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77 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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1. What were the two ideas critical to Darwin's ideas about evolution? (mark both answers)
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a. Scala Naturae
b. Inheritance of traits acquired through increased use c. Descent with modification d.Natural selection |
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2. The Modern Synthesis involved an integration of the theories of Darwin and ___________.
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a. Lamarck
b. Wallace c. Mendel d. Aristotle |
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3. What is meant by the term "Molecular Clock"?
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a. All species have a limited time of existence
b. The molecular signals for development are on a 24 hour cycle c. When genes evolve at the same rate in two or more lineages d. A method used to date sedimentary rock layers |
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4. Two structures or organisms that are superficially similar, but differ in complex details and are found on distant branches of the tree of life are examples of ______________________.
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a. Parallel Evolution
b. Convergent Evolution c. Mosaic Evolution d. Retrograde Evolution |
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5. What two phenomena can lead to paedogenesis?
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a. Progenesis and Neotony
b. Allometry and Heterology c. Modularism and Ontogeny d. Cladogenesis and Anagenesis |
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6. Which of the following is an example of heterology?
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a. Roots growing on the stems of climbing vines
b. Enlarged fins of flying fish c. Wings of a butterfly d. Similarity between vertebrate embryos |
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7. Assuming age and preservation were identical, the ancient, preserved DNA of which of the following organisms would be the hardest to study?
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a. Humans
b. Rhinoceroses c. Fish d. Wooly Mammoths |
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8. Movement of the continents is due to _____________________.
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a. Troposphere conveyance
b. Geothermal inversion c. Ecosystem trailing d. Plate tectonics |
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9. Why is the fossil record fragmentary?
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a. Favorable conditions for fossilization are uncommon
b. Sedimentation in most areas is rare c. Erosion and metamorphism of rock layers d. All of the above |
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10. Dollo's law is . . .
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a. a principle stating that once lost, complex characters are never re-evolved.
b. a criterion used to determine the age of the most recent common ancestor of organisms. c. a theory that explains the parallel evolution of DNA. d. a way of tracking fossil species through various layers of strata. |
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11. When and where did Homonins diverge from other extant Homonids (great apes)?
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a. Asia, 1-2 million years ago
b. Australia, 6-7 million years ago c. Africa, 6-7 million years ago d. Africa, 1-2 million years ago |
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12. With which of the following taxa do humans share the most recent common ancestor?
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a. Australopithecus afarensis
b. Homo erectus c. Australopithecus africanus d. Chimpanzee |
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13. Why do chloroplasts and mitochondria have genetic material that is separate from the rest of the cell?
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a. They undergo only meiosis
b. They use only NADH+ c. They are descended from free living prokaryotes d. They often are expelled from eukaryotic cells and so need the genes to survive on their own |
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14. The sudden appearance in the fossil record of diverse phyla during the early Paleozoic is known as the ________________________.
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a. Big Bang
b. Cambrian Explosion c. Phyletic Gradualism d. Carboniferous Conflagration |
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15. What is the most widely accepted theory regarding the cause of the Permian extinction?
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a. Immense lava flow
b. Large metorite c. Global cooling d. Viral epidemic |
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16. The large landmass present during the Paleozoic era which consisted of all major modern continents is called ____________.
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a. Cardasia
b. Gondwana c. Pangea d. Laurasia |
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17. A mountain range forming and separating two populations within a species is an example of _______________.
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a. vicariance
b. ecological biogeography c. allocthony d. endemism |
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18. The group consisting of kangaroos and wallabies is autocthonous to which biogeographic realm?
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a. Nearctic
b. Australian c. Ethiopian d. Palearctic |
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19. High diversity of genes in African populations compared to the rest of the world supports which theory regarding the spread of the human species?
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a. Primitive humans left Africa a long time ago and evolved separately on the different continents with some gene flow.
b. Modern humans left Africa relatively recently and replaced primitive humans in other areas. c. There was a large population decrease in the human species approximately 500,000 years ago. d. Modern humans were immune to bacterial plagues that destroyed many mammals during the Pleistocene. |
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20. To gain a complete understanding of biogeographical patterns one must consider both ecological and historical forces.
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a. True
b. False |
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21. Exponential growth in species number can continue indefinitely.
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a. True
b. False |
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22. Biodiversity of an ecosystem is at equilibrium when _____________.
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a. there is no extinction
b. predators outnumber prey c. 2 million years has passed since a major extinction event d. species extinction rates equal origination rates |
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23. Which terrestrial ecosystem is the most biodiverse?
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a. Temperate deciduous forests
b. Equatorial rainforests c. Deserts d. Arctic |
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24. Which of the following is not linked to high species turnover within a group?
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a. Degree of specialization
b. Population dynamics c. Body size d. Geographic range |
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25. What is a key innovation?
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a. A novel feature that opens up previously unavailable ecological space for a group.
b. A feature that results in the extinction of a major taxon. c. A link between two co-evolving lineages. d. A way to measure the rate of a molecular clock. |
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1. Which of the following best describes shotgun sequencing?
