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91 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
The _____________ is responsible for determining ambulance standards.
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US General Services Administration
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Ambulance design and manufacturing guidelines, outlined by the _________, are reviewed and updated every___ years.
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DOT KKK 1822
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Original DOT KKK 1822 guidelines required all ambulances be painted what 2 colors:
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Omaha orange and white
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The KKK Standards established three main_______, including Type I, Type II, and Type III
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ambulance designs
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Describe a Type I ambulance.
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Conventional, truck-cab chassis with a modular ambulance body that can be transferred to a new chassis as needed.
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Describe a Type II ambulance.
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Type II: Standard van, forward-control integral cab-body ambulance.
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Describe a Type III ambulance.
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Specialty van, forward-control integral cab-body ambulance. Both Type I and Type III have a square patient compartment that is mounted onto the chassis. The only difference between Type I and III is in the chassis. Type III is mounted on a cut-a-way van chassis.
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The __________ developed the first standardized list of ambulance equipment in 1970.
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American College of Surgeons (ACS)
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What are the "4 S's" that every ambulance should be capable of, and must be put out of commission immediately for if it cannot do?
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Start
Steer Stop Stay running If the ambulance cannot do any of these 4 things, it must be put out of commission immediately. |
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Describe "Belt noise"
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Chirping or squealing sound, synchronous with engine speed (not road speed); usually related to a load on one of the appliances operated by a drive belt - the power steering pump, water pump, vacuum pump (in diesel), alternator.
Always significant as it will eventually stop the ambulance from working. This does NOT necessarily warrant putting the ambulance out of service immediately. |
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Describe "Brake Fade"
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Sensation of losing power brakes.Common causes include:
i. Overheating of brake surfaces ii. Loss of vacuum iii. Loss of brake fluid iv. Wet or greasy brake drums v. Failed master cylinder b. Vehicle should be taken out of service immediately. You should not ever hear, smell, or feel brakes with few exceptions such as cold brakes in wet weather, or when "telltale tabs" squeal, warning the operator of the end of the brake pads usefulness. |
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Describe: "Brake pull"
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Feels like someone is trying to pull your steering wheel left or right whenever you depress the brake.
Causes: i. Brake fluid or grease on a brake pad. ii. Serious mechanical malfunction Vehicle should be taken out of service immediately. |
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Describe "Drift"
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Vehicle wanders to left or right when you let go of steering wheel.
Slight pull to the right is okay (because roads are built with a peak in the center), but vehicle should not consistently pull to the left. |
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Describe "Steering Pull"
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Persistent tug on the steering wheel as the unit drifts to one side or another
. Causes may include: i. Uneven tire pressure ii. Misaligned wheels iii. Mechanical problem b. Can cause loss of control during a sudden stop |
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Describe a "pulsating brake pedal"
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Up-and-down motion of brake pedal while decelerating.
Causes may include: i. Warped brake rotors or drums ii. Bent wheel Vehicle should be taken out of service immediately. |
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Describe "Steering Play"
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Looseness or sloppiness while steering
a. Causes may include: i. Wear ii. Underinflated tires Vehicle should be taken out of service immediately. |
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Describe "Tire Squeel"
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Singing sound when you turn the vehicle at parking speeds
a. Normal on smooth concrete; abnormal on asphalt b. Causes may include: i. Underinflated tires ii. Misaligned wheels c. Warrant’s a mechanic’s attention |
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Describe "Wheel bounce"
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Vibration synchronous with road speed that can be felt in the steering wheel (front wheel) or driver’s seat (back wheel). Usually detectable at speeds of >45mph
Causes may include: i. Defective shock absorber ii. Bubble in tire iii. Unbalanced wheel |
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Describe "Wheel wobble"
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Found at low speeds with a bent wheel. most commonly caused by potholes.
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"high-performance EMS systems" represent the effort to:
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maximize productivity and minimize response times
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"high-performance EMS systems" analyze these 4 factors:
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response times (<8 min)
productivity (#pt transports/hr): aka "unit-hour utilization) unit costs taxpayer subsidies |
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Ambulance response time standards are based on recommendations by the _____________.
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Commission on the Accreditation of Ambulances (CAAS
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In the United States, most first-response EMS and ambulance service is delivered by ________.
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the fire department whose personnel are cross-trained in EMS.
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Describe the system known as the "third service delivery model"
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a public agency not part of the fire department delivers ambulance service
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Describe: Systems Status Management (SSM)
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SSM was developed by Jack Stout in 1983. Goals are to maximize efficiency and reduce response time.
