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242 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
Define embryology
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the science of the origin and development of the organism from the fertilization of the ovum to the period of extrauterine life.
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Define differentiation
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the process by which cells acquire their specialized characeristics
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Define differential gene activity. What process is this the basis for?
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the turning on and off of specific gene sets. Differentiation
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Are genes turned off during differentiation turned off permenantely?
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No, under certain conditions genes turned off during differentiation can be turned back on.
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How do you prove that genes are not turned off irreversibly during differentiation.
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Take the nucleus, put it into an enucleated egg and see which genes are expressed.
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Describe pattern formation.
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Environmental conditions cue cells during differentiation to express different genes based on their location
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What are the two aging systems used to stage an embryo? Which is used clinically?
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Gestational - time from last period. Fertilization - from time of fertilization. Gestational stage is used in clinic.
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The embryo begins implantation at the end of which week?
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first
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The extraembryonic membranes are formed during which week?
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second
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Gastrulation occurs during which week?
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third
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Neurulation occurs during which week?
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fourth
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By the end of the 8th week of development, what is the size of the developing embryo?
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3 cm
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The fetal period begins with which week?
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9th
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Which stage ( embryo or fetal ) is characterized by rapid growth?
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Fetal
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At what age can a premature infant be delivered with a good chance of survival?
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24-28 weeks
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What space does the uterine tube open into?
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Peritoneal cavity (abdomen)
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Where does fertilization occur
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In the oviduct of the uterine tube (distal).
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What specialized structure in the uterine tube collects the ovulated secondary oocyte?
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fimbria
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Describe a secondary oocyte?
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Ovulated egg that has not completed the second meiotic division.
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Why are polar bodies beneath the zona pellucida a good indicator of fertilization?
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One polar body is released with each meiotic division. If there are two, the egg has been fertilized.
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Are the male and female pronuclei haploid or diploid?
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haploid
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Define cleavage
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rapid cell division during the first week without growth
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What is the diameter of an ovulated egg? How does this compare to a typical somatic cell?
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100 microns, 10 microns
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Define blastomeres
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cells produced as a result of cleavage
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Blastomeres are totipotential. What does this mean?
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Each cell can give rise to an entire embryo and extraembryonic tissues.
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Define compaction
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formation of tight junctions between peripheral blastomeres. creates a gradient.
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name these embryonic structures
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inner cell mass, zona pellucida, trophoblast, blastocyst cavity
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Extraembryonic membranes are derivitives of what early structure?
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trophoblast
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The embryo is the derivitive of what early structure?
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inner cell mass
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Inner cell mass cells are (totipotent, pluripotent)?
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pluripotent
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Describe hatching?
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the blastocyst cavity swells, the trophoblast cells produce an enzyme to degrade the zp and the blastocyst emerges.
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The blastocyst hatches on what day?
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6
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1. cytotrophoblast
2. syncytiotrophoblast 3. hypoblast |
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What type of cell produces hcG? What does this hormone do?
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syncytiotrophoblast cells, hCG stops the menstrual cycle.
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What percent of fertilizations result in a spontaneous abortion?
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60
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Describe placenta previa.
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When implantation occurs over the oz of the cervix. Can lead to rupture of placenta during birth.
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Describe ectopic pregnancy
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When conceptus implants outside the uterus.
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Name the four primary events durign the second week of fertilization?
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1. implantation ends 2. primitive uteroplacental circulation 3. bilaminar embryo 4. extraemebryonic membranes and cavities
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Where do lacunar networks form?
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syncytiotrophoblasts
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What type of blood travels through the lacunar networks?
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maternal
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What are the two layers of the bilaminar disk? Which gives rise to the embryo?
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epiblast, hypoblast
epiblast |
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Which layer of the bilaminar disk faces the inner cavity?
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hypoblast
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What specialized strucutre gives rise to the cranial end of the embryo?
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prochordal plate
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What cavity forms facing the epiblast?
