• Shuffle
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Alphabetize
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Front First
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Both Sides
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Read
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
Reading...
Front

Card Range To Study

through

image

Play button

image

Play button

image

Progress

1/270

Click to flip

Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;

Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;

H to show hint;

A reads text to speech;

270 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
where are these produced during embryogenesis: sonic hedgehog, wnt7, fgf, homeobox
base of limbs, apical ectodermal ridge (thickened ectoderm at end of limb bud), apical ecodermal ridge, segmentally
function of sonic hedgehog
anterior-posterior patterning, mediates ectodermal functions
function of wnt7
dorsal-ventral organization
function of fgf
induces mitosis of mesoderm to allow for limb lengthening
function of homeobox
involved in craniocaudal segment formation
mutation of hox d13 will result in
synpolydactyly (fused extra digit b/w 3rd and 4th)
what can alter the expression of hox d13
retinoid acid
by when does hcg expression begin after implantation
week 1
by when is there a bilaminar disk
week 2
by when does gastrulation complete
week 3
by when does the primitive streak, notochord, and neural plate begin to form
week 3
by when is neural tube formed
week 3
which neuropore closes first, and by when
cranial (d25) before caudal (d27)
during what weeks does organogenesis take place
week 3-8
when is embryo must susceptible to teratogens
week 3-8
when does heart begin to beat
week 4
when do upper and lower limb buds begin to form
week 4
when does the pronephros degenerate
week 4
by when does the vitelline duct obliterate
week 7
by when is the allantois formed
week 3
what is the allantois
connection from yolk sac to urogenital sinus
what does week 8 demarcate
"fetal peroid" -- looks like baby
by when does genetalia have male/female characteristics
week 10
what gives rise to neural crest
neural plate
what is the fate of notochord
becomes nucleosus pulposus
what does neural plate give rise to
neural tube and neural crest
alar vs basal plate
alar = dorsal = sensory; basal = ventral = motor
what major structures have been formed by week 2
2 germ layers (bilaminar disk), 2 cavities (amniotic sac and yolk sac), 2 components to placenta (cytotrophoblast, syncytiotrophoblast)
what major structures have been formed by week 3
3 germ layers (gastrula)
what major structures have been formed by week 4
4 heart chambers, 4 limb buds
what are the two parts of the bilaminar disk
epiblast & hypoblast
what forms the primitive streak
invagination of epiblast
what does the primitive streak give rise to
intraembryonic mesoderm and part of endoderm
what gives rise to: adenohypophysis
surface ectoderm
what gives rise to: lens of eye
surface ectoderm
what gives rise to: neurohypophysis
neuroectoderm
what gives rise to: astrocytes
neuroectoderm
what gives rise to: pineal gland
neuroectoderm
what gives rise to: ependymal cells
neuroectoderm
what gives rise to: ANS
neural crest
what gives rise to: lungs
endoderm
what gives rise to: liver
endoderm
what gives rise to: muscle and bone
mesoderm
what gives rise to: connective tissue
mesoderm
what gives rise to: serous linings
mesoderm
what gives rise to: spleen (be specific)
mesoderm, dorsal mesentary
what gives rise to: epithelial linings of oral cavity
surface ectoderm
what gives rise to: sensory organs of ear
surface ectoderm
what gives rise to: retina
neuroectoderm
what gives rise to: dorsal root ganglia
neural crest
what gives rise to: cranial nerves
neural crest
what gives rise to: celiac ganglion
neural crest
what gives rise to: pancreas
endoderm
what gives rise to: cardiovascular structures
mesoderm
what gives rise to: lymphatics
mesoderm
what gives rise to: blood
mesoderm
what gives rise to: bladder
mesoderm
what gives rise to: urethra
mesoderm
what gives rise to: vagina
mesoderm
what gives rise to: olfactory epithelium
surface ectoderm
what gives rise to: salivary tissue
surface ectoderm
what gives rise to: sweat glands
surface ectoderm
what gives rise to: melanocytes
neural crest
what gives rise to: chromaffin cells of adrenal medulla
neural crest
