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270 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
where are these produced during embryogenesis: sonic hedgehog, wnt7, fgf, homeobox
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base of limbs, apical ectodermal ridge (thickened ectoderm at end of limb bud), apical ecodermal ridge, segmentally
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function of sonic hedgehog
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anterior-posterior patterning, mediates ectodermal functions
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function of wnt7
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dorsal-ventral organization
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function of fgf
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induces mitosis of mesoderm to allow for limb lengthening
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function of homeobox
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involved in craniocaudal segment formation
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mutation of hox d13 will result in
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synpolydactyly (fused extra digit b/w 3rd and 4th)
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what can alter the expression of hox d13
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retinoid acid
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by when does hcg expression begin after implantation
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week 1
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by when is there a bilaminar disk
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week 2
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by when does gastrulation complete
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week 3
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by when does the primitive streak, notochord, and neural plate begin to form
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week 3
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by when is neural tube formed
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week 3
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which neuropore closes first, and by when
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cranial (d25) before caudal (d27)
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during what weeks does organogenesis take place
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week 3-8
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when is embryo must susceptible to teratogens
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week 3-8
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when does heart begin to beat
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week 4
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when do upper and lower limb buds begin to form
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week 4
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when does the pronephros degenerate
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week 4
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by when does the vitelline duct obliterate
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week 7
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by when is the allantois formed
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week 3
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what is the allantois
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connection from yolk sac to urogenital sinus
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what does week 8 demarcate
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"fetal peroid" -- looks like baby
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by when does genetalia have male/female characteristics
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week 10
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what gives rise to neural crest
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neural plate
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what is the fate of notochord
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becomes nucleosus pulposus
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what does neural plate give rise to
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neural tube and neural crest
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alar vs basal plate
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alar = dorsal = sensory; basal = ventral = motor
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what major structures have been formed by week 2
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2 germ layers (bilaminar disk), 2 cavities (amniotic sac and yolk sac), 2 components to placenta (cytotrophoblast, syncytiotrophoblast)
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what major structures have been formed by week 3
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3 germ layers (gastrula)
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what major structures have been formed by week 4
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4 heart chambers, 4 limb buds
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what are the two parts of the bilaminar disk
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epiblast & hypoblast
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what forms the primitive streak
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invagination of epiblast
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what does the primitive streak give rise to
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intraembryonic mesoderm and part of endoderm
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what gives rise to: adenohypophysis
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surface ectoderm
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what gives rise to: lens of eye
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surface ectoderm
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what gives rise to: neurohypophysis
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neuroectoderm
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what gives rise to: astrocytes
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neuroectoderm
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what gives rise to: pineal gland
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neuroectoderm
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what gives rise to: ependymal cells
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neuroectoderm
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what gives rise to: ANS
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neural crest
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what gives rise to: lungs
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endoderm
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what gives rise to: liver
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endoderm
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what gives rise to: muscle and bone
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mesoderm
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what gives rise to: connective tissue
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mesoderm
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what gives rise to: serous linings
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mesoderm
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what gives rise to: spleen (be specific)
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mesoderm, dorsal mesentary
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what gives rise to: epithelial linings of oral cavity
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surface ectoderm
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what gives rise to: sensory organs of ear
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surface ectoderm
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what gives rise to: retina
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neuroectoderm
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what gives rise to: dorsal root ganglia
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neural crest
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what gives rise to: cranial nerves
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neural crest
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what gives rise to: celiac ganglion
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neural crest
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what gives rise to: pancreas
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endoderm
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what gives rise to: cardiovascular structures
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mesoderm
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what gives rise to: lymphatics
