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654 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
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What is the age for an Snellen chart?
MC: 4-6 y/o- able to read letters of alphebet
Stand 20 feet.

p. 761
What is the distance for the tumbling E and allen chart for Visual acuity?
10 feet

p. 761
How long are babies MC cross eyed for?
first month of life

p. 761
When should an infant/child be able to fixate on an object 1-2 feet away?
3-6 months of life

Beyond this age- to 3 yrs...should be able to distract with bright, moving objects, etc.
p. 762
What is the MC pupil diameter in abmient light of a child infant and adult?
Child: 9.0-10.5mm
Adult: 10.5-13.0 mm

p. 763
What might leukocoria be indicative of?
A problem with: cornea, lens, or anterior or posterior chamber of the eye.

p. 763
When is a bright light eye examination MC tolerated by a child?
> 5 y/o.

younger children will MC squint

p. 763
What is pupillary escape? Is it Normal?
It is NML. It is an initial responsive pupillary constriction and dilation in response to APD examination. (Best to read the Consenual light reflex section p. 763- word "Next check" to"A bright light")
What is the extend of a fundoscopic examination in an infant and toddler?
Red reflex- performed 1-2 feet away

p. 763
What is occular misalignment called?
Strabismus

p. 763
What is the term for an inward gaze?
Esotropia

p. 763
What is the term for an outward gaze?
Exotropia

p. 763
What is the term for upward gaze of the eyes?
Hypertropia

p. 763
What is the term for a downward deviation of the eyes?
Hypotropia

p. 763
What is the term for the inward deviation of the eye when the other eye is covered?
Esophoria

p. 763
What is the term for the outward deviation of the eye when the other eye is covered>
Exophoria

p. 763
What is the loss of visual acuity not correctable with glasses in otherwise healthy eye>
Amblyopia

p. 763
What is the presumed age limit for correction of amblyopia before the brain suppresses visual information?
10 y/o

p. 763
What can be the cause as well as caused by strabismus?
amblyopia

p. 763
What muscles do the cranial nerves innervate and what is their association?
CN VI: LR muscle
CN IV: SO muscle
CN III: All other muscles

LR6,SO4,AO3

p. 763
What physiologic feature is noted as provoking a pseudostrabismus?
Epicanthal fold

p. 763
What is dacrystenosis?
narrowing/obstruction of the nasolacrimal duct. Unilateral or bilateral. MC dx in infancy.

p. 764
T/F: Child with dacrystenosis will have erythema of the conjunctiva or irritation of the surrounding soft tissue.
False

MC some excess tearing, minimal crust, but the conjunctiva is spared. No fever, no irritability

p. 764
What is dacrocystitis?
inflammation and superinfection with S. Aureus, S. Pneumoniae, S. Epidermidis, H. Influenzae etc. with erythema and swelling inframedullary to eye- with chronic mucopurulent d/c.

p. 764
What is a consequence of poorly treated dacrocystitis?
Periorbital and/or orbital cellulitis.

p. 764
What is a small bluish-hued, palpable mass in the location of the nasolacrimal duct?
Dacrycele

p. 764
What is an infection of the lacrimal gland MC associated with: Sjogren, sarcoidosis, or thyroid dz?
Dacryadenitis

p. 764
for suspected bacerial infx: dacryadenitis, what is the PO abx of choice?
Keflex- non-MRSA
Bactrim- MRSA

p. 764-765
What is the connective tissue extension of the orbital periosteum that extends into the upper and lower lid which acts as a barrier to infx in the eye?
Orbital septum

- this is the way of involvement for periorbital cellulitis and orbital cellulitis...
peri-orbit: Pre-septal
Orbit: post-septal

p. 765
What is the avg age of periorbital cellulitis?
2 y/o

p 765
insect bite, small scratch, but can also be conjunctivitis, dacryadenitis, and hordeolum
MC: Staph and GAS
T/F: An individual with a hx of sinusitis, wakes up mild edema and swelling of the eyelid. The swelling improves as the day continues. THis patient has periorbital cellulitis and this is common.
False: this is a reactive edema. The swelling will not regress on own if cellulitis.

p. 765
What are some significant differences between peri-orbital and orbital cellulitis that help to define dx: peri-orbital cellulitis (6)?
1. No decrease in V. acuity
2. no conjunctival injections
3. No impairment in extraoccular movements
4. no proptosis
5. no pain with eye movement
6. no intraorbital pathology

p. 765
If uncertain: orbital vs. periorbital cellulitis- what can you use to help in the dx?
CT scan...orbital and sinus

p. 765
T/F: A child who is well appearing with certain periorbital cellulitis may be d/c'd with oral abx regimen.
True

Augmentin: 20 mg/kg PO BID

p. 765
What is MC the extension of a sinus infx into the orbit, behind the septum, with the MC age 12 y/o at presentation.
Orbital cellulitis- if you did not get this one, strike yourself in the head with a tack hammer...

p. 765
What are some of the characterisitics that help to define orbital cellulitis?
eyelid or periorbital inflammation, accompanied by the following:
1. proptosis
2. impaired extraoccular movements
3. pain with eye movement
4. decreased visual acuity
5. chemosis
6. APD- afferent pupillary defect

- fever does not have to be present.

p. 765
T/F: In an appropriate candidate, and access to enough abx, orbital cellulitis can be managed outpatient.
FALSE: all orbital cellulitis patients are sick and need IV abx, as well as contact with ophthalmology, ENT and consideration for surgical debridement. Oral abx will follow improvement in sxs an clinical course, but not initially.

p. 765
How will an infant or small child present with corneal abrasion?
Inconsolable crying and an otherwise normal exam

Infact, a gtt of proparicaine 0.5% or tetracaine 0.5% in the eye with calming of the child= highly suggestive.
p. 766
What is the tx for corneal abrasion? What should be avoided in the tx of corneal abrasion?
1. Tx: E-mycin ointment (Cipro or oflox are safe > 1 y/o)
2. Avoid: Topical steroids and oitnments with neomycin

p. 766
T/F: If patient has a corneal abrasion there is no concern for tetanous, even if trauma from pet or outside, secondary to the blood supply.
False: provide.

p. 766
Simple corneal abrasion- when is f/u
48 hrs

p. 766- FB sensation beyond 2-3 days- requires further investigation by ophtho
What is conjunctivitis in children up to 30 days old?
Ophthalmia Neonatorum

p. 766
What are the five categories of neonatal conjunctivitis?
1. Chemical
2. Gonococcal
3. Chlamydial
4. other bacterial
5. Viral

p. 766
- all can lead to severe morbidity
How can you determine/exclude the involvement of the following ophthalmology?
1. Gonococcal
2. Herpes
3. Chlamydia
1. Gramstain of d/c- gram Neg diplococci
2. Maternal hx herpes as well as + fluorescein stain and herpetic lesions
3. There is no way- you tx with 14 days E-mycin

p. 766
What is the tx for neonatal conjunctivitis- as a chemical cause?
Watchful waiting, should resolve in 48 hrs.

MC: Silver nitrate as a source; however, this has been reduced since practice replaced with E-mycin ointment.

p. 766
What presents with occular manifestations: b/l bulbar conjunctival erythema, chemosis, and a copious purulent d/c?
Gonococcal Conjunctivitis

p. 767
How are Gonococcal ophthalmia patients treated?
With admission to ensure no disseminated disease.

Also, no evidence of hyperbilirubinemia, provide single dose: Rocephin 50 mg/kg IV Max 125 mg.

p. 767
While chlamydia ophthalmia cannot be excluded in the ED, what is the test of choice for this?
NAAT- nucleic acid amplification test or a giemsa stain of the d/c

p. 767
HSV types I and II...viral ophthalmia...how is this tx'd?
(sxs develop in 6-14 days of life)
MC b/l d/c and erythema. Maternal hx: HSV infx, additionally, will often have mucocutaneous involvement.
1. Admission
2. Full sepsis work up (esp with LP and PCR test of CSF)
3. IV acyclovir 20 mg/kg q 8h
4. Topical anti-virals
- to avoid keratitis and disseminated infx.

p. 768
Herpes Zoster ophthalmicus V1 distribution as well as HSV- if presenting w/in 72 hrs, how tx'd
oral acyclovir:> 2 y/o 20 mg/kg PO q 6 hrs x 5 days: Max dose, 3200 mg/d.
DON'T forget ophthalmology referral.

p. 768
What is oculoglandular syndrome?
RARE infx caused by Bartonella Henslae (cat scratch dz) or tularemia- causes: ipsilateral conjunctivitis, lymphadenopahty- often axillary.

p. 768
Read: 768- Viral conjunctivitis and Bacterial conjunctivitis in children...
...because the guys who make these test suck and will likely take a question from this crap, though you've tx'd this in the past.
What two organisms are not effectively covered by e-mycin in the tx of conjunctivitis?
M. Catarrhalis and H. Influenzae

p 769
Why are oral antihistamines discouraged in tx of allergic conjunctivitis?
Causes drying of the eyes which in turn worsens sxs.

p. 769
What is needed in "typical cases" of Kawasaki dz?
1. fever > 5 days
2. dry, erythematous lips/oropharynx
3. enlarged cervical lymphadenopathy
4. non-vesicular rash
5. edema and peeling of the hands and feet
6. Nonpurulent d/c b/l conjunctivitis

p. 769
What are the common pathologic signs of pediatric glaucoma?(3-6)
1. IOP: > 20
2. Cornea enlarged, edematous/cloudy
3. > 12 mm corneal diameter (<1 y/o), > 13 mm in all others**
- associated with following
4. Blephrospasm
5. red infected eye
6. myopia

p. 769
What is the definitive tx for glaucoma?
Surgery

p. 769
Why do you NOT use pediculosis shampoo's on the eyes?
Toxic to the eyes

p. 769
What is a very common cause of childhood visual impairment and the most frequent cause of NON-malignant leukocorea?
Cataracts

p. 770
What are cataracts from in the neonatal period?
TORCH
-toxoplasmosis
- other: Syphilis
-Rubella
-CMV
-HSV

p. 770
What are the MC presenting signs of retinoblastoma?
leukocoria and strabismus

p. 770
What is the MC predisposing factor for sinusitis (bacterial)
viral URI

p. 771
When are ethmoid sinuses formed?
The are formed in utero- developed at birth

p. 771
When are the sphenoid sinuses formed?
3-5 yrs of age

p. 771
Frontal sinuses, when are these formed?
7-8 yrs of age. Not pneumatized until adolescence

p. 771
What is the "gold standard" for dx bacterial sinusitis?
Recovery of >10^4 colony-forming units/mL bacteria from paranasal sinuses.

p. 771

Not performed, aspiration is too painful and impractical in the ED
T/F: Imaging studies are needed to cofirm the dx of acute bacterial sinusitis in children < 6 y/o with persistent sxs.
False

p. 771
T/F: A cranial CT WITH contrast is RECOMMENDED for suspected complications of bacterial sinusitis, including preseptal or postseptal cellulitis, subperiosteal abscess, cavernous sinus thrombosis, osteomyelitis of the frontal bone (pott puffy tumor), subdural empyema, epidural or brain abscess, and meningitis.
True

p. 771
What are regarded as severe sxs of acute bacterial sinusitis?
- fever > 39 (102.2)
- purulent nasal d/c for > 3 days
- ill appearing child

p. 771
What are regarded as persistent sxs of acute bacterial sinusitis?
Nasal or postnasal d/c
and/or
Daytime cough lasting 10-30 days

p. 771
What is the primary drug of choice for uncomplicated mild to moderate sinusitis in children?
Amox (80 mg/kg/d) PO x 10-14 days

p 772
What are regarded as "adequate alternatives" to amx for sinusitis when mild PCN allergy?
- 2/3 gen Cephalosporin:
Cefprozil 7.5-15 mg/kg PO bid
Cefuroxime 15 mg/kg PO bid
Cefpodoxime 5 mg/kg PO bid

p. 772
What should be done in the ED when a patient has: proptosis or impairment of the extraoccular muscles of the eye? Why?
- CT scan
- suggests orbital inflammation and possible extension of an ethmoid sinus infx.

p. 772
What do I do with a sinusitis patient that has a SEVERE PCN allergy?
provide:
Clarithromycin or Azithromycin
What should be suspected in a patient who has hx: chronic sinusitis, nasal polyps, chronic cough and evidence of failure to thrive (FTT)?
Cystic fibrosis

p. 773
What age group can one begin to see the IgE mediated allergic rhinitis?
> 2 y/o

p. 773
What is the mainstay of tx for allergic rhinitis?
Antihistamines and Intranasal steroids

tho hypertonic (3%) nasal saline significantly improves sxs.

p. 773
Where do FB insertion MC occur?
MC: Ear canal then the nose.

p. 773
Patient with unilateral "foul-smelling d/c" from the nares- what comes to mind?
FB

p. 773
What is the key to successful removal of FB from a nares of a child?
Immobilization

p. 773
When do most complications from FB's occur?
During the attempt to remove the FB.

p 774- actual aspiration of intranasal FB is very rare
How long before a button battery liquifies and causes nasal septal necrosis?
7 hrs.

p. 774
Why do you not want to instill any type of nasal drops before removal of battery in the nose...
...the electrical charge of the battery will produce electrolysis of an electrolyte rich fluid. ie. Severe alkaline burn

p. 774
When the d/c is too thick in suspected intranasal FB, what should you get to assist you?
Plain radiograph- to characterize/visualize the object

p. 774
What do you do for live FBs in nose/ear?
Kill it with 2% lidocaine or mineral oil and then attempt removal

p. 774
What are some associated sxs, with neck masses, that imply infx?(4)
1. fever
2. chills
3. pain
4. recent URI or GI infx
- at the end of the day, this part is intuitive...

