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130 Cards in this Set
- Front
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1. After some days of nasal trauma in breathing complaints of increasing difficulty, continuous pain and fever developed. What is your first diagnosis:
A. nasal fracture B. septal abscess C. nasal furuncle |
1. B
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2. A three-year old child is inattentive, has recurrent sinusitis and sleeps with open mouth, snoring. What is your diagnosis:
A. viral hearing impairment B. chronic rhinitis C. auditory tube catarrh D. adenoid hypertrophy |
2. D
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3. A 55-year old patient has a gradually developed nasal obstruction. Recently he has had recurrent nasal bleeding and nasal discharge. What is your first diagnosis:
A. ozaena B. nasal polyp C. malignant tumor D. deviated septum |
3. C
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4. A 8-year old boy has recurrent sinusitis, nasal obstruction, eye itching and watery nasal discharge. What is your first diagnosis:
A. maxillar sinusitis B. allergic rhinitis C. adenoid hypertrophy D. mucoepidermoid cyst |
4. B
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5. A 30-year old patient has a nasal obstruction, headache and sleeping disturbancy for a long time. His mouth gets dried up till morning.What is your first diagnosis:
A. alien body in the nasal cavity B. nasal polyp C. deviated septum D. malignant nasal tumor |
5. C
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6. A 10-day old infant has recurrent asphyxia-like attack during nutrition. What is your first diagnosis:
A. alien body in the nasal cavity B. nasal bone injury C. choanal atresia |
6. C
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7. What is not a characteristic sign of allergic rhinitis in chilhood.
A. watery rhinorrhoea B. periorbital wrinkles C. itching nose D. horizontal notch in the nasal skin E. epistaxis |
7. E
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8. What is the characterstic X-ray sign of the malignant nasal tumor.
A. inhomogen claudines over the sinus spreading towards the nasal cavity B. disappearing of the lateral nasal wall C. deviated septum |
8. A, B
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9. What is to be done in a case of well situated nasal fracture. The patient has no complaint of nasal obstruction. There is no epistaxis and discharge.
A. repostion B. nasal tamponade C. observation and rest D. Belloque-tamponade |
9. C
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10. A 38-year old woman has a complaint of pressing pain over the medial canthus and permanent purulent nasal discharge. What is your first diagnosis:
A. chronic ethmoiditis B. adenoid hypertrophy C. maxillar sinusitis D. malignant nasal tumor |
10. A
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11. Which one is not a nasal drop?
A. Afrin B. Nasivin C. Optichrom D. Naphasolin |
11. C
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12. Which one is not a mucolytic agent?
A. Pulmicort B. Paxirasol C. Taleum D. Sputopur E. Fluimucil |
12. A, C
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13. The essence of functional endoscopic sinus surgery (FESS) is:
A. to restore the function of the osteomeatal unit B. resection of deviated septum C. septum resection + adenotomy |
13. A
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14. A 5-year old child has put a glassball into his nasal cavity. How can you remove it?
A. with forceps B. with a screw C. with a button probe |
14. C
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15. What is to be done in case of nasal furuncle?
A. big dose of penicillin B. expression of pus C. bandage D. strict observation and hospitalisation |
15. A, C, D
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16. The typical place of nasal bleeding in childhood is
A. inferior nasal turbinate B. Kisselbach (Little) area C. posterior part of the nasal septum |
16. B
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17. A patient has not been able to smell for a year, he has pain over his right facial region, the right nasal cavity is obstructed and his hair is falling.
A. malignant tumor in the right side B. frontal sinusitis in the right side C. nasal polyposis and maxillar sinusitis in the right side D. hypaesthesia nervi olfactori |
17. C
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18. The characteristic symptoms of deviated nasal septum are
A. difficulty in nasal breathing B. nasal bleeding C. discharge on the posterior pharyngeal wall D. headache |
18. A,C,D
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19. Which diagnosis do you establish? The paitent,s main symptoms: fever, epileptiphorm fits, headache, nasal obstruction, purulent nasal discharge, pain over the facial region.
A. brain tumor + acute rhinitis B. epilepsy + allergic rhinitis C. pansinusitis + meningitis and encephalitis D. maxillar sinusitis + sepsis |
19. C
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20. A child has been treated for weeks with one sided purulent nasal discharge sinusitis and nasal obstruction. His status will not change. What is your next task?
