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180 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
How many Headquarters Units report directly to Headquarters?
|
35
|
|
Which type of command is responsible for providing services such as civil engineering,
health and safety, legal, and finance to all operational units within its area: a. Districts b. Maintenance and Logistics Commands c. Headquarters Units d. Areas |
b. Maintenance and Logistics Commands
|
|
Rear admirals head up districts.
a. True b. False |
a. True
|
|
Vice Admirals lead the Atlantic Area and the Pacific Area.
a. True b. False |
a. True
|
|
In this war, cutters captured 18 prizes unaided and
assisted in two other captures. |
Quasi-War
|
|
A Coast Guard cutter is credited with firing the
first naval shots of this war. |
Civil War
|
|
First time during a war that the entire Coast Guard
was transferred to the Navy. |
World War I
|
|
During this war, the McCulloch served as both the
escort and dispatch with Commodore George Dewey’s squadron |
Spanish-American War
|
|
In this war effort, the Coast Guard played a
marginal role, primarily one of support. |
Korean War
|
|
The first time the Coast Guard augmented the Navy with shallow-draft
craft was in World War I. True or False? |
False
|
|
The Coast Guard was given responsibility for cold-weather operations in
Greenland during World War II. True or False? |
True
|
|
The first time ocean-going cutters augmented Navy and Coast Guard
surveillance forces was in Vietnam. True or False? |
True
|
|
The Coast Guard was solely responsible for cleaning up a massive oil spill
during the Gulf War. True or False? |
False
|
|
During Operation Nobel Eagle in November 2001, the Coast Guard was
once again under Navy command. True or False? |
False
|
|
What Coast Guard Mission is this?
Following World War II, members of what organization were given rates and ratings, uniforms, and insignia? A. Environmental protection B. Coast Guard Reserve C. Boating Safety D. Sinking of the Titanic E. Coast Guard Auxiliary F. Law enforcement |
E. Coast Guard Auxiliary
|
|
Drug smuggling in the 1960s gave what mission increased significance? A. Environmental protection B. Coast Guard Reserve C. Boating Safety D. Sinking of the Titanic E. Coast Guard Auxiliary F. Law enforcement |
F. Law enforcement
|
|
What event was the impetus for the International Ice Patrol?
|
Sinking of the Titanic
|
|
The fatality rate of this focus has greatly declined as a
result of what Coast Guard mission? |
Boating Safety
|
|
The Refuse Act of 1899 was the catalyst for what
Coast Guard mission |
Environmental
protection |
|
Members of what part-time force perform the same
tasks as active duty personnel? |
Coast Guard Reserve
|
|
To help rescue immigrants from vessels ravished by winter storms, a Federal lifesaving
service was initiated in _______. a. 1815 b. 1832 c. 1848 d. 1885 |
c. 1848
|
|
The only Coast Guard-manned light station in the U.S. today is located in _______.
a. Cape Hatteras b. Cape Elizabeth c. New York Harbor d. Boston Harbor |
d. Boston Harbor
|
|
Today, the Coast Guard is under the Department of _______.
a. Transportation b. Treasury c. Homeland Security d. Defense |
c. Homeland Security
|
|
One of first uniformed women to serve in the Coast Guard.
|
Lucille Baker
|
|
Women are integrated into active duty and Coast Guard
Reserve. A. Joshua James B. Douglas Munro C. 1978 D. 1969 E. Lucille Baker F. 1973 |
F. 1973
|
|
Saved more than 600 lives, earned two gold medals, three
silver, plus other awards. |
Joshua James
|
|
All officer career fields and enlisted ratings are opened to
women. A. Joshua James B. Douglas Munro C. 1978 D. 1969 E. Lucille Baker F. 1973 |
C. 1978
|
|
Medal of Honor recipient.
|
Douglas Munro
|
|
Installation of First Master Chief Petty Officer of the Coast
Guard. A. Joshua James B. Douglas Munro C. 1978 D. 1969 E. Lucille Baker F. 1973 |
D. 1969
|
|
Must meet a qualifying score on the SAT,
ACT, or ASVAB exams. A. Warrant Officer appointment B. Officer Candidate School C. Coast Guard Academy D. Pre Commissioning Program PPEP E. Selective Reserve Direct Commission Program F. Direct Commission Program |
B. Officer Candidate School
|
|
Continue in their civilian employment while
serving on military duty. A. Warrant Officer appointment B. Officer Candidate School C. Coast Guard Academy D. Pre Commissioning Program PPEP E. Selective Reserve Direct Commission Program F. Direct Commission Program |
E. Selective Reserve Direct
Commission Program |
|
Must be serving in pay grade E-6 or above.
