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191 Cards in this Set

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ADHD is characterized by a persistent, developmentally-inappropriate pattern of inattention and/or ___________?
Hyperactivity - impulsivity
What are the three subtypes of ADHD?
1. Predominantly Inattentive Type (>6 inattention sxs and <6 sxs of hyperactivity/impulsivity)
2. Predominantly Hyperactive-Impulsive (>6 Hyp, <6 Inattention)
3. Combined (>6 Inattention and Hyper)
A child with a learning disorder is most likely to receive a diagnosis of?
ADHD
What is a common co-diagnosis with ADHD?
Conduct Disorder (30-90%)
Other Common DX's are ODD, Anxiety, and MDD
What are the prevalance rates of ADHD in school aged children?
5-7%
In order to make a diagnosis of ADHD when must the onset occur and the duration of sxs?
Prior to age seven and a persistence of sxs for at least six months in at least two settings.
What percentage of children with ADHD turn into adults with ADHD?
60%
Which symptom of ADHD predominates for adults? What are they at higher risk for?
Inattention
Higher risk for Bipolar Disorder, depression, anxiety, anitsocial behavior, and substance use.
What brain abnormalities have been linked to ADHD?
Lower than normal activity in the caudate nucleus, globus pallidus, and prefrontal cortex.
What is the behavioral disinhibition hypothesis (Barkley, 1990)
The core feature of ADHD is an inability to regulate behavior to fit situational demands.
What is the most successful treatment for ADHD?
Methylphenidate (Ritalin) or other CNS Stimulants and behavioral interventions.
What is conduct disorder characterized by?
Persistent pattern of behaviors that violate the rights of others and/or age-appropriate social rules.
- Little concerns for well being of others
- tend to blame others
- little or no guilt/remorse
- misinterpret actions
What does Conduct Disorder require in terms of criteria?
Presence of at least three characteristics sxs during the past twelve months.
What are the two subtypes of conduct disorder?
Childhood Onset (before age ten) - Greater tendency to be aggressive, Anti-Social later or abuse substance.
Adolescent Onset (After age ten)
What two types of conduct disorder does Moffitt (1993) distinguish?
Life-Course Persistent type: combination of neurological impairments, difficult temperment, and environment

Adolescent Limited Type: "maturity gap"
What is Pica?
Persistent eating of nonnutritive substances for at least one month without an aversion to food.
Onset: between 12-24 months
What is the essential feature of Tourette's Disorder?
Presence of at least one vocal tic and multiple motor tics that may appear simultaneoulsy or at different times beginning before the age of 18.
What is the average age of onset for Tourette's? Which gender is affected more?
6 to 7 years, males.
What is the most common associated symptoms of Tourette's Disorder?
Obsession and Compulsions
Which disorder is related to higher-than-normal levels of dopamine and or supersensitivity of dopamine receptors in the caudate nucleus?
Tourette's Disorder
What is the treatment for Tourette's?
Pharmacotherapy (anti-psychotics)
What is the essential feature of enuresis?
Repeated voiding of urine during the day or night into the bed or clothes at least twice a week for three or more months.
At what age is enuresis diagnosed?
When in individual has reached the age of five.
What is the most common treatment for enuresis?
night alarm (bell and pad)
Why is imipramine a poor choice for treatment of enuresis?
Good for short term but not long term effects.
What does Separation Anxiety Disorder involve?
Developmentally inappropriate, excessive anxiety related to separation from home or attachment figures. Disturbance must last at least four weeks, onset before age 18, and at least 3 characteristic behaviors must be present.
How is Separation Anxiety sometimes manifested?
As school refusal accompanied by a somatic symptom.
The essential feature of Reactive Atachment Disorder?
Markedly disturbed and developmentally inappropriate social relatedness in most settings that begin prior to age five.
What helps children in the areas of behavioral pediatricts and illness?
Open communication in language they can understand.
What type of interventions help reduce anxiety about a procedure for children?
CBT
What are hospitalized children and children with physical disabilities at increased risk for?
Emotional and Behavioral Problems
Which age group has the greatest difficulty in complying with medical regimens?
Adolescents
What are CNS Irradiation and Intrathecal Chemotherapy (Brown and Madan-Swain (1993))associated with?
Impaired neurocognitive functioning and a higher-than-normal rate of learning disabilities
What does Autistic Disorder require to be diagnosed?
