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336 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
Who would not be one of the people who determines building construction used in a structure?
A) Architect B) Structural Engineer C) Building Manager D) Contractor |
C) Building Manager
The type of building construction used in a structure is determined by the architect, structural engineer, or contractor |
|
Locally adopted building ________ regulate the type of construction based on the intended use, structure size, and presence or lack of an automatic fire suppression system
A) Standards B) Codes C) Policies D) Guidelines |
B) Codes
|
|
Building codes are adopted by the __________
A) Authority Having Jurisdiction B) Local Government C) Structure Engineer D) NFPA |
A) Authority Having Jurisdiction
|
|
NFPA ________, Building Construction and Safety Code
A) 5000 B) 1500 C) 4000 D) 1700 |
A) 5000
|
|
True or False?
Factory built homes are generally exempt from local building codes |
True
|
|
Factory built homes are regulated by the US Federal Government through the ______________
A) NFPA B) Department of Housing and Urban Development C) International Code Council D) Authority Having Jurisdiction |
B) Department of Housing and Urban Development
|
|
The IBC and NFPA classify buildings into _______ types of construction
A) 4 B) 6 C) 5 D) 3 |
C) 5
|
|
Name the 3 building elements every building is composed of
|
1) Structural Frame
2) Floor Construction 3) Roof Construction |
|
Type I construction
A) Ordinary B) Fire Resistive C) Noncombustible D) Wood or Stick Frame |
B) Fire Resistive
|
|
This type of construction proves the highest level of protection from fire development and spread as well as collapse
|
Type I
|
|
In Type 1 Construction, walls, floors and ceilings must be able to resist fire for a period of ___ to ___ hours
A) 2–3 B) 1–2 C) 3–4 D) 4–5 |
C) 3–4
|
|
This type of construction is said to be the most collapse resistant
|
Type I
|
|
The protection by fire walls can be _________ when owners and contractors make unprotected penetrations through them
A) Reduced B) Increased |
A) Reduced
|
|
True or False?
Type I construction can burn but will not degrade from the effects of the fire |
False
Type I construction will not burn, but the structure may degrade from the effects of the fire |
|
True or False?
The structural integrity of a Type I building can be compromised with the addition of combustible materials |
True
|
|
In Type 1 construction, _______ are extremely difficult to penetrate for the purpose of ventilation
A) Windows B) Doors C) Roofs D) Celings |
C) Roofs
|
|
Buildings that are composed of materials that will not contribute to fire development or spread
|
Type II
|
|
Type ___ (Noncombustible or Limited Combustible)
|
Type II
|
|
The rating assigned to a material or assembly after standardized testing by an independent organization: identifies the amount of time a material or assembly will resist a typical fire
|
Fire–Resistance Rating
|
|
The fire resistance rating for Type II construction is generally how long?
A) 1–2 Hours B) 2–3 Hours C) 3–4 Hours D) 4–5 Hours |
A) 1–2 Hours
|
|
These buildings are more prone to collapse because they are constructed of lighter weight materials with lower fire–resistive ratings
A) Type I B) Type III C) Type IV D) Type II |
D) Type II
|
|
True or False?
Type III construction is normally used when fire risk is expected to be low, or fire suppression and detection systems are designed to meet the fuel load of the contents |
False
Type II Construction |
|
Type ____ (Ordinary Construction)
|
Type III
|
|
This type of construction is commonly found in older schools, business, and residential structures
A) Type IV B) Type V C) Type II D) Type III |
Type III
|
|
This construction type requires that exterior walls and structural members be constructed of noncombustible materials
A) Type I B) Type II C) Type III D) Type IV |
C) Type III
|
|
Type ____ construction buildings may contain a number of conditions that can affect their behavior during a fire
|
Type III
|
|
Solid Materials used to prevent or limit the vertical and horizontal spread of fire and the products of combustion in hollow walls or floors, above false ceilings, in penetrations for plumbing or electrical installations, in penetrations of a fire rated assembly, or in cocklofts and crawl spaces
|
Fire Stop
|
|
Type ___ construction has interior features that are made of wood and exterior walks and supports that are noncombustible
|
Type III
|
|
These can reduce the amount of open area in void spaces in which fire can travel
A) Load–Bearing Wall B) Fire Stops C) Joists D) Fire Walls |
B) Fire Stops
|
|
True or False?
