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139 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
Somatastatin?
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Paracrine substance released by Delta cells in the pancreas.
Acts on beta cells to decrease insulin and alpha cells to decrease glucogon. |
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TSH?
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TSH is released from anterior pituitary gland. Promotes T4 production.
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Paraventricular nucleus?
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Neuronal nucleus in the hypothalamus. Contains oxytocin and vasopressin neurons which project to the posterior pituitary. Also contains neurons that regulate ACTH and TSH secretion (which project to the anterior pituitary)
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Anterior pituitary?
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Synthesizes and secretes important endocrine hormones, such as ACTH, TSH, PRL, GH, endorphins, FSH, and LH.
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Special capillary system connecting the hypthalamus to the anterior pituitary>
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Hypothalamic-hypophyseal portal system.
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Controls how quickly the body burns energy, makes proteins, and how sensitive the body should be to other hormones?
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Thyroid
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Which is more active, T3 or T4?
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T3
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Which is more abundant, T3 or T4?
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T4
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Up to 80% of the T4 is converted to T3 by peripheral organs such as the?
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liver, kidney and spleen
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Which lipid is the precursor to most steroid hormones?
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LDL cholesterol
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Hormone target cell activation depends on which 3 major factors?
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Relative number of hormone receptors
Circulating hormone concentrations Receptor affinity |
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3 types of endocrine stimuli?
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Humoral
Neural Hormonal |
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Humoral stimuli?
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Hormones secreted in direct response to alterations in circulating levels of ions or nutrients
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Neural stimuli?
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Hormones secreted in response to nerve fiber activation
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Hormonal stimuli?
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Hormone release from one endocrine organ causes hormone release from another endocrine organ
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Infundibulum?
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Neuronal connection between the hypothalamus and the posterior pituitary
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Hypothalamic Hypophyseal Tract (HHT)?
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Neural tract from supraventricular nucleus in hypothalamus across the infundibulum to anterior AND posterior lobes.
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Hormones produced by the adrenal cortex?
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Corticosteroids and Mineralocorticoids
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Hormones produced by the adrenal medulla?
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Catecholamines: adrenaline (epinephrine), noradrenaline (norepinephrine), and dopamine
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Effect of cortisol on inflammation?
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Decreases pro-inflammatory cytokines: TNF, IL-1 and IL-6
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Cushing's syndrome is marked by?
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Excess cortisol
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Lysodren?
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Mitotane: Inhibits 11-hydroxylation of 11- deoxycortisol and deoxycorticosterone
Result = decreased cortisol and aldosterone |
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Metopirone?
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Metyrapone: Inhibition of 11-hydroxylation
Loss of inhibitory feedback to pituitary and hypothalamus Increased production of steroid precursors, causing indirect inhibition of steroid production. |
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Cytadren?
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Aminoglutethimide: Inhibitor of endogenous adrenal corticosteroid synthesis. Inhibits enzymatic cleavage of cholesterol to ∆5-pregnenolone: Blocks other steps in steroid synthesis:
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Nizoral?
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Ketoconazole: inhibitor of endogenous adrenal corticosteroid synthesis. Inhibits C17-20 lyase activity of P45017α. Decreases conversion of pregnelone to 17α hydroxypregnelone.
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Periactin?
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Cyproheptadine: Mechanism of action - acts centrally to reduce ACTH secretion, primarily through serotonin production. Decreases ACTH production by antagonizing 5-HT, which decreases cortisol.
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Name the three hormones produced and stored in the thyroid.
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Thyroxin (T4)
Triidothyronine (T3) Calcitonin |
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Thyroid hormone synthesis - occurs by 6 major steps. List these steps.
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Formation and storage of thyroglobulin
Iodide trapping and oxidation to iodine Iodination Iodotyrosine coupling Colloid endocytosis Cleavage of T3 and T4 for release |
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TBG?
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Thyroxin binding globulin, binds 68-75% of thyroxine.
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TTR?
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Transthyretin: binds 10-15% thyroxine
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Remaining thyroid hormone is bound to?
