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124 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

Conditions for using secondary or grass runway

a) day only


b) pilot maintains terrain clearance visually until established on a departure procedure for that Aerodrome


c) aircraft maintains an adequate climb gradient to ensure obstacle clearance

Calculate rate of climb required (VSI)

Gradient percent x ground speed (kt) x 1.013

Calculate feet per nautical mile (ft/NM)

VSI (ft/min) x 60/ ground speed (kt)

Unless otherwise specified the SID performance requirements are :

a) make good a minimum climb gradient of 3.3% or 200ft per NM


b) climb on runway centerline to 400ft above DER before commencing a turn


c) max IAS for turns during SID procedures assuming average 15 degrees AoB


Cat A 120kts


Cat B 165kts


Cat C 265kts


Cat D/DL 290kts

IFR Take off minima

a) At or above the weather minima for IFR take off detailed in the operational data or that Aerodrome or


b) if weather minima for IFR take off are not detailed for a particular Aerodrome, a ceiling of at least 300ft and above 1500m visibility

Reduced take off minima - zero cloud ceiling and visibility at or above 800m provided that ?

a) the runway to be used has centerline marking or centerline lighting and


b) take off weather visibility is confirmed by the pilot by observation of the runway centerline marking or lighting and


c) AD 2 allows for the reduced take off minima to be used


d) any obstacle in the take off flight path are taken into account


e) if the aircraft is a two engine propeller-driven aeroplane, it is equipped with an operative auto feather or auto coarsen system

Provisions for take off below reduced take off minima ?

a) comply with provisions of CAR 121.163, 125.163 or 135.163 (both pilots approved and procedure for measuring vis is acceptable)


b) a serviceable secondary power supply and automatic switch over is available

Minimum permissible holding altitude ?

At least 1000ft above obstacles and 2000ft above designated mountainous zones and 5nm laterally

Holding pattern speed 14000ft and below? And Turbulent conditions

230kts (170kt Cat A and B only)


T: 280kt

Holding pattern speed 14000ft up to 20000ft? And Turbulent conditions

240kt


T: lesser of 280kts or M0.8

Holding pattern speed 20000ft up to 34000ft? And Turbulent conditions

265kt


T: lesser of 280kts or M0.8

Holding pattern speed 34000ft and above? And Turbulent conditions

M0.83


T: M0.83

Holding - Outbound timing 14000ft or below? And above ?

14000ft or below - 1 min


Above 14000ft - 1.5 min

Sector 1 Entry Procedure?

Parallel Entry


(a) on reaching the holding fix, the aircraft is turned to the reciprocal of the holding pattern inbound track for the appropriate period of time or until reaching the limiting outbound distance, if published; then


(b) the aircraft is turned onto the holding side to intercept the inbound track until reaching the fix; and then


(c) the aircraft is turned to follow the holding pattern

Sector 2 Entry Procedures?

Offset Entry


(a) on reaching the holding fix, the aircraft is turned onto a heading to make good a track making an angle of 30° from the reciprocal of the inbound track on the holding side; then


(b) the aircraft is flown outbound:(i) for the appropriate period of time, or(ii) until the appropriate limiting distance is attained, where distance is specified; or(iii) where a limiting radial is also specified, either by the limiting DME distance or the limiting radial, whichever comes first; then


(c) the aircraft is turned to intercept the inbound holding track until reaching the holding fix; and then


(d) the aircraft is turned to follow the holding pattern.

Sector 3 Entry Procedure?

Direct Entry


When entering a holding pattern from Sector 3, on reaching the holding fix the aircraft is turned to follow the holding pattern.

Instrument Approach Speeds


Initial approach fix?

b) 120-180 kts


c) 160-240kts

Instrument Approach Speeds


Final approach fix?



b) 85-130kts


c) 115-160kts

Maximum Visual Circling Speed?

b) 135kts


c) 180kts

Maximum Missed Approach Speed?

b)150kts


c) 240kt

How is a procedure turn completed?

A 45° procedure turn consists of a specified outbound track and timing from the facility or fix, a 45° turn away from the outbound track for one minute from the start of the turn for categories A and B aircraft (one minute 15 seconds for categories C aircraft), followed by a 180° turn in the opposite direction to intercept the inbound track. An 80° procedure turn may also be used when a 45° procedure turn is depicted.




or




An 80° procedure turn consists of a specified outbound track and timing from the facility or fix, an 80° turn away from the outbound track, followed by a 260° turn in the opposite direction to intercept the inbound track.

