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139 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Somatastatin?
Paracrine substance released by Delta cells in the pancreas.
Acts on beta cells to decrease insulin and alpha cells to decrease glucogon.
TSH?
TSH is released from anterior pituitary gland. Promotes T4 production.
Paraventricular nucleus?
Neuronal nucleus in the hypothalamus. Contains oxytocin and vasopressin neurons which project to the posterior pituitary. Also contains neurons that regulate ACTH and TSH secretion (which project to the anterior pituitary)
Anterior pituitary?
Synthesizes and secretes important endocrine hormones, such as ACTH, TSH, PRL, GH, endorphins, FSH, and LH.
Special capillary system connecting the hypthalamus to the anterior pituitary>
Hypothalamic-hypophyseal portal system.
Controls how quickly the body burns energy, makes proteins, and how sensitive the body should be to other hormones?
Thyroid
Which is more active, T3 or T4?
T3
Which is more abundant, T3 or T4?
T4
Up to 80% of the T4 is converted to T3 by peripheral organs such as the?
liver, kidney and spleen
Which lipid is the precursor to most steroid hormones?
LDL cholesterol
Hormone target cell activation depends on which 3 major factors?
Relative number of hormone receptors
Circulating hormone concentrations
Receptor affinity
3 types of endocrine stimuli?
Humoral
Neural
Hormonal
Humoral stimuli?
Hormones secreted in direct response to alterations in circulating levels of ions or nutrients
Neural stimuli?
Hormones secreted in response to nerve fiber activation
Hormonal stimuli?
Hormone release from one endocrine organ causes hormone release from another endocrine organ
Infundibulum?
Neuronal connection between the hypothalamus and the posterior pituitary
Hypothalamic Hypophyseal Tract (HHT)?
Neural tract from supraventricular nucleus in hypothalamus across the infundibulum to anterior AND posterior lobes.
Hormones produced by the adrenal cortex?
Corticosteroids and Mineralocorticoids
Hormones produced by the adrenal medulla?
Catecholamines: adrenaline (epinephrine), noradrenaline (norepinephrine), and dopamine
Effect of cortisol on inflammation?
Decreases pro-inflammatory cytokines: TNF, IL-1 and IL-6
Cushing's syndrome is marked by?
Excess cortisol
Lysodren?
Mitotane: Inhibits 11-hydroxylation of 11- deoxycortisol and deoxycorticosterone
Result = decreased cortisol and aldosterone
Metopirone?
Metyrapone: Inhibition of 11-hydroxylation
Loss of inhibitory feedback to pituitary and hypothalamus
Increased production of steroid precursors, causing indirect inhibition of steroid production.
Cytadren?
Aminoglutethimide: Inhibitor of endogenous adrenal corticosteroid synthesis. Inhibits enzymatic cleavage of cholesterol to ∆5-pregnenolone: Blocks other steps in steroid synthesis:
Nizoral?
Ketoconazole: inhibitor of endogenous adrenal corticosteroid synthesis. Inhibits C17-20 lyase activity of P45017α. Decreases conversion of pregnelone to 17α hydroxypregnelone.
Periactin?
Cyproheptadine: Mechanism of action - acts centrally to reduce ACTH secretion, primarily through serotonin production. Decreases ACTH production by antagonizing 5-HT, which decreases cortisol.
Name the three hormones produced and stored in the thyroid.
Thyroxin (T4)
Triidothyronine (T3)
Calcitonin
Thyroid hormone synthesis - occurs by 6 major steps. List these steps.
Formation and storage of thyroglobulin
Iodide trapping and oxidation to iodine
Iodination
Iodotyrosine coupling
Colloid endocytosis
Cleavage of T3 and T4 for release
TBG?
Thyroxin binding globulin, binds 68-75% of thyroxine.
TTR?
Transthyretin: binds 10-15% thyroxine
Remaining thyroid hormone is bound to?
