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98 Cards in this Set

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1 . Appropriate treatment for a sucking chest wound includes all of the following EXCEPT

a. giving oral fluids
b. administering oxygen therapy
c. treating for shock
d. placing the victim on the injured side
a. giving oral fluids
2 . When applying a splint to immobilize a fractured patella, where should you place extra padding?

a. Around the knee and under the buttocks
b. Under the knee and above the heel
c. Under the knee and under the thigh
d. Around the knee and under the calf
b. Under the knee and above the heel
3 . Of the following actions, which is of prime importance when dealing with a head injury?

a. Determine if the skull is fractured
b. Assume cervical spine damage
c. Administer pain medication
d. Remove impaled objects
b. Assume cervical spine damage
4 . What is the most effective method of rewarming a victim of hypothermia?

a. ^Buddy warming^
b. Covering the victim with blankets or a sleeping bag
c. Hot water bottles at the neck, armpits, groin, and the chest
d. Immersion in a tub of warm water
d. Immersion in a tub of warm water
5 . Treatment for shock may include all of the following EXCEPT

a. opening and maintaining an airway
b. oxygen therapy
c. intravenous fluid therapy
d. keeping the victim cool
d. keeping the victim cool
6 . How should a suspected spinal fracture victim be transported?

a. Ensure immobilization on a rigid backboard
b. Place a pillow or adequate padding under the neck
c. Transport in the shock position
d. Do all of the above
a. Ensure immobilization on a rigid backboard
7 . The major problem you should anticipate when relieving gastric distention is which of the following?

a. Reduced lung volume
b. Internal bleeding
c. Vomiting
d. Cardiac arrest
a. Reduced lung volume
8 . An avulsion injury is defined as a

a. traumatic removal of a limb
b. piercing injury that closes over
c. clean surgical cut
d. traumatic removal of tissue
d. traumatic removal of tissue
9 . For warfare in the future where helicopter evacuation may not be viable, personnel in which of the following treatment categories will receive evacuation triage?

a. I and II
b. II and III
c. I and IV
d. III and IV
b. II and III
10 . Immediate suturing of a wound is contraindicated if the wound has which of the following characteristics?

a. It is a puncture wound
b. There is edema and/or discharge
c. It is a deep or gaping wound
d. Any of the above
d. Any of the above
11 . Which of the following methods is the quickest and easiest way of determining if an unconscious person is a diabetic?

a. Check for signs of ketoacidosis
b. Determine blood sugar levels
c. Look for signs of insulin use
d. Search for a Medic Alert tag, bracelet, or card
d. Search for a Medic Alert tag, bracelet, or card
12 . An antiseptic emollient cream should be applied to which, if any, of the following cold injuries?

a. Chilblain
b. Immersion foot
c. All frostbites
d. None of the above. Cold injuries should be kept dry
d. None of the above. Cold injuries should be kept dry
13 . Reversal of a syncopal episode can often be accomplished by what action?

a. Sitting with the head between the knees
b. Sitting upright
c. Lying down with the head and shoulders slightly elevated
d. Lying down in the reverse shock position
a. Sitting with the head between the knees
14 . If a prolapsed cord occurs, which of the following actions should you take?

a. Give the mother oxygen
b. Place the mother in an extreme shock position
c. Get medical assistance
d. Each of the above
d. Each of the above
15 . Which of the following is/are a limitation(s) on the use of the bag-valve mask ventilator?

a. Should be used only by experienced individuals
b. Is hard to clean and reassemble
c. Seal at the face is hard to maintain
d. Each of the above
d. Each of the above
16 . First aid treatment of white phosphorus burns with partially embedded particles includes

a. wet dressings of copper sulfate
b. superficial debridement while flushing with water
c. neutralization with a dilute vinegar solution
d. neutralization with a dilute solution of baking soda
b. superficial debridement while flushing with water
17 . Signs and symptoms of heat exhaustion include a weak rapid pulse, nausea, headache, and

a. constricted pupils
b. greatly increased body temperature
c. cool, moist, and clammy skin
d. flushed, red face
c. cool, moist, and clammy skin
18 . What pupillary sign is an indication of a central nervous system disorder?