How is a base turn completed?

A base turn consists of a specified outbound track and timing from a facility, followed by a turn to intercept the inbound track

Requirements for conducting a DME arc?

a) must not exceed a lead of 2nm for turn onto final approach


b) track of the aircraft must intersect arc to join


c)must not descend below minimum altitude for arc


d) only once established on the arc can you descent to arc msa


e) clearance is 1000ft obstacle clearance and 2.5 nm distance on arc


f) only flown when instructed by atc



When can you descend below MDA or DA?

(a) the aircraft is continuously in a position from which a descent to a landing on the intended runway can be made at a normal rate of descent using normal manoeuvres that will allow touchdown to occur within the touchdown zone of the runway of intended landing; and




(b) on a circling approach, maintain the aircraft within the appropriate circling area; and




(c) the flight visibility is not less than the visibility prescribed for the instrument approach being used; and




(d) at least one of the following visual references for the intended runway is distinctly visible and identifiable to the pilot:(i) the approach lighting system; or(ii) the threshold markings; or(iii) the threshold lights; or(iv) the runway-end identification lights; or(v) the visual approach slope indicator; or(vi) the touchdown zone or touch down zone markings; or(vii) the touchdown zone lights; or(viii) the runway or runway markings; or(ix) the runway lights.

What are the reasons for a missed approach?

(a) if, at the missed approach point, including the specified DA or DH, the pilot has not established visual reference with any portion of the runway or visual landing aids in terms of the meteorological minima prescribed for the approach; or




(b) an identifiable part of the aerodrome is not distinctly visible to the pilot during a circling manoeuvre at or above MDA; or




(c) at any time during a final approach when directed by ATC

What is the Missed approach gradient and obstacle clearance?

2.5% and 98ft

What is the Cat B circling area?

2.66nm

What is the Cat C circling area?

4.2nm

What are the conditions for conducting a visual approach?

(a) can maintain visual reference to the terrain; and




(b) the ceiling is not below the initial approach level; or




(c) the pilot has reasonable assurance at the initial approach level or at any time during the instrument approach procedure that the meteorological conditions will permit a visual approach and landing to be accomplished.

What are the conditions for a night visual approach?

It is essential that the pilot has the runway lights in sight. Sighting only of the aerodrome beacon, REIL or approach lights is insufficient.

How do you calculate a Remote QNH?

If an accurate QNH is not available from an unattended aerodrome, the QNH from another aerodrome may be used, but a correction must be made to the promulgated MDA as follows:




(a) Add 5ft to the MDA for every 1NM in excess of 5NM from the source of the QNH.




Example: For an instrument approach to Wairoa using Napier QNH, add 150 ft to MDA.




(Wairoa to Napier = 35 NM; therefore 35 NM – 5 = 30 x 5 = 150 ft)

What is the IFR Alternate Aerodrome Minima?

(a) For a precision approach procedure, ceiling of 600 ft or 200 ft above DA/DH, whichever is the higher, and visibility of 3000 m or 1000 m more than the prescribed minimum, whichever is the greater.




(b) For a non-precision approach procedure, ceiling of 800 ft or 200 ft above MDA, whichever is the higher, and visibility of 4000 m or 1500 m more than the prescribed minimum, whichever is the greater.




(c) If no instrument approach procedure is published for the alternate aerodrome, the ceiling and visibility minima prescribed under CAR Part 91 Subpart D for an air operation under VFR, for descent below the minimum altitude for IFR flight prescribed under CAR 91.423

Departure speed and AoB?

Cat B 165kts 15 degrees


Cat C 265kts 15 degrees

Obstacle clearance ?

Cat B - 295ft


Cat C - 394 ft

Min climb gradient on a SID if not published?

3.3% or 200ft/Nm

Comms failure IFR assigned level and assigned heading ?

Maintain last assigned level for 5 minutes the climb to maintain level on specified flight plan.


Maintain last assigned vector for 2 minutes the climb to maintain level on specified flight plan.

Comms failure when being vectored?

Maintain last assigned vector for 2 minutes

What is RNP?