Qualitative impairment in social interaction (at least two).
Qualitative impairment in communication (at least one)
Restricted, repetitive, and sterotyped behavior (at least one)
All prior to age three
What is the prognosis for individuals with autistic disorders?
Poor - Only about 1/3 of individuals achieve some degree of partial independence. Best Outcome - Communicate verbally by age five or six.
What has autism been linked to?
Several structural brain abnormalities including smaller than normal cerebellum and enlarged ventricles.
What types of training are the most effective with autistic disorders?
Behavioral techniques; shaping and discrimination training (Lovaas, 1960's).
What is Rett's Disorder?
Characteristic pattern of symptoms following a period of normal development for five months or more. SXS: Head growth deceleration, loss of purposeful hand skills, development of stereotypical movements, impairments in coordination, loss of interest in social activities, imparied language, psychomotor retardation.
What disorder is characterized by a distinct pattern of developmental regression in at least two areas of functioning following at least two years of normal development?
Childhood Disintegrative Disorder
Which Pervasive Developmental Disorder has no substantial delays in language, self-help skills, cognitive development, or curiosity?
Asberger's
What is the three diagnostic criteria that must be met for mental retardation?
1. IQ of 70 or below
2. Concurrent deficits or Impairments in adaptive functioning.
3. Onset prior to age 18
What is PKU?
Rare recessive gene syndrome that involves an inability to metabolize the amino acid phenylalanine.
What is down syndrome due to ?
Presence of an extra chromosome
What ages does stuttering typically begin? How can it be effectively treated?
Ages 2-7
Treatment: reducing psychological stress at home, regulated breathing and awareness training "Habit Reversal"
Delirium is characterized by a disturbance in _________ that is accompanied by impairments in cognition and/or abnormalities in ______________.
Consciousness, perception
Symptoms of delireum can develop rapidly and ____________ in severity during the course of the day.
Fluctuate
What is the treatment of Delirium?
Provide an environment that minimizes disorientation and sometimes antipsychotic drugs.
What is Dementia characterized by?
Multiple cognitive deficits. Some degree of memory loss and aphasia, apraxia, or agnosia.
What is the difference between Dementia and Pseudodementia?
Dementia = problems w/ declarative memory
Pseudodementia = problems w/ procedural memory.
What does Alzheimers usually begin with? Followed by what?
Anterograde Amnesia (Stage 1)
Retrograde Amnesia (Stage 2, 2-10 years)
What kind of dementia is caused by cerebrovascular disease? What is it characterized by?
Vascular dementia. Characterized by a stepwise, fluctuating course.
How many stages are in AIDS Dementia Complex? Which stage is characterized by minimal or equivocal sxs? How about major signs of intellectual incapacity or motor disability?
Six Stages. Stage .5, Stage 3
Amnestic Disorder due to a general medical condition always involves what?
Anterograde amnesia and maybe some retrogade.
What about an inability to recall personal information?
Dissassociative Amnesia - Sometimes related to trauma or very stressful event.
What are some early signs of Dementia due to HIV?
Forgetfulness and impaired attention
What is Acetylcholine linked to?
Early memory impairment associated with Dementia of the Alzheimers type especially in the hippocampus and certain areas of the cortex.
What do MArlatt and Gordon (1985) refer to the typical reaction to a relapse?
Abstinence Violation Effect: self-blame, guilt, anxiety, and depression which increase susceptibility to further drinking.
What does Marlatt and Gordon's (1985) Relapse Prevention Therapy (RPT) entail?
Identifying circumstances that increase the individual's risk for relapse - for example: negative emotional states, exposure to environment, social pressure
Wha is included for successful smoking cessation interventions? (Three Elements)
1. Nicotene replacement therapy 2. Multicomponent behavioral therapy 3. Support from a clinician
A diagnosis of substance dependence requires how many characteristic symptoms? For how long? How about substance abuse?
3, 12 months
Substance Abuse = One SX, 12 month period
What has the research shown is the most common precipitant of relapse in Alcohol and Other Substance Dependence?
A strong negative emotion
Marlatt and Gordon describe substance dependence as? When is the potential for relapse redueced?
Overlearned maladaptive habit pattern. When an individual attributes the relapse to specific, controllable, and external factors.
What is a major barrier to smoking cessation? What characteristics are associated with successful smoking cessation.
Fear of withdrawl sxs. Males who are older.
