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37 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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1. The liver bud of the developing gut develops into: pg 61
A. common bile duct B. hepatocytes C. gall bladder D. all of the above |
D. all of the above
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2. All of the following are derived from the midgut except: pg 63
A. duodenum B. ileum C. descending colon D. all are derived from the midgut *forgut – esophagus, stomach, duodenum, liver, mesenteries, pancreas *midgut – cephalic limb- distal duodenum, jejunum, proximal part of ileum - caudal limb- distal ileum, cecum, appendix, ascending colon, proximal 2/3 of transverse colon *hindgut – distal 1/3 of transverse colon, descending colon, sigmoid colon, rectum, proximal portion of anal canal, internal lining of bladder and urethra |
C. descending colon
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3. Which of the following is supplied by branches of the inferior mesenteric artery?
A. liver B. rectum C. duodenum D. none of the above |
B. rectum
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4. Most of the body of the pancreas develops from the dorsal pancreatic bud. Pg 61
A. true B. false *dorsal bud in dorsal mesentery; attached to duodenum via duct of Santorini *ventral bud close to bile duct; attached to duodenum via duct of Wirsung |
true
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5. Meckel’s diverticulum develops in association with the developing: pg 64
A. foregut B. midgut – persistent portion of vitelline duct; may contain hterotopic pancreatic tissue or gastric mucosa C. hindgut |
B. midgut – persistent portion of vitelline duct; may contain hterotopic pancreatic tissue or gastric mucosa
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6. cartilage of the larynx
7. hyoid bone 8. digastric muscle 9. maxilla 10. intrinsic muscles of larynx A. arch I B. arch II D. arch IV C. arch III E. arch VI AB. arches I and II AC. arches II and III AD. arches III and IV AE. arches IV and VI |
6. cartilage of the larynx AE. arches IV and VI
7. hyoid bone AC. arches II and III 8. digastric muscle AB. arches I and II 9. maxilla A. arch I 10. intrinsic muscles of larynx E. arch VI |
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11. Derivatives of both arch IV and VI are innervated by cranial nerve X. pg 72-73
A. true B. false *arch one – V, arch two – VII, arch three - IX |
true
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12. All of the following are derived from arch I except: pg 72
A. mylohyoid muscle B. stapes – arch 2 C. zygomatic bone D. all are derived from arch I |
B. stapes – arch 2
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13. parafollicular cells
14. superior parathyroid 15. eustacian tube 16. thymus 17. palatine tonsil A. pouch 1 B. pouch 2 C. pouch 3 D. pouch 4 E. ultimobranchial |
13. parafollicular cells E. ultimobranchial
14. superior parathyroid D. pouch 4 15. eustacian tube A. pouch 1 16. thymus C. pouch 3 17. palatine tonsil B. pouch 2 |
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18. Most of the thyroid gland is derived from the ultimobranchial body. Pg 73
A. true B. false *it is incorporated into thyroid gland to for parafollicular cells (produce calcitonin) |
false
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18. Most of the thyroid gland is derived from the ultimobranchial body. Pg 73
A. true B. false *it is incorporated into thyroid gland to for parafollicular cells (produce calcitonin) |
false
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19. The parathyroid glands are derived from pouch: pg 73
A. four B. five C. both D. neither |
A. four
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20. The cervical sinus is a remnant of pharyngeal cleft 1. Pg 74
A. true B. false *cleft one – forms external acoustic meatus *clefts 2-4 – form temporary cervical sinus |
false
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21. The hypobranchial eminence contributes to the formation of the ____ part of the tongue. Pg 74
A. anterior (2/3); oral part; arch 1 B. posterior (1/3); pharyngeal (root)– from arches 3&4 – separated from oral part by terminal sulcus C. both D. neither |
B. posterior (1/3); pharyngeal (root)– from arches 3&4 – separated from oral part by terminal sulcus
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22. General sensory innervation of the oral part of the tongue is supplied by cranial nerve: pg 74
A. V B. VII C. IX D. X *motor – CN XII; myoblasts derived from occipital myotomes *taste – -anterior – CN VII; facial nerve; chorda tympani -posterior – CN IX; glossopharyngeal nerve *general sensory – -anterior – mandibular division of CN V -posterior – mostly CN IX; some CN X just above the epiglottis |
A. V
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23. The term “stomodeum” refers to the opening of the primitive: pg 75
A. external acoustic meatus B. oral cavity, anterior end of gut tube , buccopharyngeal membrane (prechordal plate) C. eustacian tube D. none of the above |
B. oral cavity, anterior end of gut tube , buccopharyngeal membrane (prechordal plate)
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24. The attachment of the tongue to the floor of the mouth is called the frenulum.