Renovations can cause safety hazards |
True
Renovations can change the interior arrangement, exit paths and structural integrity of a structure |
|
Type ____ (Heavy Timber/ Mill Construction)
|
IV
|
|
Type ___ is characterized by the use of large–dimensioned lumber
|
Type IV
|
|
As a general rule in Type IV construction, structural members must be greater than ___ inches
A) 7 B) 8 C) 9 D) 10 |
B) 8
|
|
Type IV construction has a fire resistive rating of ___ hours
A) 3 B) 1 C) 2 D) 4 |
C) 2
|
|
Any other materials used in construction and not composed of wood must have a fire–resistance rating of at least __ hour/s
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 |
A) 1
|
|
Type __ structures are extremely stable and resistant to collapse due to the sheer mass of their structural members
|
Type IV
|
|
In Type IV, the _____ structural elects form an insulating effect derived from it's own char that reduces heat penetration to the inside of the beam
A) Plastic B) Concrete C) Timber D) Particle Board |
C) Timber
|
|
In Type __, exterior walls are constructed of noncombustible materials while interior elements are constructed of solid or laminated wood with no concealed spaces
|
Type IV
|
|
Small–dimensioned lumber that is glued together to form a laminated structural element that may fail when exposed to fire because the glue holding the laminates together may be affected by the heat
|
Glulam Elements
|
|
Type __ (Wood or Stick Frame)
|
Type V
|
|
Walls of a building that by design carry at least some part of the structural load of the building in the direction of the ground or base
|
Load–Bearing Wall
|
|
In Type V construction, the exterior load–bearing walls are composed entirely of ______
A) Concrete B) Composite Materials C) Wood D) Gypsum |
C) Wood
|
|
The most common example of this type of construction is a single–family dwelling or residence
|
Type V
|
|
Type V, construction consists of framing materials that include wood __x__ or __x__ inch studs
A) 3x3, 2x4 B) 2x4, 2x6 C) 3x4, 3x6 D) 4x6, 2x4 |
B) 2x4, 2x6
|
|
An upright post in the framework of a wall for supporting sheets of lath and plaster, wallboard, or similar material
A) Joist B) Veneer C) Stud D) Plank |
C) Stud
|
|
Most structures built in the northern climates mandate __ inch exterior wall cavities for increased insulation
A) 4 B) 6 C) 8 D) 10 |
B) 6
|
|
True or False?
Shake shingles increase the fire load in a neighborhood |
True
|
|
Type __ construction now includes the use of prefabricated wood truss systems in place of solid floor joists
|
Type V
|
|
Under fire conditions, _______ I–beams fail and burn much more rapidly than solid lumber
A) Particle Board B) Plywood C) Synthetic Wood D) Medium–density Fiberboard |
B) Plywood
|
|
Wood I–beams have a _______ surface area than solid lumber and are a liability in fire conditions
A) Lower B) Higher |
B) Higher
|
|
A ________ is a structure that i built in a factory and shipped to the location where it is installed
|
Manufactured Home
|
|
Manufactured homes make up ___ percent of all housing sales in the US
A) 20 B) 40 C) 25 D) 35 |
C) 25
|
|
True or False
Manufactured homes are not required to conform to the model building codes |
True
|
|
Manufactured homes built before ____ have ______ fire resistance than those of current construction
A) 1967, More B) 1976, Less C) 1976, More D) 1967, Less |
B) 1976, Less
|
|
True or False?
Even though lightweight building materials are used in manufactured homes, that are not very susceptible to early failure in a fire |
False
Lightweight building materials are always very susceptible to early failure in a fire |
|
The use of lightweight materials makes forced entry much _________
A) Harder B) Easier |
B) Easier
|
|
Manufactured homes may have open crawl spaces beneath them which provides an additional source for ________ during a fire
A) Carbon Dioxide B) Carbon Monoxide C) Nitrogen D) Oxygen |
D) Oxygen
|
|
According to an NFPA analysis of fires, there has been a steady ______ in fires in manufactured homes since ________
A) Decline, 1990 B) Increase, 1980 C) Decline, 1980 D) Increase, 1990 |
C) Decline, 1980
|
|
why was the national commissions of fire prevention and control established
|
to determine how to reduce fire loss
|
|
a department type is determined by how
|
an organization is funded
|
|
which of the following is a result of the Iroquois Theater Fire, Chicago 1903
|
panic hardware on exit doors
|
|
which of the following duties is the responsibility of the public works division
|
provide sand for containing spills
|
|
the broad category for personnel that deliver emergency services directly to external customers is
|
line
|
|
what type of company protects structures in the wildland/urban interface?
|
brush company
|
|
which of the following staff positions is responsible for maintaining municipal fire alarm systems according to the requirements of NFPA 72?