Albumin and Lipoproteins
Parathyroid hormone (PTH) is produced by _____cells?
Chief cells
Grave’s Disease?
Hyperthyroidism?
Toxic multinodular goiter?
Hyperthyroidism?
Non-toxic (common) goiter?
Hypothyroidism?
Irreversible symptoms of hypothyroidism?
Carpal tunnel
Neuropathy
Cerebral dysfunction
Etiology & Epidemiology of Hypothyroidism?
Hashimoto’s disease:
Autoimmune destruction of thyroid.
Iatrogenic hypothyroidism:
Radioactive iodine or thyroidectomy.
Iodine deficiency: Rare
Thyroid dessicated [USP]?
Armour Thyroid, Thyroid Strong , Thyrar, S-P-T
Levothyroxine?
[T4] (generic, Synthroid, Levothyroid, Unithroid, Levo-T, Levoxyl, Levolet, Novothyrox),
Liothyronine?
[T3] (generic, Cytomel, Triostat),
Liotrix?
[4:1 ratio of T4 to T3] (Thyrolar, Euthyroid),
Anti-thyroid drugs?
Propylthiouracil (generic, PTU, Propacil)

Methimazole (MMI, Tapazole)
Advantage of levothyronine (T4)?
Constant potency and longer duration due to depot effect.
Advantage of Liothyronine (T3)?
Rapid onset and shorter duration due to binding affinity
Radioactive iodine - 131
Sodium Iodide-131 (131I )
Half-life: 8.04 days. Emits both beta and gamma radiation. Beta radiation kills cells.
Sodium Iodide-123 ( 123I)
Sodium Iodide-123 ( 123I)
Half-life: 13 hours in the thyroid gland. Emits only gamma radiation Gamma radiation gives diagnostic property without cell damage.
Insulin-dependent glucose uptake requires mobilization of?
GLUT-4
GLUTs 1 and 3 responsible for approx. ____ of glucose uptake:
60%
GLUT-2 essential for ________?
hepatic glucose turnover
Postprandial hyperglycemia ____ activity of GLUT-2 and hepatic glucose uptake
Increases
Fasting ____activity of GLUT-2 and hepatic glucose uptake:
decreases
Where is glucagon produced?
in the pancreas
What does glucagon do?
Glucagon causes the liver to convert stored glycogen into glucose and release it into the bloodstream.
What is the primary short term energy storage in animal cells?
Glycogon
Where is glycogon produced?
Glycogon is made primarily by the liver and the muscles, but can also be made by the brain, uterus, and the vagina
True or false, only the glycogen stored in the liver can be made accessible to other organs
True.
True or false, the brain is permeable to glucose, so insulin is not required.
True
True or false, 90% destruction of Beta cells is required before the full onset of type 2 diabetes occurs?
True
1 unit of insulin is the quantity required to decrease blood glucose by _____.
45 mg/dl
100 U/mL insulin + ?
3.6mg/ml. Most commercial preparations contain approximately 3.6 mg/ml
“Standard” insulin products contain ≤ ____ pro-insulin or other impurities
10 ppm
“Purified” insulin contains ≤ ____ proinsulin or other impurities
1 ppm
Humilin R and Novolin R?
Clear, colorless solutions of Regular insulin (crystalline zinc) in neutral buffer
Humilin R and Novolin R onset and duration?
Onset: 30-60 minutes
Duration: 6-10 hours
Lispro?
Lispro (Humolog) is rapid acting insulin available in a pen or vial: Synthetic rDNA modification of the B chain
Lispro onset and duration?
Onset: 15-30 minutes
Duration: 3-6.5 hours
Aspart?
(Novolog) Rapid acting, synthetic rDNA modification of the B chain.
Alteration of the B chain involves substitution of Aspartate fro Proline B28. This decreases onset to 10-20 minutes and duration to 3-5 hours
NPH?