a. Unequal pupils
b. Dilated pupils
c. Constricted pupils
d. Dull and unfocused pupils
c. Constricted pupils
19 . Of those listed below, which joints are the most frequently dislocated?

a. Sternal ribs, finger, and jaw
b. Knee, hip, and elbow
c. Knee, hip, shoulder, and jaw
d. hip, shoulder, fingers and jaw
d. hip, shoulder, fingers and jaw
20 . Artificial ventilation of a patient with a badly displaced mandibular fracture is best given

a. by mouth-to-mouth ventilation
b. by mouth-to-nose ventilation
c. with an oxygen mask
d. by the back-pressure arm-lift method
b. by mouth-to-nose ventilation
21 . In general, sprains and strains are injuries to

a. joints and muscles
b. nerves and blood vessels
c. bones and blood vessels
d. bones and nerves
a. joints and muscles
22 . On examination of the chest, you detect distinct ^crackling^ soundsWhat condition should you immediately suspect?

a. Flail chest
b. An obstruction
c. A punctured lung
d. An illness involving the respiratory system
c. A punctured lung
23 . Deformity at a joint, coupled with pain, discoloration, and immobility of and around the joint, is characteristic of which of the following disorders?

a. Dislocation
b. Simple fracture
c. Compound fracture
d. Displaced fracture
a. Dislocation
24 . What is the primary reason for splinting fractures?

a. To prevent further injury
b. To control hemorrhage
c. To reduce swelling
d. To increase blood circulation
a. To prevent further injury
25 . In treating patients with suspected internal injuries, prime consideration should be given to all of the following EXCEPT soon as possible

a. oral fluids in all cases
b. treating for shock
c. supplemental oxygen therapy
d. transporting to a medical facility as
a. oral fluids in all cases
26 . Production of bright red blood during coughing is called

a. hematemesis
b. hemoptysis
c. hematochezia
d. epistaxis
b. hemoptysis
27 . A sunburn to the back of both legs, both arms, and the back.

a. 18%
b. 27%
c. 31.50%
d. 36%
d. 36%
28 . The body's physiologic response to an irritation or inflammation is characterized by which, if any, of the following symptoms?

a. Redness, warmth, and swelling
b. Redness, coolness, and discomfort
c. Blanching, coolness, and swelling
d. None of the above
a. Redness, warmth, and swelling
29 . First-aid treatment for extensive second degree burns should include which of the following treatments?

a. Anesthetic ointments and transport only
b. Debridement of the wound and dry dressings
c. Intravenous infusion and analgesia
d. Anesthetic ointments and analgesia
b. Debridement of the wound and dry dressings
30 . The primary purposes of first aid include all the following EXCEPT to

a. provide definitive medical treatment
b. preserve resistance and vitality
c. save life
d. prevent further injury
a. provide definitive medical treatment
31 . The best place to find the pulse of an unconscious patient is in which of the following arteries?

a. Pulmonary
b. Carotid
c. Apical
d. Radial
b. Carotid
32 . The most common psychiatric emergency is probably the suicide gesture or attemptBasic treatment consists of all of the following EXCEPT

a. presenting a calm and understanding presence
b. leaving the victim alone to reflect on his or her actions
c. assuming all suicide threats are real
d. treating self-inflicted wounds as any other wound
b. leaving the victim alone to reflect on his or her actions
33 . What is the universal distress signal indicating an obstructed airway?

a. Spasmodic coughing
b. Clutching at the throat
c. Hyperventilation
d. Cherry-red coloration of the skin or nail beds
b. Clutching at the throat
34 . After applying a splint to a fractured forearm, you notice the fingers develop a bluish tinge and are cool to touchWhat should you do?