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Albumin and Lipoproteins
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Parathyroid hormone (PTH) is produced by _____cells?
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Chief cells
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Grave’s Disease?
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Hyperthyroidism?
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Toxic multinodular goiter?
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Hyperthyroidism?
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Non-toxic (common) goiter?
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Hypothyroidism?
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Irreversible symptoms of hypothyroidism?
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Carpal tunnel
Neuropathy Cerebral dysfunction |
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Etiology & Epidemiology of Hypothyroidism?
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Hashimoto’s disease:
Autoimmune destruction of thyroid. Iatrogenic hypothyroidism: Radioactive iodine or thyroidectomy. Iodine deficiency: Rare |
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Thyroid dessicated [USP]?
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Armour Thyroid, Thyroid Strong , Thyrar, S-P-T
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Levothyroxine?
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[T4] (generic, Synthroid, Levothyroid, Unithroid, Levo-T, Levoxyl, Levolet, Novothyrox),
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Liothyronine?
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[T3] (generic, Cytomel, Triostat),
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Liotrix?
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[4:1 ratio of T4 to T3] (Thyrolar, Euthyroid),
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Anti-thyroid drugs?
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Propylthiouracil (generic, PTU, Propacil)
Methimazole (MMI, Tapazole) |
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Advantage of levothyronine (T4)?
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Constant potency and longer duration due to depot effect.
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Advantage of Liothyronine (T3)?
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Rapid onset and shorter duration due to binding affinity
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Radioactive iodine - 131
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Sodium Iodide-131 (131I )
Half-life: 8.04 days. Emits both beta and gamma radiation. Beta radiation kills cells. |
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Sodium Iodide-123 ( 123I)
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Sodium Iodide-123 ( 123I)
Half-life: 13 hours in the thyroid gland. Emits only gamma radiation Gamma radiation gives diagnostic property without cell damage. |
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Insulin-dependent glucose uptake requires mobilization of?
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GLUT-4
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GLUTs 1 and 3 responsible for approx. ____ of glucose uptake:
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60%
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GLUT-2 essential for ________?
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hepatic glucose turnover
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Postprandial hyperglycemia ____ activity of GLUT-2 and hepatic glucose uptake
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Increases
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Fasting ____activity of GLUT-2 and hepatic glucose uptake:
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decreases
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Where is glucagon produced?
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in the pancreas
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What does glucagon do?
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Glucagon causes the liver to convert stored glycogen into glucose and release it into the bloodstream.
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What is the primary short term energy storage in animal cells?
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Glycogon
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Where is glycogon produced?
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Glycogon is made primarily by the liver and the muscles, but can also be made by the brain, uterus, and the vagina
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True or false, only the glycogen stored in the liver can be made accessible to other organs
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True.
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True or false, the brain is permeable to glucose, so insulin is not required.
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True
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True or false, 90% destruction of Beta cells is required before the full onset of type 2 diabetes occurs?
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True
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1 unit of insulin is the quantity required to decrease blood glucose by _____.
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45 mg/dl
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100 U/mL insulin + ?
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3.6mg/ml. Most commercial preparations contain approximately 3.6 mg/ml
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“Standard” insulin products contain ≤ ____ pro-insulin or other impurities
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10 ppm
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“Purified” insulin contains ≤ ____ proinsulin or other impurities
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1 ppm
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Humilin R and Novolin R?
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Clear, colorless solutions of Regular insulin (crystalline zinc) in neutral buffer
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Humilin R and Novolin R onset and duration?
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Onset: 30-60 minutes
Duration: 6-10 hours |
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Lispro?
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Lispro (Humolog) is rapid acting insulin available in a pen or vial: Synthetic rDNA modification of the B chain
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Lispro onset and duration?
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Onset: 15-30 minutes
Duration: 3-6.5 hours |
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Aspart?
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(Novolog) Rapid acting, synthetic rDNA modification of the B chain.
Alteration of the B chain involves substitution of Aspartate fro Proline B28. This decreases onset to 10-20 minutes and duration to 3-5 hours |
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NPH?
