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272 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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What types of flight conditions are approved for aircraft operations?
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Day and Night
VFR and IFR Flight in icing conditions RVSM |
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Max differential pressure for cabin pressurization?
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8.1
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Auto mode normal max differential for cabin pressurization ?
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7.8
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Max negative differential pressure
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-.03
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What in the max altitude for operation after an in flight depressirization?
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10,000 ft. Msl unless MEA or other constraints require a higher altitude
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MAX ALTITUDE WHEN AIRCRAFT IS DISPATCHED FOR UNPRESSURIZED FLIGHT
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10,000
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WHEN BOTH KIAS AND MACH ARE GIVEN, WHAT IS THE LIMITING VALUE?
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THE LOWER OF THE TWO
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MAX ALLOWABLE AIRSPEED FOR SL.
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250 KIAS
.50 MACH |
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MAX AIRSPEED FOR 37,000
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250
.78 |
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Vmo/Mmo
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MAX OPERATING AIRSPEED
320/.78 DO NOT DELIBERATELY EXCEED IN ANY REGIME OF FLIGHT |
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Vmo from 8,000-10,000
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Red line
Vmo/Mmo increases linear from 250 kts at 8,000 ft. to 320 kts. at 10,000 ft. |
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Vmo UP TO 8,000 ft MSL
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250
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Vb/Mb
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MAXIMUM PENETRATION SPEED
250/.63 WHICHEVER IS LOWER. 200 AT OR BELOW 10,000 FT |
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Va
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MAXIMUM MANUVERING SPEED
200 Full application of rudder and ailerons, and manuvers involving angle of attack near stall, must be confined to speeds below Va. A full or nearly full rudder deflection in one direction followed by a full or nearly full deflection in the other direction, even at speeds below the design manuvering speed, can dramatically increase the risk of structual failure of the vertical stabilizer or the rudder. |
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Vloe
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Landing Gear Ext. Speed
250 |
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Vle
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Landing Gear Extended Speed
250 |
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Vlor
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Landing Gear Retraction Speed
200 |
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Vfe 9
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Flap Ext. Speed
250 |
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Vfe 22
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Flap Ext. Speed
200 |
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Vfe 45
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Flap Ext. Speed
145 Momentary airspeed excursions that are due to wind gusts or turbulance are allowed up to 155 kts without crew or maintenance action required |
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Maximum Wiper Operating Speed
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160
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Maximum Operating Altitude
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37,000
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Minimum Takeoff and Landing Pressure Altitude
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-1,000
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Maximum Takeoff and Landing Pressure Altitude
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8,000
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Minimum Takeoff and Landing Temp
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-40C SAT
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Max Takeoff and Temp limit (-1,000 ft. Pressure Altitude)
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52C SAT
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Max Takeoff and Landing Temp Limit (8,000 ft. Pressure Altitude
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34C
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Rapid Cabin Depressirization
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Oxygen Masks.................on and 100%
Crew Communication.......establish |
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Cabin or Cockpit Fire/Smoke/Fumes
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Oxygen masks................on and 100%
Smoke goggles...............on Crew communication......establish Recirculation fan.............off |
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Aileron/roll trim runaway
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Quick disconnect button....press and hold
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Pitch trim runaway
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Quick disconnect button....press and hold
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Engine fire/failure/severe damage
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Thrust lever......................idle
Start/stop selector...........stop Fire Handle.....................Pull(do not rotate) |
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Bagg smoke
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Bagg extinguish button.....press
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Yaw Damper operation is not authorized for what?
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Takeoff to 500 ft. Afl
Landing below 100ft TDZE |
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Operational altitude for the APU?
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37,000
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Altitude for start with the APU
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30,000
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Start EGT (exhaust gas temp) for the APU?
