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525 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
Some facts about drug users that may assist in recognizing problem areas during a drug investigation are set forth as follows. Indicate the one that is erroneous. |
Chronic abuse of drugs is generally not considered a symptom of mental or emotional illness |
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A craving for a drug is exhibited often by the following: |
Water running from nose or eyes, Frequent yawning or sneezing & Continual itching of arms and legs |
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One whose sexual desires are directed to both men and women is known as a:
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Bisexual
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In an investigation concerning regulations of common carriers in interstate commerce or investigation of railroad accidents, a good source of information would be the:
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Interstate Commerce Commission
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The person best suited for physical surveillance work is one who:
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Will blend into the area
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The primary tool of pre-employment screening is the:
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Application form
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Which of the following is not a correct statement as a general rule involving the protection of proprietary information?
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Any agreements to be bound must always be in writing and are not implied from acts
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The process of combining a number of transmissions into one composite signal to be sent over one link is called:
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Multiplexing |
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The method used to monitor telephone calls by providing a record of all numbers dialed from a particular phone is called: |
Pen register
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A microphone with a disc like attachment that is used for listening to audio from great distances is known as a(n):
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Parabolic microphone
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What process does a security manager use in establishing priorities in the protection of assets? |
Audit survey, Security survey & Risk analysis or assessment |
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From a security perspective, what is the first factor to be considered in facility construction?
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The building site itself
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The intrusion detection system that is used on safes, walls, and openings in an effort to establish an electrostatic field around an object to be protected is known as a(n):
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Capacitance detection system
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The intrusion detection system in which a pattern of radio waves is transmitted and partially reflected back to the antenna (Doppler principle) is known as a(n):
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Microwave detection system
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An alarm system in which the installation-owned system is a direct extension of the police or fire alarm system is known as a(n):
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Auxiliary system
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UL standards for the resistance to picking to align tumblers should be at least:
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10 minutes
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The theft triangle consists of the following components:
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DOM |
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The ionization fire detector warns of fire by responding to:
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Invisible products of combustion emitted by a fire at its earliest stages
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The federal criminal law is contained in:
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Title 18 of the U.S. Code
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The makeup of a federal grand jury is:
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16-23 jurors
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A lamp that is on for 8 hours a day will burn for 2,290 hours per year and if the bulb has 1700 lumens the wattage will be:
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100 Watt
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Generally, what is considered a high-rise structure?
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Between 75 feet (23 meters) and 100 feet (30 meters) or approximately 7-10 stories depending on the slab-to-slab height between floors and a high-rise structure is considered to be one that extends higher than the maximum reach of available fire-fighting equipment
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The interior of high rise structures should be divided into three types or classes of areas for access control purposes
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Public access or common areas, rented or assigned occupancies and maintenance spaces
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The term “Security in Depth” refers to: |
A series of barriers in a protection program.
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Stores that rely on stapling packages shut with the register tape folded over the top of the bag do this:
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On the assumption that employees will not help each other
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ISO/IEC 27001 is best defined as:
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Inter-connected with ISO/IEC 27002 because it selects controls within the process of implementing an Information Security Management System based on ISO/IEC 27001
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A maximum of how many feet is recommended between posts on a chain link fence?
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10 feet
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An employee at your company is thought to be an alcoholic and the only likely action management should take is:
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Giving Employee Assistance Counselling a notification so that the employee can be helped
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What are the 2 types of audits generally conducted?
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Internal and External
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As a security director you have been tasked with devising a cost effective CCTV camera system to be monitored by the security staff and are tasked with placing four cameras on one monitor. The necessary equipment needed to achieve this is one of the following?
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Switcher
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Defining an organization's overall strategic purpose is essential for developing company specific management practices. The organizational strategy defined why the business exist and how it will maintain itself profitable, viable entity. To answer these questions a company is required to look at business not only in the moment but also |
3 to 5 years out
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This element of the report when considering investigative documentation contains the details of the investigative effort and provides an easily understood recitation of the chronology of the investigative process including the facts of the matter
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Narrative
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When a loss of proprietary information is discovered, which of the following steps should be taken first?