Data is compiled and used to determine ambulance service demands, taking into consideration: Peak loads: Increased demand during certain hours Strategic deployment is used to minimize response times when demand is higher. Deployment to a posting (location) can take advantage of satellite vehicle location and GPS. SSM helps organize peak demand staffing. Shift schedules provide a sufficient number of ambulances during peak load hours. SSM can take a toll on personnel who have less downtime in between calls. |
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Define: Peak loads
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Increased demand during certain hours or other frame of time
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Define: Strategic deployment
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staging of ambulances to strategic locations within a service area to allow for coverage of emergency calls.
used to minimize response times when demand is higher. |
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Define: Posting
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the strategic placement of an ambulance at a specific geographic location in order to cover larger areas of territory and reduce response times
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3 factors affecting the locations of ambulance stationing include:
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distance vs. call volume
special facilities that increase ambulance demand |
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4 factors affecting the design of ambulance stations include:
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need for vehicle maintenance
storage classrooms for training/meetings sleeping quarters |
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When should you be concerned with restoring the flow of traffic at an accident?
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Only after your safety is assured, all the patients have been treated, and the emergency situation is under control.
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The main objectives in directing traffic are to:
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warn other drivers, prevent additional crashes, and to keep vehicles moving in an orderly fashion so that care of patients is uninterrupted.
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You should secure a patient with at least ____ straps across the body when transporting by ambulance.
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3
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___________ over the shoulders prevent forward movement of the patient if the ambulance suddenly slows or stops.
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Deceleration or stopping straps
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Define: Cleaning
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Remove dirt, dust, blood, or other visible contaminants.
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Define: Disinfection
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Kill pathogenic agents by directly applying chemicals made for this purpose
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Define: High-level disinfection
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Kill pathogenic agents by use of a potent disinfectant.
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Define: Sterilization
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Remove all microbial contamination with the use of heat or other appropriate process.
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________ must be done first in order for disinfection to be effective.
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Cleaning
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Cleaning the ambulance can be done with a _____% bleach and water solution.
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10%
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The stretcher should be cleaned with:
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EPA-registered germicidal/virucidal solution or bleach and water at 1:100 dilution.
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T/F
It is sufficient to have a GPS system in the ambulance as opposed to keeping map books. |
False. you should still have access to traditional maps in the event that the navigational system becomes disabled.
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Which is often more beneficial: Driving faster or choosing an alternative route?
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Often, switching to an alternative route will save more time than driving faster
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Which personnel in the ambulance is responsible for talking on the radio and operating audible devices?
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the passenger.
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Which medic makes the decision as to whether to drive with the lights/sirens in emergency mode?
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Paramedic riding in rear of ambulance with patient should make decision as to whether to transport in emergency mode.
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Maintaining a cushion of safety consists of:
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i. Maintaining a safe following distance from vehicles
ii. Avoiding being tailgated. iii. Make sure you’re aware of blind spots. |
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Maintaining a safe following distance from vehicles means:
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Drive 4 or 5 seconds behind a vehicle driving at an average speed.
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What are appropriate and inappropriate responses to a tailgater following you in emergency mode?
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Appropriate: call dispatch to alert police that someone is following recklessly behind you.
Inappropriate: do not speed up. do not slam on brakes. do not get out of ambulance to confront tailgaters |
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Where are the 3 blind spots of the ambulance?
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(a) Mirror obstructs view
(b) Rear of vehicle cannot be seen fully through mirror. (c) Side of vehicle cannot be seen through driver and passenger mirrors at a certain angle. May need to lean forward/backward to see. |
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What is the most common source of vehicle damage for ambulances?
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backing p a vehicle.
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Define: Spotter
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a person who assists a driver in backing up an ambulance to compensate for a blind spot at the back of the vehicle.
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Where should you park your ambulance at an emergency scene?
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about 100 ft past the scene on the same side of the road, uphill or upwind. preferably downstream from the crash site.
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Should you leave headlights and emergency lights on when parked at an emergency scene or turn them off?
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Turn off headlights to avoid blinding oncoming traffic at night.
Leave emergency warning lights on if blocking part of a roadway. i. Use only flashing yellow lights if possible. |
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The 2 ways to control a vehicle include:
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changing direction and changing speed
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The ambulance tires' grip on the road depends on:
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(a) Condition of surface
(b) Age of road (c) Weather (d) Tire’s tread design and wear |
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Describe: Road Position
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Position of the vehicle on the road relative to the inside or outside edge of a paved surface
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To corner efficiently in an ambulance, you must know:
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the vehicle's present position and projected path
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Describe: "the Apex of turn through a curve"
What happens if you reach it early/late? |
Point at which vehicle is closest to inside edge of curve
(a) If reached early, vehicle will be forced outside of roadway. (b) If reached late, vehicle will stay on inside of roadway. |
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Which should you aim for? Reaching the apex of a turn early or late?