p. 782
What type of lymph node is MC mobile, firm, not attached to underlying structures, and mildly tender?
Bening, reactive

p. 782-783
What type of mass is MC: soft, ballotable, and mobile?
cystic mass

p. 783
What type of mass is MC hard, non-tender, and may be fixed to underlying structures?
malignant

p. 783
What should be done with a mass, that was tx'd with abx (as suspected reactive) and the mass does not regress?
Work-up further. MC with the following:
- CBC
- ESR/CRP
- Cultures
as well as radiologic
- CT, MRI and/or U/S

p. 783
What is the MC cause of lymphadenitis in children?
Viruses

p. 783
What is the MC bacterial source of lymphadenitis in children?
Group A Strep
Staph Aureus

p. 783
-see table 118-2, p. 783 for list of common viruses as well as bacterial sources.
While MC cervical lymphadenitis will not require tx, in suppurative case is suspected, what is the ideal tx?
Amox plus claulonic acid (Augmentin) 30-40 mg/kg/d, divided into BID dosing
-or-
Clindamycin 30-40 mg/kg/d, divided into tid dosing
for 10-14 days
(coverage for Staph and Strep)

p. 783
What is it called when a lymph node undergoes liqueficative necrosis?
Suppurative Lymphadenitis

-. 784 (these are usually tender and fluctuant)
What should you suspect in a patient who has suppurative lymphadenitis w/torticollis or trismus?
RPA- obtain contrast CT

p. 784
What does Bortonella Henslae (a gram negative bacteria) cause?
Cat Scratch Dizease, a Granulomatous dz.

p. 784
How do you confirm Cat Scratch Dz?
1. careful hx: exposure to cats (kitten)
2. antibody titers
3. PCR
4. cx of lymph node aspirate.

p. 784
T/F: Emperic tx of cat scratch dz, with Rifampin, bactrim or e-mycin is indicated, even when awaiting tests.
FALSE: While rifampin is appropriate, empiric tx is not. MC this will resolve on its own.
p. 784
Toxoplasma Gondii is transmitted how?
1. Ingestion of undercooked meat
2. exposure to oocytes in cat feces
3. maternal-fetal transmission

p. 784
In immunocomprimised patients, what organ (system/Dz) are MC effected by T. Gondii?
CNS and Occular

p. 784
What is the MC cause of sialdenitis?
Bacteria.

p. 784
What are the MC associated sxs of Suppurative Sialdenitis?
Fever, pain and chills

p. 784
Where is the Stenson's duct MC located?
Over the second molar.

p. 784
Submandibular gland drains into the Whartons Duct. Where is this located?
Adjacent to the lingular frenulum

p. 784
What is the therapy for Sialoadenitis?
1. abx
2. analgesia
3. increasing salivary production with fluids and lemon gtts.

p. 784
What is the MC midline neck mass in children?
Thyroglossal Duct Cyst

p. 784
MC (65%) are infrahyoidal.
What is a PAINLESS, fluctuant mass that moves with swallowing OR protrusion of the tongue?
Thyroglossal duct cyst

p. 784-785
What imaging is better for thyroglossal duct cysts, CT or MRI?
CT

p. 785
What test is important in evaluation of possible throglossal duct cyst?
Thyroid studies- may contain ectopic thyroid tissue

p. 785
What is the cyst, situated just anterior to the SCM, near the angle of the mandible? MC round, smooth, mobile, and not TTP unless infx
Brachial Apparatus Cyst

p. 785
How can you tell the difference between the thyroglossal duct cyst and the dermoid cyst?
Dermoid cysts do NOT move with tongue protrusion.

p. 786
Lymphangioma (Cystic Hygroma)- what is this?
A result of sequestration of lymphatic channels that fail to communicate w/the internal jugular system- which in turn leads to the obstruction of the lymphatic channels. MC (75%) are in the neck

p. 786
What are soft, painless, and compressible andcan be very large. Can have capillary and cystic compenents with it. Additionally, morbidity is associated with size and compressibilty on adjacent structures?
Cystic Hygroma (Lymphangoma)

p. 786
What presents as a mass in the neonatal period of life in the SCM?
Fibromatosis Colli- histologically involved muscle is replaced by dense fibrous tissue

p. 786
What MC presents in teh neonatal period and provokes limited ROM, torticollis
Fibromatosis Colli

p. 786
What does a solitary posterior cervical mass suggest?
Malignancy

p. 787
What does supraclavicular mass suggest?
Lymphoma

p. 787
What does central, midline swelling suggest?
- thyroid with ducts
- cysts
- or dermoids as a likely dx

p. 787
What is the most common malignancy of the head and neck in children?
Lymphoma

p. 787
What is the second MC cause of malignancy in the head and neck?
Rhabdosarcoma

p. 787

- MC involve orbit, nasopharynx, nasal cavity, and paranasal sinuses
What is a neuroblastoma?
A malignancy of the sympathetic chain and can originate anywhere, but favors adrenal gland.
MC < 5 y/o, neck masses are better prognosis than the adrenal masses.
Some malignancies will metastasize to the to the cervical lymphnodes. Name two, indicated in the book, that are likely to do this.
1. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
and
2. Some GI tumors

p. 788
Location in the neck, lymphnodes, will often indicate their origin. Explain>
1. Posterior triangle nodes: MC Nasopharyngeal mets
2. Isolated suprclavicular nodes suggest: mediastinal mets.

p. 788
Some age specific causes of Pneumonia: 1-3 months
Pneumonitis syndrome usually afebrile: chalmydia trichmotis, RSV, other respiratory viruses, Bortella pertusis

p. 811
Some age specific causes of Pneumonia: 1-24 months
Mild to moderate pneumonia; RSV, other respiratory viruses, strep pneumoniae, Hib, NTHi(non-typable HInfluenzae), Chlamydia Trichomatis, Mycoplasma Pneumonae

p. 811
Some age specific causes of Pneumonia: 2-5 yrs
Respiratory Viruses, S. Pneumoniae, Hib, NTHi, Mycoplasma Pneumoniae, C. Pneumoniae

p. 811
Some age specific causes ofPneumonia: 6-18 yrs
Mycoplasma Pneumoniae, S. Pneumoniae, C. Pneumoniae, NTHi, influenza viruses A and B, adenovirus, other Resp. Viruses

p. 811
Some age specific causes of Pneumonia: all ages
Severe pneumonia requiring intensive care unit admissions, S. Pneumoniae, Staph Aureus, Gp A Strep, Hib, M. Pneumoniae, adenovirus

p. 811
What should be the "work-up type" for infants: 0-3 months old, w/suspected pneumoniae?
Sepsis work up

p. 811
What abx should be provided to 0-3 month old children...with pneumonia?
- ampicillin to cover risk listeria and Gp B strep
- gentamicin or cefotaxime for gram neg risk.

p. 811
Clinical findings Pneumoniae in infants to 2 yrs old...(older infants, > 3 months), what are they?
- tachypnea
- Staccato cough
- scattered rales (usu NO Wheezes)
- B/l interstitiial infiltrates on radiograph

p. 811
Because of the risk of C. Trahomatis, b. pertusis, along with RSV- Macrolides are recommended.
What uncommon lung infx etiology is common in Native Reservations, Alaska, and Canadian north and in some inner city populations?
TB

p. 811
Children with incomplete or no hx of immunizations are susceptible to what organisms for pneumonia?
- B. pertussis
- Hib
- all strains of pneumococcus
- measles
- influenza
- VZV

p. 811
T/F: the dx of pneumonia can be made clinically?
True

p. 812
Define Tachypnea in:
1. Newborns-2 months old,
2. 2-11 months old,
3. 1-4 y/o.
1. > 60 breaths per min
2. > 50 breaths per min
3. > 40 breaths per min
- this is obtained when child is at rest, not worked up. Assess for full minute
p. 812
What effect can fever have on respiratory rate?
increase resp rate by 10 breaths per minute, with each increase of 1 degree C

p. 812
What are some markers of resp distress?
- grunting
- nasal flaring
- tracheal tug
- intercostal indrawing

- Poor feeding and lethargy- indirect signs of respiratory compromise.

p. 812
- lower abd indrawing and gruting suggests severe pneumonia
T/F: Cough, particularly and productive cough, is present even in neonates with pneumonia.
False: exceedingly rare finding

p. 812
What does oxygen saturation of <90% (hypoxia), on room air indicate about amoxicillin success rate.
Hypoxia in suspected pneumonia suggests severe pneumonia and indicates a likely Amoxicillin failure

p. 812
T/F: The combination of fever; tachypnea, decreased breath sounds, or fine crackles predicts the x-ray positive findings of pneumonia w/a sensitivity of 93-96%.
True

p. 812
T/F: The absence of tachypnea, respiratory distress, and rales decreased breath sounds accurately excluded the presence of pneumonia w/100% specificity
True

p. 812
What must be done in order to effectively determine the source of the pneumonia?
invasive test

p. 812
bronchoscopy
What are some extrapulmonary causes to consider on differential of pneumonia?
1. Sepsis
2. Cardiac Anomalies
3. Endocrinopathies
4. Neuromuscular d/o
5. inborn errors of metabolism
6. GI emergencies

p. 813
When considering a differential of pneumonia, what are two things that cause pulmonary sxs that are not infectious, but are significant in toddlers?
FB aspiration

ingestions of toxins

p. 813
What are three tests, when working up pneumonia/pulmonary concerns in peds patients, that may be quick and specific and may obviate the need for more invasive testing?
1. Nasopharyngeal assay for RSV
2. Influenza
3. Metapneumovirus

p. 813
T/F: Chest radiograph is the gold standard in dx pneumonia.
False: neither 100% sensitive nor specific

p. 813
What are some of the 8 potential indications for CXR? (list, p. 814)
1. Age 0-3 months, sepsis wrk-up
2. < 5 y/o, temp 102.2+, WBC >20,000; no clear source of infx
3. Ambiguous clinical findings
4. Suspicion of a complication, such as pleural effusion
5. Pneumonia, prolonged/unresponsive to current abx tx
6. Suspicion of FB aspirate
7. Suspected congenital lung malformation
8. Follow-up, round pneumonia- to ensure resolution or exclusion of underlying mass

p. 814
Note: A toxic appearing child who has resp sxs: should ALWAYS undergo rads
- remember, cannot tell difference in viral vs bacterial sources on rads
There are grossly obvious rads differences on neonate chest films, like what (I know read my mind)
1. more pyramidal or trapezoidal in shape
2. cards silhouette- may occupy 60-65% of the chest width
3. Thymus may show, until 6 y/o- when it involutes.

p. 814
When the thymus appears as an infiltrate, lateral view will help
How is neonatal pneumoia ALWAYS tx'd.
With admission and parenteral abx

p. 814
What is not recommended in peds patients, as they depend on cough to clear secretions?
Cough Suppressants

p. 816
Exception: narcotic based cough suppressants may be effective- in select patients w/o hx of respiratory compromise.

Why should ceftriaxone be avoided in those less than or equal to one month old?
Kernicteris

p. 816
What macrolide therapy is not approved for this in 1-3 month old age grp?
Azithromycin

- not FDA approved.

p. 816
What is recommended in in patients > 5 y/o- where strep pneumo is suspected, but macrolides are weakening in efficacy?
Double coverage:
Beta-Lactam or First gen Cephalosporin PLUS
Macrolide

p. 816
Duration in most cases: 7-10 days
What does Pneumococcal resistance range consist of in N. America and Europe?
7.5 to >50%

p. 816
FDA approval on macrolide therapies does not include what age group?
< 6 months old.

p. 817
While there is no evidence-based definition of hypoxia, what have physicians generally chosen as a pulse ox threshold for admission?
<90-93%

p. 818
Signs of respiratory distress: >70 breaths in infants, >50 in older children

Surrogate markers of dyspnea in infants: intermittent apnea, grunting, inability to feed
What are four ways to prevent pneumonia in children?
1. handwashing
2. breast feeding
3. avoidance of smoking and second hand smoke
4. vaccinations

p. 819
What are the "five T's" (right to left shunting) cyanotic heart lesions (this is important, appears twice)
1. Tetrology of Fallot
2. Tricuspid atresia- including tricuspid atresia and Ebstein anomaly
3. Truncus arteriosus
4. total anomalous pulmonary venous return
5. transposition of the great arteries

p. 819
What are some acyanotic lesions?
1. Ventricular septal defect
2. atrial septal defect
3. patent ductus arteriosis
4. atrioventricular canal

pulmonary stenosis, aortic stenosis, and aortic coarctation

p. 819
Because neonates and small children have relatively noncompliant ventricular walls, what do they do to increase Cardiac Output
increase HR.

p. 819
Neonate requires more oxygen, has lower systolic reserve and is therefore more susceptible to CHF
For clinical cyanosis to be present, what amt of (mg/dL) deoxyhemoglobin must be present in the system, and to what O2 sat does this correspond with?
3-5 mg/dL, 70-80% RA

p. 820
What is a TET spell?
Episodic Cyanosis throughout infancy and childhood (associated with TOF)

p. 820
What is the condition that is associated with Cyanosis in adolescents and young adults, assoc with ASD, VSD?
Eisenmenger Complex

p. 820
What is the MC cyanotic congenital heart dz manifesting in the postinfancy period?
Tetrology of Fallot

p. 820
What defects comprise Tetrology of fallot?
1. VSD
2. Right Vent Outflow track obstruction
3. Overriding aorta
4. Right Vent Hypertrophy

p. 820
PE: Cyanosis
Heart sound: systolic thrill- at lower and middle left sternal border, loud S2, an aortic ejection click and loud systolic ejection murmur and continuous PDA murmur
What is the MC cyanotic heart lesion manifesting in the newborn period?
Transposition of the great arteries

p. 820
An infant with transposition of the great arteries, depend on the existence of what defects just to survive?
VSD, ASD, and PDA

p. 820
What is total anolamous venous return?
- pulm vein enters into the right atrium (classifed based on where the vein enters), then crosses either the tricuspid valve or to left atrium from ASD

p. 821
Total anomalous venous return- how does it MC manifest?
- CHF
However, the following will often be seen as well:
- tachycardia
- tachypnea
- hepatomegaly
- cyanosis

p. 821
What is the absence (or lack of development of the) tricuspid valve, with the additional findings of: interruption of right vent and pulmonary artery development?
Tricuspid atresia

p. 821
What is it called when all of the pulmonary, systemic, and coronary circulations originate from a single arterial trunk?
Truncus Arteriosis

p. 821
T/F: When examinating a potentional cardiac anomaly in a child, all vitals should be obtained and BP should be uptained in upper and lower extremities.
True

p. 821
T/F: Neonates with cyanosis in the presence of congenital heart disease rarely have respiratory sxs other than tachypnea.
True

p. 822
Neonates with lung dz will typically present in respiratory distres, grunting, tachypnea and retractions
Why, though most lab tests are not useful in working up congenital heart anomalies, is the hypoxia test useful?
Neonates with cyanotic heart dz, even on 100% O2, will not demonstrate an increase in PaO2 >20 mmHg, because of right to left shunting.