Neutral Protamine Hagedorn (NPH) insulin-isophane insulin suspension:
Novalin N and Humulin N
Novolin N and Humulin N, onset and duration?
Onset: 1-2 hours
Duration 16-24 hours
Lantus?
Long-acting (slow) insulin.
Onset: 1.1 hours
Duration: 24 hours
Lowest potency sulfonylurea?
Tolbutamide
Highest potency sulfonylurea?
Glimiperide
Sulfonylurea MOA?
Stimulates insulin release from beta cells and reduces glucose output from the liver.
Diabinase?
Chlorpropamide: Sulfonylurea
Amaryl?
Glimiperide: Sulfonylurea
Glucotrol?
Glipizide: Sulfonylurea
Diabeta or Micronase?
Glyburide: Sulfonylurea
Tolinase?
Tolazamide: Sulfonylurea
Prandin?
Rapaglinide. Stimulates insulin release from Beta cells.
Starlix?
Neteglinide. Stimulates insulin release from Beta cells.
Prandimet?
Rapglinide and metformin.
Glucophage?
Metformin. Biguanide: Decreases hepatic glucose production, decreases intestinal glucose absorption and improves insulin sensitivity.
Avandia:
Rosiglitazone. PPARg agonist: lowers blood glucose by improving target cell response to insulin
Glucovance
Glyburide and metformin
Actos?
Pioglitazone. PPARg agonist: lowers blood glucose by improving target cell response to insulin
Which PPARg agonist has an active metabolite?
Actos (Pioglitazone)
Acarbose?
Precose: Inhibits alpha-glucosidase at the intestinal brush border.
Miglitol?
Glyset: Inhibits alpha-glucosidase at the intestinal brush border.
Pramlintide?
Symlin: Amylin analog. Decreases appetite.
Exenatide?
Exenatide (Byetta): Incretin Mimetic. Binds GLP-1 receptors
Insulin chemistry?
Small, simple protein
6000 daltons
51 amino acids
21 AAs in A chain
3 disulfied bonds
2 disulfied bonds between A and B chains
Insulin glargine?
Lantus: Long acting insulin
A1c?
The average blood glucose over a 6-8 week period.
A1c target?
<7% per ADA
Januvia?
Sitagliptin: Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 inhibitor. Increases GLP-1 levels by inhibiting the degradation enzyme DPP4
BPH occurs in the _________ zone.
transitional zone
Postate cancer usually occurs in the _______ zone
peripheral zone
Hyperplasia?
An abnormal or unusual increase in the elements composing a part
Hypertrophy?
Excessive development of an organ or part; specifically: increase in bulk (as by thickening of muscle fibers) without multiplication of parts
Leydig cells?
Produce Testosterone, Androstenedione and Dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA)
Sertoli cells?
A Sertoli cell’s main function is to nurture the developing sperm cells through the stages of spermatogenesis. Because of this, it has also been called the "mother cell".
Primary hypogonadism?
Testicular Failure
Secondary hypogonadism?
Imbalance of the HPA Axis.
Hypergonadism causes?
Increased FSH
Increased LH
Low testosterone
Impaired sperm production
Hypogonadism causes?
Low or low-normal FSH
Low or low-normal LH
Low testosterone
_________ is an enzyme that converts testosterone, the male sex hormone, into the more potent dihydrotestosterone
5-alpha reductase
5a-reductase is produced only in specific tissues of the male human body, namely the_________________.
skin, seminal vesicles, prostate and epididymis.
Propecia?
Finasteride (Propecia) inhibits the function of type 2 5a-reductase
Avodart?
Dutasteride: inhibits both forms of 5a-reductase
Androstenedione?
Hormone produced in the adrenal glands and gonads as an intermediate step in the biochemical pathway that produces testosterone and the estrogens estrone and estradiol
17β-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase?
Required for conversion of androstenedione to testosterone
Aromatase?
