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232 Cards in this Set

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Upon returning to the station after an alarm, to reduce the risk of turbo seizure, the apparatus diesel motor should be:

A. Shut down and allowed to cool.
B. Left at idle to cool before shutdown.
C. Left sitting outside for a period.
D. Operated normally.
B.
All portable engines (saws, generators, etc.) should be started and permitted to warm up at least:

A. Periodically.
B. Monthly.
C. Weekly.
D. Daily.
C.
Checking oil, water and fuel levels, tires, and visible and audible warning signals is normally considered to be part of:
A. Daily maintenance.
B. Weekly repair.
C. Daily repair.
D. Periodic maintenance.
A.
On the apparatus, a clean engine and clean funcional parts permit proper:

A. Maintenance.
B. Operation.
C. Inspection.
D. Public relations.
C.
Bleeding moisture from air brake air tanks is normally done at least:

A. Daily.
B. Weekly.
C. Periodically.
D. None of the above.
B.
The servicing of air filters should be carried out:

A During required service testing.
B. As conditions require.
C. Annually.
D. Biannually.
B.
Service testing of all fire hose is done:

A. Monthly
B. Twince annually.
C. Annually.
D. Biannually.
C.
_____ is defined as "keeping something in a state of usefulness or readiness."

A. Repair
B. Maintenance
C. Servicing
D. In-service
B.
A lower-than-minimum reading on the water temperature gauge can be caused by:

A. Water level in radiator that is too low.
B. Gauge or thermostat being defective.
C. Radiator fill valve closed.
D. Auxiliary cooling valve closed.
B.
Removing all appliances from the apparatus and cleaning, if necessary, are considered part of:
A. Apparatus maintenance.
B. Equipment maintenance.
C. Apparatus servicing.
D. Equipment testing.
B.
Records concerning lubrication and other servicing are more meaningful if based on a ____ frequency.

A. time
B. miles
C. pumping
D. All of the above
A.
Checking for voltage, specific gravity and corrosion are all steps in inspecting:

A. Electrical components.
B. Voltage regulators.
C. Electrical motors.
D. the battery.
D.
Proper ______ is one of the prime objectives of a good maintenance program.

A. testing
B. lubrication
C. Inspection
D. Record keeping
B.
In a hydraulic system, the medium used to transmit force is:

A. Hose/piping.
B. A positive displacement pump.
C. Hydraulic oil.
D. A hydraulic piston.
C.
Relief valves are used in hydraulilc systems for aerial devices to:

A. Stop the aerial from attaining full stroke.
B. Protect components that could be damaged.
C. Allow for acclimation of live loads.
D. Maintain suitable hydraulic fluid temperature.
B.
The______ valve directs hydraulic fluid from one hydraulic circuit to another.

A. pilot-operated check
B. Control
C. diverter
D. stack
C.
What is/are used tocontrol the flow of hydraulic fluid within an aerial hydraulic circuit?

A. Hydraulic swivel
B. Return hydrualic pump
C. Main hydraulic pump
D. Valves
D.
A double-acting hydraulic cylinder is different from a standard hydraulic cylinder because the double-acting hydraulic cylinder:

A. is capable of receiving pressurized oil from both sides of the piston.
B. generates twice the force at the same pressures.
C. performs both hoisting and extending functions.
D. creates pressure on both sides of the piston tube.
A.
Auxiliary hydraulic pumps are used:

A. for long-term operations.
B. as a supplement to the main pump.
C. to elevate, extend, and retrack the aerial device.
D. in the event of main hydraulic pump failure.`
D.
Which of the following is not a standard type of activation switch for engaging a power take off?

A. Spring loaded
B. Electronically controlled
C. Hydraulically controlled
D. Pneumatically operated
A.
Which of the following is not one of the three ways that hedaulically operated stabilizers/outriggers move into position?

A. Extend straight down
B. Circle type/rotate out-down
C. Fulcrum type/swing down
D. Box type/extend out-down
B.
Applying grease to exposed sliding srufaces is effective in preventing:
A. immediate ice adhesion.
B. ladder locks from sticking.
C. dirt/grime build-up.
D. improper alignment.
A.
To keep fire apparatus in good operating condition, maintenance must be performed in accordance with:

A. Occupational Safety and Health Administraion requirements.
B. manufacturer's recommendations.
C. National Transportation Safety Board requirements.
D. the engine service classification system.
B.
A fluttering oil pressure gauge may indicat that:

A. there is too much oil in the engine.
B. the oil is contaminated with water.
C. the oil level is low.
D. the oil is cold.
C.
What is the recommended time schedule for checking the crankcase oil?

A. Daily
B. Monthly
C. Weekly
D. Periodically
A.
Which NFPA standard requires that maintenance records for aerial devices be available during annual tests?

A. NFPA 1904
B. NFPA 1002
C. NFPA 1914
D. NFPA 1001
C.
The cables used for extension and retraction of aerial devices are usually of what type?
A. High carbon aircraft-type cable
B. Composite band-type cable
C. High carbon content cable
D. Galvanized aircraft-type cable
D.
According to NFPA standards, all hydraulic system hoses must have a nominal safety ratio of:

A. 4:1
B. 2:1
C. 6:1
D. 5:1
A.
Which is not a method of locking stabililzers/outriggers in the deployed position?

A. Holding valves
B. Interlocks
C. Wedges
D. Pins
C.
The best place to start a maintenance inspection of an aerial device is with the:

A. hydraulic lines/hoses.
B. outriggers/stabilizers
C. hydraulic systems.
D. control pedestal.
D.
Stability of the apparatus is tested on:

A. an even surface.
B. even and sloped surfaces.
C. a sloped surface.
D. raised surfaces.
B.
_____ means keeping something in a state of readiness or usefulness.

A. Rehabilitation
B. Maintenance
C. Modification
D. Repair
B.
T or F By far, the best tool to protect against motor damage is a simple oil analysis.
T.
To select the proper lubricant, primary consideration must be given to the:

A. manufacturer's warranty.
B. climate.
C. frequency of lubrication.
D. manufacturer's recommendations.
D.
The manufacturer's manual will _____ the Society of Automotive Engineers (S.A.E.) number for the engine oil.
The S.A.E. number indicate only viscosity.