p. 922
MC, those with lung dz or sepsis, will improve with oxygen for 20minutes+
What happens to blood exposed to air, except those with Methemoglobinemia?
MC blood exposed to air turns pink, but in methemoglobinemia- remains chocolate colored.

p. 922
What are the prinary diagnostic tests in work up for congenital heart defects in peds patient?
1. CXR
2. EKG

p. 822
What posseses a classic boot chaped heart on CXR?
Tetrology of fallot.

p. 822
EKG: RAD, Right Vent Hypertrophy
What dx study may delineate structural heart disease?
Bedside Ultrasound, particularly in the hands of a peds u/s individual

p. 822
What posses an Egg shaped heart, narrow mediastinum, increased pulmonary vascular markings?
Transposition of the great arteries

p. 822
EKG: RAD, Right Vent Hypertrophy
What x-ray finding is a snow man sign, significant cardiomegaly, increased pulmonary vascular markings?
Total Anomalous Pulmonary Venous return

p. 822
EKG: RAD, Right Vent Hypertrophy, right atrial enlargement
What EKG findings have: Biventricular hypertrophy
Truncus Arteriosis

p. 822
T/F: Neonates have significant amts of oxygen-avid fetal hgb and tolerate desats in the 70's w/o brain tissue hypoxemia.
True

p. 822
Oxygen is a potent vasopulmonary vasodilator.
- knowing this means procede with caution
Oxygen administration to a cyanotic infant w/congenital heart defects are helpful with those who have: pulm HTN and vasoconstriction...but who may it be more harmful?
Patients with PDA and those who depend on PDA for flow.
It should therefore be reserved for those who have evidence of inadequate tissue perfusion, those w/o known heart dz in whom it may be both dx and therapeutic, and those with O2 sat well below known baseline.

p. 822
What is the condition that causes Right sided outflow tract obstruction...leading to right to left shunting through VSD. Hypoxia and acidosis cause pulm arterial vasoconstriction, increasing pulm resistance, and exacerbating shunting.
TET Spell...

p. 823
- increase pul blood flow, increase preload, increase after load.
Tx: 100% O2, calm child by minimizing stimulation-placing child in parents arms, and flexing childs knees to chest to increase preload.
- may consider morhine as well, then Bicarb for acidosis if needed.
What are some cyanotic and acynotic lesions that may present with shock?
Cyanotic: TGA, Pulmonary Atresia, hypoplastic right heart syndrome
Acyanotic: severe coarctation of the aorta, critical aortic stenosis, and hypoplastic left vent.

p. 823
What in the LE's is essential to dx coarcation of the aorta?
decreased pulses

p. 823
Read Differential Dx section: p. 823!!!! Will cover other considerations...this is a must.
What measurements in the right (preductal) abd keft (postductal) upper extremities may also reveal a difference in measurements suggesting a duct-dependent flow?
Pulse Oximetry measurement

p. 823
What is a single heart sound charcteristic of?
Hypoplastic left heart syndrome.

p. 823
A harsh systolic murmur transmitted to the neck- what is this?
Aortic Stenosis

p. 823
What x-ray finding: Cardiomegaly and pulmonary edema in neonate, but wil show rib notching in child?
Coarctation of aorta

p. 824
We know that O2 is a potent pulm vasodilator, what effect does it have on PDA?
Vasoconstrictor of the PDA

p. 824
What is the single most important therapeutic intervention for a duct dependent lesion?
IV Prostaglandin E1 (PGE1)- Alprostadil

p. 824
What is the dose of IV Prostaglandin E1?
0.1 mcg/kg/min- improvement with in minutes

p. 824
What type of line can PE1 ve delivered through and what are some common SE's?
1. Any line: umbilical, IO, IV...
2. SE: Vasodilation, flushing, hyperthermia, HoTn, and apnea.

p. 824
What syndrome is often associated with endocardial cushion defects?
Down's Syndrome...

p. 825
failure to thrive and frequent respiratory infx.
T/F: Cyanotic lesions often present early in the neonatal period, where as obstructive duct dependent lesions typically present in the second week of life with feeding difficulties and shock
True

p. 825
Dig in children. Yup. CHF, stable...it is the ionotrope of choice: improves contractility and output. What is the dose- info...
30-40 mcg/kg for term neonates
40-60 mcg/kg for infants and children

p. 825
dig- what is the time of delivery on this...
Total dose is administered over 16-24 hours: 1/2 initial bolus, 1/4 given in 8-12 hrs after inital dose, remaining 1/4 8-12 hrs later.

p. 825
What type of murmur is: low intensity, non-radiating, brief and MC systolic?
Innocent flow murmur

p. 825
Who should be consulted, for heart defect patient, who needs reverse anti-coag with Vit K and FFP?
Cardiologist.

p .826
What is the leading cause of endstage cardiomyopathy requiring transplant, affecing children of all ages?
Myocarditis

p. 827
What are the presenting signs/sxs of myocarditis?
MC: preceded by viral URI
additionally, will have:
-fever
-tachypnea
-respiratory distress
-tachycardia
-generalized malaise, myalgias
-vomiting
-decreased activity
-poor feeding
PE:
-decreased cardiac output
-tachy HR
-weak pulses
-cool extremities
-delayed cap refill
-skin mottling
-cyanotic skin
S3-S4 gallop
p.827
What does tx of myocarditis depend on?
The cause...

p. 827
What condition of cardiac inflammation is MC positional-worsened in supine, relieved leaning forward?
Pericarditis

p. 827
What is the sine qua non of pericadial effusion with cardiac tamponade?
Pulsus Paradoxus

- 20 mmHg fall in systolic BP with inspiration

p. 827
Heart sounds: muffled or distant heart sounds, friction rub. Peripheral pulses may be decreased with cool extremities, mottled skin, sluggish cap refill.
What is the Mantoux screening test, when+ indicate?
TB

p. 827
What does emperic tx for pericarditis include?
Oxacillin 50 mg/kg or Vanc 10 mg/kg for MRSA
+
Gentamicin 5-7.5 mg/kg in immunocompromised.
No effusion/tamponade: NSAIDS

p. 827
What are the signs of Kawasaki/s Dz?
1. b/l non-exudative conjunctivitis
2. lymphadenopathy
3. erythema of the mucous membranes
4. rash
5. extremity changes

p. 827
Cardiac complications are the most severe sequelae: coronary artery aneurysms, myocaditis, pericarditis, pericardial effusion, valvular dysfunction, LV dysfunction, arrythmias.
What weeks of the illness, Kawasaki's Dz, do most coronary artery aneurysms occur?
3-4 weeks

p. 828
MC: MI in first 6 months
What is the tx for Kawasaki's Dz?
Administration of IVIG 2 gms/kg over 12 hrs...results in rapid and dramatic symptomatic improvement in 90% of patients and prevents aneurysm formation in 95%,'

p. 828
IN kawasaki's dz, what is the additional tx that should be provided, aside from IVIG?
High dose ASA (20-25 mg/kg every 6 hrs)
What are some lab indication risk factors for Coronary Artery Aneurysm in Kawasaki's?
Hct < 35%
WBC>12,000
Plts >350,000
CRP >3 mg/dL
Albumin <3.5 gm/dL

p. 828
When does infx endocarditis occur?
When damaged endocardium is exposed to bacteria.

p. 828
Both conditions are necessary for the development of vegitation formation.
What is HACEK, why is it important in endocarditis?
HACEK are the common organisms assoc with bacterial endocarditis:
H. INfluenza
Actinobacillus
Cardiobacterium
Eikenella
Kingella

p. 828
What is the MC complaint in bacterial endocarditis?
Unexplained, persistent fever.

p. 828
Additional, associated sxs:
- cyanotic heart dz
-pneumonia
-new neuro deficits, hematuria, or skin rashes...think of things that can be caused by septic emboli
What is the goal of tx for bacterial endocarditis?
Eradication of the bacteria: parenteral abx- for a prolonged course MC.
Pen G
Ceftriaxone
-or-
Naficillin

Plus
Gentamicin
Prophylactic abx for endocarditis, when should it be given?
30-60 minutes prior to procedure

p. 829
In MC cases of HCM, a genetic linked defect, contractile function of the heart is NML. So what is the problem?
- hypertrophy of the ventricle
- thickened intima, of coronary arteries
- relaxation impairment: increased end diastolic filling pressure
- Asx hypertrophy of the ventricular septum-left vent outflow obstruction
p. 829
HCM murmurs- what enhances or decreases the sound of murmur?
Maneuvers that increase preload (valsalva, squatting) or increase afterload (handgrip) will decrease the murmur, where as standing (which decreases preload) will increase the murmur.

p. 830
HCM suspected, what is definitive dx?
cardiac cath with myocardial bx

echo suggests/supports- but not definitive.

p. 830
What is the pharmacologic mgt of choice- while waiting for definitve care?
BetaBlockers and Calcium Channel blockers.

p/ 830
How "acute" abdominal pain defined?
< 1 week

p 839
Recommend glancin at age appropriate classifications of abdominal pain. P. 840, Table 124-1.
What type of abd pain is increased with movement? (ie, the child prefers to be still)
Peritoneal pain

p. 839
What type of abd pain is spasmodic in nature, provoking a restelssness or movement?
Obstructive pain

p. 839
How can you diminish, relax, otherwise voluntary guarding of the abdomen, when performing PE?
Have the child flex his/her knees.

p. 840
Also, to reduce anxiety of the patient, clinician can place his/her hands on the childs during palpation
When performing PE, what is important to NEVER forget?
Genital examination in both boys and girls- to check for hernia and in boys testicular torsion.

p. 840
What are two life threatening abdominal conditions in young infants?
Necrotizing enterocolitis and malrotation with midgut volvulus

p. 840
additional urgent conditions: incarcerated hernia, testicular torsion and non-accidental trauma.
What are some signs of "serious dz" in infant?
inconsolability and lethargy

p. 840
What type of vominting is suggestive of bowel obstruction and is a true emergency in an infant (possibly caused by malrotation with volvulus or intussusception)?
Bilious vomiting (bright yellow or green)

p. 840
What dz process is associated witht he failure to pass meconium in the first 24-48 hrs?
Hirschsprung's Dz

p. 840
When performing a detailed examination, abdomen, genital exam is important: swelling, erythema, or TTP- hernia, hydrocele, and torsion...but what else needs to be considered?
Other causes of child's irritability: such as hair tourniquet on penis, or digit as well as consideration for corneal abrasion...

p. 840
The ddx of older infants and children (3months to 3 yrs) with abdominal pain? (6)
1. intussusption
2. acute gastroenteritis
3. constipation
4. UTI
5. testicular torsion
6. accidental and non-accidental trauma

p. 840
Older infant/young child, pulls legs to chest with episodic pain, what is at the top of your differential; and periods of what appears relief/NML behavior?
Intussusption...


- and if not, it should be

p. 840
What should you do before touching a young child or older infant, when examining?
Look at them...
- observe behavior/interaction...

p. 840
What are some common causes of abdominal pain in children 3-15 yrs? (6-18)
1. appendicitis
2. constipation
3. pain 2/2 non-specific viral syndrome or acute gastroenteritis
4. Strep Pharyngitis
5. UTI
6, Pneumia
Additionally (important, not common)
7. DKA
8. pancreatitis
9. inflammatory bowel dz (IBD)
10. cholelithaisis
11. Sickel cell anemia
12. HSP
13. toxic ingestion
14. testicular torsion
15. ovarian cyst
16. ectopic pregnancy
17. PID
18. renal colic
T/F: CBC is a useful screening tool for undifferentiated abdominal pain.
False

p. 841
What does the sign: pneumatosis intestinalis indicate?
necrotizing enterocolitis

p. 841
How much risk of exposure is abdominal CT in children, as compared with plain CXR? And what is the lifetime risk of developing CA?
1. 600 times more radiation
2. 1 in 1000 lifetime risk of developing malignancy

p. 841
If you suspect that a patient is a surigcal candidate, what is an imperative with medication administration?
Do not give PO medications.

p. 841
What is the MC cause of intestinal obstruction in children: 3 months to 6 yrs of life?
Intussuseption

p. 841
Meckels Diverticulum, intestinal polyps, congenital duplications, lymphosarcoma, and HSP...all put you at risk for what intestinal complication?
Intussusption

841
What is the morphine dose in neonates? What is the dose in children?
Neonates: 0.05-0.1 mg/kg q 4 hr
Infants and children: 0.1 mg/kg q 2-4 h

p. 841
What is the dose of hydromorphone?
0.015 mg/kg q 3-6 hrs

p. 841
What is the dose of fentanyl?
1-2 mcg/kg IV q 30-60 min

p. 841
What is the dose of ketorolac, only in those > 6 months?
0.5 mg/kg q 6 hrs.

p. 841
While current jelly stool in patient with intussusption is only present as a late finding, what is an early expectation/finding?
guiac positive

p. 842
The presumptive dx of intussusption is usually made by?
history

p. 842

- MC, a NML, healthy child between 6-18 months, who is playing, then drops to the floor, crying and drawing up legs (this continues waxing and waning/colick)
What is a classic marking on U/S for intussusption?
Target sign.

