical vertebrae
7
how many thoracic vertebrae
12
how many lumber vertebrae
5
how many sacral vertebrae
5
how many coccygeal vertebrae
4
Only how many percent of people will have the correct number of vertebrae?
20%
which vertebrae are the most stable (as far as number)?

the most variable?
cervical

coccygeal
primary curvature is when the concavity is ...(anterior or posterior)?
anterior
secondary curvatures are concaved (anteriorly or posteriorly)?
posteriorly
usually, the 2 regions that are concave posteriorly are
cervical and lumbar region
a person with a humpback is usually diagnosed with...
thoracic kyphosis
when your lumbar region is extremely curved posteriorly, it is usually called...
lumbar lordosis
when your spine is curved laterally, it is called
scoliosis
if a person exhibits scoliosis, and bends over, you will see what on her back?
one side will be elevated
what is zygopophysis
superior and inferior articular process of spine
unique characteristics of cervical vertebrae are...
anterior and posterior tubercles
foramen intertransversarium
bifid spinous process
unique characteristics of thoracic vertebrae are...
superior and inferior costal facet
articular facet for rib tubercle
spinous processes slant inferior
unique characteristics of lumbar vertebrae are...
superior facets are vertical and concave
inferior facets are vertical and convex
spinous processes are horizontal and massive
sacralization of L5 is when...
5th lumbar vertebrae becomes fused to sacrum
lumbarization of S1 is when...
first sacral vertebrae is not completely fused to the rest of the sacral vertebrae
if the coccyx is fused, what can occur during delivery?
it may be broken
supraspinal ligament runs...
across spinous processes
flavum ligament has what color tinge and is full of what?
yellow
elastin
cervical vertebrae gives most motion in
lateral and side bending
list the first 3 vertebral sections in the order of allowing the most rotation to the least rotation
cervical
thoracic
lumbar
list the first 3 vertebral sections in the order of allowing the most extension/flexion to the least
cervical
lumbar
thoracic
overall, the ... region of vertebrae allow the most range of motion
cervical
overall, the ... region of vertebrae allow the least range of motion.

why?
thoracic

ribs
the 2 muscular retinacula of the back are the
serratus posterior superior and the serratus posterior inferior
what is the function of the serratus posterior superior and inferior?
to bind down the powerful deep back muscles. act like retinaculum.
erector spinae muscles are also known as
sacrospinalis muscles
the general term for the two groups of deep back muscles (Erector spinae and Transversospinalis) is...
paraspinal muscles
erector spinae muscles
splenius
iliocostalis
longissimus
spinalis
interspinales
the spinalis muscle is only in what region?
thoracic region
transversospinalis muscles
*semispinalis
*multifidus
rotatores
intertransversarii
*levatores costorum
the suboccipital region is bounded by what 3 muscles?
rectus capitis posterior major
inferior capital oblique
superior capital oblique
what nerve and artery run through the suboccipital region?
suboccipital nerve
vertebral artery
the suboccipital nerve is from...

...and is an exception in that...
dorsal ramus of C1

it is motor only
what do you never want to do (OMM wise) because of the vertebral artery?
never want to do OMM in neck extension.
suboccipital contents are
dorsal rami 1 (suboccipital)
dorsal rami 2 (greater occipital)
dorsal rami 3 (lesser occipital
vertebral artery
dorsal ramus of C2 and C3 are...
sensory only
the mesoderm plays a special role in the formation of ... and ...
muscles and bones
somites are ... derived tissues
mesodermally
the ... induces differentiation of the somites
notochord
intermediate and lateral plate mesoderm differentiates at (the same time or different time)?
same time
somites are found from ... through ... regions
occipital
sacral
somites further differentiate into ...
dermotome
myotome
sclerotome
lateral plate differentiates into ...
splanchnopleure
somatopleure
what mesoderm surrounds the internal organs like the GI tract? (visceral)
splanchnic mesoderm
what mesoderm covers the inner surfaces of the forming body wall? (like upper extremities)
somatic mesoderm
by the 3rd week, is the mesoderm differentiated or undifferentiated?
undifferentiated
by what week is there divisions of the lateral plate?
early 4th week
what becomes dermomyotome (dorsal), which gives rise to dermis of skin and muscle, and sclerotome (ventral/medial)?
somites
by when has the somites differentiated into dermomyotome and sclerotome?
late 4th week
all muscles of the body come from the ... layer of the somites.

