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164 Cards in this Set

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“Primacy” in the context of the serial position effect: due to transfer of information from short- to long-term memory due to interference that prohibits transfer from short- to long-term memory due to the repetition of information so that it is maintained in short-term memory due to distractions that make it difficult to retrieve information from long-term memory

The serial position effect refers to the tendency to recall items in the beginning and end of a word list better than the items in the middle of the list. The ability to recall items in the beginning of the list is believed to be due to the fact that these items have been transferred from short- to long-term memory, while the ability to recall items in the end of the list is due to the fat that they are still present in short-term memory.

Note that the answer is NOT c!
According to the “levels of processing” theory, the best way to remember a list of ten unrelated words is to:

a.memorize the words in pairs the words that start with the same letter
c.repeat the words past the point of mastery
d.make a sentence using the words
ANSWER: d. make a sentence using the words; Processing that involves maximizing the meaning of the material is the deepest level of processing. According to the levels-of-processing model, the semantic level represents the deepest level of processing and produces the greatest amount of recall.
Behavioral assessment is distinguished from traditional assessment in several ways. Which of the following is not a characteristic associated with behavioral assessment:

a.focuses on directly observable behaviors and environmental factors
b.views outward behaviors as signs of an individual’s underlying characteristics
c.involves assessing behaviors repeatedly throughout the course of the intervention
d.involves assessing specific (rather than global) aspects of the individual’s behaviors
ANSWER: b. behavioral assessments focus on samples of behaviors rather than signs of underlying phenomena. The other characteristics describe the characteristics of behavioral assessments.
Operant extinction would NOT be the treatment-of-choice when: alternative behavior cannot be identified
b.the behavior has been reinforced on a continuous schedule
c.a temporary increase in the behavior cannot be tolerated
d.the baseline levels of the behavior cannot be established
ANSWER: c., Extinction often produces an initial “extinction burst” (temporary increase in the target behavior).

a.INCORRECT – It would be helpful to be simultaneously reinforcing an alternative behavior, but the absence of an alternative behavior would not rule out extinction.
b.INCORRECT – Behaviors that heave been reinforced on a continuous schedule are easier to extinguish than those that have been reinforced on an intermittent schedule.
c.INCORRECT – It would be useful to have a baseline reading to determine the effects of the extinction procedure, but the absence of a baseline measurement would not rule out this procedure.
For the treatment of hypertension, biofeedback: generally ineffective effective only when combined with medication about equally as effective as relaxation or self-monitoring of blood pressure more effective than relaxation or self-monitoring of blood pressure.
ANSWER: c., the research has shown that, for most disorders that it has been applied to, biofeedback has beneficial effects, but these effects do not exceed those associated with other treatments. For hypertension, biofeedback seems to be about as effective as relaxation and self-monitoring.
To maximize the usefulness of prompts to facilitate the development of stimulus control, you would do all of the following except:

a.make sure prompts focus attention on the discriminative stimulus
b.use the weakest or least intrusive prompts possible
c.fade the prompts as rapidly as possible
d.make sure the prompts involve keeping the discriminative stimulus constant while changing the nature of the S-delta stimulus (negative discriminative stimuli).
ANSWER: d., Prompts work better when they are attached to the discriminative stimulus, apparently because this increases attention to that stimulus (which is the one that signals that the behavior is desirable or acceptable).

a.INCORRECT - This makes sense: You’d want the individual to pay most attaention to the discriminative stimulus.

b.INCORRECT – The individual’s focus should be on the discriminative and S-delta simuli, not on the prompt. Consequently, the less intrusive the better.

c.INCORRECT – You don’t want the individual to become too dependent on the prompt, so the best course of action is to fade it as soon as possible.
In an analogue study, experimental conditions are a(n)__________.
ANSWER: facsimile of the clinical situation.
When conducting a functional analysis, you are interested not only in clarifying the nature of the target behavior, but also __________.
ANSWER: the antecedents and the consequences.
According to Pavlov, the phenomenon of __________ indicates that once something is learned, it is never forgotten.
ANSWER: Classical Conditioning
“Experimental neurosis” is the result of:

a.difficult discriminations.
b.overgeneralization of a CR
c.backward conditioning
ANSWER: a., Following conditioning, a subject may exhibit stimulus generalization, which occurs when a subject responds with a CR to stimuli that are similar to the original CS. Selective reinforcement and extinction can facilitate stimulus discrimination. Pavlov found that difficult discriminations between stimuli can produce experimental neurosis.
In behavior therapy, assessments are:

a.conducted in a standardized manner
b.important primarily at the onset of treatment
c.conducted at regular intervals throughout treatment
Little Albert’s fear of white fur and cotton is an example of:

a.spontaneous recovery
b.higher-order conditioning
c.stimulus generalization
ANSWER: c., Stimulus generalization has occurred when stimuli similar to the original discriminative stimulus elicit the same response, while response generalization has occurred when a discriminative stimulus elicits responses that are similar to the original response.
Classical extinction occurs when:

a.the CS is presented alone
b.the US is presented alone
c.the US and CS are presented simultaneously
ANSWER: a., Repeated presentations of the CS without the US produces extinction of the CR.
A loud noise, which produces a startle response, is paired with a flashing light so that the light, when presented alone, elicits a startle response. The loud noise is the:

a. unconditioned stimulus
b. conditioned stimulus
c. discriminative stimulus
Most likely, the startle response produced by the flashing light in the above situation will be:

a.stronger than the response elicited by the loud noise
b.the same as the response elicited by the loud noise
c.weaker than the response elicited by the loud noise.
A tone is subsequently presented prior to the flashing light several times so that, eventually, the tone also elicits a startle response. This procedure is an example of:

a. stimulus generalization
b. higher-order conditioning
c. trace conditioning
ANSWER: b., when a second neutral stimulus is repeatedly paired with a previously conditioned stimulus, the second neutral stimulus alone eventually produces a conditioned response.

c. INCORRECT – trace conditioning entails presenting and terminating the CS prior to presenting the US
An US is repeatedly presented before a CS. This is referred to as:

a. forward conditioning
b. backward conditioning
c. extinction
ANSWER: a., in forward conditioning, the CS precedes the US (just like with Pavlov’s dogs).

b. INCORRECT – backward conditioning is not effective, this happens when the US precedes the CS (putting the meat powder down and then ringing the bell!). For classical conditioning to work, it depends on contiguity (closeness between stimuli) AND presentation of the CS before the US.
Graded exposure in imagination is characteristic of:

a. systematic desensitization
b. covert sensitization
c. flooding
The assumption that avoidance reinforces phobic behavior and prevents extinction underlies:

a. systematic desensitization
b. covert sensitization
c. flooding
True or False. Systematic desensitization is based on the assumption that one can’t be simultaneously anxious and relaxed.
True or False. In general, brief periods of exposure to a feared stimulus are less likely to produce a paradoxical increase in anxiety than longer period of exposure.
When Mrs. Jones drinks a glass of wine, she receives a mild electric shock. As a result, Mrs. Jones experiences anxiety when thinking about alcohol. In this situation, the electric shock is the:

a. conditioned stimulus
b. unconditioned stimulus.
c. discriminative stimulus
A treatment for smoking is likely to be effective when smoking a cigarette is paired with:

a. stale cigarette smoke
b. mild electric shock
c. social disapproval
The technique of sensate focus is best described as a form of:

a. higher-order conditioning
b. counterconditioning
c. covert sensitization
__________ can be conceptualized as a combination of extinction and psychodynamic interpretation.