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Attempt to recover the material, Attempt to apprehend perpetrators, Assess economic damage and Re-evaluate the protection system
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These are often used at sports stadiums because they imitate daylight; for the same reason, they work well with video surveillance systems by providing accurate color rendition: |
Metal halide
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This lamp takes several minutes to produce full light output, and has poor color rendition for video surveillance, but does have a long life:
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Mercury vapor
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Voluntary agreement within an industry to assist one another
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Mutual aid association (MAA):
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Persons whose non-blood fluids contain substances similar to red blood cells; 75% of population
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Secretors
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A well-known honesty test
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Reid report:
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Shows habits, fears, sexual attitudes, depression, and evidence of social introversion
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MMPI
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Security problem evaluated in three quantitative terms: types of risks, probability of those risks becoming actual losses, and impact if the loss occurs
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Loss event profile
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What are the 3 Major security processes to provide total protection for an organization?
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Personnel Security – Most critical of the three
Information Security Physical Security |
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Comprehensive Emergency Management (CEM) has the following 4 elements:
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Mitigation, Preparedness, Response & Recovery
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List the 3 purposes or objectives of an Emergency Operation Plan (EOP):
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1. Anticipate & prepare for business interuptions from threats or emergencies
2. Provide action to mitigate & ensure proper flow of critical information if an event occurs 3. Planning is essential to recovery & resuming normal operations |
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5 Priorities of an Emergency Operation Plan include:
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1. Protect life
2. Prevent or minimize injury 3. Reduce the exposure of assets 4. Optimize loss control for assets that are exposed 5. Restore normal operations |
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What is the overall objective of disaster control planning?
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Focusing on the solutions to major problems -- NOT to bring order out of chaos, and to prevent a disaster from becoming tragedy.
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3 priciples of a Disaster Control Plan are:
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Coordinated planning, Mutual assistance, & Community resources
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The development of the diaster control plan typically includes the following:
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1. Time consuming
2. Reduced to writing 3. Outlines specific responsibilities 4. Kept simple |
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An Emergency Management Team or EMT does the following:
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1. Coordinates responsibilities
2. Develops, deploys and tests the plan 3. A coordinator provides general direction during emergency and talks to top management 4. On-Scene response coordinator oversees actins at the incident location |
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Testing a plan is:
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1. Most practical way to discover deficiencies
2. Valuable training 3. tested annually 4. Revised as needed |
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Four advanced plan points to consider are:
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1. Do make the plan directive in nature
2. Don't restrict its distribution to only senior management 3. Plan maintenance (review & update regularly) 4. Plant or facility manager, President or CEO activates plan |
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Fire tetrahedron differs from the fire triangle (combustion triangle) because of adding the following component:
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A chemical reaction to the other three already present in Fire Triangle (Heat, Fuel & Oxygen)
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Class A Fire is described as:
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Ash-producing fire (paper, rags, wood) or other carbonaceous solids where water or water fog is used to quench the fire. GREEN TRIANGLE FIRE EXTINGUISHER
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Class B Fire is described as:
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Volatile fluid fire (gas, oil, grease, etc.) where a smothering action is required to extinguish like CO2 or water fog. RED SQUARE FIRE EXTINGUISHER
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Class C Fire is described as:
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Usually involving a Class A or B fire, but also involves energized electrical equipment. Carbon Dioxide, Dry powder, or vaporizing liquid is effective but water and foam should not be used because they can be conductive. BLUE CIRCLE FIRE EXTINGUISHER
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Class D Fire is described as:
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Fires involving certain combustible metals, such as magnesium, sodium, potassium, and their alloys. A special dry powder that has a special smothering and coating agent should be used and is not suited for use on other classes of fires. YELLOW STAR FIRE EXTINGISHER
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What are the four stages of a fire?