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a. Random sequencing of pieces of the genome followed by assembly
b. Design of specific primers and target sequencing of individual pieces c. Mixing of DNA from many species prior to sequencing d. Sequencing proteins and inferring DNA sequences based on amino acid sequence |
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2. What two things are necessary for evolution via natural selection? (Mark both answers)
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a. Recombination
b. Variation c. Adaptive (reproductive) advantage d. Allele fixation |
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3. What is the ultimate source of all genetic variation?
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a. Mutation
b. Recombination c. Transposable elements d. Genetic drift |
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4. Which of the following processes would alter the karyotype of a species?
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a. Mistakes in mRNA translation
b. Pleiotropy c. Linkage disequilibrium d. Genome duplication |
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5. The reason organisms become adapted to different environments is because each environment causes a unique set of beneficial mutations.
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a. True
b. False |
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6. Which of the following characteristics are necessary for a population to be at Hardy-Wienburg equilibrium?
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a. Infinite population size
b. Random mating c. No Mutation d. All of the above |
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7. Pairing of rare recessive alleles and loss of genetic diversity can be caused by _____________.
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a. Inbreeding depression
b. Adaptive radiations c. Genetic markers d. Degeneracy of the DNA code |
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8. The diagram below of haplotype frequencies would most likely be found in which type of population structure?
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a. Sympatric
b. Allopatric c. Panmictic d. Untractic |
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9. "Mitochondrial Eve" a human ancestor who was the progenitor of all mitochondria in the human population is a natural assumption of which theory?
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a. Neutral Theory
b. Panmixis Theory c. Coalescent Theory d. Model of Evolution Theory |
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10. Which of the following would be the most severe bottleneck for a population?
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a. Dramatic increase in number of transposable elements
b. Death of half a population of 1000 c. Single fertilized female on a new island d. Only 10% of males able to secure mates |
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11. An adaptive mutation for one environment may not necessarily be beneficial in another environment.
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a. True
b. False |
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12. How do we recognize mutations that are adaptations?
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a. If the organism is the only one in an ecosystem with a particular trait
b. Experimentally test if it confers an advantage c. If they evolve in a neutral manner d. All of the above |
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13. The diagram below best represents _________________.
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a. diversifying selection
b. purifying selection c. directional selection d. stabilizing selection |
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14. As long as no other factors interfere, even a small selection coefficient will result in fixation of the advantageous allele.
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a. True
b. False |
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15. The graph below best represents the fixation of which type of adaptive mutation? (Hint: slow initial increase in frequency followed by rapid completion of fixation)
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a. codominant
b. dominant c. dominant lethal d. recessive |
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16. A trait that confers an overall benefit, but might have a negative impact on fitness at one or more levels is known as a __________________?
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a. nonadaptive landscape
b. trade off c. relative fitness d. preadaptation |
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17. An allele that has a different selection coefficient depending on the frequency of other alleles at the same locus is an example of ___________________.
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a. sensory bias
b. canalization c. phenotypic plasticity d. frequency dependent selection |
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18. What two things contribute to the observed variance in phenotypes? (mark both)
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a. Environmental variance
b. Deme variance c. Genetic variance d. Relegated variance |
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19. Which of the following is an example of phenotypic plasticity?
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a. Different phenotypes observed in genetically different individuals of a population
b. Different phenotypes observed in individuals in two separate populations c. Different phenotypes observed in genetically identical individuals raised in separate environments d. Phenotypes that allow for digestion of long hydrocarbon chains |
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20. On average which is stronger, artificial selection or natural selection?
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a. Artificial
b. Natural |
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21. The bright plumage observed in many male birds is the result of __________________.
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a. blocker sperm
b. mate preference c. same sex competition d. antagonistic coevolution |
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22. Which of the following is an often used hypothesis for the evolution of altruism?
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a. vicariance
b. genetic drift c. good genes model d. kin selection |
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23. Which of the following has the largest effect on evolution?
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a. Mutation in a somatic cell
b. Mutation in the germ line c. Mutation in a worker of a eusocial organism d. Mutation that is corrected by DNA polymerase |
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24. Under what circumstances might we expect to see siblicide in a bird population?
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a. When parents are able to take care of more chicks than they can produce
b. When chicks have a large load of genetic anomolies c. When parents have phenotypic defects in their sensory systems d. When parents are able to take care of less chicks than they can produce |
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25. What is a compensatory mutation?
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a. A change at a site other than the original site that lessens the effects of a deleterious mutation
b. A change that reverts a mutation back to its original state c. A change that has no effect on fitness d. A change that is quickly purged from a population |
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1. Which of the following best describes the phylogenetic species concept?
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a. Defining species that correspond to monophyletic groups on the tree of life
b. Defining species based on the way they look c. Defining species based on interbreeding populations d. Defining species based on historical definitions |
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2. What is Gene Flow?