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mesoderm
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what gives rise to: blood
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mesoderm
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what gives rise to: bladder
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mesoderm
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what gives rise to: urethra
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mesoderm
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what gives rise to: vagina
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mesoderm
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what gives rise to: olfactory epithelium
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surface ectoderm
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what gives rise to: salivary tissue
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surface ectoderm
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what gives rise to: sweat glands
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surface ectoderm
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what gives rise to: melanocytes
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neural crest
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what gives rise to: chromaffin cells of adrenal medulla
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neural crest
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what gives rise to: parafollicular cells of thyroid
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neural crest
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what gives rise to: pia mater and arachnoid
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neural crest
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what gives rise to: bones of skull
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neural crest
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what gives rise to: thymus
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endoderm
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what gives rise to: eustachian tube
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mesoderm
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what gives rise to: kidneys
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mesoderm
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what is the celiac ganglion
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large autonomic sympathetic ganglia that innervate gut
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what gives rise to: mammary glands
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surface ectoderm
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what gives rise to: odontoblasts
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neural crest
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what gives rise to: aorticopulmonary septum
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neural crest
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what gives rise to: parathyroid
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endoderm
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what gives rise to: thyroid follicular cells
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endoderm
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what gives rise to: adrenal cortex
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mesoderm
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what gives rise to: testis and ovaries
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mesoderm
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what gives rise to: dermis of skin
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mesoderm
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what is VACTERL syndrome
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vertebral defect, anal atresia, cardiac defect, TE fistula, renal defect, limb defect
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malformation vs deformation
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malformation occurs during embryonic period (intrinsic problem), deformation occurs after embryonic peroid
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embryonic period vs fetal period
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week 3-8, vs afterwards
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agenesis vs hypoplasia vs aplasia
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agenesis has missing primordial tissue that leads to no organ. Hypoplasia and aplasia both have primordial tissue, but hypoplasia is incomplete organ and aplasia is absence
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effect of ace inhibitors on fetus
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renal damage
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effect of alcohol on fetus
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fas, MR, birth defects
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effect of alkylating agents on fetus
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absence of digits
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effect of aminoglycosides on fetus
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cn8 tox
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effect of cocaine on fetus
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abruptio placentae; developmental problem and addiction
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effect of dieethylstilbestrol on fetus
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clear cell vaginal adenocarcinoma
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effect of folate antagonist on fetus
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ntd
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effect of lack or excess iodide on fetus
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congenital goiter or hypoT
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effect of lithium on fetus
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ebstein's abnormality, malformation of great vessels
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effect of maternal diabetes on fetus
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caudal regression syndrome, transposition, LGA can lead to erb-duchenne, clavicle fracture
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effect of nicotine and carbon monoxide on fetus
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preterm labor, IUGR, adhd, placental problems
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effect of tetracycline on fetus
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discolored teeth
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effect of thalidomide on fetus
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flipper limb
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effect of valproate on fetus
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inhibition of intestinal folate absorption, NTD
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effect of vitamin A onfetus
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spontaneous abortion, birth defects like cleft palate and cardiac abnormalities
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effect of warfarin on fetus
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abortion, bone deformity, fetal hemorrhage
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what is sirenomelia
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mermaid syndrome (legs fused together)
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what is the leading cause of congenital malformation in US
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fas
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congenital abormalities seen with fas
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microcephaly, holoprosencephaly, facial abnormalities, mr, limb dislocation, heart and lung fistula
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facial abnormalities seen with fas
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wide eyes, downward turn at end, flattened nasal bridge, long philtrum, low set ears
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what is caudal regression syndrome
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seen in maternal diabetes, where there is some sort of developmental failure in caudal area --- anal atresia, sirenomelia, LE paralysis and incontinence
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when is the chorion formed
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d3
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when is the amnion formed
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d8
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if dichorionic, diamniotic, monozygotic twin with one placenta, when did split occur
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before day 3