They ... to their final location beginning in the 5th week.
myotome
migrate
... are developing muscle cells. They will migrate
myoblasts
The vertebrae, intervertebral disks, and ribs arise from the ... part of the somite
sclerotome
what part of the lateral plate mesoderm gives rise to all the bones of your extremities?
somatopleure
what are the 2 types of bone development and growth?
intramembranous ossification and endochondral ossification
intramembranous ossification is also known as dermal ossification, which takes place in ...
the dermis of the skin
endochondral ossification is when a hyaline cartilage model is ...
converted into bone.
long bones are mostly what type of bone development and growth?
endochondral ossification
intramembranous bone formation occurs in the ... bones of the skull and face
flat
... cells migrate to the area of the dermis (where bones are made)
mesenchymal
in endochondral bone formation, most of the bones of the body are first laid down as ...
cartilaginous models.
in endochondral bone formation, if the epiphyseal plate is present, the cartilage will (continue to grow or stop growing)?
continue to grow
for bone development, mesenchymal migration occurs when?
4th-5th week
for bone development, condensation of mesoderm occurs when?
5th-6th week
for bone development, chondrification occurs when?
6th week
for bone development, primary ossification usually starts when?
(although a few bones don't develop until after birth)
7-12 weeks
for bone development, secondary ossification centers usually begin when?
from birth to 9th year, depending on the specific bone
for bone development, fusion of epiphyseal plates usually occurs between what time frame?
18th to 25th year
interphalangeal joints, knee joints, and sternoclavicular joints are all examples of what type of joint?
synovial joint
a single vertebrae is fromed from ...

the sclerotome divides into 2 parts. what are they?
2 separate somites.

anterior and posterior part.
the intervertebral disk is also derived from...
mesoderm
After the migration of sclerotome, a remenant of ... is found in the middle of the vertebral disk.
notochord
the remnant of the notochord is also known as ...
nucleus pulposus
in the vertebral development, if a migration error occurs, and parts of segments are missing, what disorder can develop?
scoliosis
do newborns still have cartilage in their vertebrae?
yes
Fusions of the sacral development begin with the ... segments and end with the ... ones
lowest

uppermost
the holes in the sacrum are remnants of ...
intervertebral notch
the body wall musculature arises from ... of somites
dermomyotome
about when do the myoblasts arise from the dermomyotome and begin to migrate within the mesoderm?
5th week
the ..., which arises from the myotome, is also known as the epaxial group.
epimere
the ..., which arises from the myotome, continues to migrate further to follow the developing embryo.
hypomere
... forms deep back muscles late in the 5th week.
epimere
... forms appendicular and body wall muscles late in the 5th week.
hypomere
(body wall musculature)

myoblasts --> -->
myotube --> myofiber
as muscle grows in length, ... cells fuse with the muscle fibers to help it elongate
satellite
(core differentiation of limbs)

what does apical ectodermal ridge do?
directs growth out to the limb
... genes 9-13 regulate bone type, shape, and growth and will be differentially expressed as the limb grows.
homeobox
generally, ... mesoderm migrates superficial to ..., so bones are deepest and muscle is most superficial.
hypomere

somatopleure
muscles ventral to bones are ... (anterior division), those dorsal to bones are ... (posterior division).
preaxial

postaxial
... of the entire lower extremity at about the mid-thigh level makes the dorsal surface of the leg ..., and the ventral surface of the leg ...
rotation
anteriorly
posteriorly
... extremity develops earlier than ... extremity
upper

lower
what anomaly of limb development results due to reduced motion in utero? and why?
Club foot; foot shape conforms to wall of uterus
what is meromelia?
missing limbs or parts of limbs
what is polydactily?
extra digits
what is syndactyly?
where digits don't totally separate
(thoracic boundaries)

upper right quadrant contains
liver
gall bladder
(thoracic boundaries)

upper left quadrant contains
spleen
stomach
pancreas
where does the diaphragm and abdominal musculature attach to?
xyphoid process
rib 2 attaches to where on the sternum?
sternal angle
the sternal angle is an important anatomical landmark for what?
the disk between T4 and T5
what are the functions of the thorax?
protection of vital organs
breathing
provides attachment for upper extremities
conduit
How many body attachments/joints are there for the thorax?
what are they?
1; sternoclavicular joint
thoracic vertebrae allow for what type of movements?
lateral bending and rotation
C1 rami is ...
motor only
2 pedicles and 2 laminae =
vertebral arch
what separates individual vertebrae and transmits dorsal and ventral roots of spinal nerves into and out of vertebral canal?
intervertebral foramina
what is formed by all vertebral foramina and ligaments and disks that interconnect them?
vertebral canal
what contains meninges, spinal cord, and roots of spinal nerves?
vertebral canal
what are the secondary curvatures?

which way do they curve?
cervical and lumbar

directed anteriorly
what are the primary curvatures?

Which way do they curve?
thoracic and sacral

directed posteriorly
How many bones are there normally in a coccyx?
4
there are normally a total of ? vertebrae
33
what surrounds the nucleus pulposus?
annulus fibrosis
a herniated disc an cause ...
a compressed nerve root
what is the postnatal remnant of the fetal notochord?
nucleus pulposus
herniated disks usually occur in what regions?
lower cervical
lower lumbar
at cervical levels, a herniated disc most commonly occurs at discs between ... and ... and compresses ... spinal nerve
C6, C7

C7
at lumbar levels, a herniated disc most commonly occurs at discs between ... and ... vertebrae, or between ... and ... vertebrae.