|
fire alarm maintenance personnel
|
|
what part of the fire service is composed of a variety of companies located in a response area?
|
battalion
|
|
the all–hazards approach means the fire service
|
provides a variety of services in the community
|
|
what is the main duty of a firefighter 1?
|
perform assigned tasks under supervision
|
|
which of the following positions is responsible of monitoring operational safety according to the requirements of the NFPA 1521?
|
fire department incident safety officer
|
|
what cultural strength in the fire service is based on the feelings of self–respect and personal worth?
|
pride
|
|
a(an)_________ is a collection of rules enacted by law in a particular jurisdiction
|
code
|
|
which of the following is the BEST action to take when approached by media while on–scene?
|
direct them to Public information officer
|
|
which of the following types of staffing performs required functions for minimal or no pay?
|
volunteer
|
|
what is the first recommended step in locating information in departmental documents?
|
ask your supervisor
|
|
which of the following positions is trained in the operation of aerial devices according to the requirements of NFPA 1002?
|
fire apparatus driver
|
|
What type of company performs fire suppression duties at structure, vehicle, wildland and other types of fires?
|
engine company
|
|
when was the first fire engine purchased in colonial north America?
|
1653
|
|
A (an)_______ is a set of principles or procedures developed by consensus.
|
standard
|
|
what is the mission of the fire service?
|
to save lives and protect property
|
|
what organization formed in 1896 develops codes and standards to ensure fire and life safety for the public?
|
National fire protection association
|
|
which of the following is a result of the cocoanut Grove Nightclub fire, Boston Massachusetts (1942)?
|
increased fire and life safety requirements in
assembly type occupancies |
|
Which of the following positions provides
advanced emergency medical care for critical an emergent patients |
paramedic
|
|
which federal law affects hiring practices and building accessibility?
|
Americans with disabilities act
|
|
which of the following organizations may be an agency of the authority having jurisdictions (AHJ) or privately owned?
|
emergency medical services
|
|
which of the following positions belongs to the fire prevention division?
|
fire and arson investigator
|
|
what type of company is responsible for forcible entry?
|
truck company
|
|
which of the following fie service organizational principles is described as a formal line of
authority? |
chain of command
|
|
which of the following is a cultural challenge in the fire service?
|
differences of personal characteristics
|
|
a (an)_____ is a guide to decision making in an organization
|
policy
|
|
Which of the following fire service organizational principles works to prevent duplication of effort?
|
division of labor
|
|
a (an) ________ is a written stepbystep plan of action
|
procedure
|
|
What NFPA standard establishes basic training criteria for firefighter 1 and firefighter II
|
1001
|
|
Which of the following is a common safety measure taken when ridiing on a fire apparatus?
|
secure all loose tools and equipment
|
|
which of the following is a one way firefighters can reduce exposure to carcinogens present in fires?
|
clean helmet liners
|
|
which NFPA standard defines safe training practices and programs?
|
1403
|
|
which of the following NFPA standards
establishes the design criteria for protective clothing and equipment |
1977
|
|
firefighter should ______ and put all tools in a ready state before storing.
|
inspect and clean
|
|
which of the following is a goal of fire department safety and health programs?
|
prevent damage to emergency response
equipment |
|
Which of the following best descries the case of apparatus collisions a driver/operator is not responsible for?
|
reckless driving by the public
|
|
The distance the apparatus travels from when the driver/operator realizes the need to stop, until the driver/operator's foot touches the brake pedal is...
|
called driver–reaction distance
|
|
acute illness
|
short term
|
|
chronic illness
|
long lasting
|
|
which of the following contributes to the common types of respiratory diseases for which
firefighters are at risk? |
exposure to smoke an chemicals
|
|
Which of the following best describes all the
factors taken into account when establishing on–scene control zones? |
work area needed, hazard present, weather conditions
|
|
which of the following is the BEST description of the main cause of injuries suffered in fire stations and facilities?
|
unsafe behavior
|
|
Which of the following commonly causes slips, trips, and falls in the fire station?
|
cluttered surfaces
|
|
which of the following is a minimum requirement for protective clothing and equipment as established by NFPA 1500?
|
cluttered surfaces
|
|
which of the following is a minimum requirement for protective clothing and equipment as established by NFPA 1500?
|
protective equipment must meet current NFPA design standard
|
|
When driving a fire apparatus, driver/operators should remember safe driving begins
|
before leaving the station
|
|
the risk management model assumes that responders will risk their lives ________ to save savable lives
|
a lot
|
|
Which of the following is a way t prevent accidents with power saws?