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amniotic cavity
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What does the blastocyst cavity give rise to
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primary yolk sac
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epiblast, amniocytes, amniotic cavity, exocoelomic membrane, primary yolk sac, hypoblast
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somatic extraembryonic mesoderm, connecting stalk, extraembryonic coelom, splanchnic extraembryonic mesoderm
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The chorion is composed of what three layers?
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syncytiotrophoblast, cytotrophoblast, somatic extraembryonic mesoderm
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amniotic cavity, allantois, secondary yolk sac, splanchnic extraembryonic mesoderm, bilaminar embryonic disk
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T/F In humans, the allantois is vestigal?
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True
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Extraembryonic mesoderm forms between what layers?
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between cytotrophoblasts and amniocytes and cytotrophoblasts and exoceolomic membrane
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The region of extraembryonic mesoderm that doesn't divide into somatic and splanchnic forms the _____________?
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connecting stalk
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Distinguish betweeen epithelial and mesenchymal cells.
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polarization, epithelial cells have apical and basal surface, mesenchymal cells migrate through ECM.
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Describe (left to right) these divisions.
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midsagittal (middle), transverse, coronal
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Define gastrulation
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process by which three germ layers are formed
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All three germ layers are formed from what structure?
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epiblast
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gastrulation occurs in a (cranial to caudal / caudal to cranial) direction.
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cranial to caudal
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What structure raises and gives rise to the primitive streak?
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epiblast
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primitive streak, primitive pit (Henson's node), primitive groove
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The epiblast and hypoblast layers stick together to form what two structures?
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oropharyngeal membrane and cloacal membrane
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As epithelial cells migrate through the primitive streak, them become __________
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mesenchymal cells
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Cells that migrate through the primitive streak and displace the hypoblast give rise to which germ layer?
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endoderm
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Epiblast cells that remain on the surface and don't participate in gastrulation become which germ layer?
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ectoderm
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Which process gives rise to the nervous system?
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neurulation
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Which layer thickens and rolls up to form the neural tube?
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ectoderm
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Which structure beneath the ectoderm induces the formation of the neural tube?
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notochord
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Where does the neural tube first close?
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in the cervical region
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What are the cranial and caudal openings of the nerual tube called?
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neuropores
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What neural tube defects are caused by failure of the caudal neuropore to close?
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spina bifida
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What neural tube defects are caused by failure of the cranial neuropore to close?
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anencephaly
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At what point in development does the neural tube completely close?
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end of fourth week
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Which part of the nervous system (central / peripheral) is formed by the neural tube?
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Central
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What composes the central nervous system?
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Brain and spinal cord
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What forms the peripheral nervous system?
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neural crest cells
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intermediate mesoderm, lateral plate mesoderm, notochord, paraxial mesoderm
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What develops above the oropharyngeal membrane where the lateral plate mesoderms come together?
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cardiogenic region (heart)
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The paraxial mesoderm gives rise to _____________
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skeletal muscle
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The adult skeleton is divided into which two parts
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axial and appendicular
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The appendicular skeleton arises from _____________
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lateral plate mesoderm
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oropharyngeal membrane, cardiogenic region, cephalic somitomeres, occipital somites, trunk somites
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As somites begin to migrate, they give rise to two populations of cells. What are they?
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Dermamyotome and sclerotome
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Dermamyotome are somitic cells that migrate dorso-laterally and give rise to the ____________
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dermis and axial skeleton
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Chondrogenesis is the formation of __________-
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cartilage
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mesenchymal cells give rise to ________________ which are precartilage cells
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chondroblasts
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What gives cartilage tissue its flexible characteristic?
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The extracellular matrix between adjacent chondrocytes
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name and describe the two growth methods of cartilage
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appositional - growth from the outside perichondrium. interstitial - growth from the inside - chondrocytes
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What is the process of bone formation
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osteogenesis
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What are the two types of bone formation? Which is most common?
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intramembranous ossification, endochondral ossification. endochondral is the most common
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intramembraneous ossification has what type of growth?
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appositional growth only
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T/F primary and secondary ossification systems form during the seventh week of development.