a. covert sensitization
b. flooding
c. implosive therapy
ANSWER: c. Implosive therapy is conducted in imagination and combines exposure with psychodynamic interpretation. For example, a snake phobic client might be asked to imagine a scene that not only involves a person al encounter with a snake but that also emphasizes the sexual symbolism of snakes.
While establishing relaxation during systematic desensitization, a client experiences a paradoxical increase in anxiety. The therapist is most likely to:

a. ask the client what is troubling her
b. increase the duration of the desensitization period
c. return to the previous scene and re-establish relaxation
When using in vivo exposure with response prevention (flooding), the response that is being presented is:

a. anxiety
b. avoidance
c. apathy
a. anxiety
In Wolpe’s reciprocal inhibition, the CS is a(n):

a. anxiety-inducing stimulus
b. relaxation-inducing stimulus
c. avoidance-inducing stimulus
ANSWER: a., Treatments based on counterconditioning pair a maladaptive behavior with an incompatible response in order to eliminate the former. Wolpe’s reciprocal inhibition pairs anxiety with relaxation or other incompatible and more adaptive response. In each situation, the undesirable behavior or a stimulus associated with it (CS) is paired with an incompatible response or stimulus that produces that response (US). As a consequence, the undesirable behavior is replaced by the incompatible (and more adaptive) response.
Negative RF is used to __________ behavior:

a. increase
b. decrease
a. increase; In operant conditions, withdrawal of a stimulus following a behavior in order to INCREASE the likelihood that the behavior will occur again. Terminating an unpleasant noise following a desirable behavior in order ot increase that behavior is an example of negative reinforcement.
Generally, the best schedule for initially establishing a behavior is a __________ one.

a. intermittent
b. continuous
b. continuous; In general, the rate of acquisition of a behavior is fastest when the behavior is reinforced on a continuous schedule; that is, when reinforcement is presented after each response. However, because satiation and rate of extinction are also high for a continuous schedule, once an operant behavior has been acquired, the best way to maintain the behavior is to switch to an intermittent (partial) schedule.
The intermittent RF schedule associated with the greatest resistance to extinction is the ________ schedule.

a. FI
b. VR
c. VI
d. FR
b. Variable Ratio; because the relationship between responding and reinforcement is unpredictable, VR schedules produce the highest rates of responding as well as responses that are the most resistant to extinction.
Thorndike’s __________ proposes that behaviors that are followed by satisfying consequences are more likely to occur again.

a. Law of Effect
b. Rule of Effect
a. Law of Effect
The removal of a stimulus following a behavior decreases that behavior. The stimulus is acting as a ________.

a. positive punisher
b. negative punisher
c. positive reinforcer
d. negative reinforcer
b. negative punisher; in operant conditioning, withdrawal of a stimulus contingent on the performance of a behavior in order to decrease the likelihood that the behavior will occur again. Response cost and time-out are examples of negative punishment.
In an experiment, a rat is reinforced for pressing a bar whenever a green light is on but not when a red light is on. The orange light is a __________.

a. positive discriminative stimulus
b. negative discriminative stimulus
c. S-delta stimulus (S-)
d. (SD)
ANSWER: both b & c; The red light is a negative discriminative stimulus, or S-delta stimulus (S-): It signals that the response will not be reinforced.
In chaining, each response or stimulus associated with it acts as a secondary reinforcer for the previous response and a ___________ for the next response.

a. negative discriminative stimulus
b. positive discriminative stimulus
positive discriminative stimulus; A behavior chain consists of a number of distinct responses with each response (or a stimulus associated with it) serving as both a secondary reinforcer for the previous response and a postive discriminative stimulus for the next response; the final response in a chain is usually followed by a primary reinforcer. Making a cake is an example of a behavior chain.
A mother has been giving her son a hug whenever he says “please” following a request. She decides to stop reinforcing her son in this way. Right after she stops, she can expect that the frequency of his behavior will:

a. quickly decrease
b. slowly decrease
c. temporarily increase
c., this temporary increase in responding during extinction trials is called an extinction (response)burst.
A father scolds his son each time the boy whines. The boy’s whining increases. In this situation, the father’s scolding is acting as a _____.

a. positive punisher
b. positive reinforcer
c. negative punisher
d. negative reinforcer
b. positive reinforcer; Application of a stimulus following a response with the goal of increasing the occurrence or strength of that response. Don't be fooled into thinking this has something to do with "negative" reinforcement or "punishment" because of the sound of the question.
Avoidance conditioning is best described as a combination of:

a. classical conditioning and negative reinforcement.
b. classical conditioning and discrimination training
c. negative reinforcement and stimulus generalization
a; In avoidance conditioning, the onset of the negative reinforcer is preceded by a cue (positive discrimination stimulus), which signals that the negative reinforcer is about to be applied. The organism learns that, if it performs the target behavior in the presence of the cue, it can avoid the negative reinforcer altogether.
In operant conditioning, stimulus generalization involves performing the same behavior in the presence of:

a. secondary reinforcers similar to the primary reinforcer
b. stimuli similar to the original unconditioned stimulus
c. stimuli similar to the original discriminative stimulus.
c.; As in classical conditioning, stimulus generalization in operant conditining occurs when similar stimuli elicit the same response. In operant conditioning, however, the stimuli that evoke the response are positive discriminative stimuli.
A mother finds that, if she nags her son for long enough time, he’ll do his homework. However, she finds that she has to nag for a longer period to get her son to study. The mother’s behavior is being controlled by:

a. positive reinforcement
b. negative reinforcement
c. positive punishment
a. positive reinforcement. This is one of the @#$% trick questions! THis question leads you to believe that the answer is going to be negative reinforcement, since the sons engages in a behavior (studying) in order to remove an existing aversive stimuli (nagging). But the question is NOT asking you to determine what type of behavior she is engaging in, but what is controlling HER behavior (reinforcing her behavior). The answer would be positive reinforcement because the more that she engages in the nagging behavior, she is rewarded.
True or False. “Behavioral contrast” is associated with the removal of reinforcement from one behavior and continuing to reinforce another behavior.
True; When a subject has been reinforced for two different behaviors and reinforcement for one behavior is withdrawn in order to extinguish it, the other behvaior is likely to increase. If a rat has been reinforced for pressing both a red and green bar and reinforcement for pressing the green bar is withdrawn, green-bar pressing will decrease (as expected) and red bar-pressing will increase.
A “scallop” on a cumulative recording is most associated with a variable interval schedule of reinforcement.
False; Subjects on a FI schedule of reinforcement typically stop responding altogether after a number of responses is delivered and then begin responding again toward the end of the reinforcement interval. This produces a "scallop" on a cumulative recording of the number of responses made.
To maximize benefits from punishment, you would:

a. administer the punishment on an intermittent schedule
b. gradually increase the strength of the punishment
c. administer the punishment at the onset of behavior.
“Grandma’s rule” – you must eat before playing – is most similar to the:

a. Premack Principle
b. negative reinforcement
c. response cost
a.; Use of a high-frequency behavior as a postive reinforcer for a low-frequency behavior in order to increase the low-frequency behavior.