what gives rise to: parafollicular cells of thyroid
neural crest
what gives rise to: pia mater and arachnoid
neural crest
what gives rise to: bones of skull
neural crest
what gives rise to: thymus
endoderm
what gives rise to: eustachian tube
mesoderm
what gives rise to: kidneys
mesoderm
what is the celiac ganglion
large autonomic sympathetic ganglia that innervate gut
what gives rise to: mammary glands
surface ectoderm
what gives rise to: odontoblasts
neural crest
what gives rise to: aorticopulmonary septum
neural crest
what gives rise to: parathyroid
endoderm
what gives rise to: thyroid follicular cells
endoderm
what gives rise to: adrenal cortex
mesoderm
what gives rise to: testis and ovaries
mesoderm
what gives rise to: dermis of skin
mesoderm
what is VACTERL syndrome
vertebral defect, anal atresia, cardiac defect, TE fistula, renal defect, limb defect
malformation vs deformation
malformation occurs during embryonic period (intrinsic problem), deformation occurs after embryonic peroid
embryonic period vs fetal period
week 3-8, vs afterwards
agenesis vs hypoplasia vs aplasia
agenesis has missing primordial tissue that leads to no organ. Hypoplasia and aplasia both have primordial tissue, but hypoplasia is incomplete organ and aplasia is absence
effect of ace inhibitors on fetus
renal damage
effect of alcohol on fetus
fas, MR, birth defects
effect of alkylating agents on fetus
absence of digits
effect of aminoglycosides on fetus
cn8 tox
effect of cocaine on fetus
abruptio placentae; developmental problem and addiction
effect of dieethylstilbestrol on fetus
clear cell vaginal adenocarcinoma
effect of folate antagonist on fetus
ntd
effect of lack or excess iodide on fetus
congenital goiter or hypoT
effect of lithium on fetus
ebstein's abnormality, malformation of great vessels
effect of maternal diabetes on fetus
caudal regression syndrome, transposition, LGA can lead to erb-duchenne, clavicle fracture
effect of nicotine and carbon monoxide on fetus
preterm labor, IUGR, adhd, placental problems
effect of tetracycline on fetus
discolored teeth
effect of thalidomide on fetus
flipper limb
effect of valproate on fetus
inhibition of intestinal folate absorption, NTD
effect of vitamin A onfetus
spontaneous abortion, birth defects like cleft palate and cardiac abnormalities
effect of warfarin on fetus
abortion, bone deformity, fetal hemorrhage
what is sirenomelia
mermaid syndrome (legs fused together)
what is the leading cause of congenital malformation in US
fas
congenital abormalities seen with fas
microcephaly, holoprosencephaly, facial abnormalities, mr, limb dislocation, heart and lung fistula
facial abnormalities seen with fas
wide eyes, downward turn at end, flattened nasal bridge, long philtrum, low set ears
what is caudal regression syndrome
seen in maternal diabetes, where there is some sort of developmental failure in caudal area --- anal atresia, sirenomelia, LE paralysis and incontinence
when is the chorion formed
d3
when is the amnion formed
d8
if dichorionic, diamniotic, monozygotic twin with one placenta, when did split occur
before day 3
if monochorionic, diamniotic, monozygotic twin, when did split occur
day 3-8
if monochorionic, monoamniotic, monozygotic twin, when did split occur
after day 8
is chorion the outer or inner membrane
outer
conjoined twins have how many chorions and amnions
1 chorion, 1 amnion
when is amniocentesis performed
15-17w to check for genetics problems (chorionic villi sampling performed before this), or in 3rd trimester to check for lung maturity
to whom is amniocentesis offered (ie what age)
age >35
what is twin-twin transfusion
monoplacental twins -- one twin gets more blood, the other one has better developed lungs (increased cortisol from stress)
what cells form the inner lining of the chorionic villi
cytotrophoblast
which trophoblastic cell secretes hcg
syncytiotrophoblast
what is the decidua basalis derived from
endometrium
review picture of placenta
p122
how many umbilical arteries, veins
2 arteries, 1 vein
what does the umbilical artery drain
fetal internal iliac arteries
where does the umbilical vein drain into
IVC
significance of single umbilical artery
increased likelihood of congenital/chromosomal anomolies, esp renal
what are umbilical arteries and veins derived from
allantois
how does the umbilical cord degenerate
neutrophil response…LAD
when is the allantois formed
week 3
what does the allantois eventually form