may result in ... (pain that radiates from back into the thigh, leg, and foot)
L4, L5
L5, S1
sciatica
what is the term for "hunchback"? (abnormal increase in posterior curvature of the spine)
kyphosis
what is the term for "swayback"? (abnormal increase in the anterior curvature of the spine)
lordosis
lordosis may be caused by
weakening of the anterior abdominal wall due to weight gain.
what can be caused by an absent half of a vertebra or a wedge-shaped vertebra or by an asymmetric weakness of back musculature?
scoliosis
the two main types of spina bifida are ...
occulta
cystica
describe spina bifida occulta
spinous process fails to form.
no symptoms.
may have tuft of hair in skin over defected area.
what are the two types of spina bifida cystica?
meningocele
myelomeningocele
spina bifida is most commonly seen at what regions?
lower lumbar
sacral vertebral levels
describe the differences between meningocele and myelomeningocele (spina bifida cystica)
the spinal cord protrudes and stretches the lumbosacral spinal nerves in myelomeningocele.
what joint is formed between the facets of superior and inferior processes at the junction of each pedicle and lamina?
zygapophyseal joints
what ligament covers the anterolateral parts of vertebral bodies and disks and functions to limit vertebral extension?
anterior longitudinal ligament
what ligament covers the posterior parts of vertebral bodies and disks and functions to limit vertebral flexion?
posterior longitudinal ligament
what extends between laminae of adjacent vertebrae and functions to limit vertebral flexion and help maintain normal vertebral curvature?
elastic ligamentum flavum
what vertebra does spondylolysis and spondylolisthesis usually occur?
around L5
where does the "collar" of the scottie dog lie?
isthmus or pars interarticularis
(between the transverse process and inferior articular process)
what are the usual symptoms of a "scottie dog" collar?
bilateral lower back pain that radiates into both lower limbs and weakness in muscles of the legs
what is spondylolysis
defect or fracture of the isthmus, with no anterior displacement of the vertebral body
what is spinal stenosis and what is a possible cause?
a narrowing of the vertebral canal.

spondylolysis
what is it called when there is a unilateral or bilateral defect or fracture of the isthmus accompanied by anterior displacement of the vertebral body?
spondylolisthesis
what kind of movement does ribs 1-7 have?
pump handle movement
what kind of movement do ribs 8-10 have?
bucket handle movement
ribs 11 and 12 are imbedded in where?
the muscles of the abdominal wall
the costal vertebral joint involves what specific parts of the body?
head of the rib and body of vertebrae and discs
the costotransverse joint involves what?
the tubercle of the rib and the transverse processes of the vertebrae
where is the most common fracture point on the rib and what can it lead to?
just anterior to the angle of the rib.

pneumothorax
which rib is located at the sternal angle?
2nd
what in the sternum could calcify?
xyphoid process
what term refers to the space for passage of things going in and out of the thorax? ... aka...
mediastinum
thoracic outlet
what might develop in the superior/anterior mediastinum?

what are the symptoms?
thymoma

chest pain and obstructed left brachiocephalic vein.
apices of lung and pleura project up through what opening into the neck?
thoracic outlet
if there is a cervical rib, what might be compressed?
T1 spinal nerve and subclavian artery
Having a diminished radial pulse and pain and paresthesis in the medial forearm are symptoms for having what?

(signs of Horner's syndrome - damage to sympathetic nervous system - may also be seen)
cervical rib
freely movable joints are called ... and have ...
diarthrosis
synovial fluid
partly movable joints are called ... and have ...
amphiarthrosis
cartilage
immovable joints are called ... and have ...
synarthrosis
dense tissue
ball and socket joints (shoulder and hip) and hinge joints (elbow and knee) are examples of ... joints
diarthrodial joints
symphysis (intervertebral and pubic joints) are examples of ... joints
amphiarthrodial joints
sutures in skull, interosseous membrane, and gomphosis (tooth socket) are all examples of ... joints.
synarthrodial joints
what is the origin of a typical intercostal nerve?
ventral ramus of spinal nerve
location of VAN
the superior part of the intercostal space and between intercostal muscle layers 2 and 3