|
keep blades and cutting chains well sharpened
|
|
what is the goal of the International Association of Fire Chiefs annual safety stand–down?
|
to focus on firefighter safety
|
|
the concept of risk management is based on an assessment of benefits gained compared to the ________
|
risks involved
|
|
Which of the following is the only exception to the rule: never stand on or in moving apparatus?
|
When loading hose and apparatus is moving forward at 5 mph or less
|
|
In 2010 the leading causes of fire fatalities were
|
stress and overexertion
|
|
Which of the following illnesses can result in headaches, nausea, and weakness in legs?
|
stress–induced hypertension
|
|
Which NFPA standard sets requirements for care and maintenance of personal and respiratory protection equipment?
|
1851
|
|
The unique characteristic of a fire apparatus can
|
make more difficult to handle
|
|
any power tool not marked double insulated should:
|
have a three–prong plug
|
|
the area that must be kept clear in case a piece of a structure collapses during an incident is called the
|
collapse zone
|
|
Which NFPA standard specifies the minimum requirement for department safety and health programs?
|
1500
|
|
Which personnel accountability system uses an accountability officer to track expected exit times based on the pressure of the team's lowest SCBA reading?
|
SCBA tag system
|
|
which of the following is an injury cost carried by an individual?
|
physical pain
|
|
When operating at roadside incident, ensure that floodlights are deployed to direct light down o the scene without.
|
blinding passing motorists
|
|
What best summarizes a benefit of the national Incident Management System (NIMS)
|
provides consistent framework for agencies from multiple jurisdictions to operate together
|
|
Which of the following is the best way to exhibit safe behavior during training?
|
remain focused on training exercises at all times
|
|
Which of the following best describes ways to prevent back and leg strains?
|
lift with straight back and use legs
|
|
Which of the following must a fir departments safety and health program address?
|
all anticipated hazards to which members may be exposed.
|
|
NFPA 1500 requires that departments develop _______, including an annual medical verification of duty fitness
|
physical performance standards for personnel participating in emergency operations
|
|
When operating at an emergency scene, why should a firefighter scan the outside of a building before entry?
|
to locate possible escape routes.
|
|
the goal of the national fallen firefighters foundation is to reduce fatalities by twenty–five percent within five years and by ______ in ten years
|
50%
|
|
NFPA 1403
|
states live fire training must be conducted in according to this NFPA standard
|
|
According to NFPA 1500 emergency operations are limited to
|
those that can be safely conducted by personnel on scene
|
|
Which of th following best describes the purpose of personal protective equipment (PPE)
|
designed to minimize risk of injury or fatality
|
|
structural fire fighting protective clothing must meet what NFPA standard
|
1971
|
|
which of the following best describes why personal protective equipment (PPE) should never be altered
|
may void manufacturers warranty and endanger lives
|
|
Which of the following best describes a design limitation of structural fire fighting personal protective equipment (PPE)
|
prevents heat transfer way from body
|
|
what part of structural fire fighting personal protective equipment (PPE) prevents scalding water and embers from reaching the ears and neck?
|
helmets
|
|
what part of structural fire fighting personal protective equipment (PPE) is intended for use in combination with a primary form of eye protection
|
helmet–mounted faceshields
|
|
What part of structural fire fighting personal protective equipment (PPE) is designed to fit inside a protective coat?
|
protective hoods
|
|
which of the following best describes why the liner should never be removed form a protective coat
|
it compromises the design and increase the
likelihood of injuries |
|
which of the following structural fire fighting personal protective equipment (PPE) components must allow enough dexterity and tactile feel to perform the job required?
|
protective gloves
|
|
what part of structural fire fighting personal protective equipment (PPE) must be high enough to protect he lower leg?
|
protective footwear
|
|
what part of structural fire fighting personal protective equipment is worn when noise exceed maximum noise exposure levels?
|
hearing protection devices
|
|
what part of structural fire fighting personal
protective equipment is useful in total darkness and confined spaces |
personal alert safety systems
|
|
which NFPA standard outlines the specification for wildland personal protective clothing?
|
1977
|
|
what part of wildland personal protective equipment must meet the requirements of ANSI Z87.1
|
goggles
|
|
Steel toe boots are not recommended for wildland protective clothing because they
|
absorb and retain heat
|
|
hat piece of personal protective equipment (PPE) can be worn to increase visibility at roadway incidents
|
traffic vest with retroreflective trim
|
|
what component of emergency medical protective clothing may be dual certified for use in the station as well
|
footwear
|
|
Which of the following types of special protective clothing requires a personal flotation device
|
ice rescue
|
|
which of the following types of special protective clothing is designed as similar to structural personal protective equipment (PPE) but with an aluminized outer shell?