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884c
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Continuous EGT for the APU
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680c
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Rotor speed for the APU
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104%
The APU model T-62-T-40C14 will automatically shut down at 104% rotor speed |
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Minimum start temp for the APU?(SAT)
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-54c
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Max load on main generator
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400a
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Max load on APU generator
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400a
300a above 30,000 ft. |
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Max battery temp
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70c
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Min battery temp for apu start
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-20
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When do u need to use ATTCS(automatic takeoff thrust control system) for the emb 135 and 140?145?
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135&140-T/O or ALT T/O-1
145- ALT T/O-1 |
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How long do u need to run an engine after landing or high power runs?
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1 minute
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What is the C4 cargo limitation for the EMB 135, 140 and 145?
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135-2205
140-2646 145-2646 |
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What is the flight manuvering load acceleration limit for flaps up and flaps down?
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Flaps up- 2.50g to -1g
Flaps down- 2g to 0g |
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The aircraft may not takeoff again if landed below what temp?
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-40c sat
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What type of hydraulic fluid do we use?
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Skydral SAE AS 1241A Type IV
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What is the holding configuration?
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flaps up, gear up, min airspeed 200
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When and what temp is TAT limited to in cruise flight?
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25,000 and -45c
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What does the pitot static tube 3 supply pressure to?
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stby IAS
Stby ALT CPAM (pressurization control) |
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When is the ADC amber on the PFD?
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When 1 ADC is supplying both sides or each ADC is supplying cross side data.RVSM cannot be complied with when using only 1 ADC
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What makes up the ADC system?
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2 ADC, 2 pitot tubes, 2 TAT probes, and 4 static ports.
The standby system consists of one pitot static tube. |
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When does IAS flash on the PFD?
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When a difference of 5 KIAS exist between PFD airspeeds.
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When does the amber ALT flash on the PFD?
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When there is a difference of 200 ft.
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What are the limitations for the auto pilot?
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S- single engine go around with autopilot engaged is prohibited
A- approach mode selection during localized capture is allowed only when aircraft is inbound. D- descent below mda on a non precision approach with autopilot engaged is prohibited. |
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What may the height loss be for a coupled go around?
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75 ft
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What does the AD in limitations reference to due to glideslope?
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1.When crossing the outer marker on glideslope, the altitude must be verified with the value on the published procedure.
2. The approach may be flown using normal procedures no lower than localized only minimum descent altitude. 3. Can only be flown to published approach minimums if both glideslope receivers are tuned to the approach and both crew members are monitoring the approach using independent data and displays. |
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What are the exterior dimensions of the 145, 140, and 135?
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98-66-22-70, 94-66-22-66,
87-66-22-61 |
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Name the three compartment hatches that share the EICAS caution message ACCESS DOOR open?
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Foward electronic hatch
Rear electronic hatch Under cockpit access hatch |
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What is the maximum seating capacity of the 145,140 and 135?
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50,44,37 and 4 crew
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What are the two oxygen systems?
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cockpit-gaseous type
cabin-chemical generator |
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Name the four standby instruments provided as back up.
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Mag compass, airspeed, altimeter, attitude
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What is TAT in flight limited to and at what altitude?
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-45C at 25,000 ft
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When do icing conditions exist for takeoff and landing?
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IC CFRS and
Icing conditions also exist when the OAT is 10C or below when operating on ramps, taxiways, or runways where surface snow, ice, standing water and slush may be ingested by the engines, or freeze on engines, nacelles or engine sensor probes. |
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When do icing conditions exist in flight?
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TAT IC CFRS
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Min and Max temp for operating manual anti-icing operation.
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-40C to 10C
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Taking off with airframe contaminants
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C-WASP and
Takeoff with frost on the fuel tank underwing surfaces is permitted, provided it does not exceed 1/8 inch. |
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Autopilot limitations
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SAD
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Takeoff on contaminated runways
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If the captain determines that an appreciable part of the runway is covered by snow, slush, ice or 1/8 inch or more of standing water, based on reports or by personal inspection, the following limitations apply:
1. A T/O or T/O-1 takeoff must be accomplished. 2. Takeoff is not authorized if standing water, slush or wet snow on the required length or width of the runway is more than 1/2 inch deep, or if dry snow accumulation is more than 3" deep. |
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The APU (CONTINUOUS) EGT may be exceeded up to what ITT for how long?