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false, only primary form then, secondary don't form until after birth
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the mesenchyme derived from paraxial mesoderm between bones forms interzonal mesenchyme. What 3 types can it form?
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snynovial joint, cartilagenous joint, fibrous joint
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The joint cavity of interzonal mesenchyme is formed when certain mesenchymal cells undergo what process?
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apoptosis
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prosencephalon, rhombencephalon, spinal cord, somitomeres, occipital somites, somites, neurocranium of skull, vertebrae ribs & sternum.
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What are the categories and number of vertebrae?
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7 cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, 5 sacral, 4 coccygeal
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The intervertebral discs form from which two parts
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annulus fibrosis forms from paraxial mesoderm, nucleus pulposis forms from notochord
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What is the only adult structure the notochord gives rise to?
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nucleus pulposis
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Describe the formation of the vertebral arch
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secondary sclerotome circle the neural tube and migrate behind it and close
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If the vertebral arch does not close, what neural tube defect do you get?
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spina bifida occulta
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T/F Preductal coarctation is usually associated with a patent ductus arteriosus.
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True
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T/F Preductal coarctation is usually detected at or shortly after birth.
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True
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T/ F Preductal coarctation usually has a poor prognosis without surgical intervention.
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True
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T/F Collateral circulation may allow postductal coarctation to go undetected for years.
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True
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The aortic arches which disappear without making significant contributions to the adult vasculature are:
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one, two and five
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The ductus arteriosus is formed by a portion of aortic arch:
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six on the left side
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Developmental defects of the diaphragm are usually:
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unilateral (left) and dorsal
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A clue to the earliest position of the developing diaphragm is provided by its:
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innervation by spinal nerves originating from cervical levels
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Developmental defects involving the pleuropericardial membrane are rare but, when they occur, the developmental basis is a failure of the pleuropericardial membrane to fuse with the:
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ventral part of the primitive mediastinum (esophageal portion)
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Congenital diaphragmatic hernia involving a posterolateral defect in the diaphragm usually results from a failure of the left pleuroperitoneal membrane to fuse with the:
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dorsal mesentery of the esophagus
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T/F After formation of the head fold, the pericardial cavity is located ventral to the foregut
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True
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T/ F After formation of the head fold, the pericardial cavity is limited caudally by the septum transversum
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True
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T/F After formation of the head fold, the heart is suspended from the floor of the foregut by the mesocardium
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True
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T/F After formation of the head fold, the original polarity of the heart tube has been reversed
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True
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The definitive diaphragm receives contributions from:
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pleuroperitoneal membranes
septum transversum body wall primitive mediastinum (esophagus and mesoesophagus) |
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T/ F In a congenital diaphragmatic hernia The lungs may be hypoplastic secondary to herniation of abdominal viscera into the thorax.
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True
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T/ F In a congenital diaphragmatic hernia The pleuroperitoneal membranes fail to close the dorsolateral portion of the diaphragm.
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True
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T/ F In a congenital diaphragmatic hernia The defect is 5 times more likely to occur on the left side.
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True
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T/ F In a congenital diaphragmatic hernia The developing lung herniates into the abdominal cavity.
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False
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Which bones originate by endochondral ossification of a branchial arch skeletal element?
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malleus
incus stapes hyoid |
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The palatine tonsil is usually considered to develop in association with the ___________pharyngeal pouch
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2nd
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The thymic lymphocytes originate from:
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look it up???