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if monochorionic, diamniotic, monozygotic twin, when did split occur
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day 3-8
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if monochorionic, monoamniotic, monozygotic twin, when did split occur
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after day 8
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is chorion the outer or inner membrane
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outer
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conjoined twins have how many chorions and amnions
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1 chorion, 1 amnion
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when is amniocentesis performed
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15-17w to check for genetics problems (chorionic villi sampling performed before this), or in 3rd trimester to check for lung maturity
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to whom is amniocentesis offered (ie what age)
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age >35
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what is twin-twin transfusion
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monoplacental twins -- one twin gets more blood, the other one has better developed lungs (increased cortisol from stress)
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what cells form the inner lining of the chorionic villi
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cytotrophoblast
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which trophoblastic cell secretes hcg
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syncytiotrophoblast
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what is the decidua basalis derived from
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endometrium
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review picture of placenta
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p122
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how many umbilical arteries, veins
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2 arteries, 1 vein
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what does the umbilical artery drain
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fetal internal iliac arteries
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where does the umbilical vein drain into
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IVC
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significance of single umbilical artery
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increased likelihood of congenital/chromosomal anomolies, esp renal
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what are umbilical arteries and veins derived from
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allantois
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how does the umbilical cord degenerate
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neutrophil response…LAD
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when is the allantois formed
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week 3
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what does the allantois eventually form
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urachus, which is the connection from the yolk sac to the bladder
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what could occur if the urachus fails to obliterate
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patent urachus (flow of urine through umbilicus), or vesicourachal diverticulum (outpouching of bladder)
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how does blood flow from the maternal lacunae eventually to the IVC (lay out the steps)
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syncytiotrophoblast -> cytotrophoblast -> myxomatous stroma of chorionic villus -> blood vessels that coalesce to form umbilical v -> liver which sends blood through hepatic sinusoids or ductus venosus -> IVC
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describe the fate of each of these systems: vitelline, umbilical, cardinal
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vitelline becomes portal system, umbilical degenerates, cardinal becomes systemic veins
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when does the vitelline duct obliterate
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week 7
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what is the purpose of the yolk sac
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erythropoiesis, nutrients, and waste
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what is the urachus
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connection from yolk sac to fetal bladder
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what is the vitelline duct
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connection from yolk sac to midgut
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what could occur if the vitelline duct fails to obliterate
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1. vitillene fistula -- connection to umbilicus that passes meconium 2. meckel diverticulum that may have ectopic gastric mucosa 3. vitelline sunus (sinus @ umbilicus) 4. vitelline cyst (cyst in middle of duct)
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draw out the embryonic structure of the heart
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p123
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what does the truncus arteriosus give rise to
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aorta, pulmonary trunk
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what does the bulbis cordis give rise to
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RV and smooth parts of LV and RV
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what does the primitive ventricle give rise to
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trabeculated pts of left and right ventricle
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what does the primitive atria give rise to
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trabeculated part of LA & RA
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what does the left horn of the sinus venosus give rise to
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coronary sinus
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what does the right horn of the sinus venosus give rise to
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smooth part of RA
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what gives rise to the svc
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right anterior cardinal v, right common cardinal v
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what dzz can occur if the aorticopulmonary septum is not correct
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transposition, persistent truncus arteriosus, tetrology of Fallot
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sequence of events that occur in the development of the interventricular septum
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formation of the muscular ventricular septum (which leaves opening -> interventricular foramen), aorticopulmonary septum grows downward and meets with muscular ventricular septum to form membranous part (closes foramen) -> endocardial cushion separates atria from ventricles and contributes to membranous IV septum
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what can cause patent foramen ovale
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too much resportion of septum primum or secondum
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review interatrial septum development
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p124
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what organs are responsible for erythropoiesis in fetus and when do they do it
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yolk sac (w3-8), liver (w6-30), spleen (w9-28), bm (>28w)
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where does most erythropoiesis occur i.e. in which bones
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vertebrae, sternum, pelvis, ribs, cranial, & until age 25, tibia and femur
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three important shunts in fetus
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1. ductosus venosus (bypasses hepatic circulation) 2. ductus arteriosus 3. foramen ovale
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why does ductus arteriosus close in infants
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when baby takes breath, pulmonary resistance decreases and flow through ductus arterosus has increased oxygen, which causes decreased prostaglandins
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what 3 sections of brain exist in fetus at week 4
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prosencephalon, mesencephalon, rhombencephalon
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what 4 sections of brain exist in fetus at week 5