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Neutral Protamine Hagedorn (NPH) insulin-isophane insulin suspension:
Novalin N and Humulin N |
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Novolin N and Humulin N, onset and duration?
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Onset: 1-2 hours
Duration 16-24 hours |
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Lantus?
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Long-acting (slow) insulin.
Onset: 1.1 hours Duration: 24 hours |
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Lowest potency sulfonylurea?
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Tolbutamide
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Highest potency sulfonylurea?
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Glimiperide
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Sulfonylurea MOA?
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Stimulates insulin release from beta cells and reduces glucose output from the liver.
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Diabinase?
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Chlorpropamide: Sulfonylurea
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Amaryl?
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Glimiperide: Sulfonylurea
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Glucotrol?
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Glipizide: Sulfonylurea
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Diabeta or Micronase?
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Glyburide: Sulfonylurea
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Tolinase?
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Tolazamide: Sulfonylurea
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Prandin?
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Rapaglinide. Stimulates insulin release from Beta cells.
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Starlix?
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Neteglinide. Stimulates insulin release from Beta cells.
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Prandimet?
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Rapglinide and metformin.
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Glucophage?
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Metformin. Biguanide: Decreases hepatic glucose production, decreases intestinal glucose absorption and improves insulin sensitivity.
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Avandia:
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Rosiglitazone. PPARg agonist: lowers blood glucose by improving target cell response to insulin
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Glucovance
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Glyburide and metformin
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Actos?
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Pioglitazone. PPARg agonist: lowers blood glucose by improving target cell response to insulin
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Which PPARg agonist has an active metabolite?
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Actos (Pioglitazone)
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Acarbose?
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Precose: Inhibits alpha-glucosidase at the intestinal brush border.
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Miglitol?
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Glyset: Inhibits alpha-glucosidase at the intestinal brush border.
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Pramlintide?
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Symlin: Amylin analog. Decreases appetite.
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Exenatide?
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Exenatide (Byetta): Incretin Mimetic. Binds GLP-1 receptors
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Insulin chemistry?
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Small, simple protein
6000 daltons 51 amino acids 21 AAs in A chain 3 disulfied bonds 2 disulfied bonds between A and B chains |
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Insulin glargine?
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Lantus: Long acting insulin
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A1c?
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The average blood glucose over a 6-8 week period.
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A1c target?
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<7% per ADA
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Januvia?
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Sitagliptin: Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 inhibitor. Increases GLP-1 levels by inhibiting the degradation enzyme DPP4
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BPH occurs in the _________ zone.
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transitional zone
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Postate cancer usually occurs in the _______ zone
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peripheral zone
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Hyperplasia?
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An abnormal or unusual increase in the elements composing a part
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Hypertrophy?
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Excessive development of an organ or part; specifically: increase in bulk (as by thickening of muscle fibers) without multiplication of parts
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Leydig cells?
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Produce Testosterone, Androstenedione and Dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA)
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Sertoli cells?
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A Sertoli cell’s main function is to nurture the developing sperm cells through the stages of spermatogenesis. Because of this, it has also been called the "mother cell".
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Primary hypogonadism?
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Testicular Failure
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Secondary hypogonadism?
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Imbalance of the HPA Axis.
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Hypergonadism causes?
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Increased FSH
Increased LH Low testosterone Impaired sperm production |
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Hypogonadism causes?
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Low or low-normal FSH
Low or low-normal LH Low testosterone |
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_________ is an enzyme that converts testosterone, the male sex hormone, into the more potent dihydrotestosterone
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5-alpha reductase
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5a-reductase is produced only in specific tissues of the male human body, namely the_________________.
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skin, seminal vesicles, prostate and epididymis.
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Propecia?
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Finasteride (Propecia) inhibits the function of type 2 5a-reductase
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Avodart?
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Dutasteride: inhibits both forms of 5a-reductase
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Androstenedione?
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Hormone produced in the adrenal glands and gonads as an intermediate step in the biochemical pathway that produces testosterone and the estrogens estrone and estradiol
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17β-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase?
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Required for conversion of androstenedione to testosterone
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Aromatase?