Inappropriate sexual and aggressive behavior, emotional lability, slurred speech, incoordination.
Alcohol Intoxication
Autonomic hyperactivity, insomnia, psychomotor agitation, transient illusions.
Alcohol Withdrawal
Korsakoff Syndrome involves retrograde amnesia, anterograde amnesia, and _________ and is believed to be due to a __________deficiency.
Confabulation, Thiamine
What do symptoms of opioid withdrawal resemble? Nicotene withdrawal is characterized by?
Flu, depressed mood, insomnia, irritability, impaired concentration, and decreased heart rate.
Schizophrenia Criteria
Continuous disturbance for six months or more that includes 1-2 months of active-phase sxs: i.e., delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech.
Five sub-types of schizophrenia
Paranoid Type: preoccupation with delusions are/or frequent auditory hallucinations
Disorganized Type: disorganized speech
Catatonic Type
Undifferentiated Type
Residual
Concordance Rates for Schizophrenia
Biological Sibling (10%), Fraternal (Dizygotic Twin, 17%), Identical (48%), Child (46%)
Which ethnicity is often misdiagnozed as having schizophrenia? Why?
African American, bc more likely to experience hallucinations and delusions as sxs of depression.
What is the etiology of Schizophrenia?
Genetic, Enlarged ventricles, smaller-than-normal hippocampus, amygdala, and globus pallidus.
What was the most widely accepted neurochemical theory of schizophrenia? What is a more recent theory?
Dopamine Hypothesis: schizophrenia is due to elevated dopamine levels.
Elevated levels of norepinephrine, seratonin, and low levels of GABA.
When are family interventions beneficial for schizophrenia?
When they target high levels of expressed emotion.
What does the diagnosis of Bipolar Disorder require the occurrance of?
One or more mixed or manic epidose with or without a history of one or more MD episode.
Percentage of women warranting a diagnosis of MDD or Bipolar after Postpartum onset?
10-20%
What is an effective therapy for seasonal affective disorder? What do individuals struggling with this crave?
Phototherapy, carbs
How much more common is depression amongst first-degree relatives?
1.5 - 3%
Deficiency in Norepinephrine is related to which hypothesis for depression?
Catecholamine Hypothesis
Bipolar I Disorders all involve one or more ___________ episodes w/ or w/o a MD episode.
Mixed or Manic
What is Bipolar II characterized by?
One Major Depressive Episode and one Hypomanic Episode.
Bipolar ____ is equally common in males and females, while Bipolar ____ is more common in females.
I, II
Bipolar Disorder has been most commonly linked to ___________ factors.
Genetic
What does treatment for Bipolar often include?
Lithium
A diagnosis of Cyclothymic Disorder requires a duration of sxs of at least ________ in adults and ___________ in children.
Two Years, One Year.
Until recently, the highest rate for suicide has been for individuals age?
65+
What did Beck say was the best predictor for suicide? How many months after depressive symptoms improve is suicide likely to occurr?
Hopelessness, Three
According to the DSM-IV-TR, the lifetime prevalance of Bipolar I Disorder in community samples ranges from _______ percent.
.4 - 1.6
When are the rates of MDD about equal for males and females?
Before puberty, after, females are twice as likely to experience.
What is a erotomanic delusion?
a false belief that another person (usually of higher status) is in love with that person.
What disorder does anxiety overlap with? What is anxiety associated with?
Depression. higher level of positive affect and autonomic arousal.
The diagnosis of Panic Disorder requires that at least some of the attacks be __________?
Unexpected
What is the recommended treatment for agoraphobia? What medications also are known to be useful?
In vivo exposure with response prevention (flooding). Imipramine, other tricyclics, SSRI's and Benzos
Mower's two-factor theory regarding Specific Phobia States?
It is a combination of classical and operant conditioning.
What is the treatment of choice for ODD? Who is it more prevalent in for adolescents and children?
Exposure with response prevention and either a tricyclic or SSRI. males
What is the best treatment for PTSD?
CBT
What are the EMDR effects for PTSD mostly attributed to?
Exposure to nonspecific factors.
Excessive anxiety and worry about multiple events or activities for a period of 6 months or more
GAD
An external benefit such as avoiding an unpleasant activity in the context of Conversion Disorder refers to what?
Obtaining External Benefits
Of which of the anxiety disorders has the highest comorbidity rate?