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The parenchymal cells of the superior and inferior parathyroid glands originate from the endodermal cells of pharyngeal pouches:
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3 & 4
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The nerve innervating the branchiomeric musculature derived from the first branchial arch is the:
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mandibular division of the trigeminal
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Cervical cysts are thought to originate from epithelialized remnants of the:
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cervical sinus
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First arch syndrome is believed to result from insufficient migration of neural crest cells into the first branchial arch. Name the malformations this could arise from this syndrome:
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cleft palate
low set ears a small mandible |
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An infant who is hypocalcemic because of a failure in the embryogenesis of the parathyroid glands also commonly shows faulty development of the:
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thymus
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The depression which separates the first and second branchial arches EXTERNALLY is the:
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first branchial groove
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The cranial nerve associated with the third branchial arch is the
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glossopharyngeal (IX)
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Because the skeletal muscle of the larynx is derived from the branchiomeric mesoderm of the fourth and sixth branchial arches, the innervation would be expected to be supplied by the:
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vagus nerve (X)
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The external auditory canal of the adult is considered to be derived from the:
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first branchial groove
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In unilateral clefts of the lip and palate, the course of the cleft passes through the dental (alveolar) arch between:
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lateral incisors and canines
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Failure of the lateral palatine processes to fuse in the midline produces:
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a simple cleft of the secondary palate
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A cleft involving the lip and dental arch (alveolar ridge) is produced by fusion failure between the:
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medial nasal and maxillary prominences
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The sensory innervation of the frontonasal prominence is provided by the:
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ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve
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The viscerocranium is derived from:
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neural crest cells.
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A typical branchial arch contains:
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a cranial nerve
branchiomeric mesenchyme an aortic arch a skeletal element |
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When considering the developmental origin of the lateral palatine processes, the definitive palate would be expected to receive all or almost all of its afferent innervation via the:
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maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve
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The medial nasal prominence (intermaxillary segment) will form the:
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medial portion of the maxilla (premaxilla)
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Which prominences contribute to the formation of the upper lip?
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medial nasal and maxillary prominences
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What is the process by which the early cells of an embryo acquire their structural and environmental characteristics?
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Differentiation
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Give an example of the consequence of a loss in pattern formation?
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Teratoma tumor
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Do teratoma's retain differentiation.
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yes
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When is normal human partruition?
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38 weeks
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What is the final crucial development that must occur for an embryo to survive outside the uterus?
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lung development
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Which end of the embryonic disk (caudal / cranial) points toward the connecting stalk?
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caudal
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Give some examples of mesenchymal cells?
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fibroblasts, neural crest cells, chondrocytes, osteocytes
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T/F All mesoerm cells are mesenchymal cells?
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False
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What does ectoderm give rise to?
|
Nervous system and epidermis
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What does mesoderm give rise to?
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Most skeletal structures, muscle, blood vessels
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What does the endoderm give rise to?
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gut tube structures, respiratory structures, secretory cells
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All three germ layers arise from the ___________
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epiblast
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What structure forms on the embryonic disk to allow for the formation of the germ layers?
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primitive streak
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Where in the embryo does the primitive streak form?
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caudal, median
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epiblast cells that migrate through the cranial most region of the primitive pit and migrate up to the oropharyngeal membrance form what?
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notochord
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At what point in development does the primitive streak regress?
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end of fourth week
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What happens when the primitive streak fails to regress?
|
sacrococcygela teratoma
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How do you detect neural tube defects?
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AFP and ultrasound
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Does AFP in the amniotic fluid mean you have a neural tube defect?
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No, any break in the ectoderm can result in AFP in the amniotic fluid.
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Name one way to reduce the occurance of neural tube defects?
|
Maternal ingestion of folic acid.
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Describe spina bifida occulta?
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Neural tube in completely in tact, but the sclerotome has failed to migrate dorsally around the neural tube?
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Describe a menigoceole?
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Only the meninges protrude out
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Describe a menigomyloceole?
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you have meninges and spinal tissue protruding out
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Describe rachischia?
|
neural pore fails to close completely, neural tube is split
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What is the mesoderm that runs up and down the midline of the embryo called?
|
notochord
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What mesoderm is lateral to the notochord? Which is lateral to that? Which grouping is the most lateral?
|
paraxial, intermediate, lateral plate mesoderm
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What does the paraxial mesoderm form cranially?
|
somitomeres
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What does the paraxial mesoderm form caudally?
|
somites
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What cell type is a somite?
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epithelial
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What happens to lateral plate mesoderm?
|
Splits to form embryonic coelom
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The lateral plate mesoderm associated with the ectoderm is called ____________ and gives rise to the __________.