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717C for 5 minutes
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What are the APU starter limits?
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Cooling Period:
Between three consecutive attempts........1 min off. Between two series of three consecutive attempts...30 min off |
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When must the Terrain Awarness Display be inhibited(TERR/OVRD)
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- FMS in dead reckoning mode
- Before TO or within 15 NM of approach and landing at an airport with longest runway less than 3,500 ft. - Before TO or within 15 NM of approach and landing at an airport without a IAP. |
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When should the ATTCS be armed?
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135,140- T/O OR ALT T/O-1
145- ALT T/O-1 |
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Engine type
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135, 140- AE3007A1
145- AE3007A1/3 |
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Engine Warm up prior to takeoff
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Run the engine at idle or taxi thrust a minimum of 4 minutes for cold engines and two minutes for warm engines. An engine is considered cold if it has been shut down for more than 90 minutes. Prior to increasing N2 above 83% the engine oil temperature must be a minimum of 40 C.
In lieu of this minimum oil temp limit: 1. Run the engine at idle or taxi thrust for at least 8 minutes prior to increasing N2 above 83% 2. In addition to the minimum two or 4 min. warm up time, perform the TO by advancing the TL to 88% N2 with the toe brakes applied and ensure the oil pressure is above 83 psi before releasing the toe brakes and advancing the TL's to the thrust set position. |
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ALT T/O-1, T/O, T/O, T/O RSV ITT limit.
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948 for 5 min.
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Max continuous
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901
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Engine start ITT limit
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800C
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N1 max
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100%
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N2 max
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57.0-102.4
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Starter limits on ground?In Flight?
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On ground:
Starting or dry motoring..up to 5 min. on, 5 min. off or First to fourth cycles...1 min on, 1 min. off Following cycles....1 min on, 20 min off If Flight: Maximum continous operation time...5 min on |
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Max altitude for flap ext.
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20,000
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Max airspeed for retrim after T/O?
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160
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Acceptable Fuels
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QAV1, Jet A and Jet A-1, JP8
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If fuel does not contain an icing inhibitor, the temp. leaving the FCOC must be what?
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above 4C
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fuel imbalance
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Max 800, caution is removed when imbalance is 100
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How much does usable fuel decrease when any of the electric fuel pumps are inop?
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365 in each tank(days of the year)
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pressure for refueling
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35-50 psi
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Min. and Max tank temp
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-40 to 52C
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What is a CDL?
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Configuration Deviation List-guidelines at which we can operate with certain secondary airframe or engine parts missing.
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When must we not operate radar?
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refueling, near fuel spills or people. STBY is not considered as operating
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What are Thrust Reversers intended for?
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TR are intended for rejected T/O's and landings only. After reverse has been intiated, a full stop must be made.
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When is TR use prohibited?
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normal landings on dry runways greater than 7,000 ft.(usable), powerback operations and taxi operations.
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When MAY idle reverse be used?
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-dry runways 7,000 ft or shorter(usable)
-runways that are wet when braking action is reported as good |
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When MUST maximum reverse be used?
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runways when braking action is reported as Fair or Poor, OR the appropriate landing distance penalty must be applied.
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When are circling approached N/A?
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When weather is less than 1,000 ft. cieling and/or 3 miles visibility
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Max crosswind
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30 kts
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Runway surface type
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paved
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runway slope for T/O and landing
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-2%, 2%
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C1 limit for 135 and 145?
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Coat rod-40
Floor-100 |
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C1 limit for 140?
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Coat rod-40
Floor-100 |
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C2 for the 140?
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Coat rod-20
Floor-30 |
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C3 for the 140
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Coat rod-40
Floor-60 (double than C2) |
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What happens when you turn the APU Master knob to the off position?
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-Deenergizes the APU's Fadec
-The wing root SOV closes -Disable the APU indications and alarms |
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What happens when you turn the APU master knob to the on position?