(inferior edge of rib)
"C3,4,5, keep the diaphragm alive" describes what nerve?
phrenic nerve
the phrenic nerve is only ... innervation to the diaphragm
motor
most of the sensory innervation from the diaphragm is from
intercostal nerves
the sympathetic chain is located on each side of the vertebral column and the sympathetic info has to begin at one of the ... - ... levels
T1-L2
... are found in ganglia
cell bodies
what is a group of nerve cell bodies located outside of the CNS? (in the PNS)
ganglion
what is a group of cell bodies called within the CNS?
nucleus
the 3 primary origins of arteries to the thoracic wall are...
internal thoracic artery
musculophrenic artery
aorta (posterior intercostal aa)
the internal thoracic artery supplies the anterior intercostal aa of (##)
1-6
the musculophrenic artery supplies the anterior intercostal aa of (##)
7-9
the aorta supplies the posterior intercostal aa of (##)
1-11
With intercostal ..., origins are anterior and posterior, and with intercostal ..., origins are only posterior
arteries
nerves
there are no anterior intercostals (##)
10-11
breasts are modified... and produce milk
sweat glands
there are #-# lobes, which are connected to the nipple by ...
15-20
lactiferous ducts
... separates lobes in breasts and attach to skin.
suspensory (cooper's) ligaments
most of the lymphatic drainage in the breasts go to ...
axillary lymph nodes
parts of the medial lymphatic drainage go to the ...
parasternal lymph nodes
most adenocarcinomas are ... carsinomas
lactiferous duct
> 50% of adenocarcinomas occur in the ... quadrant
upper, lateral
the signs of late-stage adenocarcinoma of the breasts are...
retraction of the nipple, dimpling of the skin (due to invasion of suspensory ligaments)
what procedure removes breast, pectoralis major and minor, axillary lymph nodes and vessels, and tributaries of the axillary vein?
radical masectomy
when doing a radical masectomy, what nerves must you be aware of?
long thoracic nerve and thoracodorsal nerve
the retromammary space is located where?
anterior to the fascia above the pectoralis major
cooper's ligaments attach ... to ...
skin to fascia
what is the lobe that first collects the lymph from a cancerous lesion called?
sentinal lobe
irritative phrenic nerve lesions causes
involuntary contractions of the diaphragm and may result in hiccups
paralysis and paradoxical movement of one half of the diaphragm. Paralyzed dome of diaphragm fails to decend upon inspiration, and is forced superiorly by an increase in intra-abdominal pressure. These are due to ...
destructive phrenic nerve lesions
when you insert a needle in the pleral cavity in the 9th intercostal space to sample or withdraw fluid from a costodiaphragmatic recess, it is called
thoracocentesis
what covers the external surfaces of bones?
periosteum
fractures can lead to ... which is loss of bone tissue due to loss of arterial blood supply
avascular necrosis
what does this describe?
-Antibodies attack ACh receptors, --> defective neuromuscular transmission.
-mainly affects muscles innervated by cranial nerves (ocular muscles). More use --> more weakness.
-Cardiac and smooth muscles are not affected
myasthenia gravis
what does this describe?
-an immunologic disorder of calcium ion channels in the nerves at the end plate.
-affects proximal muscles in limbs. Spares muscles innervated by cranial nerves.
-repetition of contraction --> increase in strength.
Lambert-Eaton Syndrome
Cardiac muscle forms ... of heart.

the contraction is initiated by cardiac conduction system and modified by ...
myocardium

autonomic nerves
smooth muscles produce rythmic contractions to move substances (...), restricts blood vessels, and forms sphincters.

involuntary control by ...
peristalsis

autonomic nerves
most small arteries communicate with each other through ...
anastomoses (collateral circulation)
arteries that lack collateral circulation are called
anatomic end arteries
blood has passed through 1 venous capillary bed before returning to heart. This describes...
valval and pulmonary veins
blood has passed through 1 venous capillary bed already, and will pass through another one before returning to the heart. This describes...
portal veins
interconnections between small arteries and veins are known as ...
arteriovenous shunts
shunts in skin are for...
thermoregulation
shunts in walls of intestines are for...
diverting blood to the hepatic portal system when nutrients are not being absorbed.
this describes...
-arteriovenous shunts show hyperactive vasoconstriction, leading to cooling of hands and feet.
-cyanosis possible in fingers and toes
Raynaud's disease
lymphatic vessels that absorb large fatty acids from intestine are called...
lacteals
what is the flow of the lymphatic system?
lymph capillaries --> lymph vessels --> lymph nodes --> lymph trunks
lymph enters where internal jugular vein and subclavian vein meet by way of ... on the right, or ... on the left
right lymphatic duct

thoracic duct
what do lymph nodes do?
filter and process lymph
blood has passed through 1 venous capillary bed before returning to heart. This describes...
valval and pulmonary veins
blood has passed through 1 venous capillary bed already, and will pass through another one before returning to the heart. This describes...
portal veins
interconnections between small arteries and veins are known as ...
arteriovenous shunts
shunts in skin are for...
thermoregulation
shunts in walls of intestines are for...
diverting blood to the hepatic portal system when nutrients are not being absorbed.
this describes...
-arteriovenous shunts show hyperactive vasoconstriction, leading to cooling of hands and feet.
-cyanosis possible in fingers and toes
Raynaud's disease
lymphatic vessels that absorb large fatty acids from intestine are called...
lacteals
what is the flow of the lymphatic system?
lymph capillaries --> lymph vessels --> lymph nodes --> lymph trunks
lymph enters where internal jugular vein and subclavian vein meet by way of ... on the right, or ... on the left
right lymphatic duct

thoracic duct
what do lymph nodes do?
filter and process lymph
what does this describe?
overproduction or lack of absorption of cerebrospinal fluid. Could be through blockage inside ventricles in brain.
hydrocephalus
what kind of fluid is located in pleural, pericardial, and peritoneal cavities? It promotes friction-reducing movements of lungs, heart, and gastrointestinal viscera
serous fluid
What is the fluid that is made in the inner ear and is essential for hair function?
endolymph
What is the fluid that provides nutrients for the lens and cornea of the eye? It determines intraocular pressure. Elevated pressure --> optic nerve compression --> glaucoma.
aqueous humor
In the CNS, neurons in nucleus are derived from the...
neural tube
myelination in CNS is called ...