A. direct the patient to otolaryngologist for sinus irrigation B. direct the patient to otolaryngologist with suspition of chronic alien body in the nose. C. direct the patient to otolaryngologist with suspition of malignant nasal tumor |
20. A,B
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21. Choose the incorrect answer: the main symptoms of Meniere disease are:
A. spasmodic tinnitis B. earache C. loss of hearing D. vertigo |
21. B
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22. The harmonic vestibular syndrom means:
A. the disease is of central origin B. vestibular excitatory status is present C. the direction of spontaneous nystagmus is opposite to the direction of gait and pastpointing |
22. C
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23. The dysharmonic vestibular syndrom means:
A. the disease is of peripheral origin B. the direction of spontaneous nystagmus is the same as the that of the gait and pastpointing C. vestibular laesion |
23. B
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24. An adult patient has sudden vertigo nausea and vomitus. Tuning fork tests are negative. Spontaneous III degree nystagmus towards the right side, pastpointing to the left. The patient can not stand in Romberg-position . What is your diagnosis?
A. mo.Meniere B. vestibular neuronitis in the left side C. otogen labyrinthitis in the right side |
24. B
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25. A 35-year old adult has complaints of one-sided tinnitus, hearing impairment and inbalance. Otolaryngological examination does not show alteration.What do you have to exclude first.
A. chronic otitis B. acustic neurinoma C. otosclerosis |
25. B
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26. How should caloric vestibular test be performed in the case of chronic otitis.
A. using air as a stimulus B. only cold vater can be used C. only rotatory test can be performed |
26. A
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27. List the spontaneous vestibular signs.
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27. -
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28. Besides intensive nausea, vomiting and vertigo what symptom indicates vestibular disease.
A. headache B. spontaneous nystagmus C. visual disturbances |
28. B
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29. What is to be done in case of developed inbalance during Streptomycin treatment.
A. stop the therapy, cochleovestibular examination B. continue the therapy with administration of vitamin-A and B. |
29. A
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30. After making a press over the tragus in a patient with chronic otitis sudden vertigo develops. What is your diagnosis?
A. circumscipt labyrintitis B. acute exacerbation of inflammatory process C. extended perforation of the tympanic membrane |
30. A
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31. What are the two main groups of audiological examination.
A. speech test B. objective audiometry C. pure tone audiometry D. subjective audiometry E. tympanometry |
31. B,D
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32. Choose the subjective audiological test.
A. speech test B. tuning fork test C. pure tone audiometry D. speech audiometry E. tympanometry |
32. A,B,C,D
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33. What is the result of Weber-test in person with normal hearing.
A. sound is heard in the midline B. sound is heard in the infinity C. sound is lateralised in the normal side D. sound is lateralised in the affected side E. sound is equally heard in both ears |
33. A,B,E
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34. What is the result of Rinne-test in person with normal hearing.
A. both sides positive B. both sides negative C. Rinne endless D. Rinne is lateralised towards the affected side E. Rinne is lateralised towards the normal side |
34. A
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35. What is the result of tuning fork tests in case of one-sided conductive loss of hearing.
A. Weber infinity B. Rinne positive both sides C. Weber lateralised towards the affected side D. Weber lateralised towards the normal side E. Rinne positive in the normal side and negative in the affected side |
35. C,E
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36. What is the stimulus in pure tone audiometry?
A. white noise B. narow band noise C. sinusoid tone D. click E. burst |
36. C
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37. What types of abnormal audiogram can be detected with pure tone audiometry?
A. the bone and air conductive treshold run together. B. the bone conductive threshold is normal but between the two lines there is an air-bone gap C. the air conductive threshold is lower than the bone conductive threshold D. the bone air conductive threshold has risen and between the two lines there is on air-bone gap E. recruitment can be detected |
37. A,B,C,D
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38. What is the early sign of chronic noise trauma in pure tone audiometry
A. dominant deep tone loss, rising curve B. air-bone gap C. notch at 4000 Hz D. high tone loss, apicocochlear type audiogram E. raised air conductive treshold at every frequency, pancochlear type of loss of hearing |
38. C
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39. What is to be do ne in case of a sudden loss of hearing?
A. otoscopy, if there is obstructing wax, remove it B. otoscopy, hearing examination C. hearing test one week later |
39. A,B,
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40. What is the possible method to detect recruitment phenomenon?