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-Enables the APU'S FADEC
-the wing root SOV opens -Enables the APU indications and alrms |
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What happens when you press the APU EXTG button on the FIRE panel?
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-Deenergizes the FADEC
-Closes both Fuel SOV (wing root and APU SOV) -Discharges the APU fire bottle |
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What happens if you press and hold the TEST button on the Fire panel for more than 10 seconds?
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the APU shuts off
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How much does each engine produce?
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7426(7500) pounds of thrust up to 30C.
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Describe the Allison AE3007A1
|
It's a two spool, axial flow high bypass turbofan
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How does the engine tip cone keep from icing?
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It has a harmonic rubber tip
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What is driven by the Engine Accesory Gearbox?
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H-Hudraulic pump
E-Electrical generators A-Air Turbine Starter P-Primary Magnetic Alternator(PMA) O-Oil pump F-Fuel pump metering unit(FPMU) |
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What moves the compressor Variable Geometry (CVG) and the inlet guide Vanes?
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Fuel pressure, commanded by the FADEC
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How many CVG stages are movable?
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5
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When is the FADEC considered capable?
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when it can provide both fuel and air
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What would happen if ou brought the thrust levers into reverse in flight?
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The engines would go to flight idle
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What happens when you turn the Start/Stop selector to the START position?
|
10% N2-PMA can supply 100% power to the ignition
14% N2-FADEC enables ignition 28.5%-FADEC enables fuel flow 42-48%-Possible hung start range 50%- The PMA powers the FADEC 53%- With increasing rpm, the Fadec closes the start valve. With the decreasing rpm with FADEC shuts down the engine 56.4%-FADEC declares a good start. Igniters go off and the generators come online 64%-ground idle 64%-102.4%..normal operating range |
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What is the maximum time after ignition that fuel will be introduced?
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12 seconds
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What does the PMA power?
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Ignition and FADEC
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Where does the FADEC get its power prior to 50% N2?
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From the essential bus (28volt DC electrical system)
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When do the FADECS automatically alt.?
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at the beginning of an engine start cycle
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When do we manually alt. the FADECS?
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after each engine start
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What happens when you select RESET on the fadec button?
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clears up any recorded faults in the FADEC
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When will the FADECS not protect the engine from excessive ITT?
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during engine starts
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What would happen if you selected the ignition swith to OFF on the ground? In Flight?
|
Ground: You would disable ignition when the engine is running, you would disable fuel and ignition during a motoring run
Flight: No auto relight |
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When would you want to select the ignition switches on?
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first start of the day(must)
external air start cold start (5C or colder) difficult start Turbulence Heavy Precip Icing conditions Taxing on contaminated surface in icing conditions |
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When in flight, with the inition set to auto, how many FADECS control ignition?
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both of them
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When in flight, what is the min. N2 required for auto re-light?
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53%
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In flight, if you select the START/STOP selector to the stop position would the engine shut down?
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Only if the TL was in the idle position
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What would happen if the start selector was held in the start position more than 3 sec?
|
the switch would be disabled
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How would you fix a disabled START/STOP selector?
|
Reset the FADEC
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When will the FADEC command T/O-1?
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-When the T/O button is pressed
-When a trust lever is moved beyond the thrust set position -After a FADEC interruption -Gear down and locked below 15,000 ft. -Both engines disagree on thrust |
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Define ATTCS capable
|
-ALT T/O is selected (or T/O for the 135 & 140)
-aircraft is on the ground -engine is running -TL is at or beyond the 45 deg. angle |
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How is ATTCS disarmed?
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ALT T/O-1 Mode is deselected
ATTCS is triggered TLA below 42 deg. |
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What calulates the engine thrust?
|
The FADECS
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When will you want to select T/O-1 (T/O for 135 and 140)?
|
-Windshear
-ATTCS inop -Runway is contaminated -Performance requires you to do so -Discretion of the Captain |
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When will you want to select Ref. Anti-ice on?