GAD
2 or more unexpected panic attcks, with at least one of the attacks being followed by one month of persistent concern about having another attack
Panic Disorder
How many characteristic symptoms are required for panic disorder?
4
What is a panic attack?
Discrete period of intense apprehension, fear, or terror that develops abruptly, usually peaks within 10 minutes, and is often accompanied by a sense of doom or an urge to escape.
Anxiety about being in situation or places from which escape might be difficult or embarrassing.
Agoraphobia
What are the prevalence rates for Panic Disorder? Which gender agoraphobia is it more common with?
1-2% in a community sample with 1/3-1/2 also having agoraphobia. Females, up to 75%
Panic Disorder with Agoraphobia versus Panic Disorder without...Which one is associated with higher comorbidity?
PDA - 59% (Brown et al, 2001), found that PDA w/ a mood disorder or anxiety disorder.
What is considered the most effective treatment for Panic attacks and agoraphobia?
In vivo exposure with response prevention (flooding). Exposure is usually supplemented w/ Cognitive therapy, relaxation and breathing re-training, and/or pharmocotherapy.
What drugs are most responsive to Panic Disorder?
Imipramine, TCAs, SSRIs, Benzo, and for some anti-convolsants. When used alone, risk for relapse is very high 30-70% of patients experience a return of sxs within months.
What is the main difference between Panic Disorder and Social Phobia?
In social phobia the attacks are restricted to social and performance situations.
Do those w/ Agoraphobia suffer an increase or decrease in symptoms with a trusted friend?
Decrease. Social phobia causes an increase.
A marked persistent fear of a specific object or situation.
Specific Phobia. Exposure almost always causes a panic attack or other anxiety response. Individual either avoids or endures with distress. Adults - Recognize that fear is unreasonable
When is the onset of specific phobia?
Usually during childhood or in the mid-20's.
What are the five sub-types of specific phobia? Which one is the most common?
Animal, Natural Environment, Situational, Blood-Injection-Injury, and Other. Most Common: Situational (Fear of elevators)
How does the Blood-Injection-Injury differ from the other specific phobias?
Feared stimuli causes an initial increase in heart rate and blood pressure that is immediately followed by a drop in both, as a consequence, the individual faints.
What is the treatment of choice for specific phobia?
In-vivo exposure with response prevention. Also Cognitive self-control, useful for children's fear of the dark.
What has social phobia been linked to?
Biological factors (abnormalities in serotonergic, dopaminergic, and noradrenergic systems), classical conditioning, and cognitive factors.
What is the treatment for social phobia?
Exposure combined with social skills training or cognitive techniques. Several anti-depressants have been found effective and the beta-blocker propranolol has been useful in reducing somatic symptoms.
According to the NIMH what "new" symptoms have to be present for Depression of Alzheimers Disease?
"Decreased positive affect or pleasure in response to social contacts and usual activities" and a "clinically significant depressed mood"
What percentage of children with a learning disorder also receive a diagnosis of ADHD?
20-25%
Where is the greatest percentage of neuron loss due to Alzheimers in the brain?
The medial temporal lobe which includes the entorhinal cortex, amygdala, and hippocampus.
Which personality disorder could erroneously be interpreted as signs of depression?
Dependent Personality Disorder: A mood disorder must be considered because symptoms overlap (pessimism, self-doubt)
What factor contributes to the likelihood of a woman remaining in substance abuse treatment?
Child and Childcare Issues.
What is a second-line medication treatment for ADHD?
Anti-Depressants (Imipramine, bupropian)
What does early alterations in embyonic development lead to?
Largest percentage of mental retardation.
What is the critical underlying issues with Borderline Personality Disorder?
Abandonment
What method of intervention has the best long term effects for PTSD?
Prolonged Exposure
Compared to depression, anxiety involves what dimensions of emotion?
Similar level of negative affect but a higher level of autonomic arousal and positive affect.
______________ is a cause of delirium and may result from kidney or liver failure or from diabetes mellitus.
Metabolic encephalopathy.
Apathy, social withdrawal, and psychomotor slowing are characteristics of what type of dementia?
Dementia due to HIV
Following cessation of smoking a lapse is most likely to be triggered by presence of smoking cues and what?
Negative Affect
What are empirically validated treatments for primary insomnia?
Stimulus Control, Sleep Restriction, and CBT
What adolescent groups (Ages 10-19) had the highest and lowest rates of suicide between 2000-2005?