- U/S is sensitive and specific, but only used when uncertain. If certain use air enema...
p. 842
This radigraph is ideal for intussusption, because it is dx and therapeutic. THis particular study also avoids risks if perforation is present as well as allows maintained control.
Air contrast enema

p. 842
How long following the onset of sxs before irreversible ischemia develops in midgut voluvulus?
just a few hours...

p. 842
Infant with volvulus presents MC how?
Constant abd pain, bilious vomiting, abd distention, irritability.
Often appears toci, HoTn, tachyHR. Diffuse TTP.

p. 842-843
What plain film result is "highly suggestive of dx: Malrotation with Midgut volvulus?
loop of bowel overriding the liver

p. 843
This is a surgical emergency- call surgery immediately.
What is needed for evidence of strangulated hernia (MC irritable pt, poor feeding, vomiting, and/or inguinal/scrotal mass)
Manual reduction: this is medical and sometimes surgical emergency

p. 843
How do you reduce an inguinal hernia?
Place child in trendelenberg, apply pressure to inguinal canal with one hand, while the other milks hernia contents. + results- apply steady pressure to hernia
p. 843
s/p reduction- arrange 24-48 hr f/u with surgeon
What is the MC surgical emergency in children?
Appendicitis

p. 843
What is the perforation rate of appendicitis in children < 4 ys old?
90%

p. 844
What WBC count has been associated with a decreased likelihood of appendicitis?
LOw or NML...
tho, can not depend on elevated WBC to point to Appendicitis...this would be a lame test question, but this is a lame course, so...there you go...
-p. 844
What is neither sensitive nor specific in work up for NEC, but serves to increase suspicion?
+ occult stool

p. 845
Mainstay: Plain radiographs of the abdomen: Pneumotosis intestinalis...dilated loops of bowel, abnormal gas pattern
What is the key to establishment of non-specific abdominal pain?
The key: utilize as a working dx, reexamination in 24 hrs and repeat exam over time if sxs continue

p. 845
What is the Wessel rule of three's for colic?
3 episodes in one week, lasting for 3 hrs per day, lasting for more than 3 weeks- causing significant distress to caregiver

p. 845
What is the differential dx of colic?
-sepsis
-meningitis
-intussusption
-gastroesphageal reflux
-milk protein intolerance
-corneal abrasion
-hair tourniquet
-incarcerated hernia
-testicular torsion
-non-accidentla trauma

p. 845
According to Constipation Guidelines, in the first week of life, what is the avg stools per day for infant?
4 stools per day...gradually decreasing over time- depending on the feeds.

p. 846
What age do kids MC begin stooling once per day>
3 yrs old.

p. 846
Constipation/abdominal pain...what should always be assessed?
Rectal examination...
check: presence of stool, rectal tone (tonic constriction of the sphincter with empty rectal vault suggest Hirshsprung dz), sensation and size of the vault.

p. 846
Also: carefully examine abdomen- masses or sacral tumors
back: hair, etc that may suggest occult spinal dysraphism
Child listless, hypotonic, constipated may have this process (exceedingly rare in the US)
Botulism

p. 846
Acute tx for constipation in the ED?
Disimpaction w/glycerin suppository

p 846
Abdominal pain, purpuric rash as well as arthritis...what are you thinking for dx?
HSP...

- can be caused: Virus or Grp A strep
- Elevated IgA
Cholecystitis presents in what manner, when compared to adults>
Atypically...

- diffuse abdominal pain, irritability, pain worsens with respirations, associated with low grade temp.

p. 846-847
Cholecystitis w/o stone: Acalculous cholecystitis.
what gallbladder process is suspected in child with shock and signs of poor perfusion?
Choleangitis

- think e-coli as well as klebsiella as source

p 846-847
IV hydration, analgesia...bowel rest and if febrile: abx: amp and gent.
T/F: The degree of pacreatic enzyme elevation is directly correlated with the degree of illness...
False: the degree of the dz is not directly related to the degree of enzyme elevation

p. 847
What is the likely dx of a patient who has a cough, abdominal pain, and post tussive vomiting?
Pneumonia

p. 847
Patient: fever, tachypnea, or hypoxia
What can present as fever, abdominal pain with or w/o vomiting and w/o sore throat?
Streptococcus Pharyngitis...

- for this reason, all children > 3 y/o w/abdominal pain, esp if febrile, deserve a thorough oropharyngeal exam

p. 848
tx: benzathine injection x 1
or 10 day course Pen VK
What may be present when a child is misdiagnosed with colic or has hx of frequent UTI's?
Nephrolithiasis

p. 848
MC dx in older children, MC presents with abdominal pain, but may also have: fatigue, weightloss, fever, BRBPR?
Inflammatory bowel disease

p. 848
Definitive dx: endoscopy and bx and GI specialist...
- ER may obtain CT.
T/F: all children with suspected Upper GI source for their bleeding require lavage.
False- only those with PE evidence or hx suggestive of significant blood loss.

BOLD:Use 12F nasogastric tube in small children
14F and 16 F in older children.

p. 850
- read pgs: 848-849- little things, nothing for questions. however, a few charts
T/F: mucosal lesions: gastritis, ulcer dz, esophagitis and mallory-weiss tear can be seen in children of any age.
True.

p 851
What is the Qualitative test used on Hematemisis- to determine fetal vs. maternal blood in infant?
Apt test

p. 851
T/F: Any child with significant illness or injury (Shock, polytrauma, respiratory failure, burns, head injury, or vasculitis) can develop stress-related peptic ulcer dz.
True

p. 851
A mother decided to have her baby at home and minmize prenatal mgt. her baby is at risk for Many things...however, is brought in with uncontrolled bloody vominting. What was missed here?
Vit K shot

p. 851
Dieulafoy lesion- what the heck is that?
It is thought to be a developmental malformation of gastric vessels= and an unusual cause of UGI bleeding.

p. 851
definitive dx: endoscopy...

hx of recurrent hematemsis...w/o prodromal sxs.
MOP presents with new born baby, vomiting and diarrhea (sometimes bloody). Reports this began 48 hrs ago...no surgical hx. No significant med problems. No sig. Maternal hx. No recent travel or events. Diet: formula, recent change since recall of old formula. What is wrongn with this poor kid?
Milk protein allergy

MC occurs: 12-48 hrs after change to formula.

p. 851
older infants with sudden hematachezia, painless...what must be considered?
- Meckels diverticulum
- congenital malformation, such as small intestine duplication

p. 851
What may be the source of painful LGI bleed?
- intussusption
- malrotation with volvulus

p. 851 MC: 2mo-2 yrs
2-5 y/o: juvenile polyps, infx gastroenteritis, HUS, and HSP.
What is more common in peds patient: UC or Crohn's Dz?
Crohn's Dz

p. 853
Crohn's MC: abd pain, weightloss, anorexia, arthralgias
UC MC: bloody diarrhea and abd pain
What are the tx goals of UGI and LGI bleeding? (4)
1. resuscitation from hemorrhagic shock and restoring intravascular volume
2. restoring NML O2 carrying capacity by transfusion with pRBC's.
3. Identification of source bleeding
4. Stop ongoing blood loss

p. 853
What is the drug of choice in esophageal variceal bleeding in children?
Octreotide 1 mcg/kg bolus

Adverse SE: hyperglycemia

p. 853
T/F:UGI bleeding, octreotide is safe in nonvariceal bleeding.
FALSE!
- associated with multiple organ failure, in non-variceal source.
Talk to peds GI provider: Vasopressin may be more appropriate.
T/F: Testicular torsion is bimodal age distribution, effecting neonates and early puberty.
True

p. 861
What does the absence of cremasteric reflex on the left side indicate?
Testicular torsion on the left side

p. 861
Surgeon promptly, should not wait on U/S when suspected: < 6 hrs= excellent recovery rate. > 48hrs- patient loses the nut
What is done for torsed testicle, when no urologist is available and the patient has been subject to this for excessive amount of time>
Manual detorsion. MC torsion with medial rotation, making lateral (outward rotation, opening book) optimal.

p. 861
Provide appropriate/adequate analgesia, consider injection into spermatic cord.

This is not definitive therapy- success rate varies.
Pain in testis is abrupt, severe and associated with nausea and vomiting. What is this? How is it different than Torsion of the testicular appendix?
Testicular torsion

Torsion of the testicular appendix- is insidious and less severe, and no systemic signs/sxs.

p. 861
Testicular torsion: surgical- b/l orchipexy
Torsion of appendix: limitations on activity as well as oral analgesia
What can cause an insidious onset of dysuria, change in urinary frequency or fever. Can becaused by bacterial source as well as enterovirus and adenovirus?
Epididymitis

p. 861
u/a may have pyuria and bacteria

- Prehn's sig- relief with testicular elevation, not always present.
What is the MC cause of painless testicular swelling in peds patient?
Hydrocele

p. 861
non-communicating: static swelling- after closure of processus vaginalis
communicating: swelling increases and decreases w/patent processes vaginalis
What is a painless scrotal swelling, that MC occurs in puberty, MC occuring on the left and mass engorgement which is compared to bag of worms?
Varicocele

p. 862
What is the MC solid tumor of adolescent males?
Testicular tumor

p. 862
When do almost all causes of NML physiologic phimosis resolve by?
age 5 y/o

p, 862
Which of the two is a true urologic emergency: phimosis or paraphimosis?
Paraphimosis

p. 862
Should be reduced as soon as possible...delay provokes swelling and risk of complications.
What provides most of the somatosensory nerve innervation to the shaft of the penis?
Dorsal penile nerve

p. 862
Which is why dorsal penile nerve block is so effective. No epi...see image: Figure 127-3, p. 862
What is cellulitis of the glans of the penis?
Balanitis

p. 863
What is cellulitis of the foreskin of the penis?
Posthitis

p. 863
Balanopothitis...
celliltis of the glans and foreskin

regardless: warm soaks and system abx
A non-paiful erection, that was not caused by sexual stimulation, but MC trauma?
High Flow priapism- does not cause ischemia or impotence

p 863
A painful erection, that was not caused by sexual stimulation, but MC sickle cell dz?
Low flow priapsm- causes ischemia and/or impotence.

p. 863
W/o hx of pelvic, genital or perineal trauma- nearly all priapism is low flow.
Hair thread tourniquet: erythematous, painful and edematous distal to site of strangulation, needs hair cut if visualized or the application of deilatory cream, such as Nair. However, what effect does debilatory cream have on synthetic fibers?
None. Will not work.
ultimately...Urologyu consult a must

p. 864
What is a risk for zipper injury to the penis?
Not wearing underwear.

p. 864
T/F: You should never forcibly restrain a child for gyn examination.
True

p. 864
If it is necessary- perform via procedural sedation
When is the female placed into the knee to chest position best used for?
Examintion of the perianal and outer vaginal vault examination.

p. 865
T/F: You should manually separate labial adhesions.
False: This is something that will resolve over time, however, tx is needed, apply topical estrogen follow by patroleum jelly upon resolution of sxs.

p. 865
In first 2-3 weeks of life, thin, white slippy d/c: leukorrhea, is common/harmless. However, once older infant and young girl, two possible causes become more likely. What are they?
1. vulvovaginitis
2. Foreign body

p. 865
FB: present with foul odor and sometimes slightly bloody- MC cause: Toilet paper
Vulvovaginitis- pain, d/c, pruritis.
What causes painless bleeding on underwear in 2-10 y/o females (MC in black females)?
Urethral prolapse

p. 865
Tx: topical estrogen x 2 weeks and sitz baths
Stool softner- as constipation can provoke sxs.
What is the vast majority of vaginal bleeding in adolecent female?
Dysfunctional uterine bleeding

p. 866
First year following menarche- this is common. Best mgt: Estrogen-progesterone pill.
What are some common causes of ARF in children? (4)
1. glomerulonephritis
2. Sepsis
3. HUS
4. post-operative complications

p. 866
What are some indicated medications that are known to cause nephrotoxic injury? (4)
1. Amoxicillin
2. Acyclovir
3. Gentamicin
4. Cephalosporin

p. 866
Renal Dz: What is caused by dehydration (GI losses), blood loss from trauma, capillary leaks/burns/sepsis/third spacing, limited cardiac output?
Prerenal renal failure

p. 866, table 128-1
Renal Dz: Tubular dz, myoglobinuria, tumor lysis syndrome, HSP- glomerluar dz, and interstitial dz from medications are causes of what?
Renal dz

p. 866, table 128-1
Renal Dz: Solitary kidney, urethral obstruction, pelvic mass, nephrolithiasis, cause?
Post-renal or obstructive dz

p. 866, table 128-1
What renal dz causes: nausea, anorexia, changes in urine output and color, edema, and headache?
Renal failure

p, 866
What are you thinking in UA, with + hematuria, casts, proteinuria, and active sediment?
Glomerulonephritis

- if not, you should be

p 866
What are you thinking in UA with proteinuria alone?
Nephrotic syndrome

p. 866
What does the UA suggest: + RBC on dipstick, not confirmed by microscopy (in the absence of false + dipstick)
Myoglobinuria or hemoglobinuria

p. 866
Whatcha think'n:
Acute diarrhea/abdominal pain, CBC: low H/H, Low Plt, and schistocytes
Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome

p. 867
What is the definitive study in most cases of intrinsic renal dz?
Renal Bx.

p. 867
What is the condition when GFR is < 10% of prediicted for age?
ESRD

p 867
- only definitive tx: transplant
- standard tx: dialysis- in those < 2 yrs old this is peritoneal dialysis, assoc with fewer complications
What is the MC antecedent infx cause of acute glomerulonephritis...with infx of the pharynx being the MC type of infx.
Grp A betahemolytic strep.

p. 867
+ proteinuria, proteinemia, as well as edema...
Nephrotic syndrome

p. 868
What are some of the MC medical problems of patients who are receiving dialysis and present to the ED?
1. fever
2. abdominal pain (peritonitis)
3. dyspnea 2/2 fluid overload
4. chest pain (uremic pericarditis)
5. syncope
6. HTN
7. Acid-base, electrolyte d/o.

p. 868
Microscopic or gross hematuria, sensorineural hearing loss, fhx of renal failure, cataracts- all togther assoc w/what?
Alport syndrome

p. 868
MC complaint of patient with Nephrotic syndrome?
edema

p. 869
What are the two main life threatening events associated with nephrotic syndrome?
1. severe infx
and
2. thromboembolic event

p. 869
Where is the edema associated with nephrotic syndrome most common to occur?
face and periphery

p. 869: therefore, "NO NOT MISTAKE FACIAL EDEMA FOR ALLERGIC RXN"
What are the four dx criteria for nephrotic syndrome?
1. generalized edema
2. hypoproteinemia/low albumin
3. urine protein/urine creatinine
4. hypercholesterolemia (>200 mg/dL)

p. 869
T/F: Give isotonic patients, even if severe edema, if hypovolemic shock is present.
True

p. 869
T/F: Though the response to steroids varies, the mainstay of tx for nephrotic syndrome is oral corticosteroids.
True

p. 869
Children w/Nephrotic syndrome are at high risk for, what complication and association with what organism?
- peritonitis
- Strep Pneumoniae