|
proximity fire fighting
|
|
which NFPA standard specifies requirements for station/work uniforms
|
1975
|
|
One–hundred percent cotton underwear is recommended for station/work uniforms to
prevents |
burns
|
|
which of the following best describes the
frequency with with personal protective equipment (PPE) should be inspected |
at the beginning of shift and after every use.
|
|
Where might a firefighter find wear due to friction during a routine personal protective equipment (PPE) insection
|
under arms, in crotch , at knees and elbow joints
|
|
the type of cleaning required for personal protective equipment (PPE) is determined by
|
amount and type of contamination
|
|
what type of NFPA defined cleaning may be done in a washing machind designed to handle heavy loads?
|
advanced
|
|
damaged equipment marked for training can be used in
|
non–live fire training
|
|
moisture in the shell and liner material of personal protective equipment (PPE) could result in
|
serious steam burns
|
|
what is the minimum overlap between coat and trousers when the wearer is bent over to a 90 degree angle?
|
2 inches
|
|
what action should a firefighter take if thermal radiant heat burns develop while wearing personal protective equipment (PPE)
|
withdraw from area immediately
|
|
which of the following respiratory hazards
causes superheated air to |
elevated temperatures
|
|
what two respiratory hazards are responsible for the majority of fire–related fatalities
|
carbon monoxide and hydrogen cynaide
|
|
which of the following respiratory hazards can be protected against using high–efficiency
particulate (HEPA) filters |
Airborne pathogens
|
|
which of the following best describes when SARs are used
|
for confined space rescues and technical rescue incidents
|
|
an open–circuit SCBA air cylinder control valve should be _____ when in use
|
opened fully
|
|
which part of the facepiece assembly releases exhaled air without admitting in the contaminated outside atmosphere
|
exhalation valve
|
|
which part of the facepiece assembly is made of clear safety plastic and mounted in a flexible rubber frame?
|
facepiece frame
|
|
which of following SCBA components warn when the systems is reaching 20–25% of cylinder capacity?
|
end–of–service–time indicators
|
|
which of the following types or respiratory protection uses visual ESTIs only?
|
air– purifying respirators
|
|
which of the following APR effectiveness clues is monitored by being aware of how labored a firefighter's breathing is
|
resistance to breathing indicators
|
|
which of the following limitations of respiratory protection may cause the wearer to deplete the air supply rapidly
|
psychological limitations
|
|
which of the following limitations of respiratory protection may affect the ability to get a complete facepiece seal
|
unique facial features
|
|
which of the following limitations of respiratory protection is created by the weight and resistance of harness straps
|
decreased mobility
|
|
which of the following limitations of respiratory protection is caused by fogging in the facepiece
|
limited visibility
|
|
which of the following best describes the factors respiratory equipment must protected from
during storage |
contamination, temperature changes, ultraviolet light
|
|
when donning SCBA all straps on the harness assembly and facepiece should be
|
fully extended
|
|
which NFPA standard requires seat–mounted SCBA be held in pace by a mechanical latching device
|
1901
|
|
exposure to weather and physical hazards is a potential disadvantage for what type SCBA mount
|
rear external mount
|
|
compartment doors may interfere with what type of SCBA mount
|
backup mount
|
|
Before doffing SCBA, ensure you are out of the contaminated area nd
|
SCBA is no longer required
|
|
which NFPA standard establishes the inspection period for protective breathing appartus
|
1852
|
|
which piece of protective breathing apparatus has the frae checked weekly for deterioration, dirt, and cracks
|
facepiece
|
|
which piece of protective breathing apparatus has the hand wheel checked for damaged during weekly inspection
|
breathing air cyclinder assembly
|
|
which piece of protective breathing apparatus is checked for any usual sounds during operation
|
regulator
|
|
soot can reduce visibility on what piece of
protective breathing apparatus |
facepiece
|
|
which types of SCBA air cylinder are tested very five years
|
steel and aluminum
|
|
any source used to refill SCBA must provide what type of air quality
|
type 1 grade D
|
|
which type of fill station is designed to refill SCBA at emergency incidents
|
mobile fill stations
|
|
which of the following best describes when an SCBA cyclinder needs to be replaced
|
during inspection if cylinder contains less than 90% of capacity
|
|
which of the following est describes SCBA safety precaustions to take in an IDLH atmosphere?