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somatic mesoderm, body wall
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The lateral plate mesoderm associated with the endoderm is called ___________ and gives rise to the ___________
|
splachnic mesoderm, visceral smooth muscle
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Communication between the extraembryonic coelom and embryonic coelom occurs where in the embryo?
|
caudally
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What types of folding take a lateral embryonic disk and make it cylindrical?
|
head and tail folding
|
|
Head folding moves cranial structures:
|
ventrally and caudally
|
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Tail folindg moves caudal structures:
|
ventrally and cranially
|
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lateral body folding moves lateral structures:
|
ventrally and medialy around the umbilicus
|
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What is critical to the formation of the primary body axis?
|
The cells that move through the primitive pit.
|
|
How does left/right axis formation occur:
|
Cilia at henson's node beat and move factors off to the side.
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What is the condition where the left/right axis formation is reversed?
|
citus inversus
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All skeletal muscles arises from?
|
paraxial mesoderm
|
|
The skull bones form from:
|
paraxial mesoderm and neural crest cells
|
|
Do precartilage condensations resemble the adult structures they are going to form?
|
yes
|
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Precartilage condesnations are composed of?
|
chondroblasts
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Where does intramembranous ossification primarily occur?
|
calvaria of the skull
|
|
Describe the process of intramembraneous ossification?
|
mesenchyme --> osteoblast --> osteocyte
|
|
When do you start to see primary centers of ossification?
|
8th week
|
|
How many trunk somites are there? How many vertebrae? What does this mean?
|
38-40, 33, 5-7 caudal somites must degenerate or form tail
|
|
What happens to primary sclerotomes?
|
The split. The caudal portion of one fuses with the cranial portion of another.
|
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Dermatome is going to split dorsally and ventral parts. What are the muscles that go dorsally?
|
epaxial musculature
|
|
Dermatome is going to split dorsally and ventral parts. What are the muscles that go ventrally?
|
hypaxial musculature
|
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What is caused by a failure of somitic mesoderm (hypaxial) to complete migration into somatic mesoderm?
|
gastroschisis
|
|
What genes, expressed in a specific pattern define the segmental pattern of the paraxial mesoderm into somites
|
Hox genes
|
|
What cell type makes up the neural tube?
|
epithelial
|
|
In the adult, what is found in the center of the neural tube?
|
cerebral spinal fluid
|
|
In the neural tube, epithelial proliferation occurs in which direction?
|
toward the lumen
|
|
The proliferation of neuroblasts expand the neural tube to create three layers:
|
marginal (basal)
Intermediate (middle) Ventricular (apical) |
|
What do you find in the marginal zone of the neural tube?
|
axons
|
|
The neural tube separates itself out into two functional components:
|
Alar plate (dorsal)
Basal plate (ventral) |
|
What is the function of the alar plate?
|
sensory
|
|
What is the function of the basal plate?
|
motor
|
|
Neuroepithelial cells that remain the apical regions form what cell type?
|
ependymal cells that line the neural canal
|
|
Neuroepithelial cells that migrate into the intermediate area become:
|
neuroblasts
glial cells |
|
Neuroepithelial cells that form neuroblasts and then neurons send out their cell processes in which direction?
|
to the basal surface
|
|
Neuroepithelial cells that migrate to form glial cells that remain the intermediate area, give rise to...
|
supporting cells for the neurons (astrocytes)
|
|
Neuroepithelial cells that migrate to form glial cells that migrate into the marginal zone, give rise to....
|
cells that form myelin to support the axons (oligodendrocytes)
|
|
T/F Microglia come from neuroectoderm?
|
False, they invade into the neural tube but arise from mesenchymal cells
|
|
neural crest cells give rise to...
|
peripheral ganglia, schwann cells, chain ganglia (sympathetic, parasympathetic), chromaffin cells, melanocytes, components of pia and arachnoid
|
|
Where do you find the cell bodies for all the fibers of the central root of a spinal nerve?
|
central nervous system
|
|
Where do you find the cell bodies associated with the sensory part of a spinal nerve?