A. suprathreshold audiometry B. objective audiometry C. OAE D. masking E. Békéssy-audiometry |
40. A,E
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41. Put grades of the effects of noise in the organ of hearing in proper order.
A. permanent damage B. temporary shift/exhaustion C. adaptation |
41. C,B,A
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42. What are the methods of objective audiometry?
A. tympanometry, stapedial reflex test B. otoacustic emission test C. evoked response audiometry D. tests performed above the hearing threshold E. threshold audiometry |
42. A,B,C
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43. Which is the best test for quick screening of the hearing of a newborn child?
A. otoacustic emission B. brainstem evoked response audiometry C. tympanometry D. toy audiometry E. electrcochleagraphy |
43. A
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44. What is the otoacustic emission?
A. noise, caused by the outer hair cells B. noise, caused by the vibration of Reisner's membrane C. noise, caused by the movement of ossicular chain |
44. A
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45. The tympanometry is suitable for:
A. the measurement of hearing threshold B. to reveal the fluid whithin the tympanic cavity C. the measure of the pressure within the tympanic cavity D. the measurement of acustic impedance E. the reveal of disconnection of ossicular chain |
45. B,C,D,E
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46. At what age should children with damaged hearing be provided with aids?
A. at the age of 1 B. at the age of 2 C. at the begining of learning how to speak D. at the begining of schooling age E. immediately ofter revealing the hearing impairment |
46. E
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47. A young adult has fever, tonsillitis, lymph node are swollen in the neck, hepato- splenomegaly. What is the diagnosis?
A. acute follicular tonsillitis B. infectious mononucleosis C. peritonsillar abscess |
47. B,
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48. What is the 0 dB?
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48.
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49. What is the recruitment?
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49.
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50. What kind of disturbance causes recruitment?
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50
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51. The first choice antibiotic in case of acute follicular tonsillitis, except.
A. penicillin B. aminopenicillin C. cephalosporin D. fluorokinolon |
51. D
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52. The patient has one sided fur on the tonsil. What kind of diagnosis can you exclude?
A. tonsillar tumor B. tuberculosis C. angina ulceromembranacea D. follicular tonsillitis |
52. D
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53. What is the diagnosis: pain irradiates towards the ear, one sided odinophagia, trismus, painful swellings of the regional lymp nodes.
A. chronic tonsillitis B. peritonsillar abscess C. edema of tonsills caused by allergy |
53. B
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54. Give a list of systemic complications of chronic tonsillitis.
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54. -
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55. Which one is the incorrect answer! The absulute indications of tonsillectomy are:
A. febris rheumatica B. angina agranulocytotica C. perintonsillar abscess D. tonsillar sepsis |
55. B
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56. We set up the diagnosis of chronic tonsillitis according to the case history, local and general symptoms. Give some characteristic signs.
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56. -
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57. What are the lower and upper age limit of tonsillectomy?
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57. -
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58. All of the following are indications of tonsillo-adenotomy in childhood, except:
A. recurrent acute tonsillitis B. tonsillar hyperplasy without complaint C. tonsillar mycosis |
58. B
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59. After 5 days of tonsillectomy there is white fur in the tonsillar bed. What is the task?
A. since it is a purulent inflammation immediate antibiotics administration should be started B. the removal of the fur C. nothing, it is a normal sign of healing |
59. C
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60. After tonsillectomy the child has otalgia. What is the cause?
A. acute otitis media as complication after operation B. irradiating otalgia in the territory of glossopharyngeal innervation C. Estachian tube inflammation, paracentesis should be performed? |
60. B
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61. What are the primary paranasal sinuses?
A. maxillary sinus B. frontal sinus C. sphenoid sinus D. ethmoid cells |
61. A,D
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62. Which ones are the secondary paranasal sinuses?
A. maxillary sinus B. frontal sinus C. sphenoid sinus D. ethmoid cells |
62. B,C
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63. What are the criteria of classifying the paranasal sinuses into so called primary and secondary groups?
A. frequency of getting sick B. relationship to the skull base C. whether they are pre- or postnatal formations D. their size |
63. C
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64. The patient has a headache, increased discharge from the nose and nasal bleeding. The diagnosis can be:
A. allergic rhinitis B. paranasal sinusitis C. nasal or paranasal tumor D. polyps of nasal cavity |
64. B,C
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65. Enlist at least 4 factors which inreasingly cause paranasal sinus inflammation in childhood!