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prosencephalon -> telencephalon & diencephalon; mesencephalon; rhombencephalon -> metencephalon & myelencephalon
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what does the telencephalon give rise to
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cerebral hemispheres and lateral ventricles
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what does the diencephalon give rise to
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thalamus, hypothalamus, optic n & tract, …, 3rd ventricle
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what does the mesencephalon give rise to
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midbrain and cerebral aqueduct
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what does the metencephalon give rise to
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pons and cerebellum
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what does the myelencephalon give rise to
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medulla
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what gives rise to the fourth ventricle
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rhombencephalon
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failure of neuropores to close leads to a connection between
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amniotic sac and spinal canal
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what lab abormality associated with ntd
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increased AFP and AChE
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where does spina bifida usually occur
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lower lumbar area
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what is lissencephaly
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smooth brain caused by failure of neural migration in week 12-24
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what is pachygyria
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thick gyri due to abnormal migration of neurons
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what is schizencephaly
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gray matter malformation
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why is there polyhydramnios in anencephaly
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no swallowing center
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AFP level in anencepahly
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elevated
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what is holoprosencephaly
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midline defect where hemispheres do not separate, results in cyclopia
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what is holoprosencephaly assoc w
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Patau, fas, cleft lip/palate
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what gene is most likely to be mutated in holoprocencephaly
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holoprosencephaly
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what is chiari malformation
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cerebellar tonsillar herniation through foramen magnum that can result in hydrocephaly
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what is chiari malformation assoc w
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syringomelia, thoracolumbar myelomingocele
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what is dandy walker
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absent cerebellar vermis with enlargement of v4 that leads to hydrocephalus
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what is syringomyelia
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enlargement of central canal of spinal cord that damages anterior white commisure and potentially anterior horn
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most common location of syringomyelia
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c8-t1
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what does the first aortic arch form
|
maxillary a
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what does the second aortic arch form
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stapedial a, hyoid a
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what does the third aortic arch form
|
common carotid, prox IC
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what does the fourth aortic arch form
|
aortic arch (left) and prox subclavian (right)
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what does the fifth aortic arch form
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obliterates
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what does the sixth aortic arch form
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pulmonary a, ductus arteriosus
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what are branchial clefts, arches, pouches derived from
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cleft = ectoderm; arch = mesoderm & neural crest; pouch = endoderm
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what do the branchial clefts develop into
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1st cleft -> EAM; 2-4 = cervical sinuses that obliterate
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what is dandy walker assoc w
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hydrocephalus, spina bifida
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where would branchial cysts be located on neck
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lateral neck
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what is treacher collins syndrome
|
1st arch neural crest cells fail to migrate. Mandibular hypoplasia and facial abnormalities
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derivatives of first branchial arch
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meckels cartilage (mandible, malleus, incus sphenomandibular ligament), muscles of mastication, mylohyoid, ant digastric, tensor tympani, tensor veli palatini, ant 2/3 tongue, CN v2, v3
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derivatives of second branchial arch
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reichart's cartilage (stapes, lesser hyoid, styloid process, stylohyoid ligament), facial mm, stapedius, stylohyoid, post digastric, cn7
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derivatives of third branchial arch
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greater hyoid, stylopharyngeus, cn9
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derivatives of fourth branchial arch - cartilage, muscles, nerve
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part of cartilages (thyroid, cricoid, arythenoid, cuneiform, cornicualte), pharyngeal constrictors, cricothyroid, levator veli palatini, CN X (sup laryngeal)
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what forms posterior 1/3 tongue
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branchial arches 3,4
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what forms anterior 2/3 tongue
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branchial arch 1
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what is a congenital pharyngocutaneous fistula
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fistula b/w tonsils and lateral neck (results from pouch 3 defect)
|
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derivatives of sixth branchial arch
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part of cartilages (thyroid, cricoid, arytenoid, corniculate, cuneiform), larynx mm except cricothyroid, CN10 (reccurent layrngeal)
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which CNs have both motor and sensory components
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V3, VII, IX, X
|
|
review picture of tongue
|
p129
|
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derivates of first branchial pouch
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eustachian tube, mastoid air cells, middle ear cavity
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derivatives of second branchial pouch
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epithelial lining of palatine tonsils
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derivatives of 3rd branchial pouch
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ventral wing becomes thymus. Dorsal wing becomes pt
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derivates of 4th branchial pouch
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superior pt (dorsal wings)
|
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mutation in RET affects what type of cells
|
neural crest
|
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what cranial nerves carry pain sensation from tongue
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v3, ix, x
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what are muscles of tongue derived from