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When anticipating icing conditions anywhere from the ground to 1500 ft.
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What would happen if you forgot to input the take-off data?
|
You would get an ENG NO DATA advisory message on the EICAS
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How are the TR locked into position?
|
Mechanically
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How many locks do the TR's have?
|
3
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How do the TR locks differ from each other?
|
-The primary and secondary locks are electrically commanded and hydraulically actuated
-The third lock is electronically controlled and electronically actuated |
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What does the priority valve do and where is located?
|
If the system is powered by the electric hydraulic pump, it prioritizes flow of the fluid to the flight controls when the landing gear is actuated
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Why would you need to prioritze fluid flow when you are using the electric hydraulic pump?
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B/c there is less volume of fluid being pumped when using this system
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How much pressure does the engine driven hydraulic pump produce?
|
3000PSI
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How much pressure does the electric hydraulic pump produce?
|
2900
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When does the electric hydraulic pump automatically come on?
|
At 1600 psi when engine is running at 56.4% N2 or above
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What happens when hydraulic system pressure falls below 1300 PSI?
|
You get a HYD SYS FAIL message on the EICAS
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If we lose engine#1, will we be able to lower the landing gear normally?
|
yes, the electric hydraulic pump should come online
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What happens when you pull the free fall handle?
|
releases the uplocks and depressurizes the landing gear hydraulic line
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What happens when you select the electric gear over-ride switch?
|
It by-passes the landing gear electronic unit and activates the landing gear electro valve
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When is the rudder hydraulic system#1 automatically de-energized?
|
135kts
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Why is the rudder hydraulic system #1 automatically de-energized at 135 kts?
|
Acts as a rudder limiter to prevent possible full rudder throw at that speed
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What is the purpose of the rudder hard over protection?
|
allows you to disconnect the hydraulic system if the rudder is jammed in a deflected position
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How do we deactivate the rudder hydraulic system?
|
-force of 130 lbs or more on any rudder pedal
-rudder is deflected at least 5 deg. to the opposite side -both engines are running at 56.4% N2 or above |
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How do we disengage the hydraulics to the nose wheel steering?
|
by pressing the steering disengage button on the back of the yoke
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How do we reengage the NWS?
|
by pressing down on the tiller
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What happens when you press the engine pump shut-off (guarded) button?
|
it closes the associated engine hydraulic SOV
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Why would you ever want to press the engine pump shut-off button?
|
if you had an overheat situation
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What happens when you place the electric hydraulic pump switch to the auto position?
|
the electric pump automatically comes online when the hydraulic pressure drops below 1600 psi or the associated engine drops below 56.4%N2
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When would you want to press the aileron or rudder shut off buttons?
|
when AOM 1 or EPC tells you to. (pitch runaway)
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|
What EICAS messages do you get when you enter icing conditions?
|
-ICE CONDITION
-SPS/ICE SPEEDS -CROSS BLD OPEN |
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How will you get the SPS/ICE speeds message to cancel?
|
Pressing the SPS test button on the ground
|
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After closing the bleeds, how long should you wait before performing the electric Ice protection test
|
10 seconds to let the valves close fully
|
|
|
At what altitudes can you perform the pneumatic ice protection test in flight?
|
between 10,000 and 23,000 ft
|
|
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Can you perform the in flight pneumatic ice protection test while flying in icing condition?
|
no
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If you are anticipating icing conditions anywhere from the gate to 1500 feet what should you turn on?
|
you should turn the ice detection know to ENG position
|
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|
How would you set up the bleeds and packs for T/O into icing conditions?
|
packs-closed
engine bleed valves-open apu bleed valve-closed |
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|
What conditions must be met for all electric sensors to be heated?
|
-one engine running above 56.4% N2
-TL's above 60 deg. TLA for the TAT probes to heat |
|
|
When in the auto position, when will the pneumatic cross bleed valve open automatically?
|
During a cross bleed start
|
|
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When does the pneumatic system use high pressure air?
|
-engine cross bleed starts
-icing conditions -at low thrust settings |
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Why would you ever want to turn the Cross bleed know to the Off position?
|
In case of a bleed leak
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What happens when you deselect a pack?
|
Pack valve closes and recirculation fan gets turned off.
