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34 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
1. What is the primary indication for pursuing a diagnosis of hyperadrenocorticism

a. Presence of one or more clinical signs; pituitary macrotumor, diabetic dog with persistently poor response to high dosages of insulin, an adrenal mass, persistent hypertension
2.
What are considered common clinical signs of HAC

a. PU/PD, polyphagia, panting, abdominal distention, endocrine alopecia, hepatomegaly, muscle weakness, systemic hypertension
3.
What are considered less common clinical signs of HAC

a. Lethargy, hyperpigmentation, comedones, thin skin, poor hair growth, urine leakage, insulin resistant DM
4.
What are considered uncommon clinical signs of HAC

a. Thromboembolism, ligament rupture, facial nerve palsy, psuedomyotonia, testicular atrophy, persistent anestrus
5.
When adrenocortical tumors are invasive (invading phrenicoabdominal vein or caudal vena cava) they can cause what

a. Retroperitoneal hemorrhage, blood loss anemia, abdominal pain, thrombi causing ascites or rear limb paresis
6.
What labwork parameters should increase suspicion of hyperadrenocorticism

a. Neutrophilic leukocytosis, lymphopenia, eosinopenia, thrombocytosis, mild erythryocytosis; increased alk phos, increased ALT, hypercholesterolemia, hypertriglyceridemia, hyperglycemia, hyposthenuria, proteinuria
7.
If a patient is negative on multiple screening tests for HAC, but there is an increased suspicion for the patient having HAC, what should one do

a. Repeat test in 3-6 months if signs persist
8.
Which drugs in veterinary medicine have been shown to affect the HPAA

a. Metoclopramide, buprenorphine, codeine, clomipramine, desmopressin
9.
Dogs treated with phenobarbital can occasionally show what

a. No suppression when they are really not HAC
10.
What is considered the test of choice for HAC (unless iatrogenic)

a. LDDS
11.
What form of ACTH is recommended for ACTH stimulation tests

a. Synthetic ACTH and recommend to avoid compounded formulations
12.
What drugs can affect results of ACTH stimulation

a. Progestagens, glucocorticoids, ketoconazone; NOT phenobarbital
13.
What is the sensitivity and specificity for UCCR in hospital (1 sample) and at home (2 samples)

a. In hospital sensitivity was 75-100% and specificity was 20%; at home sensitivity increased to 99% and a specificity of 77%
14.
What is the most accurate stand-alone biochemical test for differentiating PDH from AT

a. Serum ACTH concentrations
15.
Why is sample handling important when measuring ACTH

a. Plasma proteases degrade ACTH so must be centrifuged and frozen quickly. Can also add aprotinin to prevent proteases
16.
In the 25% of dogs with PDH that do not suppress with higher dosages of dexamethasone, what is likely

a. A large pituitary tumor
17.
What characteristics of an adrenal tumor suggest malignancy

a. Over 4 cm adrenal width, metastases, and venal caval invasion
18.
What are the proposed rationale for reclassifying atypical cushings

a. Dogs that are “normal on LDDS” may not be normal as reference intervals should likely be lowered; cortisol is highly variable; some dogs may be more sensitive to the effects of “normal” cortisol levels; dogs may be affected by food dependent HAC
19.
What is recombinant Thyrotropin used for in veterinary medicine

a. Diagnosis of hypothyroidism in dogs and cats, aid in diagnosis of hyperthyroidism in cats
20.
What foods can inhibit iodide trapping

a. Thiocyanate is sweet potatoes or lima beans; perchlorate
21.
When starved of iodine, the thyroid gland preferentially makes what hormone

a. T3 because more biologically active
22.
How does thyroid hormone negatively feedback to the pituitary

a. T4 is taken in by the pituitary and deionated to T3 which subsequently inhibits TSH synthesis
23.
What enzymes in the peripheral tissues covert T4 into T3

a. 5-deiodinase
24.
How do glucocorticoids affect thyroid levels

a. Inhibit pituitary secretion of TSH, impair 5-deiodinase, and decrease thyroxine binding globulin in humans; markedly decrease TT4, TT3 and to some degree FT4
25.
How do long term effects of phenobarbital affect thyroid levels

a. Long term phenobarbital can decrease TT4 and FT4; TSH is variable; phenobarbital is theorized to increase hepatic clearance of thyroid; conversely thyroid can increase phenobarbital metabolism and could be a reason why some dogs have seizures
26.
Does potassium bromide affect thyroid levels

a. No
27.
How do sulfonamides affect thyroid function

a. They inhibit thyroid peroxidase and prevent iodination and are considered goitrogens but only at prolonged high dosages in the dog. Cause decreased TT4, TT3, FT4 and cause clinical hypothyroidism
28.
What are the effects of NSAIDS on thyroid

a. Competition with binding sites on thyroid hormone binding protein, increased hepatic metabolism, and competition on plasma membrane
29.
What drugs are known to diminish T4 binding to canine serum

a. Furosemide, flunixin, and probenecid
30.
When are radiographs considered useful diagnostic tools for canine thyroid disease

a. When congenital hypothyroidism is suspected to evaluate bones or when there is concern for thyroid carcinoma and pulmonary metastases
31.
Is scintigraphy a first tier diagnostic for canine thyroid disease

a. Not really as uptake pattern does not correlate with tumor presence nor can it’s pattern be predictive of histologic tumor. It is a specific tool for mets but not sensitive and it has a low sensitivity and specificity for hypothyroidism in dogs (acquired)
32.
What is one of the most prevalent diagnostic tools for evaluating the thyroid in the dog due to its cost and convenience

a. Ultrasound as changes to echogenicity can occur with hypothyroidism or malignancy; evaluate retropharyngeal lymph nodes, ultrasound abdomen for staging. It cannot differentiate between benign and malignant masses however
33.
What advantages does CT have over ultrasound

a. Most sensitive tool for detecting pulmonary mets and can potentially differentiate benign from malignant diseases using IV contrast
34.
What advantages does MRI have over CT

a. Superior soft tissue contrast and the ability to demonstrate vascular structures without use of contrast; recommended for mediastinal extension of large goiters