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a. Ability of an organism to procure multiple mates
b. Increase in the ploidy of an organism c. Movement of genetic information from one population to another d. Loss of genetic diversity due to gravity |
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3. What are the possible fates of a hybrid zone?
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a. Long term persistence
b. Complete reproductive isolation c. Joining of the two populations d. Hybrids form a new third species e. All of the above |
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4. Speciation is always a very rapid process.
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a. True
b. False |
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5. If I compared two genera of birds, one with sexual selection and one without sexual selection, what would I expect to see?
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a. The genus without sexual selection would have more species
b. The genus with sexual selection would have more species c. The genus without sexual selection would have an unequal sex ratio d. The genus with sexual selection would have an unequal sex ratio |
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5. If I compared two genera of birds, one with sexual selection and one without sexual selection, what would I expect to see?
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a. The genus without sexual selection would have more species
b. The genus with sexual selection would have more species c. The genus without sexual selection would have an unequal sex ratio d. The genus with sexual selection would have an unequal sex ratio |
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6. What is the major cause of the changes resulting in speciation during peripatric speciation?
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a. Artificial selection
b. Unequal sex ratio c. Genetic Drift d. Stabilizing selection |
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7. Which type of speciation is potentially the fastest?
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a. Parapatric
b. Allopatric c. Sympatric d. Polyploid |
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8. An organism that reproduces only one time during its life has a _______________ life history.
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a. Semelparous
b. Iteroparous c. Uberparous d. Reliparous |
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9. What two values would I need to know to estimate the reproductive fitness of a population with the life history from question #8? (mark both answers)
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a. Average number of offspring
b. Number of mutalistic species c. Odds of living to reproductive age d. Inbreeding coefficient |
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10. If I examined the flowers of a dioecious plant what would I find?
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a. Male and female structures in each flower
b. Flowers from different individuals would be either all male or all female c. There would be no flowers d. Flowers would be the same color as the leaves |
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11. What is the sex ratio for a randomly mating population?
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a. Depends on the time of year
b. More females than males c. More males than females d. Roughly equal |
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12. A plant that evolves a chemical defense and so is no longer subject to predation by a group of insects is an example of which type of coevolution?
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a. Escape and Radiation Coevolution
b. Specific Coevolution c. Generic Coevolution d. Diffuse Coevolution |
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13. Which of the following conditions would tend to lead to an increase in pathogen virulence?
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a. Origin of the pathogen from multiple sources
b. Decreased host resistance to the pathogen c. Vertical transmission of the pathogen |
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14. Many different noxious butterfly species that all look the same is an example of _________ mimicry?
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a. Darwinian
b. Mullerian c. Batesian d. Wallacian |
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15. What would you expect to see if you evaluated the dN/dS (ratio of non-synonymous to synonymous mutations) for a gene that had been subjected to strong purifying selection?
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a. It would be higher than average
b. It would be lower than average c. It would be about average d. It could not be calculated |
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16. There is a simple relationship between the complexity of an organism and its genome size.
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a. True
b. False |
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17. Which of the following is a mechanism by which new genes originate?
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a. point mutation
b. gene duplication c. incompatible chromosomes d. genetic drift |
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18. Two genes that are descended from a single gene in a common ancestor are called _________.
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a. paralogous
b. orthologous c. twin genes d. incompatible |
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19. What types of organisms have Hox genes?
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a. Plants
b. All animals c. Bacteria d. Mammals |
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20. Which description below best describes gene co-option?
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a. When a gene is duplicated and gains a new function
b. When a gene is no longer functional c. When a single gene gains an additional function, resulting in pleiotropy d. When a gene regulates expression of another gene |
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21. What is trans-regulation of a gene?
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a. When evolution in the control elements of the gene itself cause a change in expression
b. When a gene duplication event causes twice as much product to be made c. When a synonymous mutation causes a change in the protein product d. When evolution of another gene that acts as a regulatory protein causes a change in expression |
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22. What is a mechanism that allows populations to move from one adaptive peak to another?
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a. Genetic Drift
b. Gene Duplication c. Population size stability d. Extinction |
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23. Which of the following is not a reason why sister taxa look can look so different?
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a. Evolution along separate lineages with no cladogenesis
b. Extinction of intermediate lineages c. Saltation: immediate large morphology shift due to a small genetic change d. Extinction |
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24. What is required for the evolution of complexity?
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a. Intermediate forms need to be adaptive
b. Pleiotropy c. Only neutral evolution can be occurring d. Large amounts of gene flow |
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24. What is required for the evolution of complexity?
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a. Intermediate forms need to be adaptive
b. Pleiotropy c. Only neutral evolution can be occurring d. Large amounts of gene flow |
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25. Are there any overall trends in evolution across all life forms?
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a. No, not really
b. Yes, all new species are more complex than those that came before c. Yes, all new species are larger than their ancestor species |