A. suggest
B. recomend
C. require
D. mandate
B.
Hoisting cylinders are sometimes referred to as _____ cylinders.

A. extension
B. elevation
C. stabilization
D. basket-leveling
B.
Which of the following is not considered to be part of daily maintenance?

A. Checking crankcase oil for proper level
B. Pressure testing all brakes by operating foot pedal
C. Checking each tire for cuts, breaks, and proper inflation
D. Lubricating all motor-, gear-, or hand-operated appliances according to manufacturer's specifications.
D.
_____ means "to restore or replace that which has become inoperable."

A. Replace
B. Remove
C. Maintain
D. Repair
D.
Which of the following is not an electrical component?

A. Ammeter
B. Flowmeter
C. Voltmeter
D. Generator
B.
1.Starting engines each day simply to warm them up is not recomended by engine manufacturers.

2. Starting an engine unnecessarily contaminates the oil, wastes fuel, and causes added engine wear.

A. Statement 1 is correct; statement 2 is incorrect.
B. Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
C. Statements 1 is incorrect; statement 2 is correct.
D. Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
B.
1.The wear on a warm engine is many times greater than on a cold engine.

2. As a cold engine becomes warm, condensation is formed in the crankcase.

A. Statements 1 is correct; statement 2 is incorrect.
B. Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
C. Statements 1 is incorrect; statements 2 is correct.
D. Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
C.
The most important phases of engine maintenance are regular _____ inspections.

A. Weekly
B. monthly
C. daily
D. service
D.
An ammeter indicates the:

A. top voltage available when the battery is fully charged.
B. amount of current flowing inot the battery.
C. amount of current being taken from the battery.
D. Both B and C are correct.
D.
Batteries produce explosive _____ gas when being charged.

A. sulfuric
B. hydrochloric
C. pyroforic
D. hydrogen
D.
Operating diesel engines below the minimum coolant temperature may result in:

A. excessive cylinder wear.
B. inefficient combustion.
C. decreased valve deposits.
D. decreased fuel consumption.
B.
Shutting down a diesel engine immediately after full-load operation may result in:

A. high piston ring wear.
B. increased oil consumption.
C. fuel injector damage.
D. turbo seizure.
D.
A radiator fill valve should be used if the:

A. radiator coolant level is slightly low.
B. radiator coolant level drops too low for effective cooling during nonpumping operations.
C. radiator coolant level drops too low for effective cooling during pumping operations.
D. All of the above.
C.
All of the statements about an ammeter listed below are correct except:

A. An ammeter does not indicate the amount of current being drawn from the battery to operate electrical equipment.
B. An ammeter indicates the amount of current being supplied to the battery to charge it.
C. The reading on an ammeter does not include the current being supplied directly from the generator.
D. An ammeter only indicates the amount of current flowing into the battery.
D.
NFPA 1500 ________ use of manual brake limiting valves, frequently labeled " wet road/dry road" switch in the "wet road" or "slippery" position.

A. specifies
B. recommends
C. requires
D. discontinues
D.
NFPA _____ states that the "wet road/dry road" switch remain in the "dry road" position at all times.

A. 1002
B. 1500
C. 1001
D. 1021
B.
Apparatus maintenance requires performing daily, weekly, and periodic maintetnance. Checking fan belts, gernerator belts and alternator belts requires ____ maintenance, whereas operating changeover values on two-stage pumps and checking the coolant level of the radiator requires _____ maintenance.

A. weekly, daily
B. periodic, daily
C. weekly, periodic
D. daily, weekly
A.
Apparatus maintenance requires performing daily , weekly, and periodic inspection. The fuel pump requires _____ inspection, whereas a brake system equipped with hydraulic brakes should be inspected _____.

A. weekly, daily
B. periodic, daily
C. periodic, weekly
D. periodic, weekly
D.
In an auxiliary cooling system, heat is transferred from the engine cooling water to the:

A. transmission cooler.
B. radiator.
C. pump discharge.
D. pump water.
D.
An auxiliary cooling device:

A. causes pump water to mix with radiator fluid.
B. can cause over pressurization of radiator.
C. gets its waqter from the intake side of pump.
D. cools engine water when the apparatus pump is engaged.
D.
Over-throttling occurs in diesel engines when more fuel is injected than can be burned. Which of the following is not a result of over-throttling.

A. Overheating of engine coolant.
B. Additional fuel consumption.
C. Oil dilution.
D. Black smoke from the exhausst.
A.
While conducting a pump capacity test, if the net pump pressure is correct but the nozzle flow (gpm) is too high, the:

A. discharge gate must be opened further.
B. discharge gate must be closed further.
C. throttle setting must be reduced.
D. Both B and C must be done simultaneously.
D.
The 50% capacity test is conducted at a net pump pressure of:

A. 150 psi for 20 minutes.
B. 150 psi for 10 minutes.
C. 250 psi for 10 minutes.
D. 250 psi for 20 minutes.
C.
During a capacity test, a pumper should deliver ______ of its rated capacity at 250 psi pump pressure for 10 minutes.

A. 100%
B. 50%
C. 70%
D. 40%
B.
Proper apparatus maintenance includes visually checking the tank water level:

A. daily
B. weekly
C. periodically.
D. biweekly.
A.
The changeover transfer valve on a two-stage pump should be checked for proper operation:

A. daily.
B. weekly.
C. periodically.
D. biweekly.
A.
A gradual increase in the amount of rpm (registered on the tachometer) required to pump at rated capacity indicates:

A. wear in the pump.
B. a need for repairs
C. pump cavitation
D. Both A and B
D.
The speedometer on an apparatus is primarily used to show speed of the vehicle, but may also indicate:

A. speed X 10 showing approximate rpm.
B. speed X .434 showing approximate pump pressure, engine speed, and rpm.
C. the pump is engaged and the transmission is set for pump operation.
D. engine and pump speed.
C.
While use as a main pump has declined, today the _____ pump is commonly used as a priming pump.