-therfore need the Pneumovax

p. 869
Mild/moderate nephrotic syndrome/edema requires...low salt diet
How is HTN defined in the peds population?
> 2 Std deviations above age-based means, Systolic and Diastolic measure

p. 870
However, it is also defined as:
"avg systolic BP and /or diastolic BP that is at the 95th percentile or higher for gender, age and height on three or more occasions.

p 870
What is a BP > 99th percentile for age and sex with evidence of acute endorgan damage.
HTN crisis.

p. 870
Htn Crises is also defined as: "severely elevated BP exceeding the 99th percentile for age and sex with evidence of end stage organ damage".
Organ systems MC affected: CNS, Renal and cardiac
What are some common causes of HTN in newborn?
Renal: thrombosis, stenosis, anomalies
Heart: coarctation
Endo: PHeochromacytoma, cushing disease

p. 870
What are some common causes of HTN in PreSchool/Kindergarten (<6 y/o)?
Renal: parenchymal disease, vascular dz
Heart: Coarc
Endo: Pheo, Cushing Dz

p. 870
What are some common causes of HTN in School age children 6-10 y/o
Endo: Pheo and Cushing dx

p. 870
What are some causes of HTN in adolescence?
Essential HTN
Renal: Parenchymal, vascular
Endo: pheo, cushing dz
Drug abuse

p. 870
What is the goal in BP reduction for HTN?
< 25% reduction in first 8 hrs, followed by gradual reduction to NML levels in the next 26-48 hrs.

p. 870
T/F: HSP renal involvement, should begin corticosteroid therapy and contact urology.
False: Corticosteroid therapy is controversial and may cause recurrence of renal involvement, contact Urology first.

p. 876-871
What is the MC cause of acute renal failure in young children?
Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome (HUS)

p. 871
Epidemics: MC summer
Sporadically: can be 2/2 strep pneumoniae (invasive infx), oral contraceptive use, as well as prengnancy and malignancy.
Children < 10 y/o
Epidemic HUS is associated with undercooked meat, unpasteurized milk and contaminated veggies and fruits- by what organism?
E. Coli 0157:H7

p. 871
This produces a shiga toxin

e-coli enteritis, dz starts with N/V/bloody diarrhea, w or w/o fever. W/in one week the child has pallor, oiguria, irritability, lethargy, seizures and encephalopthy
What are the three cardinal features of HUS?
1. Acute Renal failure
2. Thrombocytopenia
3. Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia

p. 871
What is contraindicated in pediatric diarrheal illnesses and may increase risk of HUS?
Abx therapies as well as antimotility drugs

p. 871
oh, and plt transfusion not a good idea, worsen the thrombotic process...
Hemodialysis may be needed. 90% will survice and fully recover
Hematuria is defined as:
> 5 rbc's per hpf

p. 871
What is a common finding in the urine, that appears pink or orange in the diaper that freaks out the care giver, but UA is negative for blood?
Amorphous sediment

p. 871
Hydralazine and Sodium Nitroprusside are what type medications
Vasodilators

p. 871
Hydralazine: 0.1-0.5 mg/kg
Nitroprusside: -.3-8.0 mcg/kg
What medication for the tx of BP is a beta and alpha blocker?
Labetolol

p. 871
0.2-1.0 mg/kg
Fast acting on and off: Beta blocker>
Esmolol 100-500 mcg/kg/min

p. 871
What GCS score is regarded as associated with severe head trauma?
< 8

p. 888
What GCS score is regarded as associated with moderate head trauma?
9-13

p. 888
What are MC associated with minor head injury in peds patient?
13-15, with NML neurologic examination/mental status

p. 888
The american academy of pediatrics- defines, children with MHI as, "those who have no abnormal or focal findings on neurologic examination (including fundoscopic), and who have no physical evidence of skull fx.
Why is frontal head trauma not as severe in those < 10 yrs old?
Frontal sinuses have not developed yet, so the bone is more dense.

p. 888
Determine the time of a head injury as well as subsequent temporal changes or persistent sxs. Worsening sxs: suggeests what. Where as persistent sxs suggests what?
- worsening sxs: intracranial injury
- persistent sxs: amnesia/concussion

p. 889
A scalp hematoma in a child < 2 y/o is associated with increased risk of what?
Skull fx and intracranial hemorrhage

p. 889
When a child is suspected as having sustained non-accidental trauma, what consultation may be useful?
Ophthalmologist- who can do a more appropriate fundoscopic exam- for retinal hemorrhage...

p. 889
In preverbal children, what hx from caregivers may indicate intracranial hemorrhage?
behvior change- may be the earliest indicator, as well as/specifically irritability or lethargy

p. 889
What are some high risk factors associated with < 2 y/o, that according to experts suggest need for more comprehensive head examination? (9) What do you do?
1. depressed mental status
2. focal neurologic deficits
3. < 24 hr skull fx
4. Basilar/depressed skull fx
5. irritability
6. Seizure
7. Vomiting > 5 times in 6 H
8. LOC> 1 min
9. Bulging fontenelle

- get CT!!!
p. 890
What do you do with head trauma patient that you feel is intermediate risk intracranial hemorrhage: vomting 3-4 times, LOC < 1 min, resolved irritability/lethargy, changes in behavior, skull fx > 24 hrs?
- observe for 6 H or get head CT

- intermediate risk

p. 890
T/F: Asymptomatic infants and children (not vomiting, NML neuro exam and mental status) who are at least 2-4 hrs postinjury can safely be d/c'd to reliable caregivers w/o imaging.
True

p. 891
Patients who are d/c'd to follow-up outpatient mgt for MHI, need careful instructions provided. What should they be told?
Seek immediate care for the following:
1. lethargy
2. irritability
3. focal deficits
4. vomiting in 24 hrs
What is the incidence of delayed deterioration (in head injury) when CT scan is NML?
Zero

p. 891
What does dizziness, unsteadiness, confusion, disorientation or amnesia with or w/o intrcranial hemorrhage indicate?
Concussion

p. 891
" A complex pathophysiologic process affecting the brain, induced by traumatic biochemical forces"
What type of concussion is, "gradual resolution over 7-10 days, w/o limitations on playing and training while symptomatic and w/no further intervention"
Simple concussion

p. 892
Tx: rest until resolution in sxs with a graded return to activity
What type of concussion is defined as, "persisting sxs or cognitive impairment, sxs with exertion, or specific sequelae".
Complex concussion

p. 892
Tx: refer to sports medicine specialist or others with concussion exertise. These children may require neuropsych testing before returning to sports
What is second impact syndrome?
The vulnerability of the brain to minor impact during the post concussive period.

p. 892
What are the six steps of "return to play program, following concussion" and how long should the patient remain asx between each step?
1. No activity, complete rest
2. Light aerobic activity
3. Sports specific activity
4. Non-contact training drills
5. Full contact training after medical clearance
6. Game play

p 892
Why is Sickle cell anemia a complication?
Decreased ability to change shape...2/2 sickling shape, impedes flow

p. 924
The interruption of blood flow, from the sickling blood cell in sickle cell anemia leads to what (3)
1. poor tissue perfusion
2. acidosis
3. hypoxia
- which can lead to further sickling

p. 924
Why do most sxs consistent with SCA (sickle cell anemia) not occur until after 4 month of life?
Because until about the fourth month, fetal hemaglobin predominates, until replaced by regular hemoglobin. Fetal hemoglobin is uneffected by this.

p. 924
(reaches baseline low levels of fhb- just prior to 1 y/o)
Which is one of the first organs effected by sickle cell?
Spleen

- which is why, after recurrent infarcts, the patient is so susceptible to infxs: to encapsulated bacteria

p. 924
Vaso occlusive crises cause severe extremity pain. What are some common triggers?
1. stress
2. cold
3. dehydration
4. altitude
5. hypoxia
6. illnesses

p. 924
What effect can vaso-occlusive dz have on bones?
Can lead to infarction of the bone. Leading to pain
Fat emboli can be a complication.

p. 924
What are some signs and sxs of fat embolism?
1. ARDS
2. Hypoxia
3. Systemic sxs of petechiae, AMS, liver damage, and renal failure
- all this can occur w/o extremity pains.

p. 924
What can occur in those less than 2 y/o, does not often occur when older than 5 y/o, and may be the only initial presenting complaint in someone with SCA?
Dactylitis

p. 924
A child presents to you, a febrile, with inguinal pain with weightbearing. No known reported hx of trauma. hx + for SCA. What is at the top of differential after vasoocclusive dz?
AVN of the femoral head

p. 924
T/F: ESR is a reliable lab in SCA patients.
False

p. 925
What is the difference in leukocytosis in SCA and that associated with infx?
Left shift will occur only in infx

p. 925
After the extremities and back, what is the next site of pain for vaso-occlusive disease
the abdomen

p. 925
Gallstones are common in SCA, and may occur as early as what age?
2-4 y/o

p. 925
Vasoocclusive crises of the abdomen is associated with ischemia to the:
mesenteric, splenic, and hepatic systems...

p. 925
What is frequently a complication of pneumonia in SCA?
Acute chest crisis...due to pulmonary ischemia as well as infarction.

p. 925
Acute chest crisis is higher incidence in children than adults> but in children is associated w/better outcomes
Any combination: pleuritic CP, cough, fever, and dyspnea...SCA is assoc with what?
Acute Chest pain
PE: hypoxia, tachypnea, rales, rhonchi- though dehydration can decrease rales...
What disease not only complicates the dx of acute chest crisis in SCA, but also increases the likelihood acute chest syndrome will develop (by four to six fold)
Asthma

p. 926
What is the leading cause of death in patients of all ages from SCA?
Infection

p 926
Splenic dysfunction as well as inability to form IgG...puts patient at risk, particularly to encapsulated bacteria
What age group is at greatest risk for sepsis, SCA?
those patients: 6 months to 3 years old.

p. 926
H. Influenzae and Strep Pneumoniae are more common in the very young, and E Coli and Salmonella in older children.
When considering SCA, what are the following:
- Temperature >104
- WBC's > 30,000, <5,000
- Plt < 100,000
- Hgb < 5 gm/dL
- Ill appearing/poor perfusion/HoTn
- Infiltrate in CXR
- hx of pneumococcal sepsis
Risk factors for Bacteremia...


p. 926
- SCA children have greater risk: Meningitis, sepsis, pneumonia, as well as osteomyelitis
Dx eval:
- CBC
- Bcx
- O2 Sat measurement
- CXR
- UA
What presents as: fever, coryza, and slapped cheek appearance, with circumoral pallor followed by diffuse maculopapular rash?
Parvovirus B19...

p. 926
Gloves and Socks Syndrome:
- well demarcated painful erythema and edema of the hands and feet that evolves into petechiae, purpura, vesicles, and skin sloughing
Regardless of the clinical presentation, what is the risk of Parvovirus B19 in SCA patient?
Transient Aplastic Crisis...

p. 926
Retic count drops after 5 days, followed by decline in Hgb: aplastic crisis
How much more common is Stroke in SCA, than in general population?
250 times more common in SCA children than in general population.

p. 926
Can present as: Fleeting neuro sxs,. such as occurs with TIA, or can also occur: hemiparesis, seizure, AMS, or coma.
- also, higher risk, aneurysm, as well as intrcranial hemorrhage.
- Neuro sxs can also occur in acute chest crisis
SCA patient, with painful, swollen, edematous tender penis...what is the cause and risk?
- priapism
- risl can lead to fibrosis and subsequantly impotence...if not managed effectively.

p 927
What is the typical peds transfusion rate/duration?
10 cc/kg over 2 hrs

p. 927
When is a tansfusion for SCA indicated? (3)
1. Sx anemia
2. Hgb < 6 gms/dL, low retic count (aplastic anemia)
3. acute crisis w/ hgb below 10 gm/dL

p. 927
Aplastic anemia, tx'd MC with simple transfusion and close f/u
Blood transfusions; what type are used in hx of allergic rxns?
leukoreduced

p. 927
Blood transfusions; what type are used for those who may be candidates for bone marrow transplant?
irratiated cells

p. 927
`
Why are meperidine and fentanyl medications that are no longer used in pain mgt SCA?
Meperidine- SE profile
Fentanyl- short acting

p. 928
Why is 5% dextrose in .45% NS more ideal than 0.9 NS in hydration of SCA patient?
2/2 to the increased permeabilityof pulmonary vasculature and cardiomyopathy...

p. 928
What should be done with the disposition of the patient who requires 2+ doses of narc mgt for SCA?
Admission for pain mgt...

p. 928
T/F: for SCA patient, O2 is a good therapy even if not hypoxic.
False. O2 is only good for tx of patients w/hx of hypoxia.

p. 928
Does alteplase (t-PA) have a role in children for mgt of a stroke related to SCA?
None..