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FISH...
Flame, Incipient, Smoldering, & Heat |
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Data media must be protected in specially insulated records containers which protect the contents against temperatures and humidity levels not to exceed:
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150 degrees or 80% humidity
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The key countermeasure when trying to prevent bombs or bomb scares is:
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Access control over the entry of personnel and material
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If a suspicious device or object is found the following considerations should taken:
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1. Only Explosive Ordinance Disposal personnel touch or use bomb blanket to isolate device.
2. Establish 300’ clear zone including the floors above and below. 3. Clear zone may include adjacent buildings in the urban environment. 4. Leave doors and windows open to vent blast. |
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A civil disaster planning committee should be staffed by the following people
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Director of Security, Personnel Manager, and Facility or Property Manager
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The emergency plan is tested at least:
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Annually
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The responsibility of Disaster Planning is a shared responsibility of who?
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Government and Industry
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This MUST be distributed to all personnel with the responsibility for action
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Emergency Plan
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“Vital Records” are those necessary to insure the survival of the business. Vital records usually constitute no more than what percent of a corporation’s records?
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2%
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Responsibility for a shutdown should be assigned to persons :
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Most familiar with the process
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The emergency plan is activated by:
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The facility manager, the President, or the CEO
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The emergency plan should be?
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Directive
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In a fire, the facility must have?
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“The capability to respond quickly with well trained personnel to contain and extinguish the fire”.
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In a high rise building, partial evacuation includes?
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The floor above and the floor below
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The most common of all terrorist tactics is?
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Bombing
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A tidal wave (TSUNAMI) is caused by:
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Underwater disturbances
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A large proportion of energy in a nuclear explosion is emitted in the form of light and heat and is generally referred to as
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Thermal radiation
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In assessing the vulnerability of individual facilities, major factors considered are:
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Environment
Indigenous Economic |
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The one thing that distinguishes disasters or major emergencies from the emergencies plant personnel deal with each day is the need for:
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Coordinated emergency operations
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The basic emergency plan should be made up of three elements:
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1. Authority
2. Types of emergencies 3. Plan execution |
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This alarms when light source is interrupted
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Photoelectric detector |
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Reacts to emissions from flame
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Infrared flame detector
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Reacts to significant changes in temperature
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Thermal detector
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The most significant hazard threatening industrial facilities is:
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Fire
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This term means preparation has reached the point where you are prepared to react promptly to save life and protect property if the plant is threatened or hit by a major emergency.
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Emergency Readiness
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The most frequent strike and one that must be preceded by at least 60 days notice is called
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Economic Strike
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This is known as the amount of combustible materials that occupies its interior spaces
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Fire Loading
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The causes of most fires are:
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Carelessness and ignorance
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This is a management method used to minimize risks through application of security measures commensurate with the threat
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“Risk analysis”
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The major resource required for a risk analysis is:
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Manpower
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The percentage of computer security incidents that result from insider attacks by dishonest and disgruntled employees is
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80%
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What percentage of computer security incidents annually are attributed to “hackers”
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1%
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This is issued when it is determined that winds of 74 mph or higher will be encountered?
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A “hurricane warning”
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Manual fire alarm stations are of two types:
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1. Local alarms - alerting personnel in building
2. Station alarms - signal is transmitted directly to a monitoring station |
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Most sprinklers will operate at temperatures between:
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130 and 165 F.
|
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What are the five key components in the investigative process?
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1. Objectivity
2. Thoroughness 3. Relevance 4. Accuracy 5. Timeliness |
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What are 3 main goals in an investigation?
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1. Identify parties involved
2. Identify sources 3. Present evidentiary factors to support investigative findings |
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What is the goal of Investigative process?
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Draw a Hypothesis and Conclusion
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What are the 3 I’s?