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When does the left pack automatically de-energize?
|
below 24,600 feet in icing conditions provided the right pack is operating
|
|
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When would you want to deselect the recirc button?
|
Cabin/cockpit smoke or fumes
|
|
|
What do the gasper fans supply supply power to?
|
-individual gasper outlets
-O2 bottle compartment -relay box -rear electronics compartment |
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|
How do you select manual temperature control?
|
pull the auto temp control knob out
|
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If you select the ice detection knob to ENG, what happens?
|
-you get engine anti ice now
-you get wing and stabilizer anti-ice above 25 kts wheel speed in icing conditions |
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If you select the ice detection override knob to AUTO, what happens?
|
Engine, Wing and stabilizer anti-ice come on at 25 kts wheel speed in icing conditions
|
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If you select the ice detection override knob to all, what happens?
|
You get engine anti-ice now
you get wing and stab ant-ice above 25 kts wheel speed |
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If the rudder hydraulic system did not disengage at 135 kts, what type of error message would you expect to see on the EICAS?
|
RUDDER OVERBOOST
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|
How long do the emergency lights have power?
|
15min
|
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|
Where is the fuel temp measurment taken?
|
left tank
|
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|
What is the purpose of the enjector pump?
|
to keep the collector box filled
|
|
|
If you lose hydraulics, to what speed should you slow down?
|
250 kts
|
|
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When would you deselect windshield anti-ice?
|
on the ground, above 10C
|
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|
When is the cockpit dome light connected to the hot battery bus?
|
When the courtesy lights switch is in the auto position
|
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|
If you noticed a PFD, MFD, EICAS CRT blank, what would you expect has happened?
|
CRT (TUBE) FAILURE
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|
If it was the captains PFD that was blank, what would you do?
|
turn the MFD knob on the reversionary panel to the PFD position
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How would you know if you had an ADC failure?
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You would see a red X over the airspeed, and Altitude tapes on the PFD, you would see a boxed red VS on the VSI
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What would you see after pressing the ADC button on the reversionary panel?
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amber ADC2 label in upper left corner of Captains EADI
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If you had an AHRS failure on the FO's side, what would the FO's PFD look like?
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completely blue horizon with a boxed red ATT FAIL flag on the EADI, a red HDG flag with a red X over the EHSI?
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What would you see after pressing the AHRS button on the Reversionary panel?
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An amber colored ATT1 label in the lower left corner of the FO's EADI, An amber colored MAG1 label directly above the FO's EHSI.
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What has happened if the captains PFD, MFD and the EICAS are blank except for a large red X covering the screen?
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this is an IC600 1 failure
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How could you fix this Captain's IC 600 failure?
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press the SG button on the Captain's reversionary panel
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What labels would you see after the SG button is pressed?
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-An amber colored ADC2 label in the upper left corner
-An amber colored SG label below the ADC2 label -An amber colored ATT2 label in the lower left corner of the EADI -An amber colred MAG2 label directly above the CA's EHSI |
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How do you test the IC-600?
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press the RA button for more than 6 seconds on the ground
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What happened if a CAS MSG illuminated on your PFD?
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Both IC-600S disagree on the number of CAS messages
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How would you fix a CAS MSG illumination?
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Select both (CA's and FO's) MFD reversionary knobs to EICAS and determine which IC 600 is giving you accurate info and use that one
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How many DAUs does the EMB have?
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2
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How many channels does the DAU have?
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2
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What data is DAU 1 dedicated to reading?
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Forward Airplane Systems
The #1 engine |
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What data is DAU 2 dedicated to reading?
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-Rearward Airplane Systems
-The #2 engine |
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What happens when you select the DAU EICAS reversionary panel?
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you select DAU channel B
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If DAU channel A fails, will it automatically switch to channel B?