c. INCORRECT - reponse cost is a form of negative punishment that involves removing a reinforcer (e.g., a specific number of tokens or points) following a behavior in order to reduce that behavior.
When a prompt signals that positive reinforcement will follow the performance of a particular behavior, the prompt is action as a(n):

a. secondary reinforcer
b. unconditined reinforcer
c. discriminative stimulus.
A teacher's reprimands increase a student's misbeheavior, even though the tercher's intention was to reduce the behavior. The reprimands are acting as a:

a. positive reinforcement
b. primary reinforcer
c. negative reinforcer
In order to maximize transfer of training when using reinforcement, you would:

a. narrow the discriminative stimuli
b. reinforce on a continuous schedule
c. gradually withdraw reinforcers
c., Transfer of training is maximized when (1) the person's behavior will continue to be reinforced in his or her natural environment, (2) reinforcement is gradually withdrawn in order to maximize resistance to extinction, (3) stimulus control of the behavior is systematiclly expanded by increasing the number of stimuli, (4) the individual is reinforced for generalizing the behavior to other settings and conditions.
To increase the social behavior of a withdrawn client, a therapist would be least likely to use:

a. time-out
b. negative reinforcement
c. Premack Principle
Time-out is usually classified as a type of:

a. negative reinforcement
b. negative punishment
c. positive punishement
b., timeout involves removing all sources of reinforcement for a specific period of time following a behavior to decrease the likelihood that that behavior will be repeated.
Overcorrection is a form of:

a. positive punishment
b. negative punishment
a., Overcorrectin is a form of positive punishment that entails applying a penalty following an undesirable behavior in order to eliminate it.

It encompasses two procedures:

Restitution - involves having the individual overcorrect any negative effects of his or her behavior.

Positive Practice - requires the person to practice more appropriate behaviors, usually in an exaggerated fashion.
True or False. Fading is the gradual withdrawal of training cues.
True or False. Shaping is the method of successive approximations.
True. Shaping involves reinforcing successive approximations to the desired behavior; that is, providing reinforcement only for behaviors that come closer and closer to the desired one.
When a RF loses its reinforcing value because an individual has received too much of it, this is referred to as:
To increase the effects of punishment or extinction, it is advisable to simultaneously __________.
reinforce alternative behaviors
Social skills training is most effective when it begins with identification and correction of deficits in __________.
social perception
Research on the effects of modeling for treating snake phobias has shown that which of the following is most successful:

a. symbolic modeling
b. participant modeling
c. covert modeling
b. participant modeling (live modeling with guided participation) was superior to symbolic modeling.
According to Albert Bandura, the performance of an observed behavior is attributable, in part, to:

a. self-reinforcement
b. latent learning
c. drive states
a. self-reinforcement
For Kohler, the “aha” experience is a reflection of:

a. latent learning
b. connectionism
c. insght.
c. insght
In using modeling to eliminate a phobic response, a model would be most effective if she:

a. initially shows no fear of the phobic stimulus
b. initially shows fear but gradually becomes less fearful.
c. shows the same (or a similar) level of fear of the phobic stimulus as the observer.
b. initially shows fear but gradually becomes less fearful.
For Tolman, “cognitive maps” are the result of:

a. latent learning
b. insight learning
c. connectionism
a. latent learning
According to the learned helplessness model of depression, depressive attributions are:

a. internal, stable, and global
b. external, unstable, and global
c. internal unstable, and specific
a. internal, stable, and global.
A RET therapist would be most interested in therapeutic techniques designed to directly modify:

a. beliefs
b. behaviors
c. emotions
a. beliefs
Self-control programs designed to reduce smoking are most likely to have:

a. good short-term and long-term effects
b. good short-term, but poor long-term effects.
c. poor short-term and long-term effects
b. good short-term, but poor long-term effects; the failures of the self-control techniques are often due to a lack of compliance.
Identifying “automatic thoughts” as an initial step in therapy would be of most interest to:

a. Meichenbaum
b. Beck
c. Ellis
b. Beck
A premise underlying Beck’s cognitive therapy is that:

a. all psychological disorders reflect the continued repetition of certain common irrational beliefs
b. psychological disorders are the result of affect-driven cognitions
c. each disorder has its own cognitive characteristics
c. each disorder has its own cognitive characteristics
At the start of therapy, a cognitive therapist would be interested in:

a. developing a collaborative relationship with client
b. determining the "cognitive diagnosis"
c. prioritizing the client's dysfunctions
a. developing a collaborative relationship with client
Of the following, biofeedback is probably preferable to relaxation training for:

a. tension headaches
b. hypertension
c. Raynaud’s Disease.
c. Raynaud’s Disease.
Stress inoculation involves:

a. the acquisition of coping skills
b. the use of stimulus control techniques
c. training in interpersonal effectiveness
a. the acquisition of coping skills
Depressogenic schemas:

a. affect behavior at all times
b. may be inactive until stress occurs
c. once activated, are never dormant
b. may be inactive until stress occurs
Narrowing, cue strength, and fading are all associated with _________ .
stimulus control
The cognitive distortion known as __________ involves erroneously attributing external events to oneself.
Rehm’s self-control therapy targets deficits in __________, __________, and ___________ .
self-monitoring, self-evaluation, and self-reinforcement.
The fact that a person can ride a bicycle even though she hasn’t done so for 20 years contradicts:

a. trace decay theory
b. proactive interference
c. multi-store
a. trace decay theory, which states that learning produces a trace, or engram, which is a physiological change in the brain that decays over time as a result of disuse.

b. INCORRECT - proactive interference refers to memory loss resulting when prior learning interferes with learning or recall of subsequent material.
The tip-of-the-tongue pheonomenon supports which of the following theories of forgetting:

a. trace decay
b. interference
c. cue-dependent
ANSWER: c. cue-dependent; forgetting results when cues needed to retrieve information from long-term memory are insufficient or incomplete.

b. INCORRECT - interference theory proposes that forgetting occurs when the ability to recall one bit of information is affectied by information acquired previously or subsequently.
Implicit memory is most similar to:

a. prospective memory
b. episodic memory
c. procedural memory
c. procedural memory; some investigators distinguish bewteen implicit and explicit aspects of LTM, which roughly correspond, respectively, to procedural and declarative memory. Implicit memory is automatic, while explicit memory requires conscious recollection.
Retroactive and proactive interference are most likely to be a problem for material that is:

a. inherently interesting
b. meaningless
c. emotion-laden
b. meaningless;
The best way to remember pairs of unrelated nouns is:

a. using the word pairs in a sentence
b. repeating the word pairs many times
c. creating an interactive image for each pair
c. creating an interactive image for each pair
From the perspective of schemata theory, your memory for an unusual event that occurred this morning:

a. is likely to be remembered more accurately if coded semantically
b. is not likely to be remembered if it is not subsequently recalled and rehearsed
c. is likely to be altered by your past experiences in similar situations
d. is likely to be altered by the circumstances that immediately followed the event
c. schemata is a "knowledge structure in memory" and is generally viewed as developing out of early experiences. According to schemata theory, our memories of events are altered by past experiences, current values and emotions, and expectations about the future. In other words, memories are reconstructions rather than reproductions.
The need for physical guidance with possible resultant negative consequences (e.g., aggressive or avoidance behaviors) is associated with which of the following:

a. aversive counterconditioning
b. negative practice
c. response cost
d. overcorrection
d. physical guidance may be necessary component of overcorrection in order to ensure that the individual engages in the positive practice that is part of this intervention.
A psychologist who views learning as the result of operant conditioning would likely attribute the acquisition of complex behaviors to which of the following:

a. chaining
b. stimulus control
c. higher-order conditioning
d. stimulus generalization
a. with chaining, each response in the chain of responses required to learn and perform a complex behavior serves as a reinforcement for the previous response in the chain.
A behavioral therapist is using positive reinforcement to increase a desired behavior. After the behavior is well-established, the psychologist switches from a continuous schedule of reinforcement to an intermittent one. This technique is referred to as:

a. thinnning
b. fading
c. shaping
d. inoculation
a. Thinning involves reducing reinforcement.