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Information
Interrogation Instrumentation |
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Identify three types of investigations:
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1. Applicant and Background
2. Incident 3. Administrative Inquiries |
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Name three basic RATES of Explosions
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1. Flash Fire
2. Explosions 3. Detonations |
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What are 3 TYPES of Explosions
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1. Mechanical
2. Chemical 3. Nuclear |
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The principle cost of investigations is
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Personnel costs
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The single most important administrative control in investigations is:
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Indexing
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Name 2 types of surveillance:
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physical (human) and technical (electronic)
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In federal courts, the usual prosecutor is: |
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In substance, a crime is: |
An act or omission prohibited by law for which a penalty is provided |
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In a criminal trial, the burden of proof required to find guilt is: |
Beyond a reasonable doubt |
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The release of a convicted person under certain conditions without having to be imprisoned is known as |
Probation |
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The release from confinement of a person who has served part of a sentence is called: |
Parole |
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The process in which a court abides by a previous court decision is known as: |
Stare decisis |
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The crime of unlawful entry into or remaining within a building, with intent to commit some crime therein is: |
Burglary |
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To make proof of intent easier in proving shoplifting, many stores have a policy which requires apprehension of a suspect to be made: |
After the accused leaves the premises |
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The private person generally may arrest without a warrant: |
For a crime committed in his presence |
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The Supreme Court decision which holds that no suspect, in a custodial environment, may be asked any questions until he has first been warned that he need not make any statement and advised of other rights is the: |
Miranda decision |
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The Amendment to the U.S. Constitution which deals with searches and seizures is: |
4th Amendment |
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As a general rule, searches may be made of employee lockers and desks located on the premises of the company: |
If consent is given by the employee |
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When a law enforcement agent induces the commission of an offense not otherwise contemplated, the accused may use an affirmative defense known as: |
Entrapment |
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The imputation of another's negligence to the employer is described as: |
Vicarious liability |
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What are examples of intangible assets? |
Customer confidence and trade secrets |
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What is key in dealing with security-related issues? |
Experiences |
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examples of financial and physical assets include? |
Facilities and equipment |
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Support assistance does not include: |
Human capital resources provided to customers and employees involved in a catastrophic event |
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Subject matter expertise does not include the following: |
Working knowledge of several security disciplines |
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This is considered a true statement about compensating Chief Security Officers? |
Comparable to other organizational executive leadership positions at the same level |
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This is most desirable for Chief Security Officers |
Quality, type of experience, and other directly-related accomplishments |
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This is a requirement for Chief Security Officers? |
Ability to analyze, understand, and explain security initiatives to senior executives |
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What position and/or skillset builds, motivates, and leads a professional team attuned to organizational culture, responsive to business needs, and committed to integrity and excellence? |
Executive management and leadership |
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This is not an example of benchmark processes and services that the Chief Security Officer must grasp |
Quality Assurance Expertise |
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Responsibility for a workplace violence prevention and intervention program falls on? |
Interdisciplinary array of professionals |
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What lies at the heart of successful workplace violence prevention and response efforts? |
Education and awareness |
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In the event of serious injury, death, or other circumstances, who may management have the responsibility to ensure proper notification? |
Next of kin or partner |
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In states that permit employers to obtain restraining orders covering the workplace, what might organizations chose to evaluate? |
Feasibility and desirability of obtaining a restraining order |
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What is not a good example of warning signs associated with intimate partner violence |
Phone calls or emails from a current or former partner |