Required Navigational Performace. RNP is intended to characterize an airspace through a statement of the navigation performance accuracy to be achieved within that airspace. The type to be expected 95 % of the time.

Aqua planing equation?

9 x sq root of tire pressure in pounds per square inch for Take off


7.6 x square root of tire pressure in pounds per square inch for landing

1.Turning through an intercept, how to calculate how long that will take?
1/60. 3 degrees per second
3. Load factor in steep turn
1.4G in 45 degree turn and 2 G in 60 degree turn


RestrictedArea? Who can enter and where would you find this information about the priorapproval from administrating.
3.1.2 Aircraft are not prohibited from operating within arestricted area, but may only enter an active restricted area with the priorapproval of the designated administering authority. Pilots must not enter anactive restricted area in anticipation of entry approval. Restricted areas aredepicted on charts with the designation R (followed by a number), as the prefixNZ is omitted on aeronautical charts to reduce clutter.Phone numbers in ENR 5.1 Table
DME failure on arc what would you do? Same ascomms failure?
Comms failure – lights on, 7600, Transmitting blind, keep alook out, last assigned speed and altitude 1 min or radar vector 2 min.
Howdo you know you’ve intercepted the correct glideslope for ILS?

Descent normal 3 degrees, check spot heights, confirm withlocaliser heights.Always try and intercept from below,

12. What does RVR stand for? What do the three numbersmean? When does RVR begin?
Reported when Runway Visual Range (RVR) or visibility isless than 1500 m. RVR is reported for the touchdown zone (TDZ) of the runway(s)in use. The runway designator is reported followed by the RVR, e.g. R05/1400.If the RVR during the 10 minutes before the observation time shows a distinctupward or downward tendency, “U” for upward or “D” for downward is added. Whenit is not possible to determine the tendency “N” is used. When the RVR exceeds2000 m it is reported as P2000 and when it is less than 50 m it is reported asM0050Touch Down – Mid Point – Stop End

ATIS? True or Magnetic?


ATIS and take off and landing reports are the only ones inMAGNETIC the rest are TRUEAll AGL except GRAFOR

What is Sigmet and what is its validity?


Information concerning the occurrence of potentially hazardous weather conditions for New Zealand and adjacent FIR. Thunderstorms:obscured, embedded, frequent or in a squall line, with or without hail (b)Severe turbulence (c) Volcanic ash cloud (d) Tropical cyclone (e) Severe icing— in cloud or due to freezing rain (f) Severe mountain waves (g) Heavy sandstorms or dust storms (h) Radioactive cloud

ILS can youdescend below DA what about MDA?


(a) the aircraft iscontinuously in a position from which a descent to a landing on the intendedrunway can be made at a normal rate of descent using normal manoeuvres thatwill allow touchdown to occur within the touchdown zone of the runway ofintended landing; and (b) on a circlingapproach, maintain the aircraft within the appropriate circling area; and (c) the flight visibility is not less than the visibilityprescribed for the instrument approach being used; and (d) at least one of the following visual references for theintended runway is distinctly visible and identifiable to the pilot: (i) theapproach lighting system; or (ii) the threshold markings; or (iii) thethreshold lights; or (iv) the runway-end identification lights; or (v) thevisual approach slope indicator; or (vi) the touchdown zone or touch down zonemarkings; or (vii) the touchdown zone lights; or (viii) the runway or runwaymarkings; or (ix) the runway light
Separation for wake turbulence M, H and Light includingboth distance and times
Arriving and Departing A380 to Medium is 3 minHeavy to Medium is 2 minMedium to Light is 2 minArrivingA380 to Medium 3 minHeavy to Medium 2minMedium to Light 3 minDistanceA380 to Medium 7nm Heavy to Medium 5nmMedium to Light 5nm

Lowest IFR flight level?


Obstacle Clearance is 1000ft or 2000ft and 5nm.
What does EDTO stand for?
Extended Diversion Time Operations a rule which permits twin engine aircrafts to fly routeswhich, at some point, is more than 60 minutes flying time away from the nearestairport suitable for emergency landing.
Established on 10nm arc, I got asked how many nm on the arcif I were to fly 360
60 miles
10nm arc how many degrees = 1nm
6 degrees
12nm arc how many degrees = 1nm
5 degrees
15nm arc how many degrees = 1nm
4 degrees
13nm arch in Auckland how many degrees = 1nm
4.6 degrees


What is a trend type forecast?
Trend forecasts for selected aerodromes indicate when significant changes are likely to occur during the next two hours. The TREND replaces the TAF during the two-hour validity period of the TREND.