a. Elevate the arm
b. Apply warm compresses
c. Loosen the splint
d. Remove the splint
c. Loosen the splint
35 . When properly performing CPR on an adult, the depth of compressions is

a. 0.5 to 1.0 inches
b. 1.0 to 1.5 inches
c. 1.5 to 2.0 inches
d. 1.5 to 2.5 inches
c. 1.5 to 2.0 inches
36 . The incidence of heat exposure injuries can be minimized by all of the following EXCEPT

a. education of personnel
b. environmental monitoring
c. daily salt tablets
d. maintenance of exhaust blowers and vents
c. daily salt tablets
37 . Which of the following is/are an advantage(s) of using the pocket face mask as opposed to the bag-valve mask?

a. Acts as a barrier device
b. Provides greater air volume
c. Achieves higher oxygen concentrations
d. 1 and 2 only
d. 1 and 2 only
38 . Initial first aid treatment for an attack of angina pectoris includes reassurance, monitoring of vital signs, and

a. initiating CPR
b. giving sublingual nitroglycerin
c. advise the patient to return to duty when pain abates
d. giving a 0.3cc of epinephrine IM to increase heart rate
b. giving sublingual nitroglycerin
39 . What is the basic concept of triage?

a. To sort casualties into treatment categories for transportation
b. To prioritize treatment categories for surgery
c. To save the maximum number of personnel possible
d. To assist medical personnel in saving time and supplies
a. To sort casualties into treatment categories for transportation
40 . What procedure should be followed with respect to an animal bite?

a. Cauterize to prevent infection
b. Close with nylon sutures
c. Clean with standard antiseptics
d. Clean with soap and water
d. Clean with soap and water
41 . When, during childbirth, the baby's head presents, why should you apply gentle pressure to the head?

a. To prevent an explosive delivery
b. To avoid compressing the umbilical cord
c. To compress the cord to stimulate the infant's vital function
d. To allow you time to suction the mouth and nose of the infant
a. To prevent an explosive delivery
42 . What term identifies the pressure of the pulse wave as it expands the artery?

a. Pulse rhythm
b. Pulse character
c. Tachycardia
d. Pulse force
d. Pulse force
43 . A Corpsman may administer morphine to which of the following patients?

a. With a head injury
b. In shock
c. With burns from inhaled chemicals
d. Hemorrhaging
d. Hemorrhaging
44 . An absent pedal pulse could be caused by all of the following conditions EXCEPT

a. a broken or dislocated bone
b. delayed capillary refill
c. spints or bandages being placed too tightly
d. a pinched or severed major artery
b. delayed capillary refill
45 . When ventilating an adult using the mouth-to-mask method, how do you best obtain an airtight seal?

a. By fitting the apex of the mask over the bridge of the nose
b. By fitting the apex of the mask over the chin
c. By compressing the collar of an adult mask
d. By attaching an oxygen line
a. By fitting the apex of the mask over the bridge of the nose
46 . A thermal burn to the left arm and front of the left leg.

a. 18%
b. 27%
c. 31.50%
d. 36%
a. 18%
47 . A dilute solution of which of the listed substances will neutralize alkali burns to the skin?

a. Alcohol
b. Phenol
c. Vinegar
d. Baking soda
c. Vinegar
48 . Which of the following statements is true about the viral disease known as rabies?

a. It is found only in household pets
b. It is usually fatal in man
c. It is treatable with standard antibiotics
d. It is transmittable only through animal bites
b. It is usually fatal in man
49 . When should Medical Anti-Shock Trousers (MAST) be removed from a patient?

a. When blood pressure reaches 100 mm Hg systolic
b. When intravenous fluids are started
c. In a medical treatment facility under a medical officer's supervision only
d. When the patient is in the ambulance and stabilized
c. In a medical treatment facility under a medical officer's supervision only
50 . The signs and symptoms of shock include

a. hot and dry skin, dilated pupils, weak and rapid pulse
b. hot and dry skin, constricted pupils, strong and rapid pulse
c. cool and moist skin, dilated pupils, weak and rapid pulse
d. cool and moist skin, constricted pupils, strong and rapid pulse
c. cool and moist skin, dilated pupils, weak and rapid pulse
51 . To grow and multiply, anaerobic bacteria require

a. hemolytic action
b. increased levels of oxygen
c. normal levels of oxygen
d. absence of oxygen
d. absence of oxygen
52 . Which of the following is a physiologic

a. Increased cardiac output
b. Hypoxia
c. Hyperperfusion of organs
d. Increased urine output
b. Hypoxia
53 . In one-rescuer CPR, the proper compression to ventilation ratio is

a. 15 to 2
b. 2 to 15
c. 1 to 5
d. 5 to 1
a. 15 to 2
54 . In most situations, what is the best and first method to control hemorrhage?

