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85 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
implantation of blastocyst occurs within how long?
one week
within what week does the bilaminar disk form?
week 2
gastrulation, primitive streak, and neural plate begin to form within what week of gestation?
week 4
the embryo is extremely susceptible to teratogens during what span of weeks?
weeks 3-8
the neural tube is formed and organogenesis occurs during what weeks?
weeks 3-8
when does the heart begin to beat and the upper and lower limb buds begin to form?
week 4
by when do genitalia have male/female characteristics?
week 10
name the 2 germ layers present in week 2
epiblast, hypoblast
what 2 cavities are present in week 2?
amniotic cavity, yolk sac
what 2 components of the placenta are present during week 2?
cytotrophoblast, syncytiotrophoblast
what 3 germ layers are present in the third week and what stage is the embryo in?
ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm; gastrula
the lens of the eye is derived from what germ layer?
surface ectoderm
what germ layer is the adenohypophysis derived from?
surface ectoderm
what germ layer is the neurohypophysis derived from?
neuroectoderm (remember 'neuro')
CNS neurons, oligodendrocytes, astrocytes are derived from which germ layer?
what are the ANS, DRG, cranial nerves derived from?
neural crest
melanocytes and parafollicular (C) cells are derived from what?
neural crest (C cells = Crest)
dura mater, CT, bone, muscle, are all derived from what germ layer?
pia, arachnoid, and Schwann cells arise from what?
neural crest
lymph, blood, spleen, kidneys arise from what?
extraocular muscles are derived from what layer?
the dermis is derived from what layer?
lungs, liver, pancreas, thymus, parathyroid all arise from what?
endoderm - gut tube epithelium and derivatives
thyroid follicular cells arise from what layer?
what is the postnatal derivative of the notochord?
nucleus polposus of the intervertebral disk
what is the role of the notochord?
induces ectoderm to form neuroectoderm (neural plate)
which is teratogenic: warfarin or heparin?
warfarin - causes multiple anomalies
exposure to ACE inhibitors in utero can have what effect on fetus?
renal damage
what is the role of the umbilical arteries?
return DEoxygenated blood from fetal internal iliac arteries
what is the role of the allantoic duct?
removes nitrogenous waste (from fetal bladder, like a urethra)
what does the truncus arteriosus give rise to?
ascending aorta and pulmonary trunk
the smooth parts of left and right ventricle arise from what embryonic structure?
bulbous cordis
the trabeculated parts of the ventricles and atria arise from what?
primitive ventricle and atria
from what embryologic structure does the coronary sinus originate?
left horn of sinus venosus
the smooth part of the right atrium comes from what?
right horn of sinus venosus
what does the SVC arise from?
right commmon cardinal vein and right anterior cardinal vein
oxygenated blood reaching the heart via the IVC is diverted through ________ and pumped out the aorta to the head
foramen ovale
this structure provides a pulmonary-to-systemic shunt
ductus arteriosus (deoxygenated blood from the SVC is expelled into the pulmonary artery and ductus arteriosus o the lower body of the fetus)
blood entering the fetus through the umbilical vein is conducted via what shunt into the IVC?
ductus venosus
what do you use to keep a patent PDA open?
prostaglandins (3 P's)
the umbilical vein becomes what structure postnatally?
ligamentum teres hepatis
the umbilical arteries become what structure postnatally?
mediaL umbilical ligaments
what is the postnatal correlate to the allantois?
mediaN umbilical ligament
what does the first aortic arch give rise to?
part of the maxillary artery (1st is MAXimal)
what does the second aortic arch give rise to?
stapedial and hyoid artery (Second-Stapedial)
the common carotid artery and proximal part of internal carotid are derived from which aortic arch?
3rd (c is 3rd letter of alphabet)
what structures does the 4th aortic arch give rise to?
on left - aortic arch; on right - proximal part of subclavian artery
what does the 6th aortic arch give rise to?
proximal part of pulmonary arteries and (on left only) ductus arteriousus
branchial arch 1 derivatives are supplied by what nerves?