b. INCORRECT - fading refers to the gradual removal of prompts, not reinforcements

c. INCORRECT - shaping refers to the reinforcement of successive approximations to the desired behavior

d. INCORRECT - Inoculation is not a behavioral term and is a distractor.
Research using a "dismantaling strategy" to identify the key components of systematic desensitization haas generally found that its effectiveness for alleviating anxiety is due primarily to:

a. nonreinforced exposure to anxiety-evoking situations
b. gradual exposure to anxiety-evoking situations
c. acquisition of a response that is incompatible with anxiety
d. satiation
a. the critical factor in systematic desensitization is exposure to situations that evoke anxiety without actually experiencing negative consequences.

b. INCORRECT - studies have found that gradual exposure is a facilitating factor but not the essential factor.

c. INCORRECT - the acquisition of an incompatible response is a facilitating factor but not essential.

d. INCORRECT - satiation is not relevant to systematic desensitization. It occurs when a reinforcment is no longer rewarded because the organism is "satiated".
Every time a child in an institutional setting has a tantrum, the nurse, the only person with whom the child has a positive relationship, calmly but firmly tells the child to stop his behavior. The child's behavior increases rather than decreases over time. This is an example of:

a. positive reinforcment of the misbehavior
b. negative reinforcement of the misbehavior
c. positive punishment for the misbehavior
d. negative punishment for the misbehavior
a. positive reinforcment involves the application of a stimulus following a behavior in order to increase that behavior.
Implosive therapy and flooding share in common which of the following:

a. they both involve exposure to an aversive (unconditioned) stimulus
b. they are both based on counterconditioning
c. they're both operant techniques
d. they both lead, ideally, to extinction of the undesirable response.
d. through exposure to the feared stimulus either in vivo (flooding) or in imagination (implosive therapy), the conditioned response is eventually extinguished.

a. INCORRECT - Exposure is to the conditioned, not the unconditioned, stimulus

b. INCORRECT - Systematic Desensitization utilizes counterconditioning.

c. INCORRECT - both techniques are derived from classical conditioning.
A father puts his son in his room every time the boy hits his sister. In order to increase the probability that the boy will stop hitting his sister, the father should:

a. give the child 25 cents each time he is nice to his sister
b. initially send the boy to his room every time he hits his sister and then send him to his room every three times he hits his sister
c. gradually increase the length of time the boy spends in his room after each time he hits his sister
d. sometimes send the boy to his room for 10 minutes and other times send him to his room for 20 mintues or 30 minutes after he hits his sister.
a. Punishment, like all forms of behavior therapy used to reduce undesirable behaviors, is most effective when used in conjuction with reinforcement for alternate desirable behaviors. In this case, the 25 cents would represent reinforcement (a stimulus that increases the probability of a behavior) fo the alternate desirable behavior of being nice.
Which of the following provides reinforcement on a variable ratio schedule of reinforcement:

a. "surprise" quizzes
b. piecework
c. bi-weekly paychecks
d. slot machines
d. slot machines

a. INCORRECT - "surprise" quizzes provide opportunities for reinforcement on a variable interval schedule

b. INCORRECT - piecework represents a fixed schedule of reinforcement since workers are paid after completing a specific number of "pieces".

c. INCORRECT - A bi-weekly pay schedule represents a fixed interval schedule of reinforcement.
Which of the following illustrates the use of negative reinforcement:

a. a child's usual allowance is reduced by a specific amount each time he misbehaves

b. a child is allowed to watch television for one hour when he finishes his homework
c. restrictions on a child's activities are removed each time he helps with household chores
d. restrictions on a child's activities are imposed each time he argues with his sister.
c. in this situation, restrictions are removed following a behavior in order to increase the behavior. This is referred to as negative reinforcement.

a. INCORRECT - this is an example of negative punishment

b. INCORRECT - This is an example of positive reinforcement.

d. INCORRECT - this is an example of negative punishment; i.e., something is being taken away following a behavior, apparently in order to decrease the behavior.
A boxer who receives a blow to his head subsequently does not remember finishing the fight, though he remembers everything prior to the blow. The boxer's loss of memory can best be described as:

a. anterograde amnesia
b. retrograde amnesia
c. proactive inhibition
d. retroactive inhibition
a. anterograde amnesia involves a loss of memory for events subsequent to the trauma that produced the amnesia. Some researchers have suggested that the phenomenon of anterograde amnesia demonstrates that there must be two distinct memory systems short-term and long-term.

c. INCORRECT - proactive inhibition occurs when previously learned material interferes with the learning or recall of susequent material.
All of the following tend to enhance the effectiveness of punishment as a method for eliminating a target behavior except:

a. administering the punishment on the intermittent schedule
b. administering the punishment immediately after the target behavior occurs
c. administering the punishment from the beginning at the maximum strength
d. giving a "warning" cue just prior to administering the punishment.
a. Research has indicated that the greater the intensity of punishment, the greater its effectiveness. In addition, punishment is most effective when it is applied immediately following the behavior, when it is applied consistently rather than intermittently, when the relationship between the punishment and the target behavior is verbally clarified, whne an individual is warned that it will occur, when reinforcement is offered for competing behavior, and when all positive reinforcement for the targeted behavior is withheld.
Whenever a mother yells at her child when he is whining, the boy stops for a short period. Over time, the mother notices that she's having to yell at her son more and more and more often to keep the boy from whining. The boy is controlling his mother's behavior through:

a. positive reinforcement
b. negative reinforcement
c. positive punishment
d. negative punishment
b. The woman's yelling is increasing, which indicates reinforcement. And the consequences following her yelling is removed, which indicates negative reinforcement.
According to Albert Bandura, modeling (observational learning):

a. teaches new behaviors
b. disinhibits and facilitates behaviors already in one's repertoire
c. provides cues as to the appropriateness of a particular behavior
d. all of the above.
The "Zeigarnik effect" is most likely to occur:

a. under stress conditions
b. under nonstressful conditions
c. in familiar circumstances
d. in unfamiliar circumstances
b. The Zeigarnik effect refers to the tendency to remember interrupted or uncompleted tasks better than completed ones. It most often occurs in nonstressful situations. Under stressful conditions, the opposite effect is more likely to occur.
In a research study, subjects are divided into two groups. Members of the first group are given a list of three-letter nonsense syllables to remember and are later ased to recall the list. Members of the second group are given the same list of syllables but, after a brief period, are asked to count backwards by threes before being asked to recall the list. Apparently, the purpose of the the study is to investigate the effects of:

a. interference
b. automaticity
b. overlearning
c. part learning
a. one form of interference occurs when a learner is prohibited from rehearsing newly-learned information, which is what is described here.
A univeristy freshman would be best advised to rely primarily on which of the following when studying for his Psycholgy 101 final exam:

a. overlearning
b. stimulus coding
c. imagery
d. elaborative rehearsal
d. elaborative rehearsal involves actively analyzing information and relating it to previously stored data. It is the best way to encode information into long-term memory.