A. Warrant Officer appointment B. Officer Candidate School C. Coast Guard Academy D. Pre Commissioning Program PPEP E. Selective Reserve Direct Commission Program F. Direct Commission Program |
A. Warrant Officer appointment
|
|
Must have special training and skills in
specific fields. A. Warrant Officer appointment B. Officer Candidate School C. Coast Guard Academy D. Pre Commissioning Program PPEP E. Selective Reserve Direct Commission Program F. Direct Commission Program |
F. Direct Commission Program
|
|
Can attend college on a full-time basis for up
to 2 years and receive full pay and allowances. A. Warrant Officer appointment B. Officer Candidate School C. Coast Guard Academy D. Pre Commissioning Program PPEP E. Selective Reserve Direct Commission Program F. Direct Commission Program |
D. Pre Commissioning Program
PPEP |
|
Compete by competitive examinations for
direct appointments. A. Warrant Officer appointment B. Officer Candidate School C. Coast Guard Academy D. Pre Commissioning Program PPEP E. Selective Reserve Direct Commission Program F. Direct Commission Program |
C. Coast Guard Academy
|
|
The supervisor will be a(n) ________.
a. Civilian. b. Enlisted person. c. Officer. d. All of the above. |
d. All of the above.
|
|
The command may designate as the supervisor, a ________.
a. 1st class petty officer. b. 2nd class petty officer. c. 3rd class petty officer. d. None of the above. |
a. 1st class petty officer.
|
|
Route the completed employee review to the ________.
a. Employee b. Approving Official c. Marking Official d. Appeal Authority |
c. Marking Official
|
|
The supervisor must route the completed employee review to the next level of the rating
chain no later than ________days prior to the period ending date. a. 4 b. 7 c. 9 d. 14 |
c. 9
|
|
Supporting documentation is required for recommended marks of 1, 3, or 7.
True or False? |
False
|
|
An important aspect of the review is that it provides a road map for future
improvement. True or False? |
True
|
|
Recommendation for advancement is completed for Master, Senior, and
Chief Petty Officers. True or False? |
False
|
|
Adverse entries should also focus on one-time, minor infractions.
True or False? |
False
|
|
A member who is financially irresponsible must be marked as unsatisfactory
conduct. True or False? |
True
|
|
Seaman Bolon was given a regular employee
review six weeks ago and has just been awarded non-judicial punishment. A. Regular employee review B. Special employee review C. No employee review required |
B. Special employee review
|
|
Fireman Alleby is in an unauthorized absence
status and it’s the last day of January. A. Regular employee review B. Special employee review C. No employee review required |
C. No employee review
required |
|
Petty Officer E-6 Grippe has been at her new
duty station for four months and it’s the last day of May. A. Regular employee review B. Special employee review C. No employee review required |
A. Regular employee review
|
|
Reservist Petty Officer Graul has just been
promoted to Chief Petty Officer. CPO Graul has completed 20 drill periods since the rating chain completed his special employee review. A. Regular employee review B. Special employee review C. No employee review required |
B. Special employee review
|
|
SA Donahue has been in the Coast Guard for 18
months and it’s the last day of February. A. Regular employee review B. Special employee review C. No employee review required |
A. Regular employee review
|
|
A special employee review was completed for
Master Chief Petty Officer Potan 5 months ago and it’s the last day of September. A. Regular employee review B. Special employee review C. No employee review required |
C. No employee review
required |
|
The most significant benefit of counseling is that it provides the evaluee with ________.
a. The evaluation marks b. An insight into how the supervisor views his or her performance c. An insight into how well he or she conducts himself/herself d. A road map for success |
d. A road map for success
|
|
Counseling must take place not later than ________ following the employee review period
ending date. e. 15 days f. 30 days g. 45 days h. 60 days |
f. 30 days
|
|
The ________counsels and reviews the evaluation with the evaluee.
a. Supervisor b. Marking Official c. Approving Official d. Commandant |
a. Supervisor
|
|
The evaluee is counseled after ________.
a. The Supervisor performs the initial employee review. b. The Marking Official has reviewed the employee evaluation. c. The Approving Official has reviewed the employee evaluation. d. The Commandant has reviewed the employee evaluation. |
c. The Approving Official has reviewed the employee evaluation.
|
|
Exercise with an elevated heart rate for no more than 10 minutes.
True or False? |
False
|
|
Practice deep breathing exercises.