|
peripheral NS
|
|
Where do cell bodies associated with motor in a spinal nerve come from?
|
central NS, neural tube
|
|
What causes an aganglionic megacolon (Barium enema)
|
lack of formation of post ganglionic parasympatheic cell bodies in the colon region which means smooth muscle cells can't contract. This is caused by a failure of neural crest cells to migrate into this regions.
|
|
Where does the spinal cord terminate in the neonate? Where in the adult? Why is it not the same?
|
L3, L1-2
Vertebral column grows faster than the spinal cord. |
|
Dorsal and ventral roots coming off the spinal cord are stretched to form the:
|
cauda equina
|
|
What do you call the portion of the spinal cord that connects to the vertebral column?
|
filum terminale internum
|
|
What happens if a teathered spinal cord fails to sever?
|
it can pull the cerebellum down through the foramen magnum.
|
|
Where does the parietal layer of serous membrane (mesothelium) come from?
|
somatic mesoderm
|
|
Where does the visceral layer of serous memrane (mesothelium) come from?
|
splachnic mesoderm
|
|
What larger structure forms in the cranial most region of the embryo where the lateral plate mesoderm thickens? What does this give rise to?
|
septum transversum,
diaphragm |
|
The heart forms in (somatic / splachnic) mesoderm?
|
splachnic
|
|
|
esophagus, bronchial bud, pleuropericardial fold, heart
|
|
What separates pericardial cavity from pericardial peritoneal canals?
|
pleural pericardial membranes
|
|
What type of mesoderm (somatic / splachnic) composes pleural pericardial membranes?
|
somatic, comes from lateral body walls
|
|
|
parietal pleura, fibrous pericardium, parietal pericardium
|
|
When does the heart begin to form? When does it begin to beat? When can it be seen by ulatrasound?
|
3rd week
4th week 5th week |
|
Name the primitive heart chambers from cranial to caudal:
|
truncus arteriosus, bulbus corids, primitive ventricle, primitive atrium, sinus venosus
|
|
In the primitive heart, blood flows from __________ to ___________.
|
caudal to cranial
sinus venosus to truncus arteriosus |
|
What happens when the heart tube fails to loop properly?
|
dextrocardia
|
|
|
foregut, pericardioperitoneal cavity, lung bud, common cardinal vein, pleuropericardial fold, pericardial cavity
|
|
Describe the flow of oxygenated blood in the fetal heart.
|
Oxygenated blood enteres the right atrium from the placenta and is carried to the left atrium via a shunt which will will later be closed.
|
|
label the parts of the fetal heart
|
RA, LA, RV, LV, pulmonary veins, septum transversum, aorta, pulmonary artery, ductus arteriosus, inferior vena cava, superior vena cava
|
|
Once the foramen ovale in the fetal heart is closed it is referred to as the:
|
fossa ovalus
|
|
Once the ductus arteriorsus in the fetal heart is closed it is referred to as the:
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ligamentum arteriosum
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In the primary heart tube the cardiogenic region is (caudal/cranial) to the septum transversum and (caudual/cranial) to the oropharyngeal membrane.
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Caudal, Cranial
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What comprises the endothelial tubes of the primary fetal heart?
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angioblasts arising from splanchnic mesoderm
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In the primary fetal heart, the (venous/arterial) ends of the tubes are cranial and the (venous/arterial) ends are caudal.
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venous, arterial
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Head folding bends the dorsal aortae of the primary heart to form the:
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1st aortic arch
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What is the myocardium
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the cardiac muscle
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What is the epicardium?
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the visceral pericardium
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What are the two components of the myoepicardial mantle?
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myocardium and epicardium
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What divides the common atrioventricular canal?
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endocardial cushions
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What is a common cardiac defect in Down's Syndrome?
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failure of endocardial cushion to fuse. atrioventricular defects.
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The primitive atrium is divided by:
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septum primum and secundum
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T/F although right and left atria become separated, right-to-left shunting of blood persists til birth.
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True
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