urachus, which is the connection from the yolk sac to the bladder
what could occur if the urachus fails to obliterate
patent urachus (flow of urine through umbilicus), or vesicourachal diverticulum (outpouching of bladder)
how does blood flow from the maternal lacunae eventually to the IVC (lay out the steps)
syncytiotrophoblast -> cytotrophoblast -> myxomatous stroma of chorionic villus -> blood vessels that coalesce to form umbilical v -> liver which sends blood through hepatic sinusoids or ductus venosus -> IVC
describe the fate of each of these systems: vitelline, umbilical, cardinal
vitelline becomes portal system, umbilical degenerates, cardinal becomes systemic veins
when does the vitelline duct obliterate
week 7
what is the purpose of the yolk sac
erythropoiesis, nutrients, and waste
what is the urachus
connection from yolk sac to fetal bladder
what is the vitelline duct
connection from yolk sac to midgut
what could occur if the vitelline duct fails to obliterate
1. vitillene fistula -- connection to umbilicus that passes meconium 2. meckel diverticulum that may have ectopic gastric mucosa 3. vitelline sunus (sinus @ umbilicus) 4. vitelline cyst (cyst in middle of duct)
draw out the embryonic structure of the heart
p123
what does the truncus arteriosus give rise to
aorta, pulmonary trunk
what does the bulbis cordis give rise to
RV and smooth parts of LV and RV
what does the primitive ventricle give rise to
trabeculated pts of left and right ventricle
what does the primitive atria give rise to
trabeculated part of LA & RA
what does the left horn of the sinus venosus give rise to
coronary sinus
what does the right horn of the sinus venosus give rise to
smooth part of RA
what gives rise to the svc
right anterior cardinal v, right common cardinal v
what dzz can occur if the aorticopulmonary septum is not correct
transposition, persistent truncus arteriosus, tetrology of Fallot
sequence of events that occur in the development of the interventricular septum
formation of the muscular ventricular septum (which leaves opening -> interventricular foramen), aorticopulmonary septum grows downward and meets with muscular ventricular septum to form membranous part (closes foramen) -> endocardial cushion separates atria from ventricles and contributes to membranous IV septum
what can cause patent foramen ovale
too much resportion of septum primum or secondum
review interatrial septum development
p124
what organs are responsible for erythropoiesis in fetus and when do they do it
yolk sac (w3-8), liver (w6-30), spleen (w9-28), bm (>28w)
where does most erythropoiesis occur i.e. in which bones
vertebrae, sternum, pelvis, ribs, cranial, & until age 25, tibia and femur
three important shunts in fetus
1. ductosus venosus (bypasses hepatic circulation) 2. ductus arteriosus 3. foramen ovale
why does ductus arteriosus close in infants
when baby takes breath, pulmonary resistance decreases and flow through ductus arterosus has increased oxygen, which causes decreased prostaglandins
what 3 sections of brain exist in fetus at week 4
prosencephalon, mesencephalon, rhombencephalon
what 4 sections of brain exist in fetus at week 5
prosencephalon -> telencephalon & diencephalon; mesencephalon; rhombencephalon -> metencephalon & myelencephalon
what does the telencephalon give rise to
cerebral hemispheres and lateral ventricles
what does the diencephalon give rise to
thalamus, hypothalamus, optic n & tract, …, 3rd ventricle
what does the mesencephalon give rise to
midbrain and cerebral aqueduct
what does the metencephalon give rise to
pons and cerebellum
what does the myelencephalon give rise to
medulla
what gives rise to the fourth ventricle
rhombencephalon
failure of neuropores to close leads to a connection between
amniotic sac and spinal canal
what lab abormality associated with ntd
increased AFP and AChE
where does spina bifida usually occur
lower lumbar area
what is lissencephaly
smooth brain caused by failure of neural migration in week 12-24
what is pachygyria
thick gyri due to abnormal migration of neurons
what is schizencephaly
gray matter malformation
why is there polyhydramnios in anencephaly
no swallowing center
AFP level in anencepahly
elevated
what is holoprosencephaly
midline defect where hemispheres do not separate, results in cyclopia
what is holoprosencephaly assoc w
Patau, fas, cleft lip/palate
what gene is most likely to be mutated in holoprocencephaly