a. INCORRECT --this is useful for meaningless info

b. INCORRECT --this is good for paired-associate tasks

c. INCORRECT --this is useful but not as useful for complex material as elaboration.
Which of the following is true about sensory memory:

a. information is retained for only 1/4 to 2 seconds
b. without rehearsal, information is retained for only 1 to 3 seconds
c. with attention, information is retained for up to 30 seconds
d. with rehearsal, information can be retained indefinately
A depressed client says that she feels worthless and unlikeable and every time she tries to do something to make things better, she is faced wtih barriers put up by her parents, boss, etc., who don't seem to recognize her efforts. In terms of the third component of Beck's cognitive triad, you would expect the client to also say:

a. other people are "out to get her"
b. she had a "lousy childhood"
c. she feels that things will never change
d. nothing seems to make her feel good.
c. she feels that things will never change; Beck's cognitive triad consists of netavie view of self, world, and future.
For a therapist relying on Beck's cognitive approach to treat a client suffering from an Anxiety Disorder, the initial cognitive restructuring will most likely focus on:

a. reattribution
b. cognitive rehearsal
c. thought stopping
d. decatastrophizing
d. Decatastrophizing is particularly useful for people with an Anxiety Disorder since they tend to overestimate the risk and consequences of perceived danger.

a. INCORRECT - Reattribution involves attributing responsibility to appropriate parties and is most useful when the client is depressed or guilt-ridden.

b. INCORRECT - Cognitive rehearsal requires the client to imagine each step involved in an activity or taks.

c. INCORRECT - thought stopping may be useful but it is usually classified as a behavioral (not cognitive restructuring) technique and would probably not be an initial intervention in treatming a client with an Anxiety Disorder.
A psychologist tells the parents of an 8 year old to give him a "time out" each time he torments his little sister. The parents find that, over time, the child needs less and less time in the time-out to calm down and apologize for his behavior. The boy's behavior is being controlled by which of the following:

a. negative punishment
b. negative reinforcement
c. stimulus control
d. stimulus fading
a. negative punishment involves taking a stimulus away following a behavior in order to decrease that behavior, which is what occurs in time-out.
Implicit memory:

a. is relatively unaffected by aging
b. is very sensitive to head trauma
c. is an aspect of nonverbal memory
d. is mediated primarily by the hippocambus
a. studies have found that implicit memory is relatively impervious to aging, brain damage, and drug-induced amnesia.

c. INCORRECT - Implicit memory is for words and objects. It is sometimes confused with procedural memory because both do not require conscious recall, but the content of the two differs.
Habituation is a function of:

a. stimulus intensity
b. focused attention
c. number of repetitions
d. number of pairings
c. Habituation occurs when you no longer respond to a stimulus because it has been applied repeatedly. It is apparently due to a decrease in the amount of neurotransmitter released.
For the treatment of migraine headaches:

a. autogenic training is more effective than thermal biofeedback
b. thermal biofeedback is more effective than autogenic training
c. thermal biofeedback plus autogenic training is more effective then either treatment alone
d. thermal biofeedback plus autogenic training is no more effective than either treatment alone
The effectiveness of modeling is least dependent on which of the following:

a. the model is perceived as being similar to the observer
b. the observer has an external locus of control
c. the model has demonstrated competence with regard to the modeled behavior
d. the observer is subsequently reinforced for exhibiting the modeled behavior
b. this is not a characteristic that has been linked with the effects of modeling by research.

a. INCORRECT - similarity does improve the effectiveness of modeling.
c. INCORRECT - it makes sense that an observer would be more willing to imitiate a competent model (unless, of course, the target behavior is incompetence!).
In working with a client who has received a diagnosis of Dissociative Identity Disorder, a cognitive thearpist's initial goal would be:

a. to collaborate with the client to identify specific treatment goals
b. to make a "cognitive diagnosis" for the purpose of developing a concrete treatment plan
c. to identify the cognitive antecedents and consequences that are sustaining the client's multiple personalities
d. to establish a working alliance that provides the cleint with a sense of safety
d. an initial goal in cognitive therapy is to establish a good working alliance.
Bandura's social learing theory predicts that:

a. cogntive events act as intervening variables in the acquisition of a new behavior
b. social approval is a powerful and primary reinforcement
c. reinforcement has a greater impact on learning than on performance
d. the acquisition of new behaviors is the result of internalized S-R connections.
a. Bandura concluded that observational learning involves four processes: attention, retention, reproduction, and motivation. The first two of these, attention (attending to and accurately perceiving the behavior), and retention (symbolic processing of the modeled behvior) are cognitive processes.

c. INCORRECT - this is the opposite of what is true. Bandura has proposed that reinforcement is more important for performance than learning.
Because of a series of misbehaviors, your adolescent daughter has been restricted brom participating in a number of activities over the next few months. To increase her positive behaviors, you decide to remove a restriction each time she engages in one of the desired behaviors. This is an example of:

a. positive reinforcement
b. negative reinforcement
c. response cost
d. shaping
b. Removal of a stimulus (e.g., a restriction) after a behavior in order to increase that behavior is referred to as negative reinforcement.

a. INCORRECT - Punishment is used to decrease behavior
c. INCORRECT - Response cost is a type of punishment and is used to decrease the occurrence of a behavior.
d. INCORRECT - Shaping is a type of positive reinformcement and involves applying (not removing) a stimulus following a behavior in order to increase that behavior.
Dr. Jay tells his client, Sandy Y., to smoke cigarettes only at 10:00 a.m., 1:00 p.m. and 8:00 p.m., to smoke only while sitting in particular chairs at home and in the office, and to smoke only a certain brand of cigarettes (one that Sandy doesn't particularly like). Dr. Jay is using the behavioral technique known as:

a. self-monitoring
b. stimulus control
c. overcorrection
d. response cost
b. stimulus control; Sandy has been instructed to limit (control) the number and kind of stimuli that are associated with cigarette smoking. By doing so, smoking will become associated with (under the control of) a restricted number of stimuli.
Learning a sequence of operant responses that each act as a secondary reinforcer and that eventually end in a primary reinforcer is known as:

a. shaping
b. chaining
c. D.R.O
d. classical conditioning
b. chaining, which is believed to account for the acquisition of complex behaviors, involves the association of responses such that each response acts as a secondary reinforcer and as a discrimitive stimulus for the following response. The final reinforcer (the reinforcer that is delivered at the end of the "chain") is a primary reinforcer.
Pavlov produced "experimental neurosis" in experimental dogs by using which of the following procedures:

a. applying negative reinforcement each time the dogs ate
b. pairing eating with an aversive tone
c. making it impossible for the dogs to escape electrical shock
d. requiring the dogs to make difficult discriminations.
d. stimulus discrimination refers to an organism's ability to discriminate between stimuli and thereby respond only to the conditioned stimulus with a conditioned response. while conducting studies on stimulus discrimination, Pavlov discovered that extremely difficult discriminations elicited behaviors characteristics of human neurosis.
John watson produced a phobia in Albert b. by using which of the following:

a. physically confining the child so that he could not move
b. requireing the child to make difficult stimulus discriminations
c. pairing an aversive US with a neutral CS
d. providing punishment noncontingent on behavior
c. the phobia was created by pairing a US (loud noise) with a CS (white rat) so that the CS alone eventually elicited a startle response.
Bob, Al, Sally, and Jane all study a list of nonsense syllables for 30 minutes. Afterwards, Bob takes a nap, Al goes to a movie, Sally studies arithmetic, and Jane goes grocery shopping. Based on your familiarity with the research on memory, you would predict that, when Bob, Al, Sally, and Jane are asked to recall the list of syllables, _____ will recall the most syllables:

a. Bob
b. Al
c. Sally
d. Jane
a. the results of the Jenkins and Dallenbach study suggest that Bob, who slept after studying the list of syllables, will exhibit the greatest recall.
A father wants to increase his son's studying and violin practice and, therefore, reinforces each behavior whenever it occurs with a token that can be exchanged later for a desired priviledge. After a period of time, the father realizes that his son will never become a violin virtuoso and stops reinforcing the boy's violin practice. The father can expect which of the following:

a. violin practice and studying will both decrease
b. violin practice and studying will both decrease
c. violin practice will decrease but studying will increase
d. violin practice will decrease and studying will stay the same.
c. removal of reinforcement from a previously reinforced behavior typically results in an increase in another reinforced behavior. This phenomenon is referred to as "behavioral contrast".
Overcorrection is a behavioral technique that has been found to be particularly useful for reducing certain types of socially-inappropriate and personally-harmful behaviors. Research assessing the effects of overcorrection suggests that it is most successful when:

a. it is paired with a negative punishment technique such as response cost
b. the positive practice phase involves a topographically similar behavior
c. symbolic modeling is followed by guided and graduated practice
d. the aversive consequence is self-administered
Implicit memory is involved in:

a. remembering where you were on your last birthday
b. buttoning your shirt when you get dressed in the morning
c. solving a simple arithmetic problem "in your head"
d. studying for the licensing exam
b. Most procedural memories are implicit, but implicit memory and procedural memory differ.
When using second-order conditioning to establish a new conditioned response:

a. the second conditioned response will not be as strong as the first conditioned response
b. the second conditioned response will be difficult to establish if the second conditioned stimulus is not similar in nature to the first conditioned response
c. the second conditioned response will be more difficult to extingtuish than the first conditioned response
d. the second conditioned stimulus will prodice "experimental neurosis" if it is too similar to the first conditioned response.
A parent decides to use time-out to reduce her son's misbehavior by having him sit in the corner for ten minutes each time he misbehaves. The boy quickly learns, however, that, if he whines while in the corner, his mother shortens the length of the time-out period. In this situation, the mother's willingness to shorten the time-out period is being controlled by:

a. escape conditioning
b. avoidance conditioning
c. positive reinforcement
d. positive punishement
a. the mother's behavior is being maintained by negative reinforcement, which is also known as escape conditioning.
A freind asks you how you liked the concert you went to last Saturday night. As you try to recall the concert, you realize that your memory is being affected by other concerts you have attended in the past. In other words, your memory of last Saturday's concert is being affected by:

a. your implicit memory of concerts
b. a lack of encoding specificity
c. positive memory transfer
d. your schema for concerts
d. a schema is a group or cluster of knowledge about an objec or an event. Your recollection of last Saturday's concert is being affected by your "cluster knowledge" regarding concerts.
A memory in sensory memory:

a. has been converted to an iconic form
b. has been converted to an echoic form
c. is in the form of the original stimulus
d. is in the form of a "memory trace"
c. It is currently believed that memories in sensory memory retain or prepresent the orignial form of the sensation.
Research evaluating the mechanisms that contribute to the effectiveness of EMDR has found that its effects are attributable to:

a. rapid eye movement
b. exposure to the feared stimulus
c. a placebo effect
d. counterconditioning
b. eye movements are unnecessary and EMDR may be viewed as imaginal exposure technique.
In the initial sessions with a client with dysthymia, a therapist using Beck's Cognitive Therapy would:

a. identify the cleint's explanation for his/her symptoms.
b. identify the conditions that are maintaining the client's negativity
c. help the client see the link between his/her thoughts and any mood shifts that occur during the sessions
d. help the client identify the source of cognitive schemas that are influencing his/her current behavior
c. a very early intervention is to help clients see the connections between their cognitions and emotions.

a. INCORRECT - identifying underlying explanations is not a goal of cog tx

b. INCORRECT - although cognitive therapists do help clients identify situations that trigger automatic thoughts, this isn't the best answer of those given.
As defined by Wolpe, reciprocal inhibition involves replacing:

a. an avoidance response with a more adaptive response
b. a dysfunctional thought with a more functional one
c. an anxiety response with a relation technique
d. an external attribution with an internal attribution.
c. Wolpe used reciprocal inhibition to reduce anxiety. This involved pairing, in imagination, anxiety-arousing events with relaxation, which is incompatible with anxiety.
When Angie plays the slot machines in Atlantic City, she will be reinforced on the basis of:

a. the number of responses between reinforcers with the number remaining the same from trial to trial
b. the number of responses between reinforcers with the number of varying unpredictably from trial to trial
c. the interval of time between reinforcers with the length of time remaining constant from trial to trial
d. the interval of time between reinforcers with the length of time varying unpredictably from trial to trial.
b.Angie will be reinforced on a variable ratio schedule, which is the intermittent schedule least vulnerable to extinction.
During aversive conditioning, an unconditioned stimulus is repeatedly presented just prior to a conditioned stimulus. As a result, which of the following will occur:

a. the target behavior will eventually be eliminated
b. the target behavior will eventually be supressed
c. the target behavior will paradoxically increase
d. the target behavior will not change in frequency
d. Backwards conditioning rarely works: For classical conditioning to be effective, the CS must be presented before the US.
To reduce a five-year old's nighttime fear of the dark, the most effective treatment would be:

a. coping self-statements and positive imagery
b. in vivo exposure with response prevention
c. stress inoculation
d. systematic desensitization
a. several studies have confirmed that coping skills training --which incorporates positive self-statements and positive imagery --is a useful technique for eliminating nighttime fear of the dark.

c. INCORRECT --this is better for adults.

d. INCORRECT --not useful with young children
A treatment for depression that is basedon Rehm's self-control theory is most likely to include:

a. having the client keep a record of automatic thougths
b. having the client keep a record of positive experiences
c. helping the client replace irresponsible behaviors with responsible ones
d. helping the client replace irrational self-statements with alternative, rational ones.
b. According to Rehm, depressed people focus too much on negative events. Tx attempts to alter this by encouraging clients to recognize the positive events that occur.
In vivo exposure with response prevention (flooding) and implosive therapy are both based on:

a. mediated generalization
b. graded desensitization
c. counterconditioning
d. classical extinction
d. classical extinction is used to eliminate a CR and involves presenting the CS without the US.

a. INCORRECT - another name for stimulus generalization

b. INCORRECT - this requires gradual exposure

c. INCORRECT - Counterconditioning entails presenting a US that is incompatible with the CS so that the current response (e.g., anxiety) is eventually replaced by the desired response (e.g., relaxation).
According to Aaron Beck, the core link between depresseion and suicide is:

a. learned helplessness
b. lack of social support
c. severe symptoms
d. feelings of hopelessness
d. Beck found that scores on feelings of hopelessness predicted suicide in 91% of cases.
The belief that distorted schema develop early in life and leave the individual susceptible to depression or other disorders when faced with stress is most consistent with the views of:

a. Lewinsohn
b. Beck
c. Seligman
d. Rehm
b. the term "schema" should have been the clue to the correct response --this is associated with Beck.
Relaxation training seems to be less effective than biofeedback for treating which of the following disorders:

a. chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting
b. tension headaches
c. asthma
d. Raynaud's disease
d. For Raynaud's disease, temperature biofeedback appears to be superior to relaxation training.