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65. - the relative thickeness of the paranasal sinuses
- the openings of the sinuses are narow - obstructed nasal airflow caused by the adenoid vegatation - the changing characteristic of the mucosa caused by endocrin changes - inclination to allergic reactions - frequent infections |
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66. In which cases you do not give local steroids? (nasal spray)
A. vasomotor rhinitis B. nasal polyposis C. purulent paranasal sinusitis D. rhinitis sicca E. rhinitis allergica |
66. C,D
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67. The patient has periorbital edema. What kind of paranasal sinus is first of all inflamed?
A. maxillary sinus B. frontal sinus C. ethmoidal cells D. sphenoidal sinus |
67. C
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68. Which one is the absolutely serosus salivary gland?
A. gl. parotis B. gl. submandibular C. gl. sublingual |
68. A
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69. Which one is the mixed sero-mucinous salivary gland?
A. gl. parotis B. gl. submandibular C. gl. sublingual |
69. B
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70. In which salivary gland does sialolyth mainly occur?
A. gl. parotis B. gl. submandibular C. gl. sublingual |
70. B
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71. What are the main signs of the sialolythiasis?
A. stone palpable through the skin of the neck B. pain in the territory of gland associated with meal C. swelling in the territory of gland independently of meal D. swelling in the territory of gland mainly during meal |
71. B,D,
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72. A cranial nerve is paralised due to a malignant tumor of a salivary gland. What is the name of the gland and the nerve?
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72. gl. parotis
n. facialis |
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73. The patient has facial nerve paralysis but the motion of forehead is intact. Do you think of malignant tumor of the parotid gland?
A. yes,because the tumor can cause partial nerve destruction, too B. no, because it is the sign of the central paralysis |
73. A
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74.You palpate tumor within the parotid gland. What can the cause be?
A. only parotid neoplasm B. metastatic process, because there are many lymph nodes within the gland C. both |
74. C
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75. In which salivary gland are lymph nodes.
A. parotid gland B. submandibular gland C. sublingual gland |
75. A
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76. What can the diagnosis be? Pain in the neck, difficulty in swallowing, during meal or after malodorous food regurgitation occurs.
A. achalasia B. insufficient closure of cardia C. oesophageal stricture after corrosive injury D. Zenker diverticulum |
76. D
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77. What is the most frequent place of the bronchial alien body?
A. right bronchus B. left bronchus C. there is no difference |
77. A
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78. The alien body mainly occurs in the right main bronchus. Why?
A. it is wider than the other B. its direction is deeper than that of the left one C. it rises from a higher part of trachea than the left one |
78. B
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79. What is the main danger of the floating alien body?
A.it can get into one of the bronchi any time B. after stopping directly the carina of the trachea, it can close both bronchi C. it can cause glottic spasm D. permanent irritation of tracheal mucosa can cause severe bleeding |
79. C
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80. Alien body is suspected in the lower respiratory tract in child. What is to be done in this case?
A. the patient may go home. If there should be any complaint, he is to show up at a check-up examination B. after X-ray film a check-up examination is needed C. the child is referred to hospital, the alien body should be excluded with a possibly performed bronchoscopy. |
80. C
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81. Out of the symptoms listed below which ones are those of Meniere’s disease:
A. tinnitus B. pancochlear loss of hearing C. feeling fullness in the ear D. sudden onset E. all of them A. true: 1,2,3 B. true: 1,2,3,4,5 C. true: 1,2,3,4 D. true: 1,4 E. true: 1,3,4,5 |
81./ E
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82. Obligatory symptoms of otosclerosis:
A. mixed type loss of hearing B. tinnitus C. painless onset D. all of them E. none of them A. true: 1,2,3 B. true: 1,2,3,4,5 C. true: 1,2,3,4 D. true: 1,4 E. true: 1,3,4,5 |
82./ C
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83. Sudden deafness can be caused by:
A. viral infection B. cerumen in the external auditory canal C. acoustic neurinoma D. ischaemia of the inner ear E. cervical spondylosis A. true: 1,2,3 B. true: 1,2,3,4,5 C. true: 1,2,3,4 D. true: 1,4 E. true: 1,3,4,5 |
83./ C
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84. Above what noise level is damping (earplugs or muffs) advisable?