holoprosencephaly
what is chiari malformation
cerebellar tonsillar herniation through foramen magnum that can result in hydrocephaly
what is chiari malformation assoc w
syringomelia, thoracolumbar myelomingocele
what is dandy walker
absent cerebellar vermis with enlargement of v4 that leads to hydrocephalus
what is syringomyelia
enlargement of central canal of spinal cord that damages anterior white commisure and potentially anterior horn
most common location of syringomyelia
c8-t1
what does the first aortic arch form
maxillary a
what does the second aortic arch form
stapedial a, hyoid a
what does the third aortic arch form
common carotid, prox IC
what does the fourth aortic arch form
aortic arch (left) and prox subclavian (right)
what does the fifth aortic arch form
obliterates
what does the sixth aortic arch form
pulmonary a, ductus arteriosus
what are branchial clefts, arches, pouches derived from
cleft = ectoderm; arch = mesoderm & neural crest; pouch = endoderm
what do the branchial clefts develop into
1st cleft -> EAM; 2-4 = cervical sinuses that obliterate
what is dandy walker assoc w
hydrocephalus, spina bifida
where would branchial cysts be located on neck
lateral neck
what is treacher collins syndrome
1st arch neural crest cells fail to migrate. Mandibular hypoplasia and facial abnormalities
derivatives of first branchial arch
meckels cartilage (mandible, malleus, incus sphenomandibular ligament), muscles of mastication, mylohyoid, ant digastric, tensor tympani, tensor veli palatini, ant 2/3 tongue, CN v2, v3
derivatives of second branchial arch
reichart's cartilage (stapes, lesser hyoid, styloid process, stylohyoid ligament), facial mm, stapedius, stylohyoid, post digastric, cn7
derivatives of third branchial arch
greater hyoid, stylopharyngeus, cn9
derivatives of fourth branchial arch - cartilage, muscles, nerve
part of cartilages (thyroid, cricoid, arythenoid, cuneiform, cornicualte), pharyngeal constrictors, cricothyroid, levator veli palatini, CN X (sup laryngeal)
what forms posterior 1/3 tongue
branchial arches 3,4
what forms anterior 2/3 tongue
branchial arch 1
what is a congenital pharyngocutaneous fistula
fistula b/w tonsils and lateral neck (results from pouch 3 defect)
derivatives of sixth branchial arch
part of cartilages (thyroid, cricoid, arytenoid, corniculate, cuneiform), larynx mm except cricothyroid, CN10 (reccurent layrngeal)
which CNs have both motor and sensory components
V3, VII, IX, X
review picture of tongue
p129
derivates of first branchial pouch
eustachian tube, mastoid air cells, middle ear cavity
derivatives of second branchial pouch
epithelial lining of palatine tonsils
derivatives of 3rd branchial pouch
ventral wing becomes thymus. Dorsal wing becomes pt
derivates of 4th branchial pouch
superior pt (dorsal wings)
mutation in RET affects what type of cells
neural crest
what cranial nerves carry pain sensation from tongue
v3, ix, x
what are muscles of tongue derived from
occipital myotome
malformation of 3rd and 4th pouches can result in what syndrome
digeorge
what does thyroid arise from
floor of primitive pharynx
what does the thyroglossal duct connect
tongue and thyroid
what generates the pyramidal lobe of the thyroid
remant of thyroglossal duct
what is foramen cecum
normal remnant of thyroglossal duct
most common location of ectopic thyroid
tongue and thyroid
thyroglossal duct cyst vs branchial cleft cyst
thyroglossal duct is midline and moves with swallowing
cleft lip results from failure to fuse what
maxillary and medial nasal processes
cleft palate results from failure to fuse what
lateral palatine, medial palatine, and nasal septum
cleft lip vs cleft palate - epidemiology
lip = male, palate = female
complication of cleft lip/palate
eustachian tube dysfunction
gastrochesis vs ophalocele: appearance, location, associations
gastrochesis is more lateral, not covered by peritoneum, is extrusion through abdomen. Omphalocele is more medial, covered by peritoneum, herniation through umbilical cord, assoc w trisomy
failure to close rostral anterior abdominal wall
sternum defect
failure to close lateral anterior abdominal wall
gastroschesis and omphalocele
failure to close caudal anterior abdominal wall
bladder exostrophy
cause of jejunal, ileal, colonic atresia
vascular accident (apple peel atresia)
when does midgut herniate through umbilical ring
week 6
when does midgut return to abdominal cavity and rotate around sma
