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72 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Where do primordial germ cells first arise?
In the posterior region of the secondary yolk sac in the 3rd week.
Where do the primordial germ cells migrate to?
To the primordial gonads.
What is the corona radiata?
A loose collection of follicle cells that immediately surround the oocyte.
What is the corpus luteum?
The empty follicle that releases progesterone until hormones are secreted by the placenta
When is usually the first cleavage of the zygote?
16-18 hours
What membrane surrounds the primary yolk sac?
The Heuser's membrane, derivative of hypoblasts.
When does the syncytiotrophoblast and cytotrophoblast begin to form?
Day 9
When does the secondary villus begin to form?
Day 16
What is decidua?
the endometrium
What is the chorion leave?
Smooth chorion after the tertiary villus are disintegrated in result of being compressed against the decidua capsularis.
What is a symptom of a hyaditiform mole?
Abnormally high levels of hCG.
GTT's are detected by what?
Abnormally high levels of hCG.
Heuser's membrane forms from what tissue?
hypoblasts and branches out on the inside of the cytotrophoblast
Extraembryonic mesoderm forms from what tissue?
epiblasts and forms around the extraembryonic reticulum. Or it's form the delamination of hypoblasts.
When does the amnion begin to form?
8 days
How much amniotic fluid is there at birth?
.5-1L
How often is amniotic fluid circulated?
every 3 hours it is replaced.
What is the bulbus cordis?
Early developmental outflow tract.
When is the morula formed?
4 days
When is the blastocyte formed?
5 days
What are the remnants of the primary yolk sac called?
extracoelomic cysts
Ectoderm results in what organs?
Skin and CNS.
Endoderm ends up as what?
Lung and gut.
Mesoderm ends up as what?
Muscle, bone, renal and reproductive system.
What are the three specializations of the mesoderm and their correlating organs?
somites -> vertebrae and muscle, IM to kidney and Reprod. System;
LPM to membrane linings of thorax and abdomen.)
What is the maturation process of the notochord?
notochordal process, notochoral plate, notochord
What does the myotome evolve into?
epimere and hypomere.
What vessels is the umbilical cord composed of?
two arteries and one vein.
What is the maternal contribution to the placenta? What is the fetal contribution to the placenta?
The decidua basalis and cytotrophoblast (basal plate). The chorionic plate.
Where does the embryo usually implant in the uterus?
Either posteriorly or anteriorly.
What is the major shift in hormone production in the 11th week?
The placenta (synctiotrophoblast) takes over the production of estrogen and progesterone from the corpus luteum.
What are the forms of GTTs?
Gestational trophoblastic tumors. Either hyatidiform moles or choriocarcinomas.
What is the composition of amniotic fluid?
Water, fetal epithelial cells, and proteins.
High alpha fetoprotein indicates what? Low alpha fetoprotein indicates what?
neural tube defect and trisomy 21.
What is olighydramnios?
Low amount of amniotic fluid -400cc's
What is polyhydramnios?
Too much amniotic fluid.
What is amniotic band syndrome?
When a strip of amniotic membrane gets wrapped around a fetal structure and therefore contricting it and restricting its development.
Monozygotic twinning is more occurent in which sex?
The female sex
What is Bateson's Rule?
Twins will be mirror images of each other.
When do the eyes open?
26 weeks
When is surfactant produced?
24 weeks
What is quickening?
Early fetal movements that can be felt by the mother around 20 weeks.
What is a mature sperm called?
spermatazoa
How many primary oocytes do women initially have? How many are actually ovulated?
40,000; 800
At what stage are primary oocytes stopped at?
At the meiotic division prophase 1
What needs to happen to the egg in order for the egg to attach to the uterus and when does this happen?
The egg needs to hatch from the zona pellucida and this happens when the egg becomes a blastocyst.
When does the amniotic cavity begin to form?
8 days
When is the definitive yolk sac formed?
around 12 days
What are the remnants of the primary yolk sac called and where are these found?
exocoloemic cysts at the abembryonic pole
What should be formed by the end of 2 weeks?
amniotic cavity, definitive yolk sac, chorionic cavity.
When does the formation of the primary villus usually happen? When does the formation of the tertiary villus usually happen?
Day 11; Day 21
Somites develop into what future structures?
vertebrae and muscle
Medial mesoderm develop into?
kidneys and reproductive system
Lateral Plate mesoderm develop into?
lining to the thorax and abdomen
What special about the first 7 somitomeres?
There never develop into full fledged somites.
Neural folding is usually when?
21 days to 25 days
What is anencephaly and how does it form?
This is where the cranial neural pore does not close resulting in the absence in a major portion of the cranium.
What is spina bifida?
Open part of the spinal cord. This is due to the absence of closing of the caudal neural pore.
Where do the neural crest cells form from?
The edges of the neural folds.
What do neural crest cells lead to?
parts of the body such as glands, part of the ANS, and part of the heart.
What causes a diaphragmmatic hernia?
The failure of the left pleuroperitoneal membrane from forming.
What is dextocardia?
Heart forms on the opposite side.
What is the dorsal mesentery?
The mesoderm that connects the gut tube to the posterior body wall.
Lateral folding of the thorax also leads to what structure?
Fusion of the arterial tubes.
Where do the primordial germ cells appear?
They appear caudally in the yolk sac in the 3rd week.
Where do the primordial germ cells originate from?
The yolk sac.
What part of the dermamyotome do the sclerotomes come out of ?
ventral medial
When does the decidua capularis press up against the decidua parietalis and closes off the uterine cavity?
4-5 months
The cotyledons form on what part of the placenta?
Decidua basalis
How often is the placental blood circulated?
4xs a minute
How do you tell the difference between a complete and partial hyaditiform mole?
complete has diffuse trophoblastic hyperplasia and villus edema while the latter has focal.
What are possible developmental causes for polyhydramnios?
anencephaly or esophageal atresia