A. centrifugal
B. piston
C. rotary-gear
D. rotary-valve
C.
The wall of the pump housing as it increases toward the discharge outlet is called the:

A. body
B. discharge housing
C. casing
D. volute
D.
A ______ valve is used to relieve pressure in hose lines after the discharge gates are closed.

A. discharge
B. bleeder
C. by-pass
D. relief
B.
A ______ guage is calibrated to read both positive and negative pressure.

A. compound
B. pressure
C. discharge
D. centrifugal
A.
Most new types of gauges are filled with ______ to reduce problems associated with fluctuation.

A. nitrogen
B. liquid
C. inert gas
D. air
B.
An auxiliary cooling device:

A. causes pump water to mix with radiator fluid.
B. can cause over-pressurization of the radiator.
C. cools engine water while pump is operating.
D. cools pump water while pump is operating.
C.
Records concerning lubrication and other servicing are more meaningful if based on:

A. time frequency.
B. engine hours.
C. road miles.
D. pumping hours.
A.
The dry vacuum test requires a reading at the end of 10 minutes during which no more than ______ inches of vacuum should be lost.

A. 24
B. 22
C. 10
D. 12
C.
Apparatus records are complete when items such as _____, major and minor repairs, and parts replacement are itemized.

A. cleaning the motor
B. water tank check
C. the equipment list
D. shop check-up
D.
Before turning corners or negotioating curves, the apparatus driver should:

A. shift a standard transmission into a higher gear.
B. engage brake retarder.
C. shift a standard transmission into a lower gear.
D. shift an automatic transmission into a higher gear.
C.
When more than one emergency vehicle is responding along the same route, units should travel at least _____ feet apart.

A. 700
B. 100 to 200
C. 200 to 400
D. 300 to 500
D.
Being aware of all that is happening and is likely to happen ahead, at the sides, and to the rear of the apparatus are techniques of _____ driving.

A. aggressive
B. offensive
C. defensive
D. responsive
C.
The distance a vehicle travels from the time the driver realizes the need to apply the brakes until it comes to a complete stop is known as:

A. total stopping distance.
B. total reaction distance.
C. total stopping time.
D. driver reaction distance.
A.
The use of warning devices is essential when responding to an alarm; when in use they:

A. negate all traffic laws.
B. permit speed limits to be exceeded.
C. negate most traffic laws.
D. do not allow the driver to disregard other drivers.
D.
The most common cause(s) of fire apparatus skidding is/are:

A. driving too fast for road conditions.
B. anticipating obstacles in the road.
C. weight shifts of heavy apparatus.
D. Both A and C
D.
For safe operation and driving of aerial apparatus:

A. be prepared to stop at intersections.
B. be aware of the route's general road and traffic conditions.
C. be aware the lights and sirens may not be heard or seen.
D. All of the above
D.
Consequences of a response accident can be:

A. a secondary emergency scene.
B. civil consequences.
C. criminal consequences.
D. all of the above.
D.
When entering an intersection, one should be able to :

A. stop
B. slow down and go through.
C. stop and proceed.
D. All of the above
D.
When dealing with braking distances, the distance from the time brakes are applied until the vehicl comes to a complete stop is:

A. driver reaction distance.
B. vehicle braking distance.
C. total stopping distance.
D. brake operation distance.
B.
If an apparatus goes into a skid, the first action taken is to:

A. steer in the opposite direction of the skid.
B. release the brakes.
C. steer in the direction of the skid.
D. pump the brakes.
B
With an apparatus moving 40 mph, the siren projects out _____ feet in front of the apparatus.

A. 100
B. 200
C. 300
D. 400
C.
Air brakes equipped with a dry road/slippery road valve will limit ______ when brakes are applied.

A. front brake pressure.
B. rear brake pressure.
C. all brake pressure.
D. brake retarders
A.
A series of rapid brake applications (pumping brakes) is a good technique to use on:

A. glare ice.
B. sandy conditions.
C. drizzle conditions.
D. heavy rain.
A.
When driving under winter conditions, the driver/operator should follow at an incresed distance because the distance to stop on snow and ice is increased _____ to ______ times.

A. 3 to 15
B. 1 to 2
C. 10 to 20
D. 20 to 30
A.
Apparatus are most likely to be involved in an accident at/on:

A. off ramps.
B. intersections.
C. freeways.
D. alleys.
B.
Apparatus ladders must be able to carry full-rated capacity at grades of up to ______ in either direction

A. 3%
B. 6%
C. 10%
D. 12%
B.
When approaching curves, one should:

A. slow before reaching the curve.
B. brake through the curve.
C. drive at normal speed.
D. shift transmission to lower gear.
A.
Both the engine brake and retarder:

A. decrease the life of the brakes.
B. minimize air brake pressure.
C. provide all necessary slowing action.
D. make the apparatus easier to manage on hills and slippery roads.
D.
Before an apparatus begins to move, the driver/operator should:

A. tell passengers to buckle their seat belts, then proceed.
B. assume everyone is buckled in and proceed.
C. walk around the apparatus.
D. wait for the officer's signal to proceed.
D.
You encounter a school bus with flashing signal lights while responding to a call. You must stop and proceed:

A. only after a proper signal is given by the bus driver or police officer.
B. slowly around the bus with all emergency warning devices on.
C. after the flashing signals on the bus are off.
D. only after you have turned off all emergency warning devices.
A.
Most driving regulations pertain to environmental conditions that are:

A. snowy and icy.
B. wet and rainy.
C. dark and foggy.
D. dry and clear.
D.
A driver/operator of an emergency vehicle who does not obey state, local, or departmental driving regulations is:

A. protected under the Good Samaritan law.
B. subject to criminal prosecution only.
C. exempt from any prosecution.
D. subject to crimainal and civil prosecution.
D.
Unless specificaly exempt, when drivig fire apparatus, the fire apparatus operators/drivers are generally subject to any/all:

A. NFPA 1901 guidlines.
B. statutes, rules, regulations, and ordinances.
C. National Emergency Vehicle Response Commision Guidelines.
D. Department of Motor Vehicle registration rules.
B.
Safety bars on fire apparatus are designed to:

A. be a substitute for safety belts.
B. keep equipment from falling off the apparatus.
C. allow firefighters to stand upright while the vehicle is in motion.
D. keep a firefighter from falling out of a jump seat.
A.
Warning devices are an essential part of safe emergency response. It is important for the driver/operator to know the limitations of these devices. Studies conclude that sirens moving at a speed of 40 mph can project sound 300 feet in front of the vehicle; but at a speed of 60 mph, a siren is only audible up to ________ feet in front of the vehicle.