When must you nominate an alternate?


Must list an alternate unless:




Place of intended landing has a standardinstrument approach andAt the time of submitting flightplan, aerodrome conditions for at least 1 hour before and 1 hour after are atleast 1000 feet above the minimum published in the applicable AIP for theinstrument procedure likely to be used; and (ii) visibility will be at least 5km, or 2 km more than the minimum published in the applicable AIP, whichever isthe greater.

Wherecan you get the Alt minima for one you need to use?

Jepps - on each aerodrome chart



Whats CPDLC? How does it work?
The CPDLC (Controller Pilot Data Link Communications) applicationprovides air-ground data communication for the ATC service. Using VHFbands for line of sight communications or HF bands for long distance communication.

How many nm either side of track for terrain clearance on standard IFR route?


5nm either side

Decode METAR what are the these //
// present weather is temporarily inoperative e.g SH
DecodeMETAR what are the these ///
/// when cloud is detected but sensor can not detect TCU orCB
DecodeMETAR what are the these ////
//// visibility not reported probably due to faulty sensor
DecodeMETAR what are the these ////////
///////// cloud not reported due to faulty sensor

Howlong and distance will it take to do a rate 1 turn 360 degrees t 200 kts?


2 min
DecodeMETAR, what is varying wind?
When the direction varies by 60 degrees or more, the extremedirections are given, separated by the letter V e.g. 260V330
Hold speeds are they the same world wide?
No. ICAO has there own but FAA etc have specific ones.
Windis 250/30kts whats the crosswind?
20 degrees off runway which is 1/3 of a clock face so 1/3 ofwind = 10kts Crosswind
explain 1 in 60 rule
In air navigation, the 1 in 60 rule is a rule of thumbwhich states that if a pilot has travelled sixty miles then an error in trackof one mile isapproximately a 1° error in heading,
howmany miles flow in the hold?

GS/60 Eg. 170kts/60 =2.8nm/min1 min outbound leg below 14000ft


4 min total per hold = 4x2.8 – 11.2 nm flown1


50/60 = 2.5nm/min


160/60= 2.7nm/min


170kts/60 =2.8nm/min

What is the minimum fuel for IFR flight?
Whether with an alternate or not must carry 30min of HoldingFuel at 1500ft
Screen Height - Wet or Dry?
Screen Height: Designated Height to be reached by the end ofthe clearway should an engine failure occur and signifies the end of the TODA. Wet15ft Dry 35ft
Howmany seconds for 120 degree turn?
40 seconds
Areradials Magnetic or true tracks on the Jepp charts?
Magnetic
Whatare the SAT and TAT? How do they relate?
Total Air Temperature and Static Air Temperature. TAT is SATplus Ram Rise. Ram air is proportional to aircraft speed. SAT is unaffected byspeed of air aircraft moves through it.
Tosave fuel in a hold do you fly longer or shorter legs?
Answer is longer legs because there will be less turns,turning increases burn. v

Longitude and Latitude of aerodrome?


-37 degree S 174.79 E

Whatis D- link?
Is the Data link that provides data derived from on board navigation,position fixing, four dimension position as well as aircraft identification tothe Automatic Dependent Surveillance (ADS).
Pressure in hydraulic pump?
A hydraulic pump is amechanical device that converts mechanical power into hydraulic energy. Itgenerates flow with enough power to overcome pressure induced by the load. ...It produces the flow necessary for the development of pressure which is afunction of resistance to fluid flow in the system
Relationshipbetween density and pressure?
Density is directly proportional to pressure andindirectly proportional to temperature
What is Mcrit?
The critical MachNumber (Mcr or Mcrit) of anaircraft is the lowest Mach number at which the airflow over any part of theaircraft reaches the speed of sound but does not exceed it.
Volume of a sphere?
Volume of sphere = 4/3 πr³

Volume of cube


Volume of a cube = a³
Area of a triangle?
Area ofa triangle = h x b/2
Purposeof final approach fix?
(a) Apilot-in-command of an aeroplane must not continue an instrument approach to anaerodrome past the final approach fix or, if a final approach fix is not used,must not commence the final approach segment of the instrument approachprocedure if, before passing the final approach fix or before commencing thefinal approach segment, current meteorological information indicates that thevisibility at the aerodrome is less than the minimum visibility published inthe applicable AIP for the instrument approach procedure being used.
Differencebetween NDB and VOR?
Both radio beacons but function differently. VOR projects360 separate radio beams. Receiver tells you which radial you are on where as NDBis far simpler and cheaper. When you tune in to a NDB frequency, the needle points towardsthe NDB.
Definitionof VA? And my aircraft?