-p. 928
Stroke mgt for SCA patient?
1. control hyperpyrexia
2. correct hypoglycemia
3. treat hypoxia
4. treat hypovolemia
5. urgent exchange transfusion

p. 928
Neurosurg consult is recommended for hemorrhagic stroke
What must be done for a child with SCA, > 1 y/o, with a fever, but has been stable for 4 hrs and has a good follow up arrangement?
Prior to d/c- provide dose of rocephin...pending cx results...
p. 928
Poor feeding, vomiting, and AMS are the MC manifestations of what?
Metabolic emergencies.

p, 948
How is hypoglycemia defined?
Plasma glucose level < 45 mg/dL in sx patients, < 35 mg/dL in asx patients.

p 948
Neonates may manifest hypoglycemia w/o adrenergic stimulation, such TachyHR, etc. How might they manifest sxs?
- lethargy
- seizure
- apnea

p. 948
What is one of the most critical lab tests in a neonate, infant or child who appears ill or AMS?
Bedside serum glucose

p. 948
What is the next step in ill child with AMS following d-stick?
Evaluation of urine for ketones...
Ketonuria is characterisitc of ketotic hypoglycemia, adrenal or growth hormone deficiency, and other inborn errors of metabolism

p. 948
lack of ketones- hyperinsulinism or fatty acid oxidation
What does it imply, when you give glucagon to hypoglycemic patient and they improve.
Glucose normalizes, then the presence of hepatic stores if validated and the hypoglycemia is 2/2 hormonal deficiency.

p. 948
What does it imply, when you give glucagon to a hypoglycemic patient and the patient fails to improve?
poor glycemic stores

p. 948
What is the primary parental tx for hypoglycemic patient?
IV dextrose

Dose of dextrose: 0.5-1.0 gm/dL regardless of the route of administration.
Newborns should receive: 5 cc/kg 10% dextrose, infants and children: 2 cc/kg od 25% dextrose...

p. 949
How should maintenance dextrose be provided with D10, for hypoglycemia in child? (Hint, it is 1.5 times the NML maintenance rate for infants and children?
6-8 mg/kg/min D10
See Table: 137-1 p. 949, as well as figue: 137-1.
If IV, IO, or NG unavailable, Glucagon: 0.3 mg/kg/IM
What should be provided in the suspected adrenal insufficiency patient?
Hydrocortisone, 25 grams IV or IM for neonates, 50 grams for toddlers and school aged children, and 100 grams for adolscents.

p. 949
Sepsis is in differential of patient with AMS: may need to give abx: Ampicillin and gentamicin or ceftriaxone
Why do most inborn errors of metabolism delay presentation until after enteral feedings begin?
Because most metabolic toxins cross the plancenta and are cleared by maternal enzymes

p. 949
inborn errors of metabolism= I didn't fully get this the first time reading it...see p. 949-951, just read it.
Organic acidemias are associated with significant anion Gap Acidosis- often higher than what?
30-50 mEq/L.

p. 951
Need to Look at table 137-2, p. 951
Regardless of the cause for Metabolic Crisis, neonates, infants and children present with 3 things that must be addressed immediately, what are they?
-Acidosis
-dehydration
-encephalopathy

p. 951
The goal therefore in tx: 1. restore lost volume, 2. provide energy substrate to prevent progressive catabolism, 3. help with elimination of toxic metabolite.
Why must one paralyze an infant cautiously who has inborn metabolic errors,: metabolic crisis
Insufficient ventilation can worsen metabolic acidosis...(resp acidosis)

p. 951
What is the dose recommendation for BiCarb, in metabolic acidosis from inborn errors of metabolism, when the ph <7.0?
0.5 mEq/kg/hr

p. 951
- all patients in metabolic crisis should be kept NPO in order to remove potential inciting metabolic substrates.
However, not every inborn error of metabolism gets bicarb: this is controversial- so waiting until pH is < 7.0, this is appropriate.
What effect do steroids have on ammonia?
Increase this...hyperammonia.


p. 952
CAH, 75% of all children will present with what lab/PE findings?
- virilization
- elevated K
- low sodium

- 952
- MC will present in the 2nd week of life:
lethargy, irritability, poor feeding, vomiting, poor weight gain. May present with significant dehydration and even shock.
In Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia, where there is an increase in adrenal corticotropic hormone secondary to a decrease in the feedback loop, what happens to the skin, where?
- hyperpigmention in the skin folds: labia, scrotum as well as the nipples.

p. 952
- can also show as: virilization in females- clitoromegaly
What is the classic electrolyte problem exhibited in patient with CAH?
- low serum sodium
- elevated serum potassium

p. 952
potassium may be as high as 6-12 mEq/L; but cardiac function is often preserved and no EKG abnormalities are often present.
Why do you NOT give insulin and glucose to CAH patients with hyperkalemia?
It can cause profound hypoglycemia.

p. 953
Instead: IV calcium gluconate, then IV sodium bicarb
-NS and hydrocrotisone tx is appropriate for the mangement of most patients with CAH
What should individuals who are suspected of being involved in intimate partner abuse be asked?
If Hi/Si and provided immediate Mental Health consultation-for concrete plan or + findings.

p. 1983-1984
When dealing with intimate partner abuse, what is of paramount concern?
Safety of the abused and children

p. 1984
What are some high risks for potentially lethal situations with regard to intimate partner abuse?
1. escalating frequency of violence
2. threat or actual use of weapons- particularly firearms
3. obsession with abused individual/stalking
4. homicide or suicidal threats and attempts or evidence of violent behavior outside the home

p. 1985
Additioanlly, substance abuse of the individual threatening the patient.
What are the most dangerous times for the victim of intimate partner abuse?
- during the time of disclosure
- during the time of the attempts to leave the relationship

p. 1985
Who should survivors of intimate partner abuse be referred to?
intimate violence experts

p 1985
Why should intimate partner violence advocates not contact the patient directly?
Because this could jeopardize the patient.


p. 1985
T/F: All individuals who are sexually assaulted sustain some injury.
False

p. 1980
Lack of an injury does not mean sexual assault did not occur.
T/F: Every part of the forensic evidence should be used, and caution is advised against trying to tailor the kit to the patient (this is how mishaps occur) and the nature of the assault.
False: the kit is tailored to the nature of the expressed assault.

p, 1981
After evidence is collected- a chain of custody must be maintained and the kit secured.
CDC recommends preventive tx following sexual assault. What is it?
Cetriaxone 125 mg IM
plus
Metronidazole 2 gm PO
plus
Azithromycin 1 gm PO
plus
Doxyclycline 100 mg PO bid x 7 days

p. 1981, table 291-4,
PEN G, benzathine 2.4 million units IM, divided as 1.2 per each buttock...for syphilis
(e-mycin, 500 mg PO qid x 15 days if emergent, allergy)
What are the two common emergent contraceptive pills?
1. Levonorgestrel only 1.5 mg in single doseor two doses 0.75 mg (12 hrs apart)
2, Combined estrogen-progestin- two doses of 100 mcg ethinyl estradiol plus 0.5 mg levonorgestrel 12 hrs apart.

p. 1982
When should you consider sedation in a patient who has a FB in ear?
when the patient will not remain calm (is aggitated) or when prior attempts to remove have failed.

p. 976
When is deep sedation appropriate in the removal of ear FB?
1. When FB has been on place for long time
2. when FB is not visible
3. When the child is uncooperative or mentally handicapp.

p. 976
IV ketamine is ideal drug of choice for deep sedation
What is the risk with Oral Jet Irrigators (for ear irrigation)?
Creates pressure sufficient enough to cause TM rupture

p. 977
T/F: The pressure from a metal syringe creates enough pressure to cause TM rupture.
False

p. 977
Who should manual ear syringing methods not be used on for ear irrigations?
Those with hx of TM perforation or weakness

p. 977
Ear currettes and right angle hooks can scoop out smooth spherical FB's in the ear, however, they can cause abrasions, bleeding and trauma in the canal. Therefore they are not recommended when FB is where in the ear?
the inner 2/3 of the canal.

p. 977
What instrument is ideal for the removal of FB's that are irregular shaped and soft?
Alligator Forceps.

p. 977
T/F: Majority of nasal FB's can be removed by ER provider, w/o ENT provider or sedation.
True

p. 978
What is one FB, that regardless of location, needs to be removed emergently!?
Button Batteries. In the moist nasal environment, the battery may create an electrical current, which results in liquification necrosis- which of course leads to tissue damage.

p. 978
What is the least invasive + pressure technique to remove nasal FB?
Having the patient blow his/her nose!

p. 978
What is the "big kiss" technique of positive pressure assistance for removal of FB?
Parent or provider (ya right- not gonna happen) applies mouth to mouth of patient, occluding the patent nares- blows to forcibly dislodge the FB

p. 978
- may be tried four times
Bag-valve-mask- positive pressure technique for FB removal from the nose?
pt in trendelenburg, and otherwise concept same as the big kiss method

p. 978
What is a way to dislodge a FB from the nose, when the object is visible and there is a space between the object and the nasal mucosa, and the object is not easily removed with instrument?
Foley catheter/balloon catheter (they may be small enough- see page 981)

p. 979
catheter should be lubed with lidocaine jelly
What is a non-invasive way to remove magnets that are adhered to another magnet or ring in the nose?
Using a stronger magnet on the outside of the nose, to remove the strenght of the pull on the inside of the nose.

p 981
What should be done after removal of FB from nose or ears?
Examination, to ensure no additional FB or damage from the attempted removal.

p 981
17% of children with FB in their ear have additional existing pathology...what's up with that?
Often FB is placed into the ear in effort to relieve the irritation or itching. Look for existing pathology and tx accordingly (otitis media)

p. 981
Additionally, 28% of children with FB's in ear/nose have pica
What is one thing that is not essential in LP examination of children?
Opening pressures are not necessary

p. 982
What is something that has to be done, prior to LP, in child w/hx of thrombocytopenia or factor deficiency?
replace factor or platelets prior

p. 982
What is a useful technigue to soothe an infant prior to LP?
Sucking on pacifier dipped in sucrose...supposed to act as an analgesic agent, calm the patient and decrease crying

p. 982
What is the peak age of Nursemaid's elbow?
2-3 yrs old.

p. 983

however, range is 6 months to 7 yrs.
Nursemaid's elbow, MC occurs in which extremity?
left- because the child is often pulled with the guardians right hand

p. 983
How long after relief of nursemaids elbow with the patient typically begin to use arm?
Tho relief is immediate, the child will often not use the extremity for 5-10 minutes.

p. 983
HOWEVER, no use of relief with in 30 minutes- get radiogrpah, there may be a fx. if neg, but the child persists discomfort, f/u with ortho in one week.
What is a method for daily caregivers to organize resources for healthcare of a special needs child?
Emergency Care Plan

p. 953
Copies should be available at the child's home as well as any place that he/she frequently visits/attends.
What is the term given to describe a collection of non-progressive disorders of movement and posture originating from the injury sustained by the developing brain w/in the first 3-5 yrs of life?
Cerebral palsy

p. 953
CP may be associated with other CNS sequelae, such as what (5 things)
1. seizures
2. cognitive impairments
3. sensory abnormalities
4. communication abnormalities
5. behavioral abnormalities

p. 953
CP can be calssfied base on 3 criteria?
1. motor abnormality (spastic, dyskinetic,ataxic,hypotonic, and mixed)
2. Distribution (diplegia, hemiplegia, quadriplegia)
3. degree of involvement

p. 953
CP patients w/seizures: refractory seizures, what may you need to ask caregiver?
Ask about baseline serum glucose. May need a ketogenic diet, administering dextrose may increase seizures previously controlled by therapeutic ketosis.

p. 955
Why should you avoid mineral oil in children with aspiration hx?
- can cause aspiration pneumonitis/pulmonary complications

- p. 956
What neural tube defect includes: spinal cord, meninges, and certebral column?
Meningomyelocele

p. 956
- complications of sensory and motor control of voluntary and autonomic activities at or below the spinal lesion
What occurs in 75% of meningomyelocele patients>
Hydrocephalus
- requiring early shunt placement...

p. 956
Patient with hx of hydrocephalus. Has recent hx of AMS, irritability, N/V, vision disturbances, neck pain, HA, seizures...FOP/MOP report that this happened in the past, prompting neurosurg involvement. What is likely the cause?
Shunt malfunction

p 956
What does new onset stridor in patient with hx of meningomyelocele suggest?
Chiari II malformation...

p. 956
Obtain Emergent MRI of the craniocervical junction and monitor the child closely for progression of stridor to complete airway obstruction.
What does even minor head trauma with Chiari II malformation require cervical immobilization?
2/2 to the instability of the craniocervical junction.

p. 956
UTI in meningomyelocele patient? Often straight caths etc must be performed, 2.2 to hx of retention. Why should only sx patients be given abx?
because bacterial colonization is common

p. 956
Do not attempt recatherization in the ED for sxs, for fear of compounding the underlying injury, but instead obtain Urology consultation.
What are the areas distal to neural tube defect that are susecptible to burns and pressure sores?
Insensate areas


p. 956
What describes a heterogenous d/o of brain development that affects: behavior, social interaction, language and communication, and often features repetitive motor activities.
Autism

p. 956
Interaction is often difficult: sensory defensiveness, unusual social behaviors, aggressive self protective responses to medical procedures/exams.
What is cognitive impairment and decreased adaptive behaviors resulting from injury, disease, or abnormality occuring before 18 y/o?
MR (mental retardation)

p. 957
With the socially difficult/ackward patient, what is the best means to effective manage communication/interaction?
THe child's caregiver is a great resource to tell you how to communicate/manage the patient.

p. 957
What is a particular area of concern with deceleration injuries in Down's Syndrome children?
Atlantoaxial subluxation or dislocation...

p. 957
What is the condiction of serious, potential life-threatening complication of cord injuries proximal to the midthoracic level?
Autonomic dysreflexia

p. 957
Consists of paroxysmal sympathetic and parasympathetic hyperactivity initiated below by stimuli below the level of the lesion: bladder overdistention, fecal impaction, or flushing, pounding HA, HTN, bradycardia, and pilerection.
T/F: Ventriculaer appearance of NML size on CT effectively r/o ventricular shunt malformation
False: can be 2/2 to surround loss of tissue compliance.

p. 958
How is DKA defined in the pediatric chapter?
- metabolic acidosis < 7.3
- Serum Bicarb < 15 mEq/L
- hyperglycemia (>300 mg/dL)
- ketonemia
p. 959
MC cause of DKA in children with known DM?
lack of compliance

p. 959
What should be considered in a child with DKA and a depressed level of consciousness?
Cerebral edema

p. 959
While abdominal pain and vomiting can occur in DKA, what does focal pain, not responsive to fluid mgt and associated with fever suggest?
underlying intra- abdominal proceess

p. 959
Elevated glucose in the presence of ketonemia, ketonuriaand acidosis almost always indicates what?
DKA

p. 959
HOWEVER, any condition causing prolonged vomiting or excessive fasting can cause ketoacidosis- however, glucose not commonly elevated: no hx DM, consider- ethylene glycol, isopropyl alcohol, and salicylates.
What is the most dreaded complication associated with DKA, and accounts for 57-87% of all peds related deaths from DKA?
Cerebral edema

p. 959
What is some specific risk factors associated with overt life threatening cerebral edema:(4)
1. young age (MC < 5 y/o, rare> 20)
2. severe hyperosmolarity
3. persistent hyponatremia
4. severe acidosis

p. 959
cerebral edema MC occurs 6-12 hrs after onset of therapy. Pt appears to be improving, just prior to deterioration
Premonitory sxs of cerebral edema (50%); are:(4)
- HA
- Seizure
- declining MS
- papillary edema

p. 959
However, cerebral edema may also be the first sign as well
Standard tx for cerebral edema?
Mannitol (0.5-1gm/kg IV bolus) and ET intubation if necessary

p. 959
Also consider 3% Hypertonic Saline 10 cc/kg over 30 minutes
ET/vent: allow vent to compensate for metabolic acidosis
What is the PH difference of VBG vs ABG?
VBG is 0.03 less than ABG

p. 960
T/F: Current consensus statements on DKA management of all children with DKA require cardiac monitor. Qtc prolongation occurs frequently during DKA and is correlated with ketosis.
True.