A. 12
B. 50
C. 100
D. 200
A.
You are driving to an emergency on a two-lane highway. As you climb a hill, the engine speed begins to drop due to a lack of available power. Your accelerator is fully depressed. Which of the following terms best defines this situation.

A. Engine slugging
B. lugging
C. Clutch slippage
D. Dragging
B.
Which of the following hazardous conditions contribute to the adverse
effects of weight transfer?

A. Abrupt steering
B. Driving on slippery roads
C. Driving on excessively steep slopes
D. Both A and C are correct
D.
Weight transfer is a very important consideration in the safe operation of fire apparatus.
Weight transfer occurs in accordance with a physical law that states "objects in motion tend
to stay in motion." High weight carried on most fire apparatus can contribute to
due to excessive weight transfer.

A. skidding
B. apparatus rollover
C. delay in the driver's brake reaction time.
D. Both A and B are correct.
D.
Engine brakes or retarding devices that assist in braking are activated when:

A. pressure is applied to the brake.
B. brief, rapid brake applications are made.
C. pressure is released from the accelerator.
D. All of the above
C.
Because of the size and clearance needed when backing up an apparatus, the
driverloperator should:

A. back up very slowly, assuring that everyone hears the back-up alarm.
B. assign a firefighter to clear the way and warn the driverloperator of any obstacle
obscured by blind spots.
C. place traffic cones around the area where the backing up will occur.
D. turn on all emergency lights, check all mirrors, then proceed to back up in a slow, safe
manner.
B.
At an intersection, if a driverloperator cannot account for all lanes of
traffic, then they should:

A. stop, check the lanes of traffic, then proceed.
B. use the air horn and proceed without stopping.
C. cautiously proceed through the intersection because the warning devices and
emergency situation give the apparatus the right of way.
D. Both A and C are correct.
A.
When at an intersection, apparatus should be brought to a complete stop if:

A. there are any obstructions that block the view of the intersection.
B. the driverloperator cannot account for all lanes of traffic.
C. it is a controlled intersection.
D. A and B are both correct.
D.
According to NFPA 1500, during response to emergency or nonemergency situations, the driver shall ______ at all unguarded railroad crossings.

A. use caution.
B. proceed at a maximum of 5 mph.
C. come to a complete stop.
D. stop only when a train is in sight from either direction.
C.
Directions: Read each of the following statements, then select your answer from
alternatives A-D below.

1. When approaching an intersection, the driverloperator
should slow the apparatus to a speed of 10 to 15 mph to
allow reaction time.

2. he apparatus should be brought to a complete stop if
there are any obstructions that block the driver's view.

A. Statement 1 is correct; statement 2 is incorrect.
B. Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
C. Statement 1 is incorrect; statement 2 is correct.
D. Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
C
Blind and heavily traveled intersections should be approached and crossed at a reduced
speed of _____ miles per hour.

A. 5-10
B. 10-15
C. 15-20
D. 20-25
C.
All fire apparatus should be equipped with ________ when the apparatus
is backing up.

A. a back-up person for spotting
B. four-way flashers that notify others
C. an alarm system that warns others
D. rear spotlights
C.
Directions: Read the following situation and then consider the four possible causes of
skidding. Once you do that, select your answer from alternatives A-D below.

Avoiding conditions that lead to skidding is as important as
knowing how to correct skids once they occur. The most
common causes of skids are:

1. Driving too fast for road conditions
2. Failing to anticipate weight shifts of heavy apparatus
3. Play or looseness in the steering gear
4. Failing to anticipate obstacles in the road way

A. 1, 3, and 4 are correct; 2 is incorrect.
B. 1, 2, and 4 are correct; 3 is incorrect.
C. 1 and 4 are correct; 2 and 3 are incorrect.
D. 4 is correct; 1,2, and 3 are incorrect.
B.
When an apparatus driver is faced with a situation requiring evasive tactics, the driver should attempt to pass the overtaken vehicle on the:
A. left side
C. shoulder
B. right side
D. shoulder/right side.
A.
While responding to an emergency, apparatus drivers are faced with changing traffic
conditions. in situations where all lanes of traffic are blocked in the same direction as the
responding apparatus, the apparatus driver should:

A. position the apparatus in the middle lane behind the blocked traffic,
wait for one lane to clear, then proceed at a reduced rate of speed.
B. move the apparatus to the farthest point on the right, passing on
the right shoulder at an extremely reduced rate of speed.
C. maintain the current lane position and wait for the lane to clear,
then proceed through the intersection at a reduced rate of speed.
D. move the apparatus into the opposing lane of traffic and proceed
through the intersection at an extremely reduced rate of speed.
D.
Directions: Read each statement below and then select your answer for alternatives
A-D Below.

1. It is normally safer and quicker to back up fire apparatus
than to drive around the block.

2. Only fire apparatus manufactured after 1979 will be equipped
with an alarm system that warns others while the apparatus is
backing up.

A. Statement 1 is correct; statement 2 is incorrect.
B: Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
C. Statement 1 is incorrect; statement 2 is correct.
D. Both statements I and 2 are incorrect.
D.
When positioning an aerial apparatus on the fire ground, the proper
distance to set up from the fire building is identified when:

A. maximum stability and extension are achieved.
B. aerial tip/platform reaches the objective.
C. minimum climbing angle and elevation are achieved.
D. maximum stability and best climbing angle are achieved.
D.
Of the following surface conditions, which surface would be considered
a last resort for aerial apparatus positioning?

A. Brick pavement
C. Sidewalk
B. Soil
D. Bridge
B.
Based on the following illustration, how should one position a rear mount aerial on the
fireground when one is positioning on a hill and the apparatus is facing an uphill grade?