a. Direct pressure
b. Pressure point
c. Elevation
d. Tourniquet
a. Direct pressure
55 . If one is applying a tourniquet to a traumatic amputation of the hand, where should the tourniquet be applied?

a. Just above the wrist
b. Just below the elbow
c. Just above the elbow
d. Across the biceps at the thickest part
a. Just above the wrist
56 . Dilated pupils in a patient receiving artificial ventilation is an indication of

a. overventilation
b. adequate ventilation
c. insufficient ventilation
d. hypovolemia
d. hypovolemia
57 . In addition to monitoring vital signs and making the patient comfortable, treatment for a stroke includes which of the following procedures?

a. Administering analgesics to relieve pain
b. Giving oxygen therapy
c. Giving a rapid infusion of a 5 percent dextrose solution
d. Giving a 0.3cc injection of epinephrine for vasoconstriction
b. Giving oxygen therapy
58 . A fracture of the xiphoid tip of the sternum during CPR may cause significant damage to the

a. rib cage
b. lungs
c. spleen
d. liver
d. liver
59 . An alternate name for an absorbable suture material is

a. dermalon
b. gut
c. sick
d. nylon
b. gut
60 . First aid treatment for acute myocardial infarction without cardiac arrest includes all of the following EXCEPT

a. giving oxygen therapy
b. monitoring vital signs
c. starting an intravenous infusion of only normal saline
d. transporting to a medical treatment facility
c. starting an intravenous infusion of only normal saline
61 . What is the most important consideration in treating a mandibular fracture?

a. Immediate immobilization
b. Ensuring a patent airway
c. Realignment of the jaw
d. Control of pain
b. Ensuring a patent airway
62 . Of the following, which is an appropriate treatment for a protruding abdominal wound?

a. Giving oral fluids
b. Replacing the intestines in the abdominal cavity
c. Applying a dry compress
d. Treating for shock
d. Treating for shock
63 . The treatment for strains and sprains includes all of the following EXCEPT

a. radiographic evaluation
b. immediate application of moist heat
c. immobilization and rest
d. elevation
a. radiographic evaluation
64 . When should the infant's mouth and nose be suctioned?

a. If spontaneous respirations do not occur
b. When the chin clears the vaginal canal
c. After the child has completely emerged
d. After clamping and cutting the umbilical cord
b. When the chin clears the vaginal canal
65 . Oligemic shock is another name for

a. cardiogenic shock
b. neurogenic shock
c. septic shock
d. hypovolemic shock
d. hypovolemic shock
66 . Symptoms of foreign-body airway obstruction include which of the following?

a. Victim stops breathing
b. Victim starts turning blue
c. Victim loses consciousness for no apparent reason
d. All the above
d. All the above
67 . When a tourniquet is used to control bleeding, which of the following procedures should be followed?

a. Use narrow material so the band bites into the skin
b. Loosen the tourniquet every 15 minutes to allow blood flow
c. Tighten it only enough to stop arterial bleeding
d. Ensure both the wound and tourniquet are covered by the dressings
b. Loosen the tourniquet every 15 minutes to allow blood flow
68 . Of the following statements concerning the appropriate length for a splint, which is accurate?

a. A splint should be long enough to reach from the fracture to the joint below the fracture
b. A splint should be long enough to reach from the fracture to the joint above and below the fracture
c. A splint should be long enough to reach past the joints above and below the fracture
d. The length of a splint is immaterial
c. A splint should be long enough to reach past the joints above and below the fracture
69 . At an emergency scene, you should immediately take which of the following actions?