They myelinate ... axons and don't regenerate if cut.
oligodendrocytes

multiple
myelination in PNS is called ...

They myelinate ... axons and regenerate if cut.
Schwann cells

single
What does this describe?
-affects both sensory and motor symptoms through inflammatory reaction in oligodendrocytes (CNS).
-impairs and blocks transmission.
-optic nerve affected. Optic neuritis is a presenting sign in 40% of diagnosed patients.
multiple sclerosis
what does this describe?
-acute inflammatory reaction in schwann cells in PNS.
-impairs, blocks impulse transmission.
-motor neurons always affected --> weak limbs, cranial nerve innervated muscles, and respiratory muscles.
-sensory deficits mild or absent
Guillain-Barre Syndrome
what does this describe?
-Tumors compress cranial nerve 8 and affects hearing and balance
schwannomas
neurons in ganglia come from ...
neural crest ectoderm
the sympathetic division uses ... for preganglionic sympathetic axons and uses ... for all postganglionic sympathetic axons, except for those innervating sweat glands and erectile tissues, which uses ...
acetylcholine
norepinephrine
acetycholine
what do arrector pili muscles do?
make your hair stand on end
which autonomic system has long 1st order neurons?
parasympathetic
which autonomic system has short 1st order neurons?
sympathetic
the parasympathetic division uses ... for all pre and post ganglionic axons
acetylcholine
what does dorsal rami innervate?

ventral rami?
The skin of the medial 2/3 of the back, and the deep back muscles.

Most everything else
what is a dermatome?
a spinal nerve and the skin area that it innervates. it's sensory only
what branches carry autonomic sensory fibers to organs in thorax, abdomen, and pelvis?
splanchnic branches
dermatomes for anterior side

neck
nipple
belly button
hip down to groin area
C3-neck
T4-nipple
T10-belly button
L1-hip down to groin
dermatomes for posterior side
neck
waist
top of crack
penis
anus hole
C4 and C5 - neck
T11 and T12 - waist
S1 - top of crack
S2 and S3 - penis
S5 - anus hole
what is commonly known as shingles, and runs along a dermatome?
herpes zoster
what does this describe?
-caused by lesion in sympathetic neurons.
patients have anhydrosis (unable to sweat on corresponding side of face), ptosis (drooping eyelid), and miosis (pupil constriction)
Horner's syndrome
what does this describe?
-degeneration of preganglionic sympathetic and parasympathetic neurons.
-leads to impotence, urine retention, dizziness on standing, blurred vision, inability to sweat.
shy-drager syndrome
what does this describe?
-absense of peristalsis
-failure of neural crest cells either to migrate to the wall of the descending colon, or rectum to differentiate into terminal parasympathetic ganglia.
Hirschsprung's disease
a reflex must have...
at least one sensory neuron and one motor neuron
Contraction of smooth muscle, secretion of gland, and a change in rate and force of heart muscle are all examples of ...
autonomic reflexes
pupillary light reflex, blink reflex, and gag reflex are all examples of
cranial nerve reflexes
anterior part of the arm...
action?
innervation?
blood supply?

exceptions?
forearm flexors
musculocutaneous n.
brachial a.

1)coracobrachialis-humeral adductor and flexor
2)biceps brachii (long head) - humeral flexor
3)brachialis is innervated by radial nerve also
posterior part of arm...
action?
innervation?
blood supply?

Exceptions?
forearm extensors
radial n.
deep brachial artery

1)triceps brachii(long head) - humeral extension
anterior forearm

action?
innervation?
blood supply?

exceptions?
wrist flexors
median n.
radial and ulnar aa.

1)pronator teres - pronates
2)flexor carpi ulnaris and 1/2 of flexor digitorum profundus is innervated by ulnar n.
posterior forearm

action?
innervation?
blood supply?

exceptions?
wrist extensors
radial n.
posterior interosseous a.

1)supinator - supinates forearm
2)brachioradialis - forearm flexor
Hypothenar and central compartment is generally innervated by...

exceptions?
ulnar nerve

1)1st and 2nd lumbricals innervated by median n.
The thenar compartment is generally innvervated by...

