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84 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
what is the most common tumor of the adrenal medulla in adults?
pheochromocytoma
what is the most common tumor of the adrenal medulla in children?
neuroblastoma
What are the layers of the adrenal cortex?
GFR: glomerulosa, fasciculata, reticularis
what regulates the function of the Zona Glomerulosa and what does it secrete?
Renin-angiotensin system --> secretes aldosterone
What regulates the function of the Zona Fasciculata and what does it secrete?
ACTH, hypothalamic CRH --> secretes Cortisol
What regulates the function of the Zona Reticularis and what does it secrete?
ACTH, hypothalamic CRH --> secretes sex hormones
What is the main secretory cell of the adrenal medulla? What does it secrete?
Chromaffin cell secretes catecholamines
What provides the regulatory input to the adrenal medulla?
preganglionic sympathetic fibers
Describe the venous drainage of the left adrenal gland?
left adrenal vein --> left renal vein --> IVC
Describe the venous drainage of the right adrenal gland?
right adrenal vein --> IVC
what hormones are released from the posterior pituitary? where are those hormones made?
vasopressin (ADH) and Oxytocin; they are made in the hypothalamus and shipped to the neurohypophysis for release
What hormones are released from the anterior pituitary?
FLAT PiG: FSH, LH, ACTH, TSH, Prolactin, GH
from what embryonic structure is the posterior pituitary derived?
neuroectoderm
from what embryonic structure is the anterior pituitary derived?
oral ectoderm
Which pituitary cells stain acidophilic?
GH, prolactin
which anterior pituitary secretory cells stain basophilic?
B-FLAT: Basophils- FSH, LH, ACTH, TSH
What are the cell types of the islets of langerhans and what do they secrete?
Alpha cells secrete glucagon, Beta cells secrete insulin and Delta cells secrete somatostatin
Where are each of the cell types in the islets of langerhans located?
alpha cells are peripheral, beta cells are central, and delta cells are interspersed
how is prolactin secretion regulated differently from the other hormones in the pituitary?
it is the only hormone that is controlled mainly by inhibition (Dopamine)
Amenorrhea is commonly seen in tumors secreting what pituitary hormone and why?
prolactinomas due to an inhibitory effect on the secretion of GnRH
Somatostatin inhibits the release of which two pituitary hormones?
GH, TSH
17 alpha-hydroxylase deficiency has what pathophysiologic mechanism?
prevention of production of glucocorticoids and androgens --> excess mineralocorticoids and high ACTH
what are the symptoms of 17-alpha-hydroxylase deficiency?
hypertension, hypokalemia; phenotypically female, but no sexual maturation
21-alpha-hydroxylase deficiency has what pathophysiologic mechanism?
inability to hydrolyze progesterones to synthesize cortisol and aldosterone --> shunts steroid production to androgens
what are the symptoms of 21-alpha-hydroxylase deficiency?
masculinization, female pseudohermaphroditism, hypotension, hyperkalemia, increased plasma renin and volume depletion
11-beta-hydroxylase deficiency has what pathophysiologic mechanism?
inability to completely synthesize mineralocorticoids and glucocorticoids --> increase in sex hormone production
what are the symptoms of 11-beta-hydroxylase deficiency?
masculinization, hypertension (11-deoxycorticosterone is a functional mineralocorticoid)
Which cells secrete PTH?
chief cells of the parathyroid
what are the functions of PTH? (4)
1. increased bone resorption of calcium and phosphate
2. increased kidney reabsorption of calcium in distal convoluted tubule
3. decreased kidney reabsorption of phosphate
4. increased 1,25-(OH)2 vitamin D production by stimulating kidney 1-alpha-hydroxylase
Which cell(s) of the bone do(es) PTH stimulate?
both osteoblasts and osteoclasts
what are normal effects of PTH on lab values?
increased serum Ca, decreased serum PO4 and increased urine PO4
What are the functions of vitamin D?
1. increased absorption of dietary calcium
2. increased absorption of dietary phosphate
3. increased bone resorption of Ca and PO4
what factors increase vitamin D production?
increased PTH and decreased serum calcium and phosphate
what lab values are changed in hyperparathyroidism?
increased PTH, Ca, Alk Phos; decreased Phosphate
what lab values are changed in Paget's disease of bone?
alk phost greatly increased; Normal PTH, phosphate, Ca
what lab values are changed in Vitamin D intoxication?
Increased Ca, Phosphate; Normal Alk-phos; decreased PTH
what lab values are changed in osteomalacia?
Decreased Ca, phosphate; Increased PTH, Alk-phos
what lab values are changed in osteoporosis?
all are normal
what lab values are changed in renal insufficiency?
Decreased Ca; Increased phospate, PTH; Normal alk-phos
what is the source of calcitonin?
parafollicular cells (C-cells) of the Thyroid
what is the function of calcitonin?
tones down calcium - decreases bone resorption of calcium
what is the regulation of calcitonin?
increased serum Ca causes calcitonin secretion
Which hormones need gene transcription and protein synthesis to execute their effects?