A. above 40 dB B. above 60 dB C. above 80 dB D. above 100 dB E. independent of the noise level, because the inner ear is most sensitive to the noise at a frequency of 4000 Hz. |
84./ C
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85. It is characteristic of Lyme-disease:
A. Lyme described it in the last century as a sensory-neural loss of hearing B. caused by a spirochaeta (Borrelia burgdorferi) C. steroid therapy is advisable D. specific test for diagnosis is given by ELISA A. true: 1,2,3 B. true: 2 C. true: 1 D. true: 1,4 |
85. B
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86. The Gelle-probe (tuning fork test) is positive in:
A. otosclerosis B. cholesteatoma of the middle ear C. disfunction of the Eustachian tube D. fistula of the labyrinth |
86. A
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87. When does the patient not have an ear-ache?
A. perichondritis of the auricle B. herpes zoster oticus C. angina D. otosclerosis E. lymphadenitis colli |
87. D
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88. The Rinne-test is used to diagnose:
A. conductive loss of hearing B. perceptive loss of hearing C. perforation of the tympanic membrane D. disfunction of the Eustachian tube E. sudden deafness |
88. A
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89. Ear-wash is not advisable in case of:
A. acute otitis media B. alien body in the external ear canal C. chronic otitis media D. cerumen |
89. C
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90. If the patient feels pain during tragus-pressing or auricle-pulling, the diagnosis could be:
A. othaematoma B. furuncule or inflammation of the external ear canal C. mastoiditis D. otosclerosis |
90. B
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91. When do you think of mastoiditis, if the patient has had acute otitis media without making any progress for:
A. 2 days B. 6 days C. 10 days D. 3 weeks |
91. D
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92. The patient has had vertigo, loss of hearing and tinnitus for one hour. What is your diagnosis?
A. acoustic neurinoma B. vestibular neuritis C. vertebrobasilar insufficiency D. Meniere’s disease |
92. D
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93. The patient has loss of hearing in the right side, and lateralizes the Weber's test to the right side. What is your diagnosis?
A. otosclerosis in the left side B. cerumen in the ear canal in the right side C. Meniere's disease in the right side D. neural loss of hearing in the left side |
93. B
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94. Valsalva manoeuvre is used for testing:
A. otosclerosis B. to inflate the middle ear C. to detect nystagmus D. to exclude conductive hearing loss E. to detect the obstruction of the nose |
94. B
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95. What is the typical place for paracentezis?
A. anterior-inferior quadrant B. anterior-posterior quadrant C. superior-posterior quadrant D. superior-anterior quadrant |
95. A
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96. Fistula test is positive in:
A. Meniere’s disease B. otosclerosis C. commotion labyrinth D. cholesteatoma of the middle ear E. chronic suppuration of mucosa |
96. D
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97. What does short term Eustachian tube occlusion cause in the middle ear?
A. exsudate B. hematoma C. tympanic membrane adhesions D. acute inflammation E. transudate |
97. E
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98. A patient had acute peripheral vestibular lesion half a year ago. His walking is still unstable, after a sudden motion vertigo occurs. What is the therapy?
A. to increase the dosis of Daedalon B. to give sedatives continuously C. active moving-therapy for evoking compensation with less amount of sedatives |
98. C
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99. Which antibiotics are ototoxic?
A. Chloramphenicol B. Streptomycin C. Tetracyclin D. Gentamycin E. Kanamycin A. true: 1,2,3 B. true: 2,3,4 C. true: 1,4,5 D. true: 1,3,5 E. true: 2,4,5 |
99. E
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100. Peripheral facial paralysis can not occur in case of:
A. poliomyelitis B. herpes zoster oticus C. mastoiditis D. cholesteatoma E. otosclerosis |
100. E
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101. Perceptive loss of hearing can be caused by:
A. mumps B. chicken-pox C. measles D. meningitis serosa A. true: 1,2,3 B. true: 1,3 C. true: 1,3,4 D. true: 2,3,4 E. true: 3,4 |
101. C
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102. Therapy for diffuse otitis externa:
A. aural toilette, drying up B. ear drop containing antibiotic and steroid C. Valsalva method D. antiinflammatory ointment |
102. A,B,D
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103. Clinical symptoms of acute otitis media are:
A. ear-ache B. dilated blood vessels, bulging tympanic membrane C. sensorineural loss of hearing D. horisontal nystagmus in the opposite side E. all of them |
103. A,B
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104. The therapy of acute purulent otitis media is:
A. paracentesis B. nasal drops C. antibiotics D. ear drops |
104. A,B,C
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105. The symptoms of traumatic rupture of the tympanic membrane are:
A. regular shaped perforation B. haemorrhage around the perforation C. irregular shaped perforation D. purulent discharge |