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No, you must select this by pressing the DAU button on the EICAS Reversionary Panel
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For how long will a blue advisory message flash
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5 seconds
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When would you use the Magnetic compass Calibration card next to the captain?
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During an electrical emergency
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What happens if you select DG on the AHRS Panel?
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The EHSI operates as a non-slaved gyro (800 only)
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What happens if you select SLVD on the AHRS panel?
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The AHRS is slaved to the flux valve
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what happens when you press the emergency button on the digital panel?
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-captain to connected to COMM1 and NAV1
-FO is connected to COMM 2 and NAV2 -the observer loses radio communication |
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What happens if you land without turning the Radar off?
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The radar goes into forced standby
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How can you turn the radar on while on the ground?
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press the STB button 4 times within 3 seconds
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What is the max tilt range on the radar?
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15 to -15 of tilt
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How do you adjust the gain from the pre-set value?
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pull the gain knob out. A digital readout and an amber VOR flag are presented on the PFD and MFD's radar mode field
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What is the FLC sequence?
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0-10,000-240KIAS
10,000-12,000-linearly from 240 to 270 12,000-18,000-270 18,000-37,000-.56 mach |
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How would you know that the ELT is on?
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A red light over the ELT switch on the remote panel in the cockpit will flash if the ELT is transmitting
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How would you reset the ELT?
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there are directions below the sitch on the remote panel in the cockpit
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How many g's does it take to set off the elt?
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5
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Where is the ELT located?
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in the lav, above the toilet in the cieling
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What are you doing when you press the EGPWS override button?
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inhibiting the EGPWS, thus avoiding unwanted terrain alerts in airports not covered by the EGPWS database
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When will the MFD automatically display terrain info?
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When you are within 10 miles of a threat
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What does pressing the landing gear warning cut-out button do?
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It cancels the landing gear warning in case the Radio altimeter fails with the flap handle less than 22 deg.
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Pressing the landing gear warning cutout switch causes the amber bar in the switch to illuminate. How can we extinguish the amber bar?
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-TL's advanced beyond 45 deg OR
-flap lever set above 22 deg OR -Landing gear is down and locked |
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What does it mean when there is an ON indication in the switch on the passanger oxygen control panel?
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the electric latches that hold up the cabin O2 masks are energized
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For how long are the electric latches energized?
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6 seconds
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What else happens when the electric latches are energized?
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Fasten seat belt signs Illuminate
No smoking signs illuminate -you can turn them off by selecting the knob to the off position |
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If the passanger oxygen knob is set to the AUTO position, when will the O2 masks come down?
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When the cabin altitude reaches 14,000 ft.
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How many minutes will the passenger oxygen generators last?
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12 minutes
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When the oxygen for the crew reaches 400 PSI, how many minutes of oxygen remains for the three crew members?
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12 minutes
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For dispatch, what is the minimum O2 pressure required for the walk around O2 bottle?
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1200PSI
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For about how long will a PBE last?
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15 minutes at 8,000 feet
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If the standby attitude loses power, how long is it relaible for?
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9 minutes
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When is low bank mode automatically selected?
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When climbing above 25,000 ft.
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If you have any vertical mode selected on the flight director, can you use the pitch control wheel?
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No, the pitch control wheel is inhibited while in vertical mode
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If you turned the ROLL knob on the pedestal, what mode would it put the autopilot into?
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ROL mode
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Can you select heading when the ROLL knob is not centered?
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No
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What happens when you press the DUMP button on the auto pressure controller?
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-Provides Rapid Cabin Depressurization up to 14,500 ft.
-An on inscription illuminates in the button itself -The masks will drop in the cabin at 14,000 ft. if the passenger Oxygen Selector knob is in the AUTO position NOTE: the dump switch is only operative in Auto Mode |
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How many out-flow valves are working in the manual mode?
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1
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Which out-flow valve is operating in the manual mode?
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The pneumatic one (the electro-pneumatic valve is kept closed)
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What might happen if the manual selector knob in not in the DN position while in the auto mode?