exceptions?
median nerve

1) adductor pollicis - ulnar n.
All compartments of the hand are supplied by ... via...
ulnar and radial aa.
via superficial and deep palmar arches
what is this describing?
-clavicle or scapula and trunk
-sternoclavicular joint contains an articular disk (divided into 2 joint cavities)
-acromioclavicular joint
pectoral girdle
what is this describing?
-common around middle third and lateral third.
-medial 2/3 can be elevated by sternocleidomastoid muscle, later 1/3 can be depressed by weight of limb or adducted by pectoralus major.
-can cause laceration of C8 and T1 in medial cord.
fracture of clavicle
what are the 2 planes of the 4 quadrants of the abdominal wall?
mid-sagittal (median) plane
transumbilical plane
the transumbilical plane of the abdomen intersects at the disk between which 2 vertebrae?
L3 and L4
the transpyloric plane of the abdomen is important for ...
imaging
the transtubercular plane in the abdomen intersects the tubercles at the top of the ...
iliac crest
What are the 8 layers of the abdominal wall (from superficial to deep)?
skin
Camper's fascia
Scarpa's fascia
external abdominal oblique m.
internal abdominal oblique m.
transverse abdominal oblique m
transversalis fascia
peritoneum
camper's fascia is the ... layer
fatty
scarpa's fascia is the ... layer
membranous
what is deep to the transversus abdominal muscle and in contact with the rectus abdominis below the arcuate line?
transversalis fascia
what is the tissue layer where ovaries and testes develop?
extraperitoneal fat
What is a serous membrane that lines the walls of the abdominopelvic cavity and invests gastrointestinal structures below the diaphragm?
peritoneum
what are the 2 layers of the peritoneum and what to they line?
Parietal layer - lines the abdominopelvic walls

visceral layer - covers gastrointestinal structures
what is the potential space between parietal and visceral layers of the peritoneum?
peritoneal cavity
what is this?

An accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity and may be caused by peritonitis or result from congestion of the venous drainage of the abdomen.
ascites
what are the folds or reflections of the peritoneum called?
mesentaries
what can occur when you have a weak abdominal wall and increased abdominal pressure?
hernia
the external and internal oblique and the transversus abdominis muscles all wrap around and form a ... around the rectus abdominus?
sheath
transversus abdominus fibers run ...
horizontally
what muscle does this describe?

flexes lumbar vertebrae, and with other muscles of abdominal wall, compresses the abdomen, which leads to increased intra-abdominal pressure
rectus abdominis muscle
the transverse lines in between each section of the rectus abdominal muscles is called a
tendinous intersection
the midline traveling down the rectus abdominis muscle is called ...
linea alba
where does the external oblique form the sheath around the rectus abdominal muscle? (above the arcuate line)
anterior
the fibers of the external oblique run ...
medially and inferiorly
the fibers of the internal oblique run ...
superiorly and medially
the external and internal oblique muscles become the internal and external oblique aponeurosis at the ...
midclavicular line
where does the internal oblique form the sheath around the rectus muscle (above the arcuate line)?
both anteriorly and posteriorly
where does the transversus abdominis form the sheath around the rectus muscle (above the arcuate line)?
posteriorly
what is this?
-The lower edge of the posterior rectus sheath, just when it moves anteriorly?
-located between umbilicus and pubic symphysis
arcuate line
inferior to the rectus sheath, the layer behind the rectus abdominus muscle is ...
transversalis fascia
the pyramidalis muscle is (always present, sometimes present, or never present)?
sometimes present
What are the nerves (and their spinal origins) that innervate the skin, fascia, and muscles of the anterolateral abdominal wall?
Thoracoabdominal nn. (T7-T11)
Subcostal n. (T12)
Iliohypogastric n. (L1)
Ilioinguinal n. (L1)
what is special about the Iliohypogastric n. and the ilioinguinal n.?
they are sensory only
What arteries supply the rectus abdominis muscle?
inferior and superior epigastric aa.
name the 2 branches of arteries of the abdominal wall that come off the internal thoracic artery and where they lie.
musculophrenic a: along costal margin

superior epigastric a: in rectus sheath
For the abdominal wall, name the 2 arteries that branch off the aorta.
Posterior intercostal aa (10th and 11th)

subcostal a. (12th)
for the abdominal wall, name the branch that comes off the external iliac artery and where it is located
inferior epigastric a: in rectus sheath
What is this?
-tributaries of the portal vein
-anastomose with cutaneous veins around the umbilicus (portal-caval anastomosis)
-Caput medusae
Paraumbilical veins
What are the 2 veins of the abdominal wall?
Paraumbilical veins
thoracoepigastric vein
Obstruction of either the inferior vena cava or the hepatic portal vein, both of which drain structures below the diaphragm, may result in what?
varicosities of the superficial epigastric veins
in the abdomen, do veins parallel the arteries?
yes
If you see engorged veins on the surface of the abdomen, it is indicative of what type of problem?
liver problem
What type of muscle tissue gives strong, quick discontinuous voluntary contraction?
striated skeletal muscle
which type of muscle tissue gives strong, quick continuous involuntary contraction??
striated cardiac muscle
which type of muscle tissue gives a weak, slow involuntary contraction?
smooth muscle
Smooth muscle tissue is generally of what origin?
mesodermal origin
myofilaments are part of what?
cytoskeleton
actin is found in all cells in a form that is called...
G-actin
What are thin filaments?

thick filaments?
F-actin

Myosin
muscle cells are surrounded in part or entirely by a plasma membrane called...
sarcolemma
What is the protoplasm of a muscle cell called?
sarcoplasm
In a muscle cell, what is the (smooth) endoplasmic reticulum called and what is its main function?
sarcoplasmic reticulum

store calcium
In a muscle cell, what is a mitochondria called?
sarcosome
What is a linear unit called in a muscle cell?
sarcomere
what is a muscle cell called?
myofiber
The sarcolemma is comprised of the ... of the cell and an extracellular amorphous ... (or external ...) in which collogen and reticular fibers may also be embedded.
plasma membrane
basal lamina
lamina
The ... is a layer of connective tissue that separates each individual skeletal muscle cell from the other skeletal muscle cells.
endomysium
Groups of muscle fibers are termed ... and the C.T. capsule that separates or surrounds them is the ...
fascicles
perimysium
Surrounding the entire muscle is a layer of connective tissue (like a sac) called ...