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If an organization is concerned about potential dangerous employee, what may they do? |
Seek at a police agency’s request for FBI assistance |
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What is not a role of law enforcement when dealing with workplace incidents? |
Limiting its focus to emergency responses |
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Which is important to violence risk assessments? |
Threat Management Teams should acknowledge the limits of their expertise |
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Which of the following is true concerning the relationship between workplace violence and mental disorders? |
Employers should secure the advice of qualified threat assessment professionals |
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What is not true concerning workplace violence training conducted by organizations? |
Must be singular and focused |
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This is a systematic process whereby assets are identified and valuated, credible threats to those assets are enumerated, applicable vulnerabilities are documented, potential impacts or consequences of a loss event are described, and a qualitative or quantitative analysis of resulting risks is produced: |
Risk Assessment |
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Some common levels/or terms are commonly used in various business and organizational settings to distinguish the degree of sensitivity or degree of protection warranted can include confidential, restricted, limited, non-public and some others but it is thought that it becomes too cumbersome and complicated if using more than _____ levels. |
4 |
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The first step in implementing an IAP is to identify the information that may need to be: |
Labeled and protected |
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This monitors for malicious programs and unauthorized changes to files and settings: |
Intrusion Detection Systems (IDS) |
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This is the process of removing the data on the media before the media can be reused and in general, laboratory techniques cannot retrieve the data: |
Sanitizing |
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This is a software process that replaces the data previously stored on magnetic storage media with a predetermined set of meaningless data |
Overwriting |
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This is the process of physically damaging the media to the level that the media is not usable as media, whereby there is no known method of retrieving the data |
Destroying |
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This involves obscuring the meaning of a piece of information by altering or encoding it in such a way that it can only be decoded, read and understood by people for whom the information is intended |
Encryption |
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This is a process of eradicating the data on the media and can be accomplished by overwriting or degaussing (reducing or eliminating and unwanted magnetic field), but generally laboratory techniques allow the retrieval of information: |
Clearing |
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Secrecy, the state of having the dissemination of certain information restricted: |
Confidentiality |
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This is a measurement of the warmth or coolness of a light. It is measured in degrees Kelvin which is the Centigrade (Celsius) absolute temperature scale where 0⁰K is approximately 272⁰C. |
Corrected Color Temperature (CCT) |
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Generally there are three classifications to CPTED strategies and they are: |
Mechanical measures, Organizational measures and Natural or Architectural measures |
|
An effective vehicle barrier can include large heavy planters made of concrete, reinforced with glass-fiber, strengthened with steel bars and sometimes can be anchored to the ground should be spaced apart from each other: |
3 feet |
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Some Planters, bollards and barriers are available in crash-rated configurations that meet Department of Defense (DOD) K-ratings and include K4, K8 and K12. What is the rating of a K8? |
Designed to stop a 15,000 pound vehicle traveling 40mph |
|
Regular plate, float, sheet, rolled, and some patterned surface glasses are examples of: |
Annealed |
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This type of lock consists of an electromagnet (attached to the door frame) and an armature plate (attached to the door) |
Electromagnetic lock |
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This is an exterior lighting application that deters potential intruders by making it difficult to see into an area. It also illuminates the intruders themselves: |
Glare projection |
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Regarding placement in outdoor applications this type of lighting is recommended, because it gives a broader, more natural light distribution, requires fewer poles (less hazardous to the driver), and is more aesthetically pleasing than standard lighting, although it is subject to lightning strikes. |
High mast lighting |
|
These alarm types include but are not limited to: point-to-point, area, buried cable, etc., and rely on a consistent reception level of its transmitted or reflected energy. When the energy level changes due to reflection or deflection, an alarm is transmitted. |
Microwave detection |
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These are sometimes called standard operating procedures, and state the essential elements of security officers’ work assignments: |
Post orders |
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The investigation's best approach to questioning relies on the following: |
A suspect is innocent until proven guilty. |
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Which of the following investigative resources should not normally be used in a gambling investigation conducted by a proprietary investigative force? |
Telephone surveillance |
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This is not one of the desired characteristics of a statement obtained during a claim investigation: |
It should be in short paragraphs with two spaces between each paragraph. |