CN V2, V3 (1, 2, 3)
branchial arch 2 derivatives are supplied by what nerve?
CN VII (2 II's)
CN IX supplies the derivatives of which branchial arch?
arch 3
branchial arches 4 and 6 are supplied by what nerve?
CN X (4+6=10) (4th arch - superior laryngeal branch, 6th arch - recurrent laryngeal branch)
all of the intrinsic muscles of the larynx are derived from the 6th branchial arch except what?
which branchial arches form the posterior 1/3 of tongue?
arches 3 and 4
which branchial arch makes no developmental contributions?
arch 5
which nerves are responsible for taste?
solitary nucleus - CN VII, IX, X
tongue sensation is supplied by which nerves?
CN V3, IX, X
motor innervation to the tongue comes from which nerve?
what does the first branchial cleft develop into?
external auditory meatus
what do the 2nd through 4th branchial clefts form and then what happens to them?
they form temporary cervical sinues but are obliterated by proliferation of 2nd arch mesnchyme
what can a persistent cervical sinus lead to?
a branchial cyst in the neck
the 1st branchial pouch develops into what?
endoderm-lined ear structures - middle ear cavity, eustachian tube, mastoid air cells
which branchial pouch does the epithelial lining of the palatine tonsil derive from?
2nd pouch
the inferior parathyroids develop from which branchial pouch?
3rd pouch (dorsal wings) - 3 is inferior to 4
the ventral wings of the 3rd pouch develop into what structure?
which branchial pouch do the superior parathyroids develop from?
4th pouch
aberrant development of 3rd and 4th pouches results in what syndrome?
DiGeorge's - leads to T-cell deficiency (thymic aplasia) and hypocalcemia (failure of parathyroid development)
what is the most common site for ectopic thyroid tissue?
cleft lip results from the failure of fusion of what?
maxillary and medial nasal processes (primary palate)
cleft palate results form the failure of fusion of what?
lateral palatine processes, the nasal septum, and/or median palatine process (formation of secondary palate)
what does the ventral pancreatic bud differentiate into?
pancreatic head, uncinate process (lower half of head), and main pancreatic duct
the spleen arises from dorsal mesentery but is supplied by artery of which gut?
the genital tubercle gives rise to what strucures?
glans penis, glans clitoris (3 g's)
what structure do the corpus spongiosum and vestibular bulbs arise from?
urogenital sinus
what is the female analogue of the bolbourethral glands (Cowper's), and what do they arise from?
greater vestibular glands (Bartholin's); urogenital sinus
which branchial arch supplies: mandible, malleus, incus, sphenomandibular ligament, muscles of mastication (temporalis, masseter, lateral and medial pterygoids), mylohyoid, anterior belly of digastric, tensor tympani, tensor veli, palatini, and anterior 2/3 of tongue?
branchial arch 1
which branchial arch supplies: stapes, styloid process, lesser horn of hyoid, stylohyoid ligament, muscles of facial expression, stapedius, stylohyoid, posterior belly of digastric?
branchial arch 2
what cartilage and muscle does branchial arch 3 supply?
greater horn of hyoid, stylopharyngeus (CN IX)
thyroid, cricoid, arytenoid, coniculate, and cuneiform cartilages are derivatives of which branchial arches?
branchial arches 4-6
most pharyngeal constrictors, cricothyroid, levator veli palatini are supplied by which branchial arch?
branchial arch 4
the superior laryngeal branch of CN X supplies which branchial arch?
4th branchial arch
the recurrent laryngeal branch of CN X supplies which branchial arch?
what placental component is derived from the mother rather than the fetus?
lacunar network
the omental bursa and greater omentum are derived from what?
dorsal mesogastrium, which is the mesentary of the stomach regoin
what does an ostium primum type of ASD result from
failure of the septum primum to fuse with the endocardial cushions