True or False? |
True
|
|
Avoid eating breakfast to avoid revving up your nerve fiber.
True or False? |
False
|
|
Practice yoga.
True or False? |
True
|
|
Don’t think about change until it happens so you don’t worry ahead of
time. True or False? |
False
|
|
For stressful commutes, change commuting patterns.
True or False? |
True
|
|
Your role in preventing suicide is to determine whether the person will
actually commit suicide. True or False? |
False
|
|
If a person laughingly mentions a way of escaping his problems is to leave
this world, you have no need to worry since he’s just joking. True or False? |
False
|
|
Suicide can be prevented.
True or False? |
True
|
|
Asking open-ended questions is one way of getting a person to talk more
freely. True or False? |
True
|
|
Your willingness to talk openly about suicide can cause the person to
"clam up." True or False? |
False
|
|
If, in communicating with the person, you discover there is no specific
plan, you can safely assume it’s all talk. True or False? |
False
|
|
Under the Tuition Assistance program, enlisted members incur a service
duty obligation. True or False? |
False
|
|
To be eligible for Tuition Assistance, courses must result in accredited
college credit or contact hours. True or False? |
True
|
|
Coast Guard Foundation grants are only for active duty service personnel
in pay grades E2-E9 with three or more years of Coast Guard service. True or False? |
False
|
|
Enlisted members may be able to receive college credit for some of their
military learning experience. True or False? |
True
|
|
The Coast Guard Institute is the source for ALL rating course material.
True or False? |
True
|
|
The DANTES program offers a means of getting college credit for learning
outside of the classroom. True or False? |
True
|
|
No Coast Guard member or employee may authorize use of Coast Guard
property for other than official use. True or False? |
True
|
|
Excess property should be reported to the property officer.
True or False? |
True
|
|
A survey is an administrative action to determine how Coast Guard
property was lost, damaged, or destroyed. True or False? |
True
|
|
Reports of Survey are not required for property valued at less than $1,000.
True or False? |
False
|
|
Reports of Survey are prepared on CG Form CG-5323.
True or False? |
False
|
|
A unit commanding officer may order a survey even if one is not required.
True or False? |
True
|
|
It is the responsibility of the ________ to ensure training is properly recorded.
a. Unit Commanding Officer b. Coast Guard Institute c. Educational Services Officer d. Coast Guard member |
d. Coast Guard member
|
|
All training that members receive is recorded in ________.
a. Their personal training record b. “A” school records c. “C” school records d. Leadership school records |
a. Their personal training record
|
|
All training records can be viewed in ________.
a. USCG Training Manual b. UTS c. Direct Access d. The DANTES program |
c. Direct Access
|
|
Discrepancies in Direct Access training records should be reported to ________.
a. Educational Services Officer b. Unit Commanding Officer c. Coast Guard Institute d. Servicing Personnel Office |
d. Servicing Personnel Office
|
|
Non-resident and resident training are both used by the Coast Guard.
True or False? |
True
|
|
“C” schools are resident training courses.
True or False? |
True
|
|
Resident training courses have specific beginning and graduation dates.
True or False? |
True
|
|
Requests for resident courses must be formally submitted by your
immediate supervisor. True or False? |
False
|
|
Funds for travel to the school site must also be requested.
True or False? |
True
|
|
Electronic Training Requests (ETRs) cannot be submitted under selfservice
functions in Direct Access. True or False? |
True
|
|
In order for the PR to be valid, it must ________.
a. Be numbered properly b. Contain appropriation and accounting data c. Have a valid signature d. All of the above |
d. All of the above
|
|
The ________ is the written determination to restrict competition.
a. Statement of Essential Need b. Enclosure 23 to COMDTINST M4200.13F c. JOTFOC d. None of the above. |
c. JOTFOC
|
|
PRs for construction requests are limited to ________.
a. $1,800.00 b. $2,000.00 c. $2,200.00 d. $2,500.00 |
b. $2,000.00
|
|
The PR limit value for ordering supplies and services is ________.
a. $1,800.00 b. $2,000.00 c. $2,200.00 d. $2,500.00 |
d. $2,500.00
|
|
To be eligible for the Servicewide Exam (SWE), you must ________.
a. Be in your rate for a required period of time b. Have your CO's recommendation c. Have successfully completed the End of Course test d. All of the above |
d. All of the above
|
|
The reason(s) members are not ranked in the SWE process where they thought they should
be is usually because there was ________. a. Inaccurate award points b. Inaccurate sea duty points c. Missing data d. All of the above |
d. All of the above
|
|
Failure to carefully review your Personal Data Extract could possibly result in ________.