PET CAT: Progesterone, Estrogen, Testosterone, Cortisol, Aldosterone, Thyroxine and T3
Will increases in the steroid binding globulins affect the amount of free hormone in the serum?
only transiently. an increase in steroid binding globulins will create a transient decrease in free hormone, which will result in synthesis of that hormone to maintain steady-state levels
What is the function of T3/T4?
Bone growth; CNS maturation; Beta-adrenergic effects; increased basal metabolic rate; increased glycogenolysis, gluconeogenesis, and lipolysis
skeletal muscle and adipose tissue have which glucose receptor?
GLUT 4
Brain and RBCs have which glucose receptor?
GLUT-1
What is the source of cortisol?
adrenal fasciculata
what are the functions of cortisol? (5)
1. anti-inflammatory; 2. increased gluconeogenesis, lipolysis, proteolysis; 3. decreased immune function; 4. maintains blood pressure; 5. decreased bone formation
what effect does chronic stress have in cortisol levels?
chronic stress induces prolonged cortisol secretion
Which hormones activate cGMP?
ANP, EDRF, NO
Which hormones activate the IP3 pathway?
GnRH, TRH, GHRH, ADH (V1), Oxytocin
Which hormones activate the tyrosine kinase pathway?
Insulin, IGF-1, FGF
What are the etiologies of cushing's syndrome?
cushing's disease (primary ACTH production); primary adrenal hyperplasia (decreased ACTH); ectopic ACTH production; Iatrogenic (decreased ACTH)
What are the symptoms of cushing's syndrome?
hypertension, weight gain, moon facies, truncal obesity, buffalo hump, hyperglycemia, skin changes (striae, thinning), amenorrhea, osteoporosis, immune suppression
What are symptoms of primary hyperaldosteronism?
hypertension, hpyokalemic metabolic alkalosis, low plasma renin
what are causes of secondary hyperaldosteronism?
renal artery stenosis, chronic renal failure, CHF,cirrhosis, or nephrotic syndrome
What is the pathogenesis of secondary hyperaldosteronism?
kidney perception of low intravascular volume results in overactive renin-angiotensin system --> high plasma renin
how do you distinguish between primary and secondary addison's disease?
primary results in an over-production of ACTH, so it causes hyperpigmentation. Secondary addison's has a decrease in ACTH, so no skin pigmentation
what causes the hyperpigmentation in addison's disease?
MSH, a biproduct of ACTH from POMC
what appears in the urine of patients with neuroblastoma?
HVA
what appears in the urine of patients with pheochromocytoma?
VMA
what other disorders is pheochromocytoma associated with?
neurofibromatosis, MEN II and MEN III
neuroblastoma is caused by a mutation in what gene?
N-myc oncogene
how is pheochromocytoma treated?
phenoxybenzamine, an irreversible alpha blocker
Describe MEN I
3 P's: Pancreas, Pituitary, and Parathyroid; presents with kidney stones and stomach ulcers
Describe MEN II
medullary carcinoma of thyroid, pheochromocytoma, parathyroid tumor
describe MEN III
pheochromocytoma, oral mucosal neuromas, medullary carcinoma of the thyroid
what gene is mutated in MEN II and MEN III
ret oncogene
symptoms of hypothyroidism?
cold intolerance, hypoactivity, weight gain, fatigue, lethargy, decreased appetite, constipation, decreased reflexes, myxedema, coarse, brittle hair
symptoms of hyperthyroidism?
heat intolerance, hyperactivity, weight loss, chest pain, arrhythmias, diarrhea, warm, moist skin, fine hair.
what is graves' disease?
autoimmune hyperthyroidism with thyroid-stimulating/TSH antibodies
what is thyroid storm?
underlying graves' disease with a stress-induced catecholamine surge leading to death by arrhythmia
what is hashimoto's thyroiditis?
autoimmune disorder resulting in hypothyroidism. lymphocytic infiltrate with germinal centers. antimicrosomal and antithyroglobulin antibodies
self-limited hypothyroidism following a flu-like illness. elevated ESR, jaw pain, early inflammation and tender thyroid gland
subacute thyroiditis (de Quervain's)
most common thyroid cancer?
papillary carcinoma
describe medullary carcinoma
from parafollicular C cells. produces calcitonin, sheets of cells in amyloid stroma. MEN II and MEN III
lymphoma of thyroid associated with what?
hashimoto's thyroiditis
pot-bellied, pale, puffy-faced child with protruding umbilicus and protuberant tongue. what is the underlying cause?
cretinism --> lack of dietary iodine in child or defect in thyroid hormone synthesis
what is Chvostek's sign? what does it mean?
tap facial nerve --> contraction of facial muscles. signifies hypoparathyroidism
What is Trousseau's sign? What does it mean?
occlusion of brachial artery with BP cuff --> carpal spasm
what are the clinical manifestations of a prolactinoma?
amenorrhea, galactorrhea, low libido, infertility.
what is a pharmacological treatment for prolactinoma?
bromocriptine --> dopamine agonist
what are complications of diabetic ketoacidosis?
life-threatening mucormycosis, rhizopus infection, cerebral edema, cardiac arrhythmias, heart failure