a. INCORRECT --relaxation helps chemo
b. INCORECT --relaxation and biofeedback are about equally effective
c. INCORRECT --although relaxation training has not been found to be particularly effective for asthma, neither has biofeedback.
The best way to keep two sets of six digits in working memory is to:

a. visualize the digits in a string
b. convert teh 12 digits to "chunks
c. connect each digit with a visual image
d. repeated the digits forward and then backward several times
b. the number of digits exceeds the number of units that can be held in short-term memory. Therefore, it would be necessary to "chunk" the digits into smaller number of units

c. INCORRECT -this might be useful after the digits have been chunked to transfer information form short-term to long-term memory.
The gradual decline in the intensity, frequency, or duration of a response to the repeated presentation of the same stimulus is called:

a. satiation
b. inhibition
c. fading
d. habituation
As defined by Beck, "schemas" are:

a. cognitive structures
b. logical errors
c. biological predispositions
d. automatic interpretations
a. Beck believes that cognitive schemas are the product of biological and environmental phenomena and develop early in life.
A temporary aid provided by one person (the "teacher") to encourage, support, and assist a lesser-skilled person (the "learner") acquire a skill or solve a problem is referred to as:

a. scaffolding
b. modeling
c. cuing
d. stimulus control
a. Bygotsky referred to the temporary "structure" provided by others as scaffolding.
For retention of information in long-term memory, which of the following seems to be the most critical:

a. visual encoding
b. repetition
c. time
d. meaningful organization
d. Encoding semantically --that is, in terms of meaning --helps ensure that information will be transferred to long-term memory and that the information is more easily retrieved.
In Aaron Beck's cogntive-behavioral therapy, interpretations and assumptions underlying a client's problems are:

a. jointly explored for their origins by the therapist and client during the initial stages of therapy
b. identified and actively disputed by the therapist
c. viewed as "testable hypotheses"
d. viewed as "incongruent with reality"
c. the client's problems are approached in a scientific manner, the client's interpretations and assumptions are conceputalized and treated as testable hypotheses.
Biologically-based phobias are to socially-based phobias as:

a. secondary reinforcers are to primary reinforcers
b. implicit memory is to explicit memory
c. stimulus discrimination is to stimulus generalization
d. unconditioned stimuli are to conditioned sitmuli.
The use of shaping to establish a complex behavior depends on which of the following:

a. latent learning
b. positive reinformcement
c. higher-order conditioning
d. successive discrimination
Mrs. Pooch teaches her son to feed the dog by first showing him how to put the dog food into the dog dish. Once the boy has mastered that task, she teaches him to open a can of dog food and then put it in the dish. Finally, she teaches her son to open the cupboard, take out a can of dog food, open it, and put the dog food in the dog dish. the procedure that Mrs. Pooch used is best described as:

a. backward chaining
b. forward chaining
c. stimulus control training
d. sequential training
a. Since Mrs. Pooch has started wih the last behavior and "worked backward" from there, this is best described as an example of backward chaining.
In an experiment on memory, the researcher utters a string of ten letters within a span of 3 seconds and suddenly stops and asks the subject what the last five letters were. Apparently, this researcher is investigating:

a. working memory
b. semantic memory
c. iconic memory
d. echoic memory
A person with anterograde amnesia will:

a. be able to remember more recent events better than more remote events
b. have trouble recalling recent events as the result of previously-learned material
c. be unable to recall events related to a particular event
d. be unable to recall events that occurred after the onset of the amnesia

b. INCORRECT - this describes proactive interference
c. INCORRECT - Anterograde amnesia does not necessarily affect only memories related to a particular event.
A researcher investigating implicit memory will most likely use which of the following tasks:

a. free recall
b. paired-associate
c. word-stem completion
d. verbal recognition
Implicit memory refers to memory that is effortless or automatic. Implicit memory is relatively unaffected by normal aging and by most conditions that affect explicit memory (e.g., Korskoff's syndrome).

c. of the tasks listed, this one is the only one used to assess implicit memory (the others are used to evaluate explicit memory). A researcher using a word-stem completion task presents the subject with the first few letters of a word and (e.g., SCH-_ _ _ ) asks him/her to complete a word that begins wtih those letters.
Which of the following individuals is MOST likely to agree that the learning of a behavior can be the result of observation alone but that the performance of the behavior depends on several factors including the characteristics of the setting and the learner's expectations about the outcomes of performing the behavior:

a. Bandura
b. Skinner
c. Pavlov
d. Wittrock
a. According to Bandura's observational (social) learning theory, learning can occur without being evident.

b. INCORRECT - Skinner emphasized the role of reinforcement and punishment (not observation) in learning
c. INCORRECT - Pavlov described learning as a result of classical conditioning
d. INCORRECT - Wittrock is associated with the generative learning model, which proposes that learners generate meaning by building relationships between previous learning and experience with new or unfamiliar experiences.
Research on the primacy and recency effects has shown that:

a. memory for the first item in a list decreases while memory for the last item increases as the delay between study and recall increases.
b. memory for the first item in a list increases while memory for the last item decreases as the delay between study and recall increases
c. memory for the first and last item decreases as the delay between study and recall increases
d. memory for the first and last item increases as the delay between study and recall increases.
b. the recency-primacy shift contradicts, to some extent, the axiom that "memory tends to fade over time". Specifically, the research has shown that for both verbal and nonverbal tasks, as the delay between study and recall increases, memory for the last item in a list decreases but memory for the first item increases --i.e., there is a shift from a recency effect to a primacy effect.
The method of loci and other mnemonics are most useful for:

a. information that is not inherently meaningful
b. information that is easily translatable into visual images
c. information that exceeds normal storage capacity
d. information that is easily translatable into a narrative
a. If info is already meaningful, it is usually unnecessary to use a mnemonic.
The ability to carry on a conversation with a friend at a party where there is loud music and a great deal of background noise is attributable to:

a. sustained attention
b. divided attention
c. sequential attention
d. selective attention
d. Selective (focused) attention enables a person to focus on one event while filtering out or ignoring irrelevant events.

a. INCORRECT - sustained attention refers to the ability to maintain attention to a particular stimulus over an extended period.

b. INCORRECT - Divided attention refers to the ability to focus attention on more than one event simultaneously.

c. INCORRECT - Sequential attention is a "made up" term.
Self-monitoring is used in a cognitive-behavioral therapies:

a. to facilitate diagnosis
b. as both an assessment tool and an intervention
c. to foster feelings of self-efficacy
d. to explore the underlying meaning of events
b. Self-monitoring has been found useful not only as an assessment technique but also as an intervention because it spontaneously alters the behavior in the desired direction.
A potential problem with the Premack Principle is that:

a. because it relies on primary reinforcement, satiation may occur
b. it may not be possible to apply the rinforcer immediately following the target behavior
c. for some people, secondary reinforcers have little value
d. it is difficult to extinguish a behavior without siimultaneously reinforcing an alternative one.
b. the high-frequency behavior or activity may not be immediately available, with can reduce the effectiveness of the intervention since positive reinforcement is most effective when the reinforcer can be delivered immediately following the target behavior.
The technique known as DRO is most effective when:

a. the alternative behavior is already in the person's repoertoire
b. the negative consequence is directly related to the nature of the target behavior
c. the target behavior can be consistently reinforeced until it is well-established
d. the individual has adequate prerequisite skills or knowledge
a. DRO is easier to use when the other behaviors are already in the individual's repertoire.