Design Maximum Manouevering Speed


180kts

Fuelremaining in hold? How many laps?
Incorporate Reserve, approach and landing, alternates etc.
Speedchanges on IFR plan when would you need to notify ATC?
Greater than 5% or 0.01 Mach number
Trackor heading in a hold? Why do we do rate 1 turns?
Heading and we do Rate 1 turns so that our flying conformsto a certain procedure, its predictive for controllers and other pilots
Isatemp at FL300?
15 - (30x2)= 15 – 60= -45
FL380 is TAS higher or lower than IAS? If weclimb at constant IAS or TAS or mach what happens to others?

I -> T -> M


Constant IAS, during a climb MACH and TAS increase


I <- T <- M


Constant MACH no. TAS and IAS both decrease.

Balancedfield length?
ASDA=TODAAny variation in v1 results in higher distancerequired to take off.Clearway is also the end of the stopway
MEA?
MEA -is the minimum altitude that will guarantee signalof navigation aids along the route, give you two way communication with ATC andprovide obstacle clearance. 1000ft above terrain, 2000ft abovemountainous areas

MSA?




MSA - MSA is the minimum safe altitude within a 25 nm (NauticalMile) radius of a navigational aid. MSA will give you 1000 ft separation fromthe highest terrain within that sector
MRA?
MRA –is the lowest altitude on an airway segment where an aircraft can beassured of receiving signals from ground-based navigational aids. Typically,the greater the distance between navigation aids, the higher the MRA.
Comfailure on ILS what you do?
Iflocaliser available use this, if not
if you are on the line on a vorsec sector can you usehigher?

VORSEC charts show thehigher of the minimum safe altitude or the minimum reception altitude of thenominated navigation aids within sectors that are defined radials and DMEdistances from a VOR. Their purpose is to provide obstacle clearance and goodreception information within 40nm of the VOR.



Must use higher climb gradient but lower sector altitudeapplies.


What does VC stand for?
Vicinity

What does MI stand for?

Shallow

What does BC stand for?

Patches

What does PR stand for?

Partial (Covering parts of the aerodrome)

What does DR stand for?

Low drifting

What does GS stand for?

Small Hail or snow Pellets

What does GR stand for?

Hail

What does SG stand for?

Snow Grains

What does BR stand for?

Mist

What does DU stand for?

Widespread Dust

What does PO stand for?

Dust/sand whirls

What does FC stand for?

Funnel clouds, tornadoes or waterspouts

When does a SID start?

16ft from the Departure end of the runway

What would a VOR read at 6000ft above it?

1nm

What do you require to be IFR current ?

Previous 12 months -Completed a check and It is certified in the log book


Previous 3 months - completed 3 hours instrument time of which at least 1 hour is instrument flight time


- carried out 3 instrument approaches of which one can be in a synthetic trainer must have been similar navigation system to your type


What is essential traffic?

that controlled traffic to which the provision of separation is applicable, but which, in relation to a particular controlled flight, is not separated by the prescribed minima. Essential traffic includes flights which are maintaining own separation in VMC, and flights affected as a result of an aircraft responding to a TCAS RA

How many passengers on ATR

68

How many passengers on Q300?

50

Who is the CEO

Greg Foran - 3 feb 2020

How many degrees per second medium level turn?

3.5 degrees per second

What’s the air nz share price?

1.79

How many countries and regional destinations?

15 countries 21 regional

What are the air nz values ?

Welcome as a friend


Be Yourself, Just act natural


Can do! Get stuck in and make it happen


Share your New Zealand

Who is the Chief Financial Officer

Jeff McDowall

Who is the chief of operations and standards?

Captain David Morgan