a. A reprimand from your supervisor b. Loss of pay c. Ineligibility for the SWE d. None of the above |
c. Ineligibility for the SWE
|
|
Your PDE includes ________.
a. Time in pay grade b. Time in service c. Creditable sea time d. All of the above |
d. All of the above
|
|
Any machine part, function, or process that could cause injury must have
safeguards in place. True or False? |
True
|
|
Hand and power tools are dangerous because most people don’t know how
to use them. True or False? |
False
|
|
A Closed Compartment Opening Request Form is required to open
confined spaces. True or False? |
False
|
|
Examples of permit-required confined spaces on cutters and other vessels
include wing tanks, fuel cells, APO spaces, and center tanks. True or False? |
False
|
|
Flywheels, shafts, generators, and clutches are all common moving parts
found in a machinery space. True or False? |
True
|
|
A lockout/tagout system is not necessary when deenergizing and security
electrical equipment. True or False? |
False
|
|
In certain instances, it is permissible for a person to work on electrical
equipment alone. True or False? |
False
|
|
Personal protective equipment is required when handling flammable or
toxic materials. True or False? |
True
|
|
Universal Precautions is an infection control approach developed by the
Coast Guard that assumes every direct contact with body fluids is potentially infectious. True or False? |
False
|
|
Completing a Man Aloft Chit before sending a person to work afloat is
optional. True or False? |
False
|
|
When using a stage for a person working over the side, rigging a manrope to one end is optional.
True or False? |
False
|
|
Each unit is required to have a written plan for the decontamination of
biohazardous material. True or False? |
True
|
|
Ascertain if a qualified person maintains and tests
the fire detection system. Checklist A. Aisles, Passageways, and Floors Checklist (Shore) B. Electrical Safety-Related Work Practices Checklist (Shore) C. Emergency Action Plan Checklist (Shore) D. Fire Department Operation Evaluation Checklist (Shore) E. Fixed Ladders Checklist (Shore) F. Hazard Communication Checklist (Shore) G. Machine and Moving Mechanical Parts Checklist (Shore) |
D. Fire Department Operation
Evaluation Checklist (Shore) |
|
Ensure that guards are in place for fan blades
whose periphery is less than 7 feet above the floor or working level. Checklist A. Aisles, Passageways, and Floors Checklist (Shore) B. Electrical Safety-Related Work Practices Checklist (Shore) C. Emergency Action Plan Checklist (Shore) D. Fire Department Operation Evaluation Checklist (Shore) E. Fixed Ladders Checklist (Shore) F. Hazard Communication Checklist (Shore) G. Machine and Moving Mechanical Parts Checklist (Shore) |
G. Machine and Moving
Mechanical Parts Checklist (Shore) |
|
Ascertain if MSDSs are maintained for all
applicable materials procured and utilized. Checklist A. Aisles, Passageways, and Floors Checklist (Shore) B. Electrical Safety-Related Work Practices Checklist (Shore) C. Emergency Action Plan Checklist (Shore) D. Fire Department Operation Evaluation Checklist (Shore) E. Fixed Ladders Checklist (Shore) F. Hazard Communication Checklist (Shore) G. Machine and Moving Mechanical Parts Checklist (Shore) |
F. Hazard Communication
Checklist (Shore) |
|
Check if ladders used by personnel working on live
conductors have non-conductive side rails. Checklist A. Aisles, Passageways, and Floors Checklist (Shore) B. Electrical Safety-Related Work Practices Checklist (Shore) C. Emergency Action Plan Checklist (Shore) D. Fire Department Operation Evaluation Checklist (Shore) E. Fixed Ladders Checklist (Shore) F. Hazard Communication Checklist (Shore) G. Machine and Moving Mechanical Parts Checklist (Shore) |
B. Electrical Safety-Related
Work Practices Checklist (Shore) |
|
Look to see if side rails used as climbing aids have
adequate gripping and are free of sharp edges. Checklist A. Aisles, Passageways, and Floors Checklist (Shore) B. Electrical Safety-Related Work Practices Checklist (Shore) C. Emergency Action Plan Checklist (Shore) D. Fire Department Operation Evaluation Checklist (Shore) E. Fixed Ladders Checklist (Shore) F. Hazard Communication Checklist (Shore) G. Machine and Moving Mechanical Parts Checklist (Shore) |