c. INCORRECT - The "target behavior" in DRO is the behavior that is being extinguished.
In recent years, psychosocial skills approaches to drug abuse prevention for children and adolescents have increasingly focused on the role of:

a. assertion
b. antecedents
c. information about drug use
d. contingency contracts
a. The "Just Say No!" campaign and Project D.A.R.E. are examples of the application of assertion training to the prevention of drug use.
A behavioral approach to the treatment of Major Depression would most likely include:

a. stimulus control
b. DRO
c. stress innoculation
d. self-control
d. Rhm's self-control therapy is usually categorized in the literature as a behavioral approach and was designed specifically for the treatment of Major Depression.
A third-grade teacher puts a student in the "time-out chair" for 15-minutes when he is disruptive. After 10 min., in time-out, the boy tells the teacher that he is sorry, that he knows what he did was wrong, and tht he won't bother the other chidren again. The teacher lets him rejoin the other students in the classroom. Three days later, the boy again disturbs the other students and the teacher sends him to time-out for 15 minutes. This time, the boy apologizes and promises he won't misbehave again after only 8 minutes. the teacher again lets the boy rejoin his classmates. In this situation, the boy's expression of remorse is being controlled by:

a. positive reinforcement
b. avaoidance conditioning
c. escape conditioning
d. higher-order conditioning
c. Escape conditioning is a type of negative reinforcement in which a behavior occurs because it allows the individual to escape an undesirable simulus or event. (Avoidance conditioning is another application of negative reinforcement. It involves presenting a cue that signals that an undesirable event is about to occur so that the individual can avoid the undesirable event by engaging in the target behavior as soon as the cue is presented.)
when recommending a treatment regimen for a client with migraine headaches, it is important to keep in mind that:

a. the research has shown that thermal biofeedback is superior to autogenic training in terms of effectiveness

b. the research has shown that autogenic training is superior to thermal biofeedback in terms of effectiveness

c. a combination of theramal biofeedback and autogenic training is considered effective although the research has not conclusively demonstrated that the combined treatment is superior to either thermal biofeedback or autogenic training alone.

d. a combination of thermal biofeedback and autogenic training has not been conclusively found by the research to be superior to self-monitoring of headaches.
A psychologist investigating short-term memory shows the letter "T" to each research subject for a brief period and, after removing the letter, asks the subject what he or she has seen. The psychologist finds that many subjects report seeing the wrong letter, with the most common error of recall being which of the following letters:

a. "L"
b. "D"
d. "S"
d. "F"
b. studies have found that errors in short-term memory usually involve a confusion of letters that sound alike, thereby supporting the theory that information is stored acoustically in short-term memory.
The notion of "collaborative empircism" is associated with:

a. Ellis
b. Beck
c. Adler
d. Perls
b. Collaborative empiricism is the key strategy of Beck's cognitive-behavioral therapy. When using this technique, the therapist and client work together to gather evidence and test hypotheses about the client's beliefs.
A researcher is studying the ability of subjects to remember lists of paired associates (e.g., dog-cat). The list of to-be-remembered word pairs either consisted of related words like dog-cat or unrelated word pairs like house-pencil. Prior to studying the to-be-remembered list of paired associates, the experimental group was presented a list of opposite word pairs such as tall-short. The control group, on the other hand, completed multiplication problems. What results should the resercher expect?

a. Due to retroactive interference, the control group should recall the to-be remembered list better.
b. Due to retroactive interference, the experimental group should recall the to-be-remembered list better.
c. Due to proactive interference, the control group should recall the to-be-remembered list better.
c. This research finding is referred to as proactive interference. In the experimental group, the first list of word pairs interferences with subjects ability to recall the second list. Consequently, the control group will remember more words than the experimental group.
T or F. Explicit memories are pst experiences that are consciously brought to mind.
T or F. Implicit memories are memories that lie outside of awareness (unconsiously knowing where the letters are on a keyboard) and greatly influence our behaviors.
T or F. Retroactive interference refers to the tendency for new learning to impair retrieval of old learning.
T. Remember that the label of the interference tells you what is not being retrieved properly. Retroactive interference tells you that retro memories are not being retrieved well.
T or F.Proactive interference refers to the tendency for old learning to impair the retrieval of new learning.
True. Remember that the label of the interference tells you what is not being retrieved properly. Proactive interference tells you that new material is not being retrieved well.
The key requirements for successful mastery modeling are:

a. adequate cues and contingent reinforcement
b. spaced practice and time for reflection
c. a high-status model and intrinsic motivation
d. guided practice and early success
d. If you think about Bandura's research on participant modeling, you might recall that modeling is most effective when it involves guided and graded practice. The reason for graded practice (starting out with something easier and working toward more difficult responses) is that the individual will experience early success.
When conucting a functional analysis, you are interested in:

a. underlying motivations
b. causes of poor performance
c. controlling conditions
d. program costs and benefits
c. From the behavioral perspective, a behaviora is controlled by its antecedents and consequences, and its function is defined in terms of those variables. A functional analysis is a type of behavioral assessment that includes an evaluation of the target behavior as well as its antecedents and consequences. The results of the analysis are used to select an appropriate intervention and monitor its effects.
Prospective memory:

a. is an aspect of working memory
b. contains memories of one's personal experiences
c. refers to "remembering to remember"
d. refers to "knowing about knowing"
c. Remembering that you have a doctor's appointment on Thursday at 3 p.m. depends on prospective memory.
According to Beck, ideas or images that come without effort and that elicit an emotional reaction are:

a. cognitive distortions
b. automatic thoughts
c. prototypes
d. schemata
b. correct

a. INCORRECT - cognitive distortions are maladaptive ways of processing info and may underlie automatic thoughts

c. INCORRECT - prototypes are models that contain the most salient or typical features of an event, object, etc.

d. INCORRECT - Schemata are cognitive structures that guide an individual's perceptions and appraisals.
Self-appraisal and self-management of cognition are aspects of:

a. procedural memory
b. semantic memory
c. executive control
d. meta-cognition
d. Metacognition is divided into two aspects: self-understanding of one's own cognitive processes (self-appraisal) and executive control (self-management).

a. INCORRECT - Procedural memory refers to memory for "how things get done" (e.g., how to ride a bike).

b. INCORRECT - Semantic memory is memory for the meaning of words and concepts

c. INCORRECT - This is only partially correct since executive control is one aspect of metacognition.
Identifying alternative behaviors to replace targeted undesirable behaviors is an integral part of which of the following behavioral techniques:
a. response cost
b. implosive therapy
c. contingency management
d. negative practice
c. "Contingency" refers to the consequence of a behavior, and contingency management involves identifying and applying punishements for undesirable behaviors and identifying and applying reinforcmentts for desirable ones.

a. INCORRECT - Response cost is used to decrease an undesirable behavior
b. INCORRECT - Implosive therapy is used to extinguish a conditioned response and does not attempt to deliberately substitute an alternative response.
d. INCORRECT - when using negative practice, the person is required to deliberately repeat the undesireable behavior --effective for tics!