Required for the conversion of androstenedione to estrogen
Conversion of androstenedione to estrone occurs in _______?
adipose tissues
PSA _______ is relatively specific for PCa
> 10 ng/ml
5α-Reductase Inhibitors?
Suppress prostate growth:
Size by 20% in 6 months
PSA by 50%
Slows disease progression
first 6 steps in ovarian cycle?
1. Activation of primordial follicle – conversion to cuboidal cell type
2. Proliferation of follicle cells – increases follicle size
3.Maturation of follicle cells to granulosa cells
Granulosa cells:
4.Formation of theca folliculi and zona pellucida
Theca folliculi:
Zona pellucida:
5.Formation of antrum - secondary follicle
6.Formation of vesicular follicle
“Corona radiata’
Luteal phase (steps 8 and 9) of ovarian cycle?
Formation of corpus luteum (CL):
This is due to the collapse of the ruptured follicle and antrum. The antrum then fills with blood, becoming the corpus hemorrhagicum.
Formation of corpus albicans?
This occurs if pregnancy does not, forming 10 days after the corpus luteum.
Progesterone production?
Day 15: sharp drop LH, FSH and Estrogen and beginning of Progesterone secretion
Most potent progestin OCs?
Desogestrel
Levonorgestrel
Monophasic OCs?
Fixed dose of estrogen to progestin for 21 days; 7 day placebo pills
Librel?
active pills for the entire year
Extended-cycle OCs increase number of hormone-containing pills from _____?
21 to 84 days followed by 7-day placebo phase
Seasonale® (EE 30 mcg + levonorgestrel 0.15 mg)?
84-day active pills; 7-day pill-free interval
Seasonique® (EE 30/10 mcg + levonorgestrel 0.15 mg)
84-day active pills; 7-day low-dose estrogen
Yaz® (EE 20 mcg + drospirenone 3 mg)?
24-day active pills; 4-day pill free; minimize duration of withdrawal bleeding and menstrual-related symptoms; FDA-approved for premenstrual dysphoric disorder and moderate acne
Loestrin-24® Fe (EE 20 mcg + norethindrone 1 mg)?
24-day active pills; 4-day pill free; minimize duration of withdrawal bleeding and menstrual-related symptoms
Lybrel® (EE 20 mcg + levonorgestrel 90 mcg)?
Active pill taken every day (no pill-free interval). May decrease endometriosis-related menstrual pain inadequately relieved by COC
Progestin-Only Minipills?
Provide 28 days of active hormone
Women with migraine headaches, history of thromboembolic disease, heart disease, cerebrovascular disease, SLE with vascular disease, and hypertriglyceridemia should?
Consider progestin-only methods (pills, DMPA, and the levonorgestrel intrauterine system)
Women > 35 yrs who are smokers or are obese, or who have hypertension or vascular disease
Use progesterone-only methods
OC of choice with no coexisting medical conditions?
OC with < 35 mcg ethinyl estradiol and < 0.5 mg norethindrone recommended
OC for adolescents and underweight women (<110 lb), women > 35 yrs and perimenopausal women?
May have fewer side effects with 20–25 mcg EE (less bloating and breast tenderness)
OC for Women > 160 lb?
May have higher contraceptive failure rates with low-dose OCs; consider 35 – 50 mcg of EE
OC for women with heavy menses?
Due to higher endometrial activity, may benefit from initiating 50 mcg EE OC
OC for women with light menses?
May be initiated on 20 mcg EE OCs
OC for women with oily skin, acne and hirsutism?
Use low androgenic OCs
OCs for acne?
Ortho Tri-Cyclen® (ethinyl estradiol 35 mcg + norgestimate), Estrostep® (ethinyl estradiol 20/30/35 mcg + norethindrone) and Yaz® (ethinyl estradiol 20 mcg + drosperinone)
Orth Evra?
CHC patch containing 0.75 mg EE and 6 mg norelgestromin