Native American/Alaskan Native Males and lowest for Black females.
How long does a Major Depressive Episode last without treatment?
3-6 months, About 50% with their first episode will fully recovery with another 40% having recurrance.
Undifferentiated Somataform Disorder requires one what?
Physical Complaint
How is masked dementia manifested?
Through somatic symptoms primarily without obvious cognitive-affective problems.
The use of fMRI to study ADHD and the brain has linked lower levels of metabolic activity where?
Pre-Frontal Cortex and Basal Ganglia
About 2/3 of smokers that quit either on their own or an intervention relapse within how many months?
3 months
What percentage of mothers experience post-partum blues?
50-80%
The rates for depression for married women are what?
Higher than rates for unmarried women and married men.
The loss of memory for personal information limited to a circumscribed period of time
Localized Amnesia
____________is a neuroleptic-induced movement disorder that is characterized by subjective feelings of restlessness accompanied by stereotypical motor movements such as fidgeting, pacing or foot tapping.
Akathisia
What is a "culture bound syndrome" as defined by the DSM-IV?
recurrent symptoms or dysfunctional behaviors that are recognized by members of a specific culture as an illness.
Long term alcoholism induced dementia have found decreased performance in what areas?
Visuospatial skills
What can an electro-lyte imbalance in bulimia nervosa lead to?
Cardiac arythmias and arrest.
Long term ego-syntonic characteristics are indicative of what personality disorder?
Schizoid Personality Disorder
In their reformulation of the learned helplessness model of depression, Abramson, Metalsky, and Alloy said what?
De-emphasize the role of attributions and emphasize the role of hopelessness.
"Separation Tests" are good for which disorder?
Factitious Disorder by proxy
OCD is characterized by?
recurrent obsessions and/or compulsions that are severe enough to cause significant distress.
What are obsessions? What are compulsions?
Obsessions: persistent impulses, thoughts, or images that person experiences as senseless or intrusive. Compulsions: repetitious and deliberate behaviors or mental acts that person feels drive to perform.
Gender rates for OCD?
As Adults: same for both gender. As Adolescents: Males more because of earlier onset.
Etiology of OCD?
Low levels of Serotonin. Brain: Evidence that behavioral + Drug treatments both reduce activity in right caudate nucleus (responsible for converting sensory input into cognition = over active for people with OCD), also orbitofrontal cortex and cingulate cortex, which mediate emotional reactions.
Treatment for OCD?
Combintation of exposure with response prevention and the tricyclic clomipramine or an SSRI.
Difference between OCD and OCPD?
OCD = Obsessions and Compulsions, OCPD = preoccupation with orderliness, perfectionism, and control.
What does the diagnosis of PTSD require?
Exposure to trauma. (1) experiencing or witnessing an event that invovled an actual threat of death, serious injury to self or another person. (2) Elicits a reaction of intense fear, helplessness, or horror. SXS must be present for at least one month.
What are the three specifiers for PTSD?
Acute (1-3 months)
Chronic (3+ months)
Delayed Onset (onset of sxs is at least 6 months after trauma)
Treatment for PTSD?
Comprehensive Cognitive Behavioral approach that incorporates exposure, cognitive restructuring, and anxiety management. Also, SSRI. SXS of PTSD are usually worse with delayed onset.
Difference between PTSD and Acute Stress Disorder?
ASD = Less than 4 weeks, but must be 2+ days. Also 3+ dissassociative sxs.
What does GAD involve?
Excessive anxiety and worry about multiple events or activities that are relatively constant for at least six months, person finds it difficult to control, and are disproportionate to the feared events or their potential impact. Must have 3+ sxs: restlessness, feeling on edge, easily fatigued, difficulty concentrating, irritability, muscle tension, sleep disturbance.
What do children w/ GAD often worry about? How about young adults? What about elder adults?
School or sports activity, or tornadoes, earthquakes, or other disasters. Young adults: Work, family, finances, future. Elder: personal health and minor routine matters.
What has research shown with anxiety and older adults?
Might be twice as common in older adults than depression. More likely to cause cognitive impairment, sleep disturbances, and problems with carrying out daily activity.
Treatment for GAD?
Multi-component CBT and maybe even drugs SSRIs and anxiolytic buspirone (buspar).
The Somatoform disorders are all characterized by sxs that suggest a medical condition but for which there is no evidence of a general medical condition or _____________
Substance use.