p. 961
This Qtc prolongation can lead to torsades de pointes...
What should be the emphasis of mgt of DKA for the ER provider?
1. perfusion status
2. electrolyte disturbances
3. hyperglycemia
4. Ketonemia

p. 961
Table: 139-3, p. 961
Once vitals signs in DKA patient are NML, what should ER provider not do?
Correct the fluid deficit too rapidly.

p. 961
What should maintenance fluid potassium be?
30-40 mEq/L

p. 961
What is the insulin infusion dosage per hr for DKA?
0.1 units/kg/hr

p;. 961
When glucose in DKA mgt normalizes to < 250 mg/dL, what should be added to IV fluids?
Dextrose- with the goal of maintaining glucose level: 150-300 mg/dL until resolution of ketoacidosis.

p. 961
Insulin rate should not be less than?
<0.05 units/kg/hr

p. 961
Bicarb is not advised as it has not been shown to be of benefit. Except for those whose PH is below what value and possess hemodynamic compromise?
< 7.0
Stable, new DM, polyuria, polydipsia. Not in DKA. What is the SC dose insulin?
0.1 units/kg regular insulin- first dose. However, this is along with hydration...po or IV

p. 962
If a patient with known DM presents with hyperglycemia,without illness or injury...how do you adjust insulin?
10% of NML dose added to current regimen, as regular insulin- SC.

p. 962
If intercurrent illness or injury: 5% of daily insulin dose every 4-5 hrs until condition resolves.
What type of Bipolar d/o presents MC in children: manic depressive form, or mood cycling form?
Rapid mood cycling, mixed variant form occurs more commonly in children and adolescents.

p. 970
All psychotic patients, regardless of age, require prompt eval and tx. Why?
- because they are risk for suicide; self-injurious behavior, victimization, and aggression

p. 970
What is the MC reason for psychosis in children?
- drug use

p. 970
MC hallucination: auditory 80%
Why are benzo's a second line drug in children with acute psychosis?
Because disinhibition is common in this age group, and may worsen acute aggitation.

p. 970
Use: haloperidol, zyprexia? see chart 141-3, p. 969

chapter: 967-971...just got the highlighted portions.
T/F: Flat and inverted T waves are common in the Newborn.
True

p. 984
How do you figure the Qtc?
Qtc=QT/sq root of R-R interval

p. 984
should be < 0.49 in first 6 months
<0.44 there after
What is the best lead for measurement of P wave amplitude?
Lead II

p. 984
T/F. First degree AV block, mobitz type I and junctional rythms need to be worked up for congenital heart disease/
False: this can all be NML in the children

p 985
First degree AV block can occur in the NML pediatric heart, but also in:
Acute Rheumatic Fever, some congential heart anomalies (ASD), endocardial cushion defects, postop cards patients and those with digitalis toxicity...

p. 985. MC no tx is needed.
What is unique about the QRS complex in complete congenital heart blocks?
The QRS complex has a NML duration for age. THis is because the pacemaker is above the bundle of his bifurcation.

p. 985
What is the QRS complex prolonged in acquired complete heart block?
Because the pacemaker is below the level of the bifurcation...

p. 985
Sinus bradycardia in complete heart block, what's the initial tx?
atropine 0.02 mg/kg
(minimum 0.1 mg, max 0.5 mg)
p. 985
What does the HR > 220 in an infant, and >180 in a child suggest?
SVT

p. 985
Causes sinus tach: severe dehydration, fever, pain, hemorrhage, hyperthyroidism, sepsis, and drug toxicity- ingestion or iatrogenic
Vagal maneuvers slow accelerated HR of presumed SVT and Pwaves are visible, what is the dx?
sinus tachycardia

p. 985
What is the MC form of ventricular preexcitation syndome in children?
WPW

p 985
Short PR interval (<0.12 seconds)
Prolonged QRS complex (>0.12 seconds), with classic delta wave
Arrythmias occur in 50% of patients with WPW, and are usually associated with what?
narrow complex tachycardia.

p. 986
MC thru AV reentrance (antegrade conduction through AV node w/retrograde conduction through accessory pathway-orthodromic conduction- of which a-fib is associated)
Antidromic tachycardia can occur in WPW as well. The retrograde conduction that occurs with this can cause what type of dysrythmia?
v-fib and ultimately death

p. 986
What medications do you NOT give to WPW?
Dig and verapamil can cause lethal arrythmias, do not give flecainide to patients with WPW either.

p. 986
Why should all wide complex arrythmias be treated as ventricular tachycardia?
Because SVT with abberration is rare in children

p 986
V-tach is MC seen in the presence of underlying congenital heart dz
What effect does amiodorone have on the QT interval?
prolongs it

p. 986
What are common presenting signs and sxs of prolonged QT syndrome?
- presyncope
- syncope
- palpitations
- sudden cardiac death

p. 987
What are the risk factors for sudden cardiac death in prolonged QT syndrome?
- male gender
- prior syncope
- QTc > 500 milliseconds
medications associated with prolonged QT table 143D-9
What lead should be used to calculate QTc?
Lead II, calculated over 3-5 consecutive beats.

p 988
Prolonged QTc:
>470 males
>480 females
What is the ED mgt of prolonged QTc syndrome?
Avoidance of therapies that make this Crap worse: particularly abx.
Salter Harris fx: which type has the lowest incidence of growth disturbances?
Type I

p 893
Why does a fx through the physic risk growth disturbances?
It is sensitive to changes in blood supply...

p. 892
When should you suspect Salter Harris type 1 fx?
When TTP over the physis

p. 892
Which salter harris type I fracture does not need regular ortho f/u for growth perimeters?
Distal fibula fx...not associated with groth arrest.

p. 892
Review salter harris fx
EL, M, E,EM, crush...
T/F: Type III salter harris fx's are intraarticular.
True

p. 893
Open reduction may be required: contact ortho
What is the MC tx need of a Salter harris type IV fx?
Open reduction, internal fixation...

p. 893
Which Salter Harris fx dx is often difficult to make and easily confused with another?
W/o hx- may confuse Salter Harris ! with V, but the hx MC suggests a large compressive force and often ntable effusion with Salter harris V.

p. 895
When should buckle fx, also called Torus fx, be followed up in Ortho?
w/in 1 week

p. 895
What determines the need for reduction in a greenstick fx?
The degree of angulation...

p. 895
more stable and less painful then common fx
Bowing or bending fx (also called plastic fx) is limited to where?
Long bones of the forearm and leg

p. 895
dx is made radiographically
needs ortho: MC tx, is fx completion with reduction/realignment
What should one be concerned about in < 2 y/o child with clavicle fx?
Child abuse

p. 896
MC clavicle fx site?
Middle third of the clavicle

p. 896
What humeral fx is uncommon in children?
fx of the humeral diaphysis...

assess radial nerve on initial examination as well as following reduction attempt.
Why must you consider abuse in a child with diaphyseal fx of the humerus?
Because of the amt of force needed to cause a fx in this area

p. 896
When a fx is sustained in the diaphysis of the humerus, which is more UNSTABLE: a transverse or spiral fx?
Transverse fx

p. 896
Which fx's, comparatively are most commonly missed in children?
Elbow fx

p. 896
Explain what CRITOE signifies?
Order of closure of the elbow
Capitellum- by 1 yr
Radial head- by 3 yr
Internal (medial) epicondyle- by 5 yr
Trochlea- by 7 yr
Olecranon- by 9 yr
External (lateral) epicondyle-11 ys

p. 898
Which fat pad may be NML in the elbow, the anterior or posterior fat pad?
Anterior fat pad

p. 896
Posterior fat pad= fx. Hemiarthrosis from intraarticular injury
What does an anterior fat pad, that appears as a sail sign indicate?
-possible pathology.

(probable fx)
p. 896
What are the MC fx types in children < 8 y/o?
Supracondylar fx

p. 897
ie MC cause- FOOSH

Complications= uncommon, but can be transient neuropraxia to volkmann's ischemic contracture
Elbow fx; which strcutures are the greatest threat for damage- with a Posterolateral displaced fx?
brachial artery and median nerve...damage can lead to compartment syndrome.

p 897
Why is a splint with sugar tong more appropriate that volar with the forearm?
complete and even greenstick fx because the fx of the radius and ulnar have a tendency to become more displaced if not effecively immobilized.

p. 900
What is a monteggia fx?
Fx of the ulna with dislocation of the radial head

p 901
needs immediate referral to Orthopedist
What is a galleazzi fx?
A fx of the radius with dislocation of the DISTAL radiulnar joint

p. 902
Very uncommon- but Must have ortho referral/exam
What is the hallmark finding of wrist carpal bone injury?
pain out of proportion to the injury

p. 902
What type of fx is a distal phalaynx fx with a subungual hematoma?
Open fx.

p. 902
Abx: controversial.

My experience with a hand surgeon was one prick, he indicated a need- and would sell you down the river with blame if not done...but, not gospel.
Pelvic fx in pediatric population is rare, except for avulsion fx. Yet, non-avulsion fx occur as well- what is the MC cause?
Pedestrian vs. MVC

p. 902
Pelvic fx requires A LOT of force in pediatric patient. What MUST be considered/effectively r/o in this event?
multisystemic organ damage

p. 902
MC- hemorrhage comes from other injuries, not pelvic vessels.
What should you be thinking in a child who has a femur fx and no hx of walking?
-abuse

p. 903
HoTN in isolated femur fx in a young child, what should be investigated?
Source of other injury; isolated femur fractures in an of themselves do not cause HoTn.

p/.. 903
MC Cause of hip disability in adolescents?
SCFE- slipped capital femoral epiphysis

p. 903
What imaging should be done in a patien w/chronic pain in the groin, hip, thigh, or knees?
B/L hip radiographs to r/o SCFE

p. 903
Every child with suspected SCFE needs prompt...
Ortho referral-
this answer was a gimme...

p. 903
The Ottawa knee rules apply to those older than or equal to what age?
2 y/o

p. 904
Fx distal femoral physis: what artery lies close to the distal femoral metaphysis and may be injured with peroneal nerve?
Popliteal Artery

p. 904
Type III tibial tuberosity fracture, into the joint is at risk for...?
Compartment syndrome

p. 904
Type I and type II fractures are MC treated with immobilization...
Toddlers fx, what is this?
Isolated spiral fx of the distal tibia.

p. 904
Pt is often observed not wishing to bear weight: limping or just refusing to ambulate
While trauma to the metatarsals and phalanges is common, what is the risk associated w.crush injuries?
vascular damage and compartment syndrome

p. 905
What is the MC way for a patient to get osteomyelitis?
Hematogenous spread

p. 906
MC source/cause: Staph Aureus

-see Table 133-2, p. 906
T/F: The earliest signs of spetic arthritis are often subtle
True'

p. 906
What is the difference in the presentation of older infant, toddler and child with septic arthritis, vs the presentation of infant?
Older infant, toddler, child: fever and localizing signs
Infants: pseudoparalysis- not using it.

p. 906
What are some risk factors for septic arthritis?
1. immune deficiency
2. SSA
3. RA
4. IBD

-. 907
What labs are obtained in a septic arthritis patient? How do you obtain a definitive dx?
-CBC
- ESR/CRP
- Throat cx

Definitive dx: aspirate of joint fluid-ie arthrocentesis

907
What are some common signs/sxs reported by septic arthritis patient?
- temperature>101.3
- CRP > 20
- Leukocytosis (>12,000)
- severe pain
- tenderness to palpation
- spasm and refusal to walk

p. 907
What is the tx for septic arthritis?
Vancomycin
Clindamycin
-or-
Linezolid (when vanc resistance is high)

p/907
Prognosis is related to the duration of sxs prior to dx: >4 days= orthopedic complications
What presents with:
High Fevers >102.2 for at least 2 weeks, chills. Often associated w/faint erythematous macular rash (colescing on trunk, hands, etc). Polyarticular associated?
Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis (JIA)

p. 907
Also associated with: hepatospleenomegaly, lymphadenopathy, as well as pleuritis and pericardial effusion.
Most well known form of avascular necrosis of the femoral head?
Legg Calve Perthes Disease

p. 907
MC age onset: 4-9 y/o, MC unilateral
What is needed to est the dx of Acute Rheumatic Fever?
2 major jones criteria or 1 major and 2 minor jones criteria
and antecedent (MC2-6 weeks)
of strep infx

. p 909
What type of arthritis is MC associated with Acute rheumatic fever?
migrating , fleeting, polyarticular arthritis

p 909
What may be the sole presenting sx acute rheumatic fever?
Chorea

p 909
Acute Rheumatic fever, what is the greatest risk of morbidity and mortality associated with it?
Carditis

p.909
What criteria, for Jones Criteria are the following?
Carditis (new/changing murmurs, cardiomegaly,HF, pericarditis); Migratory polyarthritis, Chorea, Erythema Marginatum, Subcutaenous nodules?
Major Criteria

p. 909
What are the following in jones criteria?
Fever, arthralgia, + hx of acute rhem fever, elevated ESR or CRP, prolonged PR on EG, and Antistreptococcal- rising titer.
Minor criteria

p. 909
Acute Rheumatic fever, outpatient or inpatient?
Inpatient of course

p. 909
T/F:Even in Acute Rheumatic fever, ASA is not given- because of the risk for Reyes Syndrome. Only for Kawasaki's Dz
It is given, when arthritis. To achieve serum concentrations: 20-30 mg/dL...then reduce after one week. However, weight risk...esp in other seasonal inflammatory conditions...
Carditis and HF, assoc with Acute Rheumatic Fever. What is the tx? For how long?
Prednisone 1-2mg/kg/d until 2 weeks after resolution of sxs

p. 909
What is the tx for rheumatic fever?
Benzathine 600,000 units IM < 27 Kg
Benzathing 1.2 million units IM for eveyone else
PO PCN can also be provided. E-mycin when PCN allergy all for 10 days
How long does a rheumatic fever, w/o carditis prophylactic abx? What about those with hx of carditis?
= 5 yrs
= lifetime

p. 909
What are some gross ways to differentiate Transient Synovitis from Septic Arthritis?
Reactive arthritis:
Full ROM is MC preserved
Does not appear toxic
Severe pain and spasms are absent
Sometimes No fever
Mean WBC and ESR are significantly lower than septic arthritis=BUT, you cannot rely on this to r/o or rule in this dx.

p. 909
What is more sensitive, when examinating transiet synovitis of the hip, what is more sensitive than plain film for detecting an effusion...
U/S

p. 909
Tx: rest and NSAIDs

I am not doing cards for the final chapter: Oncology/Hematology Emergencies in children...ch 136...too much info. I will be rereading this.
Good luck with your test. Hope this helped.