It blends in with the tendons and helps give the muscle strength to hold it together.
epimysium
The size of skeletal muscle fiber cells can be very large, as thick as ... microns.
100
The many nuclei of skeletal muscle fibers migrate to the ... of the cell
margins (periphery)
Thin and thick filaments of skeletal and cardiac muscles are arranged into ...
myofibrils
The light area on a myofibril is called the ..., which contain mainly ... filaments

The dark area is called the ..., which contain mainly ... filaments
I band; thin filaments

A band; thick filaments
What is the fundamental contractile unit of striated muscle?

"from Z to shining Z"
sarcomere
... are the site of electrical activation of the surface of the sarcoplasmic reticulum, which surrounds the myofibrils in the sarcoplasm.
t-tubules
"triads" are only found in ... muscles
skeletal
the actin-myosin interaction depends primarily on what 2 regulatory proteins?
troponin (balls)
tropomyosin (strings)
The three subunits of troponin are
TnT
TnC
TnI
the H-zone contains only ...
myosin
The I band contains only
actin
what band contains mainly myosin?
H-band
What band contains troponin, tropomyosin, and actin?
I band
what band contains troponin, tropomyosin, actin, and myosin?
A band
cardiac muscle cells have ... located nuclei (usually 2)
centrally
... are pores in between 2 adjacent cardiac muscle cells. They are located on parts that go laterally. They also allow for exchange of material/signals
gap junctions
what types of junctions act to linearly couple the force generated in one myofibril with the force produced in the corresponding myofibril in a linearly adjacent cell?
adhearing junctions
SR and T tubule arrangement in skeletal muscle is...

in cardiac muscle is...
triad

diad
which muscle type has the largest number of mitochondria?
cardiac muscle
What type of cell is found in the ventricle of the heart?

it is an extra large cell and has large amounts of sarcoplasm and no T-tubules

it's part of the system that provides automaticity to the heart beat
purkinje cell
The contraction of the heart muscle ... depend upon input from the CNS, but the ANS does regulate the frequency of contractions.
does not
smooth muscle cells are very small, about ... microns
10
nuclei in smooth muscle cells are located ...
centrally
dense bodies of smooth muscle contain ...

they are also the attachment points for thin filaments, which are the equivalent of the ... in striated muscle
alpha actinin

Z-line
smooth muscles have a combination of both types of innervations; through ... or ...
gap junctions
direct innervation
is there regeneration of

cardiac muscle?
skeletal muscle?
smooth muscle?
no
limited (satellite cells)
yes
this describes...
-prime mover
-both initiates and maintains the motion (is always contracting throughout)
agonist
name the 3 types of muscle contractions in the order of increasing ATP use
concentric (work)
isometric (no work)
eccentric (negative work)
The brachialis doing elbow flexion is an example of an ...
agonist
what is the antagonist to the brachialis?
triceps brachii
what is the strenth recruiter (assister) called?
synergist
what is a synergist to brachialis?
biceps brachii
what maintains the functional integrity of a joint(s) during a motion carried out by the agonist?
stabilizer
what is the stabilizer to the brachialis?
brachioradialis
what muscles are shoulder stabilizers?
deltoids
rotator cuff muscles (SITS)
muscles attached to the anterior part of the shoulder girdle are (depressors, elevators, or both)?
depressors
muscles attached to the posterior part of the shoulder girdle are (depressors, elevators, or both)?
both
depressors of the shoulder are...
subclavius
pectoralis minor
lower trapezius
elevators of the shoulder are...
upper trapezius
levator scapulae
rhomboids
The scapula lies at about ... degrees on the thorax
30
What muscle adducts? (scapula)
rhomboids
What muscles abduct? (scapula)
serratus anterior
pectoralis minor
What muscles are involved in glenohumeral abduction from 0-90 degrees?
supraspinatus
middle deltoid
What muscles do glenohumeral abduction from 90-150 degrees?
(supraspinatus, middle deltoid)
plus...
inferior trapezius
serratus anterior
What muscles do glenohumeral abduction from 150-180 degrees?
(supraspinatus, middle deltoid, inferior trapezius, serratus anterior)
plus...
paraspinal (controlateral)
What muscles do glenohumeral flexion from 0-60?
anterior deltoids
long head of biceps
coracobrachialis
What muscles do glenohumeral flexion from 60-120?
levator scapulae
inferior trapezius
serratus anterior
what muscles do glenohumeral flexion from 120-180?
paraspinal mm
what muscles do glenohumeral extension?
middle trapezius
posterior deltoid
teres minor
teres major
rhomboids
latissimus dorsi
what muscles do scapulothoracic "extension" (or retraction/adduction)
latissimus dorsi
rhomboids
middle trapezius
what muscles do glenohumeral adduction?
pectoralis major
latissimus dorsi
teres major
rhomboids
muscles involved with glenohumeral medial rotation
lats. dorsi
teres major
subscapularis
pecs major
muscles involved with glenohumeral lateral rotation (used when we write)
teres minor
infraspinatus
What may cause a subluxation of the acromion at the acromioclavicular joint?
shoulder trauma to the acromioclavicular joint
What connects the acromion to the coracoid process of the scapula, and prevents dislocation at the acromioclavicular joint?
coracoclavicular ligament
what is this?
-ball and socket
-head of humerus and the glenoid fossa of the scapula
glenohumeral joint
what are the rotator cuff muscles?
Supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, subscapularis (SITS)
what is this?
-tendons of muscles may become torn or inflamed (most commonly the tendon of the supraspinatus)
-pain is anterior and superior to the glenohumeral joint during abduction
inflammation of the rotator cuff
Humeral dislocation is when the head of the humerus is displaced ... and ..., just inferiorly to the coracoid process.