|
work in teams of two or more
|
|
which of the following is a nonemergency exit indicator?
|
Assignment completed
|
|
which of the following is a nonemergency exit indicator
|
situation is stabilized
|
|
which of the following is an emergency exit
indicator |
SCBA failure
|
|
which of the following would be an emergency exit indicator
|
change in oxygen level
|
|
a firefighter experiences light–headedness, disorientation and rapid fatigue mot likely has
|
an oxygen deficiency
|
|
which nonemergency exit technique may require a second team member to remain outside monitoring a search line?
|
buddy system
|
|
which nonemergency exit technique should be practiced in training until it is second nature
|
controlled breathing.
|
|
Which of the following bst describes how understanding the physical science of fire can help firefighters
|
it translates into practical knowledge of fire
behavior |
|
which of the following terms refers to a substance remaining chemically the same, but changing in size, shape or appearance
|
physical change
|
|
a substance changes from one type of matter to another, it has had a
|
chemical reaction
|
|
which of the following represents the amount of energy that an object can release in the future?
|
potential
|
|
the energy possessed by a moving object is called
|
kinetic energy
|
|
the potential chemical energy of fuel in fire behavior is converted to
|
thermal energy
|
|
what type of reaction absorbs energy as it occurs?
|
endothermic
|
|
what type of reaction releases energy in the form of heat and sometimes light?
|
exothermic
|
|
the process of ignition causes pyrolysis in soli and _________ fuels and liquid fuels
|
vaporization
|
|
what is the most common form of ignition
|
piloted
|
|
what mode of combustion produces a smoldering glow in a materials surface
|
nonflaming
|
|
in what mode of comubstion is a visible flame produced
|
flaming
|
|
what are the elements necessary to create fire in themodel represented by the fire triangle?
|
fuel, oxygen and heat
|
|
which of the followig best descries what the fire tetrahedron represents
|
an uninhibited chemical chain reaction (self–sustaining)
|
|
what type f comubstion occurs when burning is localized on or near a fuel's surface?
|
nonflaming
|
|
what product of combustion may heat adjacent fuels, making them susceptible to ignition?
|
thermal energy
|
|
what product of combustion causes the most fire deaths
|
toxic smoke
|
|
what product of combustion is the most common product in structure fires?
|
carbon monoxide
|
|
which of the following best describes why firefighters must use SCBA during overhaul?
|
volume and density of smoke may be reduced, but the hazard is not eliminated
|
|
h of the following best describes kinetic energy transfer?
|
it moves form high–temperature to low–temperature substances
|
|
what source of thermal energy is the most common source of heat in combustion reactions?
|
chemical energy
|
|
which of the following sources of energy is a form of oxidation?
|
self–heating
|
|
what method of electrical energy occurs when a high–temperature luminous discharge crosses a gaP?
|
arcing
|
|
what method of heat transfer occurs when a material is heated as the result of direct contact with a heat source?
|
conduction
|
|
what heat ranfer method usually occurs through movement of hot smoke and fire gasses?
|
convection
|
|
what method of heat transfer can become the dominant mode as the fire grows in size?
|
radiation
|
|
which of the following best describes the influence of exposures surfaces on radiant heat?
|
dark materials emit and absorb heat more effectively than light materials.
|
|
which type of fuel does not contain carbon?
|
inorganic
|
|
of the following terms is the total amount of energy released when a specific amount of fuel is burned
|
heat of combustion
|
|
heat release rate is usually expressed in which of the following measurements?
|
Killowatts (KW)
|
|
what type of fuel can be the most dangerous of all the types
|
gaseous
|
|
what type of fuel has mass an volume but no definite shape
|
gaseous
|
|
at type of fuel has mass an volume but no definite shape?
|
liquid
|
|
liquids with a specific gravity of less than 1 will
|
float on the surface
|
|
which of the following best describes what vapor pressure indicates?
|
how easily a substance will evaporate
|
|
which of the following terms is the minimum
temperature at which a liquid give off sufficient vapors to ignite, but still not sustain combustion ? |
flash point
|
|
what term is used to describe the extent to which a substance will mix with water
|
solubility
|
|
what type of fuel has a definite size and shape?
|
solid
|
|
which of the following terms is used to refer to the process that can generate sufficient quantities of burnable vapors to ignite in the presence of a sufficient oxidizer
|
pyrolysis
|
|
fuel particles become smaller as the ratio of surface to mass
|
increases
|
|
the primary oxidizing agent in most fires is
|
oxygen
|
|
which of the following best describes the impact of higher oxygen concentration on combustion
|
materials burn more intensely
|
|
the term defines the minimum concentration of fuel vapor and air that supports combustion
|
lower flammable limit
|
|
which of the following best describes the compete oxidation of methane?