Criteria for Somatization Disorder?
Recurrent multiple somatic complaints before age 30 and have persisted for several years, med attn sought w/ no explanation. Must include at least 4 pain sxs: 2 Gastro, 1 Sexual, 1 Pseudoneurological.
Co-Occurring mental disorder with Somatization Disorder?
1+ personality do, followed by MDD, and GAD.
What is Conversion Disorder characterized by?
SXS that involve voluntary motor or sensory functioning and suggest a serious neurological or other medical condition (e.g., paralysis, seizures, blindness, loss of pain sensation).
What do some people with Conversion Disorder exhibit?
"La Belle Indifference" or lack of concern about their sxs.
What does the DSM describe as the etiology of conversion disorder?
2 Mechanisms: Primary gain, out of conscious awareness, Secondary Gain: sx helps person avoid unpleasant activity.
What are some differential diagnosis with Conversion Disorder?
Factitious Disorder or Malingering.
Unrealistic preoccupation with a serious illness based on a misinterpretation of bodily sxs.
Hypochodriasis: They will doctor shop, feel as tough they are not receiving appropriate care, strongly resist referrals for mental health treatment.
Presence of one or more physical complaints that have lasted at least 6 months, and cannot be fully explained by a medical condition.
Undifferentiated Somatoform DO.
Adopting the sick role, intentionally produced.
Factitious DO. Overly dramatic, vague and inconsistent with details.
What is Factitious Disorder by Proxy?
Intentional sxs produced by caregiver in another individual.
Treatment for Factitious DO?
Good supportive therapy.
Difference between factitious disorder and malingering?
Factitious DO = external reward. Malingering = seeking med eval for legal reasons, marked discrepency between sxs and objective findings, no cooperation with diagnostic evaluation.
Primary feature of Dissociative Disorders?
Disruption in consciousness, identity, memory or perception of the environment that is not due to substance or psychological sxs.
1+ episodes of an inability to recall important personal information that cannot be attributed to normal forgetfulness.
Dissociative Amnesia - related to gaps in memory related to trauma or stressful event.
Patterns of Dissociatuve Amnesia?
1. Localized: Cannot remember all events circumscribed period of time. 2. Selective: Cannot remember SOME events of a circ period of time. 3. Generalized: Encompasses his/her entire life. 4. Continuous: From a certain time period until present. 5. Systematized: Unable to recall memories related to a specific catagory.
Abrupt, unexpected travel away from home or work with an inability to recall some or all of one's past.
Dissociative Fugue: Exhibits confusion about his/her personal identity or a partial or total assumption of a new identity. Person may not recall events.
One or more episodes of depersonalization, which involves a feeling of detachment or estrangement from one's mental processes or body.
Depersonalization Disorder
What is the appropriate diagnosis for a woman with pseudocyesis (Believes she is pregnant when she is not)?
Somatoform Disorder NOS
What does the DSM-IV decribe the four sexual responses as?
Desire, Excitement, Orgasm, and Resolution.
An inability to attain or maintain an adequate erection? What are the physical factors related to this disorder?
Male Erectile Disorder, Diabetes Mellitus, Liver and Kidney Disease, MS, Antipsychotic, anti-depressant, and hypertensive drugs.
Delay or absense of orgasm following a normal sexual excitement phase.
Female/Male Orgasmic Disorder.
When is premature ejaculation get diagnosed?
When an orgasm or ejaculation happen before you want it to. Linked to low Serotonin and can be treated with an SSRI.
What involves great pain with sexual intercourse? What is it when involuntary spasms occur in the perineal muscle?
Dyspareunia, Vaginsimus.
What is the most successful treatment for premature ejaculation and vaginismus?
Sex therapy. Techniques: Sensate focus
Intense recurrent sexual urges, fantasies or behavior?
Paraphilias: Include Fetishism, Transvestic fetishism, Pedophilia, Exhibitionism, Voyerism, Sexual Masochism, Sexual Sadism, And Frotteurism.
What treatments are used for paraphilias?
In vivo aversion = only good for short term. Covert sensitization, Satiation, Orgasmic Reconditioning.
Age of onset for gender identity disorder?
Between 2-4.
Marlatt and Gordon's relapse prevention model focuses on what?
Situations antecedent to relapse
Dysgraphia, finger agnosia, alcalculia, right left disorientation.
Gerstmann's Syndrome