A. Pull past the fire building.
B. Operate the aerial over the rear.
C. Stop before the fire building.
D. Both A and C are correct.
C.
Based on the following illustration, how should one position an aerial apparatus on the
fireground when one is positioning on a hill and the apparatus if facing a downhill grade?

A. Pull past the fire building.
B. Operate the aerial over the rear.
C. Stop before the fire building.
D. Both A and B are correct.
D.
NFPA 1904 requires new aerial apparatus to be capable of carrying its
full-rated capacity on grades of up to ______ percent in either direction.

A. 6
B. 4
C. 5
D. 7
A.
Of the following, which is the most important consideration?

A. Proper positioning
B. Firefighter safety
C. Understanding the limitations of the aerial
D. Hazards and overhead obstructions
B.
The second priority of an aerial apparatus at an emergency is:

A. elevated streams.
C. rescue.
B. overhaul.
D. exposure protection.
D.
Concerning placement of aerial apparatus, when making a pre-incident plan, primary
special consideration should be given to occupancy and:

A. exposures.
B. overhead obstructions.
C. hydrant location.
D. Fire Department sprinkler connections.
B.
When using an aerial apparatus for rescue, it is best to set up upwind from
the fire products and, if possible:
A. on the side of the structure.
B. on the opposite side of the street.
C. at the corners of the structure.
D. along the center line of the street.
C.
Whenever possible, positioning for aerial apparatus at buildings five stories or more
should be:

A. on the side opposite the pumpers on the scene.
B. at the front of the building.
C. at the corner of the building.
D. closest to the structure.
D.
When placing an apparatus, the the angle, the greater
the stability.

A. smaller
B. larger
C. longer
D. more obtuse
A.
T F
For safety, when operating apparatus, one should use spotters.
T.
Upon arrival at an emergency scene on a limited access highway, the best position to place
the apparatus is:

A. on the inside lane, parked at an angle.
B. on the side nearest the emergency.
C. between the flow of traffic and working crews.
D. pulled past the emergency and parked.
C.
You have responded to an emergency on a limited-access highway. Your apparatus is not
being used. Which of the following should be done?


A. Position the apparatus across the intersection to block traffic.
B. Use the apparatus as an additional barrier by parking it 150 to 200 feet behind or in front
of the apparatus being used.
C. Position the apparatus off the highway in an area away from the incident.
D. Position the apparatus as close to the incident as possible so firefighters will have
access to the apparatus.
B.
The two (2) types of position grades on which aerial apparatus driver/operators may find
themselves setting up are:

A. perpendicular and torsional.
B. steep and level.
C. horizontal and perpendicular.
D. longitudinal and lateral.
D.
Excessive engine temperatures may occur during pumping operations. These excessive
temperatures can be controlled by using the:

A. tank-to-fill valve.
C. radiator cooler.
B. auxiliary cooler.
D. immersion bypass.
B.
T F
Even terrain allows for the maximum stability of the apparatus and also allows for the
greatest range of safe movement for the aerial device.
T.
T F
If stabilization of the aerial apparatus is short of being completely level, a twisting
force will be generated upon the aerial.
T.
T F
Most manual stabilizing jacks are not screw type.
F.
T F
Wind can place an extreme static force on a raised aerial device.
F.
When stabilizinq aerial apparatus in winter weather, the driver/operator needs to be alert
to:

A. frost line.
C. icy patches.
B. low-lying tree limbs and branches.
D. snow.
C.
Of the following, which grade is the easiest to correct during stabilization?

A. Longitudinal
B. Perpendicular
C. Lateral
D. Peripheral
C.
Directions: (Caution: This is a two-step question worth 5 points.)
Following are steps involved in stabilizing an aerial ladder and obtaining power to the
ladder. The steps have been disordered. First, number the steps in the sequence in
which they should be performed. You may write your answers in the blanks provided.
Second, select the multiple choice sequence below (A-D) that matches your ordering.

- Apply parking brakes.
- Level apparatus until outrigger lights are on and bubble is in an acceptable position.
- Engage P.T.O. and engage pump, if needed.
- Properly position apparatus for maximum efficiency of use with no overhead
obstructions.
- Switch diverter valve to outrigger operation in the jack position.
- Switch diverter valve to the ladder position.
- Press down on outrigger controls to extend and lift the apparatus to proper position
(high side first, weight off axles).
- Place wheel chocks.

A. 1,3,4,2,6,5,7,8
B. 4,1,3,8,7,2,5,6
C. 2,4 , 3 , 1,5, 8,6,7
D. 3,1,8,2,7,6,5,4
B.
One way to judge the appropriate deployment of stabilizers is to:

A. watch the apparatus tires. B. watch the aerial inclinometer.
C. level by eye sight only. D. always fully extend all outriggers.
A.
Of the following, which is actually a function of any aerial apparatus
stabilizer/outrigger system?

A. H-style outriggers
B. Operating primarily by hydraulics
C. Widening the apparatus chassis
D. Lengthening the body and apparatus chassis.
C.
When deploying manual style stabilizers/outriggers, the jack must be
lowered until the:

A. extension arm is raised to horizontal.
B. jack rests firmly on the jack plate.
C. jack pin is able to be inserted.
D. Both A and C are correct.
B.
T F
No personnel should be on the aerial ladder while the aerial device is being
extended.
T.
For lowering a stokes basket with an aerial ladder (aerial booming), the rope must be:

A. treated as lifelines.
C. inspected regularly.
B. static quality.
D. All of the above
D.
T F
The weight of any equipment mounted in the platform of an elevating platform should
be subtracted from the platform's rated capacity.
T.
T F
Before placing an aerial device back in service following a mechanical or aerial
function problem, the aerial should be tested.
T.
When lowering any aerial device to its bedded position, regardless of what
the alignment indicators may say, you must:

A. assure that the aerial is properly aligned.
B. check hold-down locks.
C. power down into bed.
D. All of the above
A.
Hold-down devices for articulating platforms prevent the aerial from:

A. being over-extended.
B. being moved to another location.
C. bouncing during road use.
D. None of the above
C.
Directions: (Caution this is a two-part question worth 5 points.)
Following are steps involved in raising an articulating aerial platform.
The steps have been disordered. First, number the steps in the sequence
in which they should be performed. You may write your answers in the
blanks provided. Second, select the multiple choice sequence which
matches your ordering from A-D below.