E. Fixed Ladders Checklist
(Shore) |
|
Check if all floors are free from protruding nails,
holes, splinters, and loose boards. Checklist A. Aisles, Passageways, and Floors Checklist (Shore) B. Electrical Safety-Related Work Practices Checklist (Shore) C. Emergency Action Plan Checklist (Shore) D. Fire Department Operation Evaluation Checklist (Shore) E. Fixed Ladders Checklist (Shore) F. Hazard Communication Checklist (Shore) G. Machine and Moving Mechanical Parts Checklist (Shore) |
A. Aisles, Passageways, and
Floors Checklist (Shore) |
|
Look to see if a plan is in place for specifying unit
actions in event of fires, medical emergencies, bomb threats, hazardous materials releases, etc Checklist A. Aisles, Passageways, and Floors Checklist (Shore) B. Electrical Safety-Related Work Practices Checklist (Shore) C. Emergency Action Plan Checklist (Shore) D. Fire Department Operation Evaluation Checklist (Shore) E. Fixed Ladders Checklist (Shore) F. Hazard Communication Checklist (Shore) G. Machine and Moving Mechanical Parts Checklist (Shore) |
C. Emergency Action Plan
Checklist (Shore) |
|
Ascertain if air flasks are recertified, including
hydrostatic testing every ten years. A. Electrical Safety Checklist (Vessel) B. Engineering Checklist (Vessel) C. Fire Safety Checklist (Vessel) D. Hazard Communication Checklist (Vessel) E. Ladder Safety Checklist (Vessel) F. Machine and Moving Mechanical Parts (Vessel) G. Potable Water Checklist (Vessel) |
B. Engineering Checklist
(Vessel) |
|
Ensure that the point of operation on cutters, shears,
and portable and power tools is guarded. Checklist A. Electrical Safety Checklist (Vessel) B. Engineering Checklist (Vessel) C. Fire Safety Checklist (Vessel) D. Hazard Communication Checklist (Vessel) E. Ladder Safety Checklist (Vessel) F. Machine and Moving Mechanical Parts (Vessel) G. Potable Water Checklist (Vessel) |
F. Machine and Moving
Mechanical Parts (Vessel) |
|
Ascertain if personnel are being made aware of
potential health hazards associated with particular materials/chemicals. Checklist A. Electrical Safety Checklist (Vessel) B. Engineering Checklist (Vessel) C. Fire Safety Checklist (Vessel) D. Hazard Communication Checklist (Vessel) E. Ladder Safety Checklist (Vessel) F. Machine and Moving Mechanical Parts (Vessel) G. Potable Water Checklist (Vessel) |
D. Hazard Communication
Checklist (Vessel) |
|
Check if backflow preventers are installed where
hoses are connected to the ship's potable water system. Checklist A. Electrical Safety Checklist (Vessel) B. Engineering Checklist (Vessel) C. Fire Safety Checklist (Vessel) D. Hazard Communication Checklist (Vessel) E. Ladder Safety Checklist (Vessel) F. Machine and Moving Mechanical Parts (Vessel) G. Potable Water Checklist (Vessel) |
G. Potable Water Checklist
(Vessel) |
|
Look to see if battle lanterns are installed and
properly directed in the vicinity of switchboards. Checklist A. Electrical Safety Checklist (Vessel) B. Engineering Checklist (Vessel) C. Fire Safety Checklist (Vessel) D. Hazard Communication Checklist (Vessel) E. Ladder Safety Checklist (Vessel) F. Machine and Moving Mechanical Parts (Vessel) G. Potable Water Checklist (Vessel) |
A. Electrical Safety Checklist
(Vessel) |
|
Ensure that luminescent tape is installed on the
lower half of the escape ladders. Checklist A. Electrical Safety Checklist (Vessel) B. Engineering Checklist (Vessel) C. Fire Safety Checklist (Vessel) D. Hazard Communication Checklist (Vessel) E. Ladder Safety Checklist (Vessel) F. Machine and Moving Mechanical Parts (Vessel) G. Potable Water Checklist (Vessel) |
E. Ladder Safety Checklist
(Vessel) |
|
Make sure that battle lanterns are being inspected,
tested, and the tests/inspections documented quarterly. Checklist A. Electrical Safety Checklist (Vessel) B. Engineering Checklist (Vessel) C. Fire Safety Checklist (Vessel) D. Hazard Communication Checklist (Vessel) E. Ladder Safety Checklist (Vessel) F. Machine and Moving Mechanical Parts (Vessel) G. Potable Water Checklist (Vessel) |
C. Fire Safety Checklist
(Vessel) |
|
Select the effective traits and behaviors of a good presenter.