-howell
What does hypoglycemia, in the abscence of urine Ketones imply?
Inborn error of metabolism: with fatty acid oxidation defect

p. 951
What does hypoglycemia, in the presence of urine Ketones imply?
Organic Acidemia

p. 951
What ammonia level in newborn, neonate, tells of inborn error of metabolism with the Urea cycle?
> 200 micromoles/L

- remember, ammonia is formed from the deamination of amino acids- excreted as urea in the urine. Urea is produced in hepatocytes.
After protein feedings, the ammonia level may reach > 400 micromoles/L
While NS is appropriate fluid administration in inborn errors of metabolism; why is dextrose administration also helpful and appropriate?
Dextrose solution IV helps with the Urine output (as does NS), yet the dextrose helps with the substrate essential to eliminate/reduce the catabolism.

p. 951
What is the MC cause of inborn metabolic erros of metabolism associated with encephalopathy?
Hyperammonemia

p. 952
What should be considered in patients who have a serum ammonia level > 600 micromoles/Liter?
Dialysis

p. 952
T/F: Acute Leukemia's are the MC CA in children.
True
T/F: AML can be caused by the tx for ALL.
True

p. 929
T/F: the complication rate is higher in ALL than in AML
False, the complication rate, particularly with infx's, is greater in AML than in ALL

p. 929
Most signs and sxs associated with leukemia have to do with bone marrow infiltration and failure. What are the s/sxs MC associated with this?
-Pallor
-fatigue
-easy bruising
-and infx are common
Think of Leukemia in a patient who has frequent, easy epistaxis and abnormally located brusing.

p. 929
What is a likely dx of a patient with:
- low to NML plt count
- Low WBC (<4,000/mL^3)
-and a hx of nighttime pain?
Leukemia

p. 929- nealry 2/3 will have hepato or spleenomegaly at the time of dx
T/F: Almost all children with leukemia have some form of hematologic abnormality, including elevated or depressed WBC's, very few have the extremely elevated WBC's thought to be the typical presentation of leukemia.
True

p.929
What is the purpose of intrathecal tx for CA for inducation tx?
Intrathecal tx for CA (leukemia for ex) aims to eliminate the CNS as a sanctuary for residual dz.

p. 929
Similar to the intention of the "consildation phase of tx" which seeks to eliminate the prospects of residual dz.
Why is survival with tx less in AML than in ALL?
Because it is more difficult to induce remission in AML than in ALL, and many children do not survive the tx intensity/strength.

p. 930
T/F: Maintenance therapy after remission is key to tx of AML.
False: maintenance therapy is of no benfit.

p. 930
If transfusion is desired in a child with Leukemia, who has anemia...what are the Hb and Plt goals?
Hgb, tx: >8-10
Plt: > 50,000-100,000

p. 930
What is the plt count that risk spontaneous intracranial hemorrhage?
< 5,000/mL

p. 930
What is the platelet count in thrombocytopenic leukemia child, that warrants prophylactic transfusion? (in the absence of other bleeding risks)
<10,000/ml^3

p. 930
What if a patient with thrombocytopenia, hx of leukemia, is about to undergo an invasive procedure? (where there is a bleeding risk)
plt counts should exceed >50,000-100,000/mL^3

p. 930`
0.1 unit/kg, results in a 30,000-50,000/mL3 increase
Which is DIC MC associated with: AML or ALL?
AML

p. 931
1 unit pRBC's is expected to raise the Hb level_____gm/dL in patient w/o active hemorrhage.
3

p. 931
A dose of plts is 0.1 units/kg and is expected to raise plt count by____ to____.
30,000-50,000

p. 931
Who should contact prior to transfusing blood products in child, with hx of CA/tx?
pediatric Oncologist

p. 931
What is cryoprecipiate?
Blood product rich in: vWF, Facot VIII, and fibrinogen..

p. 931
Clinicially significant hyperleukocytosis occurs when WBC's are:
>________ in AML
and
>________ in ALL
> 200, 000 in AML
> 300, 000 in ALL

p. 931
- this can lead to white thrombi of aggregates of leukocytes

ED tx for this: IV hydration, urinary alkalinazation, and administration of allopurinol for tumor lysis syndrome.
What should be avoided in hyperleukocytosis condition?
Anything that increases blood viscosity...
pRBC's and diuretics...

p. 932
PLts do not increase viscosity

leukopharesis is temporizing measure.
How much will cryoprecipate increase fibrinogen by?
50 mg/dL...

p. 932
0.1 unit/kg increases fibrinogen by 50 mg/dL
What does Reed-Sternberg cell result indicate?
Hodgkins lymphoma

p. 932`
What is the MC malignancy in 15-19 y/o age group?
Hodgkins Lymphoma

p. 932
How does Hogkins Lymphoma MC present?
Rubbery, painless lymphnode. MC: supracelavicular or cervical.

p. 932
How is hodgkins lymphoma confirmed?
Lymph node bx

p. 932
A patient with significant lymphadenopathy. What medication is not to be given if lymphoma is in the differential?
steroids

p. 932
Hodgkin's Lymphoma begins where? Non-Hdgkins lymphoma begins where?
Hodgkins Lymphoma begins anywhere w/in the lymphatic systems and then spreads to lymphnodes

Non-Hodgkins lymphoma- a Ca of lymphatic system, that can begin from ANY other organ system in the body.

p. 932-933
The most common solid tumor of childhood (boys and girls)
CNS tumors

p. 933
T/F: children with HA's are statistically more likely to have CA.
False. While HA is a common hx of individual with CA, the existence of HA does not impart risk

p. 933
T/F: Most CNS malignancies are best identified on head CT, which superior visualization of the tumor in relation to surrounding structures.
False
- these tumors are visualized on CT, but MRI is superior.

p. 933
Frequently, vasogenic edema surrounding a CNS tumor can cause motor weakness and contribute to increase in ICP, what do you give if you do not suspect CNS lymphoma?
Dexamethasone single IV dose, 1 mg per yr of age to max of 10 mg.

p. 934
opsoclonus-myoclonus, MC associated with which CA?
Neuroblastoma

p. 934
Tho not only associated with this. So the presence of this does not yield the dx. Besides this is rare.
T/F: Neuroblastoma leads to HTN 2/2 to the production of increased catecholeminas.
False.

It leads to the increase of precursors to catecholemines. This is a differentiating characteristic of pheochromacytoma- which does produce catecholamines...

p. 934
What is a Wilms Tumor (ie, other name)
Nephroblastoma

p. 934
MC affects children < 10 y/o
MC: Abdominal swelling and mass.
Large abdominal mass, what should you suspect? And, why should you limit abdominal examinations as well as vigorous palpation when examining the patient?
1. Wilm's Tumor (Nephroblastoma)
2. Vigorous palpation risk capsular rupture, and spilling of CA contents.

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Germ Cell Tumors, who do these effect: boys or girls?
Trick question: Boys and Girls, however, testicular tumors more common than ovarian.

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Testis tumors- throughout age spectrum
Ovarian tumors- MC onset puberty
What is the MC bone tumor and is identified MC in adolescence?
Osteosarcoma

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What is the leading cause of death with Ewing Sarcoma?
Pulmonary Mets

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What has a classic "moth eaten" appearance on radiograph. MC patient presents with Tender, Painful soft tissue mass.
Ewing Sarcoma

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In the context of febrile cancer patient, neutropenic fever is defined as ANC less than what?
<500/mL^3 (or ANC <1000, with expected decline to 500 mL^3)

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In CA, when determining neutropenic fever...how ios fever conservatively defined?
- single oral temp: 101
- a temp 100.4 for more than 1 hr
- two brief elevations 100.4 in 12 hr period

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Why, in a CA patient, is a rectal temperature, even in peds patient NOT recommended?
Bactermia is believed to be induced by this.

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Typhlitis, what the heck is that?
A non-focal infx ascending colitis...will often manifest as a deceptively mild abd pain- this is because the child cannot mount an appropriate inflammatory response in neutropenic state.

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tx: Metronidazole or Clindamysin
Neutropenic patient, fever. What are the following indications with regard to the ICU admission:
- fever
- prolonged cap refill time
- tachycradia
- diastolic HoTn
- indications of likely admission

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Blood Cx in Neutropenic patients, prior to Abx administration is important. Amt taken has an impact on the yield. What is the general rule?
1 cc/year of age, minimum 3 cc and max 9 cc.

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What is the condition upon which there is a rapid turn over of CA cells, with a release intracellular potassium, phosphate and uric acid?
Tumor Lysis Syndrome

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- MC triggered by Chemotherapy
- but may also be from sepsis as well as other causes.
What is the most immediate threat to life in Tmor lysis syndrome?
Hyperkalemia

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Needs tx, now
- 5% dextrose/0.25% NS solution with 40-80mEq sodium bicarb per liter at two to four times maintenance to produce a urinary output of > 100 cc/m^2 w/specific gravity of <1.010 and urinary pH of 7 to 7.5
in a neutropenic patient, with hyperkalemia, why do you n ot treat with rectal kayoxalate?
Same reason not to take temperature, risk of bacteremia.

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Ca > 15, patient with sxs of muscle weakness, AMS, coma, polyuria, and dehydration, vomiting and bradycardia. How do you tx this poor kiddo?
NS 2-3 times maintenance.

4cc/kg for first 10 kg
2 cc/k for next 10 kg
1 cc/kg for the remainder...

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SIADH, is commonly associated with CA as well as the tx for CA. MC sxs associated with SIADH are related to hyponatreamia: fatigue, lethargy, confusion, coma and seizures. How do you tx?
3% Normal Saline
4 cc to 6 cc/kg- until seizures stop

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Superiormediastinal syndrome may be lethal, in the presence of RSI. Why?
The syndrome itself is 2/2 to the existence of a mass causing compression on trachea and adjacent structures...often the compression prevents passage of the ET tube...now, after paralysis of patient you are screwed...

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use other measures: elevating head of the bed. bilevel positive pressure and consideration pof heliox.
Typhilitis (also called neutropenic colitis), commonly involves the terminal ileum and cecum. But what is it?
Necrotizing colitis, w/o a source.

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= MC polymicrobial in nature
What condition is just as common as Typhilitis in patients with Leukemia??(it is another GI issue, and will often also manifest into the RLQ)
Appendicitis

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A child with hx of CA, presents with back pain. What must yoy consider?
Spinal tumor

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If patient has cord compression, secondary to vasogenic edema, what is required for tx inorder to improve of even resolve sxs: sensory, motor disturbances?
corticosteroids


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Cord Compression is a neurologic emergency; Dexamethasone 1 mg/yr of age to a max of 10 mg; an emergent MRI and neuro surg provider
How is hemophilia commonly dx?
Prolonged aPTT, but a NML PT and PLT count

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When a hemophilia patient has premonitory sxs: warmth, burning, stiffness, or tingling sensation. What should be the goal in raising the factor level?
raising the factor level to 50%

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T/F: An appropriate adage in hempophila tx is: "when in dobt tx". So for hemiarthrosis, correct levels to 50% with a second infusion 12 hrs later for factor VIII deficiency and 24 hrs for Factor IX deficiency.
true

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Spontaneous muscle hematomas can present with severe pain as well as limited ROM. What is unusual event/occurrence with this, but should NOT ever be missed (think neurovascular complication)
Compartment syndrome and nerve compression

- right, crap man, you are smart!!!!
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Treatment of ilipsoas hemorrhage in hemophiliac patient, aggressive, how?
80-100% factor replacement and pain control (uh, and of course...admission)

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What is the leading cause of death in hemophilia?
Intracranial Hemorrhage

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- this is GREAT risk even in patients with mild case of the disease. In fact initally after a trauma, may seem NML, but the bleeding is oozing in nature and may take time to show.
how are all minor head traumas with hemophilia tx'd initially?
100% factor replacement

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Intraoral leasions, frenulum or other intraoral lacerations= factor replacement to 50%
Hemphilia, painless atraumatic heamturia, MC cause?
renal

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Raising the clotting activity in hemophilia, to 100% requires what units?
50 units/kg, Factor VIII
100 units/kg, Factor IX

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Hemophilia, what if you do not have the resources available to restore 100% factor. Are there alternatives?
yes,
Cryoprecipitate 0.5 units/kg for Factor VIII
FFP 15-20 cc/kg for factor IX

just be attentive to fluid volume...

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Type 3 vWD often appears similar to severe hemophilia. However, vWD also can be contributory to FVIII deficiency, how?
vWillebrands factor will promote platelet activation, but will also, prevent activation and clearance. If it is missing, then it is not available to prevent this clearance leading to the deficiency.

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What is the agent MC used in vWD, non-type III.
DDAVP

- do not substitute nasal DDAVPfor stimate- the concentrations are different.

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raises serum vWF and FVIII to 3-5 times
After DDAVP is administered for vWD, why do you limit water intake of the next 24 hrs
to prevent hyponatremia

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What is the leading cause of anemia in childhood?
Iron deficiency

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This is uncommon >3-4 y/o, and is present should raise concern for occult bleed