_Check the intended path of the aerial device for obstruction.
_Energize the platform controls.
_Charge waterway, if desired.
_Make connections, if applicable.
_Elevate the lower boom and move platform to ground level to allow personnel to
board.
_Place aerial device in desired position.
_Release hold-down locks.
_Engage turntable locks, if applicable.

A. 3,4,7,2,5,6,1,8
B. 3,4,7,6,1,2,5,8
C. 1,4,2,3,5,8,6,7
D. 3,5,2,4,7,6,1,8
A.
What is the primary difference between a telescoping aerial platform
and an articulating platform?

A. Smaller floor area for the platform
B. Booms are connected by a hinge.
C. Cannot climb to platform with the aerial deployed
D. Wider outrigger stance.
B.
When operating any aerial device, the aerial's movement must be:
A. smooth and controlled.
C. one movement at a time.
B. slow and toward the object.
D. directly toward the objective.
A.
What NFPA document contains minimum standards for aerial ladders and elevating
platform fire apparatus?

A. NFPA 1901
B. NFPA 1002
C. NFPA 1914
D. NFPA 1001
A.
According to NFPA standards, the required minimum floor area for elevating platforms
is _______ square feet.

A. 10
B. 14
C. 18
D. 20
B.
The primary function of the aerial turntable is:

A. to provide extension and retraction of the ladder.
B. as a place for control pedestal.
C. to provide continuous rotation.
D. Both A and B are correct.
C.
Which NFPA standard requires elevating platforms to have a control station located both at
the turntable area and in the aerial platform?

A. NFPA 1914
B. NFPA 1901
C. NFPA 1001
D. NFPA 1500
B.
Wind represents what type of load to an aerial device?

A. Impact
B. Dead
C. Dynamic
D. Bearing
C.
The most stable operating position for any aerial device is:

A. perpendicular to the apparatus body.
B. from 45" to 90" of the apparatus centerline.
C. in line with the longitudinal axis.
D. perpendicular to the apparatus body up to 45".
C.
Of the following, the least stable aerial device operating position is:

A. perpendicular to the chassis.
B. from 45" to 90" of the apparatus centerline.
C. in line with the apparatus body up to 45" from the apparatus centerline.
D. 60" from in-line with the aerial extended away from this angle.
A.
As the extension of the aerial ladder increases, aerial ladder loading must:

A. remain the same.
C. be introduced slowly.
B. be increased.
D. be decreased.
D.
The correct order of operation for any aerial device would be:

A. rotate, extend, raise, and lower.
B. raise, rotate, extend, and lower.
C. raise, extend rotate, and lower.
D. extend, rotate, raise, and lower.
B.
From an operation standpoint, what are the two (2) primary areas of concern and focus on
articulating platforms?

A. Turntable/platform
B. Upper boom/lower boom
C. Articulating elbow/working end
D. Stabilizers/platform
C.
In a rescue situation, the objective of the aerial operator is to:

A. reach as many victims as possible.
B. use a minimum number of aerial movements.
C. reach as many points of egress as possible.
D. All of the above are correct.
D.
Victims that are ______ should be rescued/removed first.
A. in an exposed area
B. most severely threatened
C. in the largest number or groups of people
D. in the collapse zone
B.
When operating an aerial ladder towards a victim who is trapped, the preferred method of
operation is to operate the aerial:

A. directly to the victim.
B. slightly above and then lower to the victim.
C. slightly lower than the victim.
D. slightly lower and then raise the victim.
B.
When effecting a rescue/removal from a window, the tip of the aerial ladder must be
positioned such that it will not cause:

A. diminished window opening.
B. safe access to this aerial device.
C. window framelsill failure.
D. All of the above
A.
When operating an aerial ladder to a window for the purpose of rescue/removal, the aerial
ladder tip should be placed:
A. to the side of the window. B. directly below the window sill.
C. just inside the window sill.
D. directly above the window.
C.
When operating an aerial platform to a window for the purpose of rescue/removal, the aerial
platform should be placed:

A. with the bottom of the platform even with the window sill.
B. with the top rail of the platform even with the window sill.
C. to the side of the window.
D. even with the center of the window.
B.
When operating an aerial ladder to a roof, the aerial ladder tip should be placed:

A. below the edge of the roof.
B. with one rung over the roof line.
C. 3 to 6 feet over the roof line.
D. B and C are both correct.
C.
When operating an aerial platform to a roof, the aerial platform should be:

A. placed with the top rail even with the roof edge.
B. lowered down onto the roof.
C. placed with the platform floor just above and over the edge of the roof.
D. placed with the top rail below the roof edge.
C.
When moving victims down aerial ladders:

A. capable adults should be allowed to descend the ladder themselves, but must be
monitored.
B. children must be carried.
C. infants and small children must be cradled.
D. All of the above
D.
When using an aerial platform to remove a victim in a stokes basket, if the stokes basket will
not fit in the platform, the stokes basket may be:

A. lashed to the side of the platform.
B. lowered from the platform.
C. secured underneath the platform.
D. lashed to the top rail of the platform.
D.
If possible, when using an aerial ladder to remove a victim in a stokes basket,
the easiest method to use is to:

A. slide the stokes basket down the ladder.
B. lower the stokes basket using the aerial ladder.
C. lower the stokes basket using a rope.
D. boom the stokes basket down with the aerial ladder.
A.
When performing horizontal ventilation from an aerial ladder or platform, the aerial device
should be placed on the _____ of the window to be vented.
A. windward side
B. leeward side
C. downward side
D. top
A.
The working height of an aerial ladder is measured from the:

A. turntable to the highest ladder rung.
B. turntable to ladder tip.
C. ground to the highest ladder rung.
D. ground to the ladder tip.
C.
When identifying the working height of an aerial ladder, the aerial ladder should be in a
position of:

A. 60 degree elevation/90% extension.
B. maximum elevation/90% extension.
C. 95 degree elevationlmaximum extension.
D. maximum elevation/maximum extension.
D.
The working height of an elevating platform is measured from the:

A. turntable to the highest platform rail.
B. ground to the bottom of the platform.
C. ground to the highest platform rail.
D. turntable to the bottom of the platform.
C.
At maximum extension and elevation, the working height of an elevating
platform is measured from the:

A. turntable to the highest platform rail.
B. ground to the bottom of the platform.
C. ground to the highest platform rail.
D. turntable to the bottom of the platform.
C.
The term "scrub area" refers to:

A. the swing area behind the turntable.
B. the area needed for outrigger deployment.
C. the area that an elevated master stream can reach.
D. an aerial's safe operating range.
D.
177. If confronted with moderate to heavy smoke conditions, the best rescue approach with an
aerial device would be from the ______ side.

A. windward
B. leeward
C. top
D. opposite
A.
The best position for the ladder tip when attempting an offensive attack, as in stretching a
handline into a building from an aerial ladder, would be:
A. even with the bottom of the window.
B. two rungs above the window sill.
C. one rung below the window.
D. at the side of the window.
A.
179. The "rule of thumb" for the quick correct angle and extension set-up of ladder pipe is:

A.60 - 65%
B.80 - 85%
C.70 - 75%
D.75 - 80%
D.
180. When victims are to be removed through a window, the ladder tip of an aerial
should be positioned:

A. just inside the window.
B. just to the side of the window.
C. with two rungs into the window.
D. just below the window.
A.
181. Upon arrival at an emergency scene, you see 13 people on the roof, 8 trapped victims two
rooms away from the fire, and 3 victims on the other side, one room away from the fire.
Which group should be evacuated first?

A. The 13 people on the roof
B. The 8 people two rooms away
C. The victims most threatened by the fire
D. The people in exposed area
C.
182. When extending an aerial ladder to the roof for ventilation crews, the ladder should be
extended past the roof level at least _____ feet.

A.3
B.4
C.6
D.8
C.
183. When positioning an aerial device for service, a position that
should be avoided is:

A. short extension, low angle.
B. long extension, medium angle.
C. long extension, low angle. D. medium extension, low angle.
C.
In general, for an aerial device to operate, hydraulic fluid must pass through
the assembly to the turntable control pedestal. This also allows for
non-stop continuous rotation.

A. double acting cylinder
C. auxiliary power supply
B. diverter valve
D. hydraulic swivel
D.
The small ladder attached to the boom sections of some telescoping aerial platforms is used
primarily for:

A. rescue operations.
B. climbing and carrying equipment onto the roof
C. ventilation and rescue procedures.
D. an escape ladder for firefighters.
D.
An ancillary ladder is:

A. similar to a combination ladder.
B. used to access the turntable from the ground.
C. an escape ladder for telescoping aerial platforms.
D. a roof ladder kept near the ladder tip.
C.
191. Whenever hoisting an aerial device, one can expect a normal hydraulic
pressure of approximately:

A. 600 psi to 1000 psi.
C. 850 psi to 3000 psi.
B. 2000 psi to 4500 psi.
D. 300 psi to 500 psi.
C.
When operating any aerial device at low angles and fully extended, one
can expect a(n) ____ amount of stress on that aerial device.

A. equal
B. minimum
C. reduced
D. increased
D.
193. When positioning on a grade, articulating aerial devices should
generally be operated:

A. perpendicular to the chassis.
B. over the cab.
C. crosswise on the grade.
D. off the rear.
D.
194. The speed at which an aerial device moves is dependent upon:

A. hydraulic pressure.
B. the amount the control lever is operatedlmoved.
C. the weight of the aerial device.
D. the type of power take off.
B.
195. All aerial devices will tolerate a ____ load better than a load.
A. lateral/perpendicular
B.Perpendicular/lateral
C. perpendicularlparallel
D. Lateral/torsional
B.
196. What should you do if during an aerial operation a mechanical problem
develops and you can no longer operate the aerial?

A. Notify a qualified technician.
B. Disengage the power take off.
C. Evacuate the ladder platform.
D. Notify the Incident Commander.
C.
197. T F
Metering holes will retard the downward travel of the aerial in
the event of a leak or system blow-out.
T.
When protecting exposures, the preferred method of application for
master streams is to:

A. cool hot embers and brands.
B. place water directly onto the exposure.
C. increase the flow of the master stream.
D. smooth bore appliances for penetration.
B.
199. When elevating master streams are used for an offensive attack,
one should continue to flow water:

A. until complete extinguishment.
B. until handlines are in place.
C. until the thermal layer is interrupted.
D. long enough to achieve knockdown.
D.
200. Always locate the feeder hose _____ of the ladder.
A. to the right side
B. to the left side
C. in the center
D. under the rungs
C.
201. Which is not an asset of an improvised stand pipe operation.
A. Easier than dragging hose up stairs
B. Reduced fatigue factor
C. Reduced friction loss
D. Commits apparatus to fire attack only
D.
202. T F
Elevated master streams can only be used in a defensive operation.
F.
203. T F
Only operate elevated master streams when interior crews are either out of the
structure or in a place of safe refuge.
T.
The maximum height to which water can be drafted is near feet, as opposed to the
theoretical lift of 33.8 feet.

A.10-15
B.20-25
C.35-40
D.23-33
B.
For drafting purposes, "lift" is measured from the of the pump.

A. bottom of the strainer to top
B. surface of water to center
C. surface of water to bottom
D. bottom of the strainer to the center
B.
A relief valve bypasses excess water from the discharge side of the
pump to the:

A. pump intake.
B. bleeder valve.
C. water tank.
D. by-pass valve.
A.
Which of the following types of fire pumps must be primed using an
external priming device?