a. Inform the person in charge that medical personnel have arrived
b. Ensure that someone begins triage, if needed
c. Review patient emergency assessment procedures
d. Make sure the scene is safe for self and patients
d. Make sure the scene is safe for self and patients
70 . An oral electrolyte solution can be made from a liter of water and what other components?

a. 1.0 teaspoon of sugar + 0.5 teaspoon of baking powder
b. 0.5 teaspoon sugar + 1.0 teaspoon baking powder
c. 1.0 teaspoon salt + 0.5 teaspoon baking soda
d. 0.5 teaspoon salt + 1.0 teaspoon baking soda
c. 1.0 teaspoon salt + 0.5 teaspoon baking soda
71 . What is the purpose of field assessments?

a. To detect and treat life threatening conditions for immediate care
b. To conduct a subjective interview and an objective examination
c. Both a and b, above
d. To identify needed equipment and supplies
c. Both a and b, above
72 . Which of the following is proper action to take if a metal splinter is embedded in the left eye?

a. Remove the foreign body with sterile forceps
b. Remove the foreign body with a dry cotton swab
c. Patch the left eye and transport to a medical treatment facility
d. Patch both eyes and transport to a medical treatment facility
c. Patch the left eye and transport to a medical treatment facility
73 . Of the following actions, which is the immediate treatment for insulin shock?

a. Administer an injection of insulin
b. Place sugar under the victim's tongue
c. Start an intravenous solution of normal saline
d. Administer oxygen
b. Place sugar under the victim's tongue
74 . Artificial ventilation is indicated in which of the following situations?

a. To assist ventilation in partial airway obstruction
b. In carbon monoxide poisoning
c. In lack of respiratory effort
d. In cyanosis
c. In lack of respiratory effort
75 . To reduce a dislocated jaw, you should do which of the following?

a. Pull the chin forward and down
b. Have a victim open his or her mouth several times to affect reduction
c. Grasp behind the front teeth and pull forward
d. Press down behind the last molars and lift the chin
d. Press down behind the last molars and lift the chin
76 . Morphine is an acceptable analgesic in patients with which of the following symptoms?

a. Head injuries
b. Profound respiratory distress
c. Advanced shock
d. Painful skin burns
d. Painful skin burns
77 . At an emergency scene, which of the following is a purpose for conducting a subjective interview?

a. To gather information from relatives or bystanders
b. To gather information from the patient
c. To reduce patient fear and promote cooperation
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
78 . Which of the following actions are a main focus of conducting a primary survey?

a. Making a status decision and formulating priorities
b. Formulating a treatment plan and making a status decision
c. Formulating priorities and making a transport decision
d. Making a status decision and a transport decision
d. Making a status decision and a transport decision
79 . Which of the following is a contraindication for the use of Medical Anti-Shock Trousers (MAST)?

a. Pelvic fracture
b. Pulmonary edema
c. Fractured femur
d. Depressed skull fracture
b. Pulmonary edema
80 . Emergency first aid treatment for a prolapsed cord during childbirth includes all of the following EXCEPT

a. decompressing the cord as much as possible
b. giving oxygen therapy
c. placing the mother in the shock position
d. clamping and cutting the umbilical cord when it presents
d. clamping and cutting the umbilical cord when it presents
81 . What is the first step in preparing to perform CPR?

a. Check vital signs
b. Determine unconsciousness
c. Locate the sternum
d. Establish a patent airway
b. Determine unconsciousness
82 . Proper first aid treatment for a patient suffering a convulsive seizure episode consists of which of the following procedures?

a. Protecting the victim from injury
b. Immediately starting CPR
c. Muscle massage during periods of rigidity
d. Injecting 75 to 100 mg of Demerol IM to effect relaxation
a. Protecting the victim from injury
83 . Evaluation of diagnostic vital signs includes all of the following EXCEPT

a. blood pressure
b. rhythm/regularity of pulse
c. profuse perspiration
d. level of consciousness
c. profuse perspiration
84 . A steam burn to the face, chest, abdomen, and both arms.