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The pneumatic out-flow valve could un-slave from the electro-pneumatic
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How would you know if the auto pressurization system had a successful power up test?
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There would be all 8's in the digital display until a landing altitude was input
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What happens if you neglect to input a landing altitude into the auto pressurization controller?
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15 minutes after takeoff, it will automatically default to 8,000 feet
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Why the 15 minute wait?
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In case you would need to return to your departure airport after takeoff
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What would be disabled if you pressed the main pitch trim cut out button?
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-Main trim buttons (on the yoke)
-Autopilot -Speed brake auto trim |
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When will the flaps freeze into position?
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When there is a 3 deg. difference between flap panel positions
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What is being checked when you press the T/O config button?
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-speed brakes;no panel deployed
-Parking brake;off -Trim;in the green range -flaps;are in the T/O position no further than 22 deg. |
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What are you looking for when the FMS powers up?
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-location
-date -time -database current |
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What conditions must be met in order for the ground Spoilers to deploy?
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-Aircraft on the ground
-Wheel speed above 25 kts -Both TLA's below 30 deg OR -N2 below 56.4% |
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What conditions must be met in order for the speed brakes to deploy?
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-Speed brake lever set to open position
-Both TLA's set below 50 deg -Flaps set less than 13 deg |
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What has happened if you get a speed brake lever disagree caution message on the EICAS?
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You have opened the speed brake lever with either the TLA's above 50 deg or the flaps set above 13 deg.
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What does the Tuning Back-up Control Head do under normal conditions?
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Mimics RMU2
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Will the TBCH mimic RMU 2 in the emergency mode?
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no
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When will the stall portection test light be illuminated?
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-On aircraft power up
-After power up and not tested -After an unsuccessful Test |
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How often do you run the SPS test?
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before every flight
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What happens if you pressed one of the Stall Portection Cut-Out buttons?
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-you disconnect the associated channel
-you would lose the stick pusher |
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When the Parking Brake is used for emergency braking, how many actuation's do you have?How long will the pressure last?
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6
24 hrs |
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How many times can you actuate the parking brake for emergency braking if you got the EMERG BRK LO PRESS caution message on the EICAS?
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1
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When the go-around buttons are pressed what pitch attitude does the flight director command bars command?
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10 deg for 20 seconds then they follow the Blue Bow Speed(IAS)
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What altitude requirements must be met for the Climb Thrust Rating Mode(CON) to be selected?
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-300 ft. above take-off airport with the gear not down and locked OR
-1700 feet above take-off altitude |
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What altitude requirements must be met for the Cruize Thrust Rating Mode(CRZ) to be selected?
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-300 ft. above take-off airport with the gear not down and locked OR
-1700 feet above take-off altitude |
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What are you checking on the Before Takeoff checklist when the "FMS Updated" call is made?
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Go into the flight plan menu, takeoff page, and verifying the correct Runway, SID and transition have been entered
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What is required if the FMS database has expired?
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An AML entry
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Can we use the VNAV function as the primary altitude source?
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No. VNAV is for information purposes only
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Is 30 KTS always the max x-wind component?
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no, check AOM Volume 1, enviormental section
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Are there any minimum flap speeds?
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yes, they are found in AOM Vol. 1, Normals section, App/Ldg Tab
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What are the limitations on the use of flaps 22 for landing?
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-Runway usable length must be greater than 8000 ft and runways must be dry
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Where are RVSM airspace operations conducted?
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The airspace between flight level 290 and flight level 370
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What does RVSM do?
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reduces the minimum vertical seperation from 2000 ft. to 1000 ft.
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What is the required equipment for operations in RVSM?
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-2 primary altimeters
-1 Altitude Alerter -1 autopilot w/altitude hold -1 Transponder |
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What must you do if any of the required components fails?
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Inform the controller and request a new clearance to remain outside of RVSM airspace
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What must you inform the further controllers if any of the components required for RVSM operations has failed?
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Negative RVSM
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