1. Steady eye contact with audience members who appear most interested. 2. Avoid making gestures with hands. 3. Neat, professional appearance. 4. Avoid use of technical jargon. 5. Casual posture, with hands in pockets. 6. Same presentation pace, regardless of content. 7. Steady voice tone. 8. Enthusiastic attitude. |
2. Avoid making gestures with hands.
3. Neat, professional appearance. 4. Avoid use of technical jargon. 8. Enthusiastic attitude. |
|
You can search for forms by what two items listed:
1. Series 2. Number 3. Service 4. Title 5. Date created 6. Size |
2. Number
4. Title |
|
Written communication that is permanent, exceeds 25
pages, and must be reviewed annually and canceled when no longer applicable. Publications or Directives A. Manuals B. Notices C. Message–Type Notices D. Instructions |
A. Manuals
|
|
Written communication transmitted via the Coast Guard
Message System; contents are urgent in nature. Publications or Directives A. Manuals B. Notices C. Message–Type Notices D. Instructions |
C. Message–Type
Notices |
|
Written communication that has continuing reference value
or that requires continuing action. Publications or Directives A. Manuals B. Notices C. Message–Type Notices D. Instructions |
D. Instructions
|
|
Written communication that contains one-time or brief
information; automatically cancelled in 12 months if earlier cancellation date not specified. Publications or Directives A. Manuals B. Notices C. Message–Type Notices D. Instructions |
B. Notices
|
|
Based on your knowledge of directives, identify the correct directive component.
COMDT Indicates… A. SSIC B. Directive Type C. Originator D. Version |
C. Originator
|
|
Based on your knowledge of directives, identify the correct directive component.
INST Indicates… A. SSIC B. Directive Type C. Originator D. Version |
B. Directive Type
|
|
Based on your knowledge of directives, identify the correct directive component.
16750 Indicates… A. SSIC B. Directive Type C. Originator D. Version |
A. SSIC
|
|
Based on your knowledge of directives, identify the correct directive component.
8A Indicates… A. SSIC B. Directive Type C. Originator D. Version |
D. Version
|
|
To sign in to Direct Access, type ________.
a. www.uscg.mil/hq/psc/cghrms/vids/Signin.htm b. cgweb.uscg.mil/g-w/psc/Direct-Access/ c. www.uscg.mil/hq/psc/cghrms/vids/pw.htm d. www.uscg.mil/directaccess |
b. cgweb.uscg.mil/g-w/psc/Direct-Access/
|
|
Select three types of classified messages.
1. Secret 2. ALCOAST 3. ALCGCIV 4. Top Secret 5. Confidential |
1. Secret
4. Top Secret 5. Confidential |
|
The 21 leadership competencies are grouped into the three categories of:
1. Self, Aligning Values, and Working with Others 2. Self Awareness, Influencing Others, and Performance Values 3. Self, Working with Others, and Performance 4. Self Awareness, Influencing Others, and Performance |
3. Self, Working with Others, and Performance
|
|
Must be performing military police, guard,
shore patrol or investigative duties Choose from the following: Probable Cause Search Extra Military Instruction Responsibilities (EMI) Withholding of Privileges |
Probable Cause Search
|
|
Must be intended to improve specific task
performance Choose from the following: Probable Cause Search Extra Military Instruction Responsibilities (EMI) Withholding of Privileges |
EMI
|
|
For enforcing standards what might denying participation in special programs be considered?
Choose from the following: Probable Cause Search Extra Military Instruction Responsibilities (EMI) Withholding of Privileges |
Withholding of Privileges
|
|
Match the input information with the appropriate location on the CG-3307.
Entry CG-3307 Location A. COMDINST B. General-negative C. Performance and Discipline (P&D-7) D. Unit E. Seaman Jones was counseled for… |
E. Seaman Jones was counseled for…
|
|
Match the input information with the appropriate location on the CG-3307.
Reference CG-3307 Location A. COMDINST B. General-negative C. Performance and Discipline (P&D-7) D. Unit E. Seaman Jones was counseled for… |
A. COMDINST
|
|
Match the input information with the appropriate location on the CG-3307.
Responsible level CG-3307 Location A. COMDINST B. General-negative C. Performance and Discipline (P&D-7) D. Unit E. Seaman Jones was counseled for… |
D. Unit
|
|
Match the input information with the appropriate location on the CG-3307.
Entry type CG-3307 Location A. COMDINST B. General-negative C. Performance and Discipline (P&D-7) D. Unit E. Seaman Jones was counseled for… |
B. General-negative
|
|
Match the input information with the appropriate location on the CG-3307.