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late. the vehicle will ten dot stay on the inside of the roadway; this helps you to keep the vehicle in the proper lane and allows room for error if you enter the turn too fast.
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Braking while ______ is safest and most efficient.
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traveling in a straight line
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Hydroplaning occurs at speeds of greater than ______ on wet roads.
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30 mph
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To make the ambulance stop hydroplaning, you should ______.
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Gradually slow down without slamming on the brakes if this occurs
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After driving through pool of standing water on the roadway, you should ______.
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lightly tap the brakes several times after driving out the water to dry them.
If you have anti-lock brakes, apply steady, light pressure to dry brakes. |
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In the event of a crash, the ambulance driver is presumed ______ if crash occurs while vehicle is operating with warning lights and sirens.
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Guilty
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The largest source of lawsuits against EMS personnel and services is ______.
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ambulance crashes
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The use of warning lights and sirens allows EMS driver to do the following 5 things:
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a. Park or stand in otherwise illegal location.
b. Proceed through red light or stop sign after stopping. c. Drive faster than posted speed limit. d. Drive against the flow of traffic on a one-way street or make an illegal turn. e. Travel left of center to make an illegal pass. |
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In order to use warning lights and sirens EMS drivers must adhere to the following 3 stipulations:
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i. Unit must be on a true emergency call.
ii. Both audible and visual warning devices must be used simultaneously. iii. Unit must be operated with due regard for the safety of others on and off the roadway. |
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The most overused piece of equipment on the ambulance is the _______.
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Siren
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If family members disregard your warning to not follow close behind the ambulance, you should _________.
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consider turning off your lights and sirens and slow down to normal speed.
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These types of crashes are the most common and most serious type of crash for an ambulance.
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Intersection crashes
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You're driving in emergency mode and come upon a school bus that has stopped to load or unload children or that has its stop arm extended, what should you do?
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Never pass a school bus that has stopped to load or unload children or that has its stop arm extended.
Stop before reaching a bus with its lights flashing. Wait for the driver to ensure children’s safety, close the door, and turn off the lights before proceeding. |
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What privileges do ambulances have in school zones?
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Typically none. In many states it is illegal for an emergency vehicle to exceed the speed limit in school zones.
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How should you navigate your ambulance with regard to funeral processions?
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Most states offer no exemption when approaching a funeral procession.
Out of respect, most drivers turn off audible devices and slowly pass on the left if possible. |
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Rotor-wing aircraft (helicopters) are standard of care for transportation of ________ patients.
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critically injured
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Fixed-wing aircraft are used mainly for patients requiring ___________.
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long-distance transportation
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Cardiac arrest patients need to be transported by _____ due to _______.
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ground
space limitations in the aircraft |
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When calling for medevac, you should tell your dispatcher these 2 things:
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chief complaint
weight of patient |
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6 Factors to consider before requesting medevac include:
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Weather
Environment/terrain Altitude Airspeed limitations cabin size cost |
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Most medevac helicopters are limited to ________ft above sea level.
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10,000
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Most medevac helicopters usually fly between ____ and ____ mph
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130-150 mph
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cost of medevac usually ranges from $____ to $______, while an ambulance usually costs $____ to $____.
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medevac: $8,000-$10,000
ambulance: $400 - $1,000 |
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A helicopter landing zone should be no less than ______ by _____, but _____ x ______ is recommended
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not less than 60 ft x 60 ft; 100x1000ft is recommended
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The safest flight pattern to land and take off for a helicopter is _______.
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the same as for a fixed wing plane. That is, not straight up and down, but landing and taking off at a slight angle.
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Establishing a landing zone is the responsibility of the ________.
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ground EMS crew.
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List 3 things to never use to mark a medevac landing site.
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flares, people, accident tape
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When a helicopter is "hot" it means:
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the tail rotor is spinning
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The proper approach sites for a helicopter are between ______ and ____ o'clock.
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9 and 3 o'clock.
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In many helicopters the main blade is flexible and may dip as low as ____ feet off the ground.
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4 feet
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Smoking, open lights or flames, and flares are prohibited within ________ of the aircraft.
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50 ft
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When requesting a medevac response, always include these 2 things:
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a. Ground contact radio channel
b. Call sign of the unit that the medevac should make contact with |
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If the aircraft lands on uneven ground, approach the aircraft from the _____ side.
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downhill side.
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