a. 18%
b. 27%
c. 31.50%
d. 36%
c. 31.50%
85 . The following information about pressure points is correct EXCEPT

a. Pressure points are ideal when bleeding must be controlled for extended periods of time
b. Pressure is applied to the pressure point nearest to but proximal to the wound
c. Use of pressure point and elevation can slow hemorrhage until a tourniquet can be applied
d. Use of pressure point and elevation can slow hemorrhage until a direct pressure dressing can be applied
c. Use of pressure point and elevation can slow hemorrhage until a tourniquet can be applied
86 . For which, if any, of the following reasons should a frostbite injury remain frozen?

a. To minimize the severity of pain
b. Where there is a possibility of refreezing
c. To prevent shock
d. Never. Frostbite should always be rewarmed as quickly as possible
d. Never. Frostbite should always be rewarmed as quickly as possible
87 . Cricothyroidotomy is the process or technique of

a. hyperextending the neck
b. creating an opening to the trachea
c. suctioning the trachea
d. inserting an esophageal obturator airway
b. creating an opening to the trachea
88 . The proper first aid treatment for a fracture of the humerus near the shoulder is to

a. apply a splin+E49t to the outside and one to the inside of the upper arm, bandage the arm to the body and support the forearm in a sling
b. apply a splint to the outside of the arm, bandage the arm to the body, and support the forearm in a sling
c. place a pad or folded towel in the armpit, bandage the arm to the body, and support the forearm in a sling
d. splint the arm in the position you find it and bandage the arm securely to the body
c. place a pad or folded towel in the armpit, bandage the arm to the body, and support the forearm in a sling
89 . In a combat scenario, a casualty sustaining numerous superficial shrapnel wounds should be triaged into which of the following groups?

a. Class I
b. Class II
c. Class III
d. Class IV
a. Class I
90 . At what point should the preliminary examination of a casualty be done?

a. In the hospital
b. In the ambulance
c. After making the victim comfortable
d. Before moving the casualty
d. Before moving the casualty
91 . To open a partially obstructed airway of a victim with a cervical spine injury, which of the following is considered the safest method?

a. Jaw thrust
b. Head tilt
c. Abdominal thrust
d. Chest thrust
a. Jaw thrust
92 . Which of the following is/are a recommended step(s) in treating deep frostbite?

a. Slowly rewarm frozen areas
b. Break blisters to speed healing
c. Gently rub injured areas to promote blood circulation
d. Comfort victim with hot tea or coffee
d. Comfort victim with hot tea or coffee
93 . In a trauma related incident where a patient has multiple injuries, you should treat which of the following first?

a. Fractures
b. Most obvious injury
c. Most life-threatening condition
d. Most painful condition
c. Most life-threatening condition
94 . To fit well and provide adequate immobilization, a splint must have which of the attributes listed?

a. Be well padded at body contact areas
b. Be twice as wide as the injured limb
c. Be strong, rigid, and applied tightly
d. Be applied by two people
d. Be applied by two people
95 . The usual treatment for chemical burns is to flush with copious amounts of water. The two exceptions to this rule are in the case of which of the following chemicals?

a. Phosphoric acid and lye
b. White phosphorus and carbolic acid
c. Dry lime and carbolic acid
d. Sulfuric acid and carbolic acid
c. Dry lime and carbolic acid
96 . A single pus-filled cavity in the true skin of the nape of the neck would be classified as a

a. carbuncle
b. furuncle
c. lymph node
d. phagocyte
b. furuncle
97 . What condition or observation may indicate a patient is going into shock?

a. Systolic pressure below 90 mm Hg
b. Hypertension
c. Erratic breathing
d. A sudden rise in blood pressure
a. Systolic pressure below 90 mm Hg
98 . Which of the following is/are a recommended step(s) in performing a delayed wound closure?

a. Use dressing forceps while suturing
b. Convert jagged edges to smooth before suturing
c. For best cosmetic effect, place sutures further apart
d. a and c only
b. Convert jagged edges to smooth before suturing