Date CG-3307 Location A. COMDINST B. General-negative C. Performance and Discipline (P&D-7) D. Unit E. Seaman Jones was counseled for… |
C. Performance and Discipline (P&D-7)
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To ensure your people are fully versed in advancement requirements, you would suggest they
become familiar with the requirements in COMDTINST M1000.6 (series). a. Chapter 1 (all) b. Chapter 5, Section C c. Chapter 8, Section D d. Chapter 9, Sections C & D |
b. Chapter 5, Section C
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Select two circumstances that could prevent promotion.
a. Prior promotion b. Approved retirement request c. Frocking d. Gender e. Confinement |
b. Approved retirement request
e. Confinement |
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Place these steps in the correct order.
1. Draft the citation. 2. Edit the citation. 3. Gather performance data on the Coast Guard member. 4. Submit the award package. 5. Develop a performance bullet. 6. Decide on the level of award. 7. Complete CG1650.pdf. |
3. Gather performance data on the Coast Guard member.
5. Develop a performance bullet. 6. Decide on the level of award. 1. Draft the citation. 2. Edit the citation. 7. Complete CG1650.pdf. 4. Submit the award package. |
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The intent of the Coast Guard Substance Abuse Prevention Program is to ________.
a. Promote rehabilitation of active duty members for further useful service in the Coast Guard b. Detect and separate those members who abuse drugs c. Reduce substance and alcohol abuse incidents in the Coast Guard d. All of the above |
d. All of the above
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Maintenance and Logistics Commands personnel assigned to detached duty as part of the
Substance Abuse Prevention Program are called ________. a. Health Services technicians b. Addiction Prevention Specialists c. Command Drug and Alcohol Representatives d. Assessment screeners |
b. Addiction Prevention Specialists
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Members will be processed for separation after ________.
a. Being involved in a third alcohol incident b. Violating their aftercare treatment plan c. Consuming alcohol the second time after receiving alcohol treatment d. All of the above |
d. All of the above
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Alcohol is involved but was not the causative factor for a
member’s undesirable behavior. Program A. Alcohol prevention and rehabilitation B. Alcohol incident C. Alcohol-related situation D. Self-referral |
C. Alcohol-related
situation |
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A member with an alcohol problem asks for help.
Program A. Alcohol prevention and rehabilitation B. Alcohol incident C. Alcohol-related situation D. Self-referral |
D. Self-referral
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Awareness education, outpatient and residential care.
Program A. Alcohol prevention and rehabilitation B. Alcohol incident C. Alcohol-related situation D. Self-referral |
A. Alcohol prevention
and rehabilitation |
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A member’s inability to perform assigned duties due to
alcohol. Program A. Alcohol prevention and rehabilitation B. Alcohol incident C. Alcohol-related situation D. Self-referral |
B. Alcohol incident
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Members are to receive Sexual Harassment Prevention (SHP) training semi-annually.
True or False? |
False
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It is permissible for a Coast Guard Chief Petty Officer to date a Navy 2nd
Lieutenant. True or False? |
False
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Members married to members cannot be assigned in the same chain of
command. True or False? |
True
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Hazing is permitted as long as there is consent to being hazed.
True or False? |
False
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The Equal Opportunity Specialist is tasked with investigating informal
discrimination complaints. True or False? |
True
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Diversity in the workforce impacts creative thinking and innovation.