|
it produces carbon dioxide and water
|
|
which of the following best describes the impact of an extinguishing agent when trying to extinguish flaming combustion
|
it interferes with the chemical reaction
|
|
which of the following fire development factors affects heat release rate?
|
fuel type
|
|
what fire development factor is based on considering how the volume of air will impact radiated heat in a fire
|
compartment volume and ceiling height
|
|
what form of compartment fire is controlled by the availability of oxygen and the configuration of fuel
|
fuel–controlled
|
|
what thermal property of a compartment contains heat within the compartment, causing localized increase in temperature
|
insulation
|
|
what fire development factor includes cold
temperature, strong winds, and wind direction |
ambient conditions
|
|
in what stage is fire development largely dependent on the characteristics and configuration of the fuel involved?
|
incipient
|
|
which of the following affects the amount of air entrained in the plume during the growth stage
|
location of fuel package
|
|
which of the following is defined as the tendency of gases to form into layers according to temperature?
|
thermal layering
|
|
the neutral plane in the growth stage is the
|
interface of hot and cool layers at an opening
|
|
isolated flames in the gas layer during growth stage indicates
|
that portions of the layer are within flammable range
|
|
what stage of fire development occurs when all the combustible materials in a compartment are burning?
|
fully developed
|
|
what fire stage occurs as the tue is consumed and oxygen concentration falls
|
decay
|
|
what type of rapid fire development happens when all the combustible materials and gases in a compartment ignite almost simultaneously
|
flashover
|
|
what common element of flashover represents the shift from growth stage to fully developed stage?
|
transition in fire development
|
|
which of the following is a heat indicator of a possible flashover?
|
darkened windows
|
|
the ignition of unburned fire gases at the top of the compartment is known as
|
rollover
|
|
what aspect of fire development is a result of an increase in low–level ventilation prior to upper level ventilation?
|
backdraft
|
|
which of the following is a building indicator for a possible backdraft?
|
fire confined to a void space
|
|
which of the following is a heat indicator for a possible backdraft
|
smoke stained windows
|
|
what type of rapid fire development occurs as unburned fuel gases contact an ignition source?
|
smoke explosion
|
|
what is the most common method used in fire fighting operations
|
temperature reduction
|
|
water is converted to steam at
|
212 degrees F
|
|
what method of fire suppression is the simplest?
|
fuel removal
|
|
what fire–suppression method does NOT work if fuel is self–oxidizing?
|
oxygen exclusion
|
|
what suppression method uses extinguishing agents to stop flame production
|
chemical flam inhibition
|
|
what fire behavior can be the result of wind from outside the structure?
|
unplanned ventilation
|
|
which of the following is the most common building material in north America?
|
wood
|
|
green wood has a high_______that affects burn rate
|
moisture content
|
|
what type of common building material includes brick, stones, and concrete blocks?
|
Masonry
|
|
which of the following can be the result of rapidly cooling cast iron with water
|
it may crack or shatter
|
|
steel structural member lengthen as much as 4 inches when heated to
|
900 degrees F
|
|
the critical temperature for steel can be reached at ceiling level from
|
the rising heat an smoke in the room
|
|
which of the following metals will be affected by heat more rapidly than steel?
|
aluminum
|
|
which of the following building materials absorbs heat as moisture evaporates?
|
gypsum
|
|
laminated timber, medium density fiberboard (MDF) and finger–jointed timber are all examples of what common building material
|
composite material
|
|
which of the following best describes who determines a structure's construction classification
|
architect, structural engineer, contractor
|
|
which of the following buildings may be exempt fro local building codes?
|
factory–built (mobile) home
|
|
the International Building Code (IBC) and National fire protection Association (NFPA) define
construction type based on the performance of the construction when |
exposed to fire.
|
|
which of the following construction types has walls, floors, and ceilings that must be able to resist fire for three to for hours?
|
type 1 (I)
|
|
what construction type is composed of materials that will not contribute to fire development or spread?
|
type 2 (II)
|
|
what construction type requires exterior walls and structural members to be constructed of noncombustible materials?
|
type 3 (III)
|
|
the interior elements in what type of
construction are made of solid or laminated wood wit no concealed space? |
type 4 (IV)
|
|
in what construction type are exterior load–bearing walls composed entirely of wood?