A. true B. false |
true
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25. The lateral nasal prominence develops from the ____ prominence. Pg 76
A. maxillary B. mandibular C. both D. neither – from the frontonasal prominence |
D. neither – from the frontonasal prominence
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26. Structures of the nose are derived from the: pg 76
A. frontonasal prominence B. maxillary prominence C. both D. neither |
A. frontonasal prominence
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27. The nasolacrimal duct develops in the groove between the ____ and the____. Pg 76
A. medial nasal prominence, lateral nasal prominence B. lateral nasal prominence, maxillary prominence C. maxillary prominence, mandibular prominence D. none of the above |
B. lateral nasal prominence, maxillary prominence
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28. The intermaxillary segment develops from the: pg 76
A. lateral nasal prominences B. medial nasal prominences – philtrum of upper lip, portion of maxilla with 4 incisor teeth, primary palate C. both D. neither |
B. medial nasal prominences – philtrum of upper lip, portion of maxilla with 4 incisor teeth, primary palate
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29. Pharyngeal arch I contributes to the formation of all of the following except: pg 76
A. cheeks B. tongue C. primary palate – intermaxillary segment D. it contributes to all of the above |
C. primary palate – intermaxillary segment
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30. Most of the palate of the adult develops from the intermaxillary segment. Pg 77
A. true B. false *intermaxillary segment forms primary palate but the secondary palate is the major part of definitive palate |
false
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31. auricle
32. cochlea 33. middle ear cavity 34. semicircular ducts A. dorsal otic vesicle B. ventral otic vesicle C. tubotympanic recess D. pharyngeal arch I |
31. auricle D. pharyngeal arch I
32. cochlea B. ventral otic vesicle 33. middle ear cavity C. tubotympanic recess 34. semicircular ducts A. dorsal otic vesicle |
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35. The optic vesicle: pg 79-80
A. induces (ectoderm) the formation of the lens placode. B. is an outgrowth of the forebrain. – week 4 C. both D. neither *also invaginates to form optic cup and choroid fissure *posterior 4/5 optic cup (pars optica retinae) becomes retina *anterior 1/5 optic cup (pars cece retinae) becomes iris and ciliary body |
C. both
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36. optic nerve
37. neural layer of the retina 38. ciliary body A. pars optica retinae B. pars ceca retinae C. optic stalk |
36. optic nerve C. optic stalk
37. neural layer of the retina A. pars optica retinae 38. ciliary body B. pars ceca retinae |
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39. Which of the following is continuous with the dura mater of the brain? Pg 80
A. choroid layer of the eye – vascular; continuous with the pia mater of the brain B. sclera of the eye – tough, fibrous C. both D. neither |
B. sclera of the eye – tough, fibrous
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40. The bony labyrinth develops from mesenchyme around the otic vesicle. Pg 81
A. true B. false |
true
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41. The incisor teeth of the maxilla are derived from the: pg 76
A. maxillary prominence B. lateral nasal prominence C. medial nasal prominence - as well as philtrum of upper lip and primary palate D. all of the above |
C. medial nasal prominence - as well as philtrum of upper lip and primary palate
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42. Which of the following develops along the anterior border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle?
A. branchial cyst B. thyroglossal cyst C. both D. neither |
A. branchial cyst
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43. Which of the following is involved in the formation of a posterior cleft palate? Pg 79
A. maxillary prominence - cleft secondary palate, cleft uvula; lack of fushion of palatine shelves B. frontonasal prominence C. mandibular prominence D. all of the above |
A. maxillary prominence - cleft secondary palate, cleft uvula; lack of fushion of palatine shelves
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44. Rubella infection during the second month of development can cause damage to the developing: pg 80 & 82
A. eye B. ear C. both D. neither |
C. both
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45. Abnormal development of structures of_______ may result in deafness. Pg 81
A. arch I – incus and malleus B. arch II - stapes C. pouch 1 – tubotympanic recess D. all of the above |
D. all of the above
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46. Coloboma iridis results from failure of the _____ to close. Pg 80
A. choroid fissure - in area where iris forms B. pars optica retinae C. pars optica ceca |
A. choroid fissure - in area where iris forms
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47. The eyes initially appear:
A. on the ventral surface of the frontonasal prominence superior to the nasal placodes B. on the lateral sides of the head C. low on the sides of the neck and then move superiorly as the structures of the neck form D. none of the above |
B. on the lateral sides of the head
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48. The incisive foramen is found: pg 77
A. at the back of the oral part of the tongue B. in the roof of the mouth between the primary and secondary palate C. on the anterior surface of the maxilla inferior to the orbit D. none of the above |
B. in the roof of the mouth between the primary and secondary palate
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49. DiGeorge sequence is a serious condition that can present with: pg 78
A. poor calcium regulation B. impaired immune function C. both D. neither *hypoplasia of thymus and parathyroid glands; cardia anomalies (aortic arch anomalies, persistent truncus arteriosis); malformed mouth |
C. both
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