True or False? |
True
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Member transferred from Ready Reserve
because of temporary disability. Reserve Status Duty Category A. Selected Reserve (SELRES) B. Individual Ready Reserve (IRR) C. Active Status List, Standby Reserve D. Inactive Status List, Standby Reserve E. RET-1 F. RET-2 G. Disability Retiree |
C. Active Status List, Standby
Reserve |
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Reserve member designated as essential to
initial contingency requirements. Reserve Status Duty Category A. Selected Reserve (SELRES) B. Individual Ready Reserve (IRR) C. Active Status List, Standby Reserve D. Inactive Status List, Standby Reserve E. RET-1 F. RET-2 G. Disability Retiree |
A. Selected Reserve (SELRES)
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Reserve member retired with 20 years of
service and a 45% disability. Reserve Status Duty Category A. Selected Reserve (SELRES) B. Individual Ready Reserve (IRR) C. Active Status List, Standby Reserve D. Inactive Status List, Standby Reserve E. RET-1 F. RET-2 G. Disability Retiree |
G. Disability Retiree
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Reserve member 62 years of age and
receiving retired pay. Reserve Status Duty Category A. Selected Reserve (SELRES) B. Individual Ready Reserve (IRR) C. Active Status List, Standby Reserve D. Inactive Status List, Standby Reserve E. RET-1 F. RET-2 G. Disability Retiree |
E. RET-1
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Trained member who previously served in the
Active forces. Reserve Status Duty Category A. Selected Reserve (SELRES) B. Individual Ready Reserve (IRR) C. Active Status List, Standby Reserve D. Inactive Status List, Standby Reserve E. RET-1 F. RET-2 G. Disability Retiree |
B. Individual Ready Reserve
(IRR) |
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Member with at least 20 years of service with
a 20% disability. Reserve Status Duty Category A. Selected Reserve (SELRES) B. Individual Ready Reserve (IRR) C. Active Status List, Standby Reserve D. Inactive Status List, Standby Reserve E. RET-1 F. RET-2 G. Disability Retiree |
D. Inactive Status List, Standby
Reserve |
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Reserve member under 60 years of age with
qualifying years for retired pay. Reserve Status Duty Category A. Selected Reserve (SELRES) B. Individual Ready Reserve (IRR) C. Active Status List, Standby Reserve D. Inactive Status List, Standby Reserve E. RET-1 F. RET-2 G. Disability Retiree |
F. RET-2
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Publications are listed in the DPRI ________.
a. Alphabetically b. By sponsors c. Numerically d. In random order |
a. Alphabetically
c. Numerically |
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The DPRI consists of _______ chapters.
a. Three b. Five c. Seven d. Nine |
c. Seven
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If unable to find a particular publication from the DPRI web site ________.
a. Contact your supervisor and request his or her help. b. Call the office, division, or department you think may have originated the publication. c. Write a letter to the Commandant (G-CIM-3). d. Locate the sponsor from Chapter 2 or 3 of the DPRI. |
d. Locate the sponsor from Chapter 2 or 3 of the DPRI.
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If your SDL symbol is not authorized for distribution, prepare a ________.
a. GS Form 4428 b. GS Form 4958 c. GS Form 5323 d. GS Form 5538 |
c. GS Form 5323
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Identify the systematic step number of the ORM process for each task.
Evaluate risk vs. gain. Assess risks. Monitor situation. Define mission tasks. Execute decision. Identify the hazards. Identify options. |
1 Define mission tasks.
2 Identify the hazards. 3 Assess risks. 4 Identify options. 5 Evaluate risk vs. gain. 6 Execute decision. 7 Monitor situation. |
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Mishap investigations are conducted to ________.
a. Determine who or what is to blame for the incident. b. Discipline those who were directly at fault. c. Chastise those who were indirectly at fault. d. Try to prevent reoccurrences of the incident. |
d. Try to prevent reoccurrences of the incident.
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Mishaps that are sufficiently serious to warrant formal Mishap Analysis Board action are
classified as ________. a. Class A mishaps. b. Class B mishaps. c. Class C mishaps. d. Class D mishaps. |
b. Class B mishaps.
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An incident occurred that resulted in property damage of approximately $150,000. This is
classified as a ________. a. Class A mishap. b. Class B mishap. c. Class C mishap. d. Class D mishap. |
c. Class C mishap.
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The Mishap Analysis Board appointed by the Commandant (G-KSE) is convened for a
________. a. Class A mishap. b. Class B mishap. c. Class C mishap. d. Class D mishap. |
a. Class A mishap.
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Petty Officer Hodby tripped on the last step of the ladder while coming down from the
bridge and broke her ankle. As her supervisor, you are required to fill out a mishap report. What level of Mishap is this event? a. Class A mishap b. Class B mishap c. Class C mishap d. Class D mishap |
c. Class C mishap
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Petty Officer Hodby tripped on the last step of the ladder while coming down from the
bridge and broke her ankle. As her supervisor, you are required to fill out a mishap report. Is a Mishap Report required? a. Yes b. No |
a. Yes
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Petty Officer Hodby tripped on the last step of the ladder while coming down from the
bridge and broke her ankle. As her supervisor, you are required to fill out a mishap report. Is it a reportable event? a. Yes b. No |
a. Yes
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This information must be included on all correspondence in the Coast Guard because it
serves as the file number. a. Date b. SSIC c. Subject d. Routing Symbol |
b. SSIC
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Select four acceptable characters in CGMS.
8. / 9. ( 10. + 11. ? 12. ~ 13. . 14.& |
8. /
9. ( 11. ? 13. . |