|
occipital myotome
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malformation of 3rd and 4th pouches can result in what syndrome
|
digeorge
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what does thyroid arise from
|
floor of primitive pharynx
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what does the thyroglossal duct connect
|
tongue and thyroid
|
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what generates the pyramidal lobe of the thyroid
|
remant of thyroglossal duct
|
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what is foramen cecum
|
normal remnant of thyroglossal duct
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|
most common location of ectopic thyroid
|
tongue and thyroid
|
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thyroglossal duct cyst vs branchial cleft cyst
|
thyroglossal duct is midline and moves with swallowing
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cleft lip results from failure to fuse what
|
maxillary and medial nasal processes
|
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cleft palate results from failure to fuse what
|
lateral palatine, medial palatine, and nasal septum
|
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cleft lip vs cleft palate - epidemiology
|
lip = male, palate = female
|
|
complication of cleft lip/palate
|
eustachian tube dysfunction
|
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gastrochesis vs ophalocele: appearance, location, associations
|
gastrochesis is more lateral, not covered by peritoneum, is extrusion through abdomen. Omphalocele is more medial, covered by peritoneum, herniation through umbilical cord, assoc w trisomy
|
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failure to close rostral anterior abdominal wall
|
sternum defect
|
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failure to close lateral anterior abdominal wall
|
gastroschesis and omphalocele
|
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failure to close caudal anterior abdominal wall
|
bladder exostrophy
|
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cause of jejunal, ileal, colonic atresia
|
vascular accident (apple peel atresia)
|
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when does midgut herniate through umbilical ring
|
week 6
|
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when does midgut return to abdominal cavity and rotate around sma
|
week 10
|
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what could occur if midgut fails to herniate, return or rotate
|
volvulus, malrotation, omphalocele, intestinal atresia or stenosis
|
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what is anal atresia associated with
|
GU abnormalities, urorectal/urovesical/urogenital fistuals, VACTERL
|
|
sx of TE fistula
|
polyhydramnios, bubble in stomach in CXR, cyanosis&choking&vomiting w/ feeding, pneumonitis
|
|
sx of congenital pyloric stenosis
|
palpable olive + nonbilious projectile vomiting
|
|
when does vomiting start for congenital pyloric stenosis
|
2w (NOT AT BIRTH)
|
|
tx for congenital pyloric stenosis
|
surgical incision
|
|
epidemiology of congenital pyloric stenoiss
|
1st born males
|
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what does the dorsal pancreatic bud form
|
accessory pancreatic duct, most of head, body, and tail
|
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what does the ventral pancreatic bud form
|
uncinate process, part of head, main pancreatic duct
|
|
what is annular pancreas? What type of vomiting
|
ventral bud wraps around 2nd part of duodenum. Bilious
|
|
what is pancreas divisum
|
dorsal and ventral bud don't fuse, separate bile drainage
|
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when does dorsal and ventral bud of pancrease fuse normally
|
8w
|
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when does pronephros degenerate
|
44w
|
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how long does mesonephros last
|
for 1st trimester
|
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when does metanephros begin
|
week 5
|
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how long does nephrogenesis continue
|
up until w32-36
|
|
what induces mesenchyme to undergo differentiation in nephrogenesis
|
ureteric bud
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is the ureteric bud cranial or caudal end of mesonephros
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caudal
|
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what does the ureteric bud give rise to
|
collecting ducts, calyces, pelvis, ureter
|
|
when does the ureteric bud become canalized
|
10w
|
|
what is the last site to canalize in kidney development
|
ureteropelvic junction
|
|
what is the most common site of hydronephrosis obstruction in fetus
|
ureteropelvic junction
|
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what does the metanephric mesenchyme give rise to
|
glomerulus and all tubules up to DCT
|
|
during what period would the defect occur to produce potter's syndrome? Is it intrinsic or extrinsic
|
embryonic period (cuz it's malformation). Intrinsic
|
|
sx of potter's syndrome
|
oligohydramnios leads to limb deformities, lung hypoplasia, and facial deformities
|
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where is fusion in horseshoe kidney, where does it get stuck
|
inferior poles. Gets stuck under ima at l3
|
|
kidney function in horsheoe kidney
|
normal
|
|
cause of potters syndrome
|
malformation of ureteric bud
|
|
what genital duct system degenerates in females
|
mesonephric
|
|
mechanism of mesonephric duct development in males
|
SRY gene on Y chromosome produces testes. Sertoli cells make mullerian inhibitory factor (suppresses mullerian), Leydig cells make testosterone (promotes wolffian)
|
|
what structures does the mesonephric duct develop into
|
seminal vesicle, ejaculatory duct, epidydimis, ductus deferens
|
|
what structures does the paramesonephric duct develop into
|
uterus, fallopian tubes, upper 1/3 of vagina
|
|
what causes bicornate uterus
|
incomplete fusion of paramesonephric duct
|
|
what is bicornate uterus associated with
|
GU deformities and infertility
|
|
what does the lower 2/3 of the vagina develop from
|
urogenital sinus
|
|
what is the female homolog to the glans penis? What do they originate from
|
glans clitoris. Genital tubercle
|
|
what is the female homolog to the corpus cavernosum and spongiosum? What do they originate from
|
vestibular bulbs. Genital tubercle
|
|
what is the male homolog to the greater vestibular glands of bartholin? What do they originate from
|
bulbourethral glands of cowper. Urogenital sinus
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what is the female homolog to the prostate gland? What do they originate from?
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urethral and paraurethral glands of skene. Urogenital sinus
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what is the male homolog to the labia minora? What do they originate from
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ventral shaft of penis. Urogenital fold
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what is the male homolog to the labia majora? What do they originate from
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scrotum. Labioscrotal swelling
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what fails to fuse in hypospadias? Which side?
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urogenital folds. Ventral
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tx is needed for hypospadias or epispadias? Why?
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hypospadias cuz of UTI
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what causes epispadias? Which side
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faulty positioning of genital tubercle. Dorsal
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what does the gubernaculum form in males and females
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males: attaches testes to scrotum. Females: ovarian ligament + round ligament
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what does the processus vaginals form in males and females
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males: tunica vaginalis. Females: obliterates
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when is SIDS most likely to occur
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2-4mo
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what is pathogenesis of SIDS
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improper CO2 detection centers in brain leads to death
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risk factors for SIDS
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SE status, use of drug/cigarette use during pregnancy
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what gives rise to uncinate process of pancreas
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ventral bud
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