May stretch the ... or ... nerve.
inferiorly and anteriorly

axillary or radial nerve
If humeral fracture occurs at the surgical neck of the humerus, what can be damaged?
axillary nerve
posterior circumflex humeral a.
if humeral fracture occurs at the greater tubercle, what occurs?
detachment of rotator cuff from humerus
If there was a transverse humeral fracture that occurred distal to the deltoid tuberosity, what would that lead to?
abduction of the proximal fragment by the deltoid muscle.
if there was a humeral fracture at the midshaft (spiral), that would damage
radial nerve
profunda brachial artery
what are the boundaries of the axilla?
-medial: serratus anterior, ribs

-anterior: pectoralis major and minor

-lateral: bicipital groove

-posterior: scapula, subscapularis

-superior: 1st rib, clavicle, scapula

-inferior: skin
name the branches of the axillary artery
1) superior thoracic

2) lateral thoracic, thoracoacromial

3)subscapular, anterior humeral circumflex, posterior humeral circumflex
what is this?
-inflammation of extensor tendon due to forced flexion and extension of forearm at elbow.
-pain over lateral epicondyle, which may radiate down the posterior aspect of forearm
lateral epicondylitis
what is this?
-inflammation of common flexor tendon that results from repetitive flexion and pronation of the forearm at the elbow.
medial epicondylitis (golfer's elbow)
what can occur if there is a fracture of the medial epicondyle of the humerous?
the ulnar nerve may be lesioned
the roots of the brachial plexus (C5-T1) are formed by ... rami
ventral
what does the musculocutaneous nerve (C5,6) innervate?
-coracobrachialis
-biceps brachii
-brachialis
-skin of lateral aspect of arm (lateral antebrachial cutaneous n)
what does the axillary nerve (C5-6) innervate?
-deltoids
-teres minor
-skin of the arm covering the attachment of the deltoid to the humerus
what two arteries supply the muscles attached to the scapula?
suprascapular and transverse cervical arteries
what innervates the supraspinatus and infraspinatus mm?
suprascapular n.
what innervates the pec major and minor?
lateral and medial pectoral nn.
what innervates the upper part of subscapularis m?
upper subscapular
what innervates the latissimus dorsi m?
thoracodorsal n.
what does the lower subscapular nerve innervate?
-lower part of subscapularis m.
-teres major m.
The location for Erb's palsy is the ventral rami of ...

It's most common and most frequently caused at birth (shoulder dystocia) and the symptoms are...
C5-6

weakened muscles in upper limb; muscles acting at shoulder and elbow are weakened
The location for Klumpke's palsy is the ventral rami of ...

It is a lower plexus injury and it's symptoms are...
C8-T1

weakness of hand muscles innervated by C8 or T1 fibers, resulting in ape hand and a claw hand. Difficult to make fist.
the long thoracic nerve innervates the ...

when it is severed, you get...

often occurs because of Iatrogenic damage, which is...
serratus anterior

winging of scapula

damage due to medical or surgical treatment
what is this describing?
-to collect and return interstitial fluid, including plasma protein to the blood, and thus help maintain fluid balance
-to defend the body against disease by producing lymphocytes
-to absorb lipids from the intestine and transport them to the blood
functions of the lymphatic system
what are the 4 superficial veins of the arm?
cephalic
basilic
median cubital
median antebrachial
the 5 axillary nodes are ...
anterior (pectoral)
posterior (subscapular)
lateral (humeral)
central
apical
what axillary node drains the outer portion of the breast?
pectoral
what axillary node drains the central nodes?
apical
what is it called when there is swelling due to obstruction of lymph channels and/or nodes?
lymphedema
most patients with lymphadema are ...
post breast cancer patients