week 10
what could occur if midgut fails to herniate, return or rotate
volvulus, malrotation, omphalocele, intestinal atresia or stenosis
what is anal atresia associated with
GU abnormalities, urorectal/urovesical/urogenital fistuals, VACTERL
sx of TE fistula
polyhydramnios, bubble in stomach in CXR, cyanosis&choking&vomiting w/ feeding, pneumonitis
sx of congenital pyloric stenosis
palpable olive + nonbilious projectile vomiting
when does vomiting start for congenital pyloric stenosis
2w (NOT AT BIRTH)
tx for congenital pyloric stenosis
surgical incision
epidemiology of congenital pyloric stenoiss
1st born males
what does the dorsal pancreatic bud form
accessory pancreatic duct, most of head, body, and tail
what does the ventral pancreatic bud form
uncinate process, part of head, main pancreatic duct
what is annular pancreas? What type of vomiting
ventral bud wraps around 2nd part of duodenum. Bilious
what is pancreas divisum
dorsal and ventral bud don't fuse, separate bile drainage
when does dorsal and ventral bud of pancrease fuse normally
8w
when does pronephros degenerate
44w
how long does mesonephros last
for 1st trimester
when does metanephros begin
week 5
how long does nephrogenesis continue
up until w32-36
what induces mesenchyme to undergo differentiation in nephrogenesis
ureteric bud
is the ureteric bud cranial or caudal end of mesonephros
caudal
what does the ureteric bud give rise to
collecting ducts, calyces, pelvis, ureter
when does the ureteric bud become canalized
10w
what is the last site to canalize in kidney development
ureteropelvic junction
what is the most common site of hydronephrosis obstruction in fetus
ureteropelvic junction
what does the metanephric mesenchyme give rise to
glomerulus and all tubules up to DCT
during what period would the defect occur to produce potter's syndrome? Is it intrinsic or extrinsic
embryonic period (cuz it's malformation). Intrinsic
sx of potter's syndrome
oligohydramnios leads to limb deformities, lung hypoplasia, and facial deformities
where is fusion in horseshoe kidney, where does it get stuck
inferior poles. Gets stuck under ima at l3
kidney function in horsheoe kidney
normal
cause of potters syndrome
malformation of ureteric bud
what genital duct system degenerates in females
mesonephric
mechanism of mesonephric duct development in males
SRY gene on Y chromosome produces testes. Sertoli cells make mullerian inhibitory factor (suppresses mullerian), Leydig cells make testosterone (promotes wolffian)
what structures does the mesonephric duct develop into
seminal vesicle, ejaculatory duct, epidydimis, ductus deferens
what structures does the paramesonephric duct develop into
uterus, fallopian tubes, upper 1/3 of vagina
what causes bicornate uterus
incomplete fusion of paramesonephric duct
what is bicornate uterus associated with
GU deformities and infertility
what does the lower 2/3 of the vagina develop from
urogenital sinus
what is the female homolog to the glans penis? What do they originate from
glans clitoris. Genital tubercle
what is the female homolog to the corpus cavernosum and spongiosum? What do they originate from
vestibular bulbs. Genital tubercle
what is the male homolog to the greater vestibular glands of bartholin? What do they originate from
bulbourethral glands of cowper. Urogenital sinus
what is the female homolog to the prostate gland? What do they originate from?
urethral and paraurethral glands of skene. Urogenital sinus
what is the male homolog to the labia minora? What do they originate from
ventral shaft of penis. Urogenital fold
what is the male homolog to the labia majora? What do they originate from
scrotum. Labioscrotal swelling
what fails to fuse in hypospadias? Which side?
urogenital folds. Ventral
tx is needed for hypospadias or epispadias? Why?
hypospadias cuz of UTI
what causes epispadias? Which side
faulty positioning of genital tubercle. Dorsal
what does the gubernaculum form in males and females
males: attaches testes to scrotum. Females: ovarian ligament + round ligament
what does the processus vaginals form in males and females
males: tunica vaginalis. Females: obliterates
when is SIDS most likely to occur
2-4mo
what is pathogenesis of SIDS
improper CO2 detection centers in brain leads to death
risk factors for SIDS
SE status, use of drug/cigarette use during pregnancy
what gives rise to uncinate process of pancreas
ventral bud