A. Rotary vane
C. Centrifugal
B. Piston
D. Rotary-gear pump
C.
When a centrifugal pump loses prime at draft, check for:

A. loose intake connection.
B. a clogged strainer.
C. an open pump drain.
D. All of the above
D.
209. When pumping from a hydrant, it is essential that the:

A. strainer be clean.
B. hydrant be fully open.
C. compound gauge always read 20 lbs. negative pressure
D. All of the above are correct.
B.
Water relay operations are based on:

A. fire flow needs and distance.
B. distance between pumpers.
C. two or more pumpers available.
D. high friction loss and elevation.
A.
The residual pressure reading at the intake gauge of a pumper in a relay pumping
operation should not fall below:

A. 10 psi.
B. 20 psi.
C. 5 psi.
D. 14.7 psi.
B.
In priming a centrifugal pump, it is necessary to:

A. make the pump air tight.
B. run the engine at proper speed.
C. open discharge gates slowly when pressure gauge indicates
50 to 100 psi.
D. All the above are correct.
D.
Switch from series/pressure to parallel/volume operation when:

A. more than half of the large outlets are being used.
B. there is reason to believe that more than half of the rated
capacity of the pump will be required.
C. a higher than normal pressure will be required.
D. Both A and B are correct.
D.
214. A relief valve:

A. closes as lines are shut down.
B. opens when pressure rises above the set pressure.
C. opens as lines are opened.
D. is always open when pumper is in use.
B.
215. ______ operation is operating a pump at or near its rated volume and pressure.

A. Rated capacity
C. Series/pressure
B. Parallel/series
D. Parallel/volume
D.
Two 1-314 inch hose lines are being used. Each line is delivering 150 gpm. Supply is from
the 750 gallon capacity booster tank on apparatus. How many minutes will the booster tank
be able to supply to both lines without being refilled?

A. 5.5 minutes
B. 3.5 minutes
C. 2.5 minutes
D. 6.5 minutes
C.
When a hose is connected to a hydrant, the static pressure is 80 psi. When
a 1-112 inch line flowing 100 gprm is placed in service, the pressure drops to 70 psi. The estimated remaining gprn available is:

A. 80 gpm.
C. 200 gpm.
B. 100 gpm.
D. 300 gpm.
C.
218. What is the flow from a 3" nozzle with a nozzle pressure of 9 psi?
(Gpm = 29.7 x d2 x ONP)

A. 802 gpm
B. 2,212 gpm
C. 1,810 gpm
D. 1,436 gprn
A.
After flowing a 300 gpm line, a 6% drop was realized on the incoming pressure. Based on
this, _____ additional lines of the same flow could be added.

A. one
B. two
C. three
D. four
C.
220. Available flow from hydrants is estimated by determining the percent drop between the
static and _____ pressures.

A. residual
B. flow
C. intake
D. discharge
A.
221. The part of the total pressure not used to overcome friction or gravity while forcing water
through fire hose, pipe, fittings, and adapters is known as:

A. static pressure.
C. residual pressure.
B. friction loss.
D. flow pressure.
C.
222. ______ pressure is the difference between the pump discharge pressure and the
incoming pressure from the hydrant.

A. Maximum discharge pressure B. Residual
C. Net pump discharge
D. Pump intake
C.
The operation in which each impeller of a centrifugal pump discharges
into a common outlet is known as:

A. parallel.
B. single stage.
C. series.
D. pressure.
A.
224. Friction loss is usually expressed in terms of:

A. pounds per square inch per 50 feet of hose.
B. pounds per sqdare inch per 100 feet of hose.
C. gallons per minute per 50 feet of hose.
D. gallons per minute per 100 feet per hose.
B.
A 2-112 inch fog nozzle flowing 225 gpm at a pressure of 100 psi will
have a reaction of approximately ____ pounds.

A.114
B.110
C.125
D.140
A.
226. _____ denotes a force-per-unit area, with the measurements of force
in pounds and the measurement of area in square inches.
A. Flow
B. Weight
C. Force
D. Pressure
D.
A ladder pipe with a 2-inch tip at 80 psi nozzle pressure will have _____ pounds of
nozzle reaction.

A. 480
B. 400
C. 285
D. 520
A.
Approximately how much water will be delivered from a 1 1/4-inch smooth
bore nozzle if the nozzle pressure is 50 psi?

A. 200 gpm
B. 273 gpm
C. 328 gpm
D. 400 gpm
C.
The flow from a 1-inch nozzle tip with a nozzle pressure of 50 psi
is closest to:

A. 190 gpm
B. 210 gpm
C. 220 gpm
D. 230 gpm
B.
231. What is the friction loss in 400 feet of 3-inch hose with 2-1 1/2" couplings, flowing 800 gpm.
(FL=CQ2L) (C=.8)

A. 136 psi
B. 205 psi
C. 225 psi
D. 172 psi
B.
If the friction loss in 300 feet of hose is 70 psi, what will the friction loss be in 450 feet of the
same size hose, flowing the same amount of water?

A. 90 psi
B. 96 psi
C. 105 psi
D. 128 psi
C.
The formula "29.7d2 ONP " is used to determine the:

A. velocity of water in feet-per-minute.
B. nozzle reaction for fog nozzles.
C. nozzle reaction for straight tip nozzles.
D. flow of water in gallons-per-minute.
D.
The recommended nozzle pressure for solid bore master streams two
inches or less is:

A. 50 psi.
B. 80 psi.
C. 100 psi.
D. 150 psi.
B.
The recommended pressure for fog nozzle (all types) is:

A. 50 psi.
B. 80 psi.
C. 100 psi.
D. 150 psi.
C.
The amount of work that a pump must do to produce a fire stream
is called ____ pressure.

A. net-pump
C. discharge
B. residual
D. maximum discharge
A.
237. What is the nozzle reaction from a 1-1 1/4" tip at 50 psi nozzle pressure?
(NR= 1.57 X d2 x NP)

A. 132 lbs
B. 122 lbs
C. 102 lbs
D. 112 1bs
B.
238. When the flow through a hose line increases from 100 gpm to 400 gpm, the friction loss
increases _____ times.

A.2
B.4
C.12
D.16
D.
239. The pressure created by a column of water due to elevation is known
as ______ pressure.
A. atmospheric
B. base
C. head
D. static
C.