105. B,C
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106. Choose the correct sign for the following diseases:
A. acute purulent otitis B. viral otitis C. secretory otitis media 1. haemorrhagic bleb formation on the eardrum 2. thickened, pale eardrum, unclear structure 3. bulging, reddish eardrum |
106. 1-B, 2-C, 3-A
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107. Long lasting snuffles, nasal discharge, loss of hearing, itching of the eye can be caused by:
A. allergic rhinitis B. viral infection C. alien body in the nose |
107. A
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108. Schuller's view shows:
A. ossicles B. middle ear C. mastoid process D. inner ear E. apex of the pyramid |
108. C
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109. Mastioditis can occur after the onset of acute otitis:
A. on the third day B. on the eighth day C. at the end of the third week D. on eighth-tenth week |
109. C
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110. Conductive loss of hearing can be caused by:
A. cerumen B. otitis C. labyrinth hydrops D. otosclerosis E. extreme noise |
110. A,B,D
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111. Perceptive loss of hearing can be caused by:
A. viral infection B. Meniere’s disease C. chronic otitis D. Streptomycin therapy |
111. A,B,D
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112. The symptoms of chronic otitis media are:
A. perceptive loss of hearing B. pain C. conductive loss of hearing D. discharge E. perforation of the tympanic membrane |
112. B,C,D,E
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113. The therapy of chronic otitis media is:
A. paracentesis B. radical operation C. tympanoplasty and mastoidectomy D. drying |
113. C
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114. The symptoms of otosclerosis are:
A. perforation B. conductive loss of hearing C. tinnitus D. Schwartze-sign |
114. B,C,D
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115. The surgical therapy of otosclerosis consists of:
A. making perforation B. making mobile connection between the incus and the oval window C. making connection between the incus and the round window |
115. B
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116. The complications of chronic otitis with cholesteatoma are:
A. labyrinthitis B. sinus thrombosis C. paralysis of the accessorial nerve D. paralysis of the trigeminal nerve E. paralysis of the facial nerve |
116. A,B,E
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117. Radical operation means:
A. radical removal of the elements of the middle ear B. making an externally controllable common cavity from the mastoid and tympanic cavity C. radical clearing of the entire cellular system of the mastoid D. turning the zygomatical process and the tympanic cavity into a common cavity |
117. B
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118. The principle of mastoidectomy
A. clearing of the antrum mastoideum B. cleaning of the aditus ad antrum C. cleaning the entire cellularity of mastoid D. total resection of the proc.mastoid |
118. C
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119. The intratemporal otogenic complications are
A. cerebral abscess B. labyrinthititis C. facial paresis D. mastoiditis |
119. B,C,D
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120. The intracranial otogenic complications are
A. meningitis B. subdural abscess C. thrombosis of sigmoid sinus D. petrositis |
120. A,B,C
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121. The characteristic symptoms of inflammatory laryngeal disesases are
A. pain B. coughing C. bleeding |
121. A,B
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122. Recognising the abnormal crying vocalization of the infant what do you think of.
A. inflammation B. mental retardation C. developmental abnormality |
122. C
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123. Which one of the following is appropriate as a dominant symptom of epiglottitis.
A. barking cough B. painful swallowing C. subfebrility |
123. B
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124. The cause of neck resistance changing simultaneously with breath is:
A. lymph node B. tumor C. laryngocele |
124. C
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125. The cause of repetitive mis-swallowing is:
A. pharyngeal innervatory disturbance B. tumor C. inflammation |
125. A
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126. The possible cause of abrupt hoarseness is
A. Inflammation B. tumor C. paresis of the nervus recurrens |
126. A,C
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127. Opening of the respiratory canal at tracheotomy should be at the:
A. ligamentum conicum B. cricoid cartilage C. between the second and third tracheal cartilages |
127. C
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128. The possible cause of gradual hoarseness is
A. psychogenic disturbance B. tumor C. inflammation |
128. B
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129. The laryngeal abnormality, resulting from vocal cord overstrain, can be:
A. laryngeal oedema B. laryngeal nodulus C. hyperkatosis of the vocal cords |
129. B
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130. The characteristic feature resulting from laryngeal tbc. is
A. oedema B. nervus recurrens paresis C. monochorditis |
130. C
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