|
type 5 (v)
|
|
the use of prefabricated wood truss systems in type V construction creates
|
a large, open void between floors
|
|
manufactured homes built before 1876 have less ______ than those of current construction
|
fire resistant
|
|
according to the national building code of
Canada (NBCC) heavy timber construction avoids |
concealed spaces under floors and roofs
|
|
a ______ occupancy type must meet the building code for its intended use
|
single – use
|
|
what occupancy type contains multiple occupancy or use groups?
|
separated use
|
|
what building component is designed to support the weight of a building and all it contents
|
foundation
|
|
what building component's construction varies depending on its level
|
floor/ceiling
|
|
what building component may be an assembly of studs with exterior materials on the outside and an interior covering on the inside?
|
wall
|
|
which of the following best describes walls that support the weight of a structure or structural components
|
load–bearing walls
|
|
what building component is designed to provide drainage, support snow accumulation and resist the effects of wind?
|
roof
|
|
what roof type is frequently penetrated by chimneys, shafts an skylights?
|
flat
|
|
in which roof style does the design depend on exterior walls to support its weights
|
arched
|
|
what part of the roof extend from wall to wall on a flat roof
|
beams
|
|
what part of a roof's construction can be manufactured from smaller pieces of wood or light gauge steel?
|
lightweight construction support system
|
|
what part of the roof is exposed to weather?
|
coverings
|
|
the locations of bathrooms an mechanical
spaces can be indicated by roof |
penetrations and openings
|
|
what type of roof is used to prevent ice damming?
|
cold roof
|
|
what type of roof contains panels that retain electricity even when off?
|
photovoltaic (solar) roof
|
|
ventilating a rain roof will not remove smoke until
|
the original roof is penetrated
|
|
what building component may be mounted over doors and windows to prevent illegal entry?
|
security bars or grilles
|
|
additions to the structure, replacing fire escapes with enclosed stairways, and removing non–loadbearing walls are all types of
|
permitted structural modification
|
|
what type of stairs typically connects no more than two levels if not required as part of the means of egress
|
access stairs
|
|
what type of stirs uses a ventilation system activated by automatic fire or smoke detection?
|
smoke proof stair enclosures
|
|
doors are classified by
|
they way they operate
|
|
which of the following doors has the advantage of eliminating door swing that might interfere with use of interior space
|
sliding door
|
|
what type of door design can prevent movement of hose or equipment into a building?
|
revolving door
|
|
what type of door may be required by building codes to be constructed of tempered material that resist breakage?
|
glass door
|
|
what type of door protects openings in fire–rate walls?
|
fire door
|
|
what part of the window is composed of a sill, side, jamb and head jamb?
|
frame
|
|
what type of movable window has side–hinged sash, usually installed to sting outward
|
casement
|
|
which of the following movable windows includes a large number of narrow overlapping glass section that swing outward
|
jalousie
|
|
knowing types f doors and door hardware can help firefighters
|
select correct forcible entry tools
|
|
which of he following best describes a primary dangerous building condition?
|
conditions that contribute to fire spread
|
|
fuel loading is defined as the maximum heat produced if
|
all combustible materials are present
|
|
what is the most effective defense against heavy content fuel loading
|
proper inspection and code enforcement
|
|
vertical tactical ventilation can be defined as channeling smoke from the
|
highest point in a building
|
|
the critical temperature for steel trusses is
|
1,000 degrees f
|
|
which type of roof is used whenever large open floor spaces with limited interior support is needed?
|
bowstring truss
|
|
which of the following best describes a possible construction hazard
|
the building is subject to rapid fir spread because protective features are not in place
|
|
renovation, age of the structure, weather, and loads are all
|
structural collapse factors
|
|
which of the following best describes when structural collapse may occur?
|
it can occur well after the fire is extinguished
|
|
what fire stage is structural collapse very likely
|
decay
|
|
how much is added to the weight of floors for very US gallon used during suppression
|
8.33 pounds
|
|
when a collapse is imminent, personnel _____ in the collapse zone
|
may cautiously place an unstaffed master stream
|
|
which of the following best describes where the collapse zone is established
|
adjacent to any exposed exterior walls
|
|
for which type of construction is flying glass the primary collapse zone hazard concern?
|
type I
|
|
when exposed to temperatures above _____ unprotected steel will expand and twist
|
1000 degrees F
|
|
A collapse zone for a type IV structure should be established when
|
the structure has been adopted
|
|
which of the following must be considered when deciding the size of a collapse zone?
|
type of building construction and safest location for personnel
|