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Required for the conversion of androstenedione to estrogen
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Conversion of androstenedione to estrone occurs in _______?
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adipose tissues
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PSA _______ is relatively specific for PCa
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> 10 ng/ml
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5α-Reductase Inhibitors?
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Suppress prostate growth:
Size by 20% in 6 months PSA by 50% Slows disease progression |
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first 6 steps in ovarian cycle?
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1. Activation of primordial follicle – conversion to cuboidal cell type
2. Proliferation of follicle cells – increases follicle size 3.Maturation of follicle cells to granulosa cells Granulosa cells: 4.Formation of theca folliculi and zona pellucida Theca folliculi: Zona pellucida: 5.Formation of antrum - secondary follicle 6.Formation of vesicular follicle “Corona radiata’ |
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Luteal phase (steps 8 and 9) of ovarian cycle?
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Formation of corpus luteum (CL):
This is due to the collapse of the ruptured follicle and antrum. The antrum then fills with blood, becoming the corpus hemorrhagicum. |
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Formation of corpus albicans?
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This occurs if pregnancy does not, forming 10 days after the corpus luteum.
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Progesterone production?
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Day 15: sharp drop LH, FSH and Estrogen and beginning of Progesterone secretion
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Most potent progestin OCs?
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Desogestrel
Levonorgestrel |
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Monophasic OCs?
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Fixed dose of estrogen to progestin for 21 days; 7 day placebo pills
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Librel?
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active pills for the entire year
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Extended-cycle OCs increase number of hormone-containing pills from _____?
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21 to 84 days followed by 7-day placebo phase
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Seasonale® (EE 30 mcg + levonorgestrel 0.15 mg)?
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84-day active pills; 7-day pill-free interval
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Seasonique® (EE 30/10 mcg + levonorgestrel 0.15 mg)
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84-day active pills; 7-day low-dose estrogen
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Yaz® (EE 20 mcg + drospirenone 3 mg)?
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24-day active pills; 4-day pill free; minimize duration of withdrawal bleeding and menstrual-related symptoms; FDA-approved for premenstrual dysphoric disorder and moderate acne
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Loestrin-24® Fe (EE 20 mcg + norethindrone 1 mg)?
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24-day active pills; 4-day pill free; minimize duration of withdrawal bleeding and menstrual-related symptoms
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Lybrel® (EE 20 mcg + levonorgestrel 90 mcg)?
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Active pill taken every day (no pill-free interval). May decrease endometriosis-related menstrual pain inadequately relieved by COC
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Progestin-Only Minipills?
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Provide 28 days of active hormone
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Women with migraine headaches, history of thromboembolic disease, heart disease, cerebrovascular disease, SLE with vascular disease, and hypertriglyceridemia should?
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Consider progestin-only methods (pills, DMPA, and the levonorgestrel intrauterine system)
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Women > 35 yrs who are smokers or are obese, or who have hypertension or vascular disease
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Use progesterone-only methods
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OC of choice with no coexisting medical conditions?
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OC with < 35 mcg ethinyl estradiol and < 0.5 mg norethindrone recommended
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OC for adolescents and underweight women (<110 lb), women > 35 yrs and perimenopausal women?
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May have fewer side effects with 20–25 mcg EE (less bloating and breast tenderness)
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OC for Women > 160 lb?
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May have higher contraceptive failure rates with low-dose OCs; consider 35 – 50 mcg of EE
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OC for women with heavy menses?
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Due to higher endometrial activity, may benefit from initiating 50 mcg EE OC
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OC for women with light menses?
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May be initiated on 20 mcg EE OCs
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OC for women with oily skin, acne and hirsutism?
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Use low androgenic OCs
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OCs for acne?
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Ortho Tri-Cyclen® (ethinyl estradiol 35 mcg + norgestimate), Estrostep® (ethinyl estradiol 20/30/35 mcg + norethindrone) and Yaz® (ethinyl estradiol 20 mcg + drosperinone)
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Orth Evra?
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CHC patch containing 0.75 mg EE and 6 mg norelgestromin
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