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What is not usually applicable to a confession? |
It is often applied to civil transactions. |
|
The age discrimination in the Employment Act of 1967 bans discrimination against workers or applicants who are: |
At least 40 but less than 65 |
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The rule that states that approximately one in ten applications will have major omissions, which will require going back to the applicant, is called: |
The Rule of Ten |
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In situations in which at least one party to a communication is aware and willing that the recording of his or her conversation with another person or persons is being made, it is: |
Not a violation |
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What is an advantage of having investigation conducted by in-house security staff? |
In-house staff has better grasp as to objective of the investigation |
|
The effectiveness of the voice analyzer in accurately detecting deception is: |
Not determined |
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Under court interpretations of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, what question is not allowed during investigations? |
Questions regarding prior arrests |
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The witness's idea of the suspect, described in words, is called: |
Portrait parle |
|
The purpose for employing an access control program includes: |
To protect persons, materials, or information, to slow or speed up the rate of movement to, from, or within an establishment and to permit or deny entrance |
|
Identification and access control systems have the widest application of: |
Manual identification systems |
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A general defect of manual identification systems is that: |
Once issued, they tend to remain valid indefinitely. |
|
What is most likely the main reason for loss of sensitive information? |
An employee's loose lips and Inadvertent disclosure |
|
The characteristics of a trade secret as compared with other confidential information are: |
Continuous or consistent business applications of a secret not known to others, from the use of which some advantage is gained by the user |
|
Proprietary information is: |
Anything that an enterprise considers relevant to its status or opera |
|
What is not a correct statement as a general rule involving the protection of proprietary information? |
Any agreements to be bound must always be in writing and are not implied from acts |
|
In designing a proprietary information protection program, the area of greatest vulnerability is: |
Employees |
|
In devising proprietary information procedures, which of the following is considered to be a main area of paper or document vulnerability? |
A technical report system |
|
When a loss of proprietary information is discovered, which of the following steps should be taken first? |
Attempt to recover the material, attempt to apprehend the perpetrators, assess economic damage, and re-evaluate the protection system. |
|
The first federal legislation that attempted to regulate electronic surveillance in the United States was enacted by Congress in: |
1934 |
|
The public statute passed to protect personal information in possession of federal agencies is: |
The Privacy Act of 1974 |
|
What are the three most common methods of information loss to be guarded against? |
Theft by an insider, inadvertent disclosure, industrial espionage |
|
The overall policy guidance for the Defense Industrial Security Program is provided by: |
The Deputy Undersecretary of Defense for Policy |
|
The Defense Industrial Security Program on behalf of all user agencies is administered by the: |
Director, Defense Investigative Service |
|
The executive order that applies to classified information is: |
E.O. 12065 |
|
A controlled area established to safeguard classified material that, because of its size or nature, cannot be adequately protected by other prescribed safeguards is termed to be: |
A closed area |
|
The DIS regional office under the support of the director of industrial security that has jurisdiction over the geographical area in which a facility is located is called the: |
Cognizant Security Office |
|
Technical and intelligence information derived from foreign communications by other than the intended recipient is known as: |
Communications intelligence |
|
The designation that should be applied to information or material showing unauthorized disclosure that could reasonably be expected to cause damage to national security is: |
Confidential |
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Technical information used for training, maintenance, and inspection of classified military munitions of war would be classified as: |
Confidential |
|
A designation or marking that identifies classified operational keying material and that indicates the material requiring special consideration with respect to access, storage, and handling is: |
Crypto |
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The portion of internal security that is concerned with the protection of classified information in the hands of U.S. industry is called: |
Industrial security |
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The result of any system of administrative policies and procedures for identifying, controlling, and protecting from unauthorized disclosure of information and is authorized by executive order or statute is called: |
Communications security |
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The designation that shall be applied only to information or material that unauthorized disclosure could reasonably be expected to cause serious damage to national security is: |
Secret |
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Information regarding the revelation of significant military plans or intelligence operations should be classified as: |
Secret |
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The designation that should only be applied to information or material that unauthorized disclosure could reasonably be expected to cause exceptionally grave damage to national security is: |
Top secret |
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Information that could lead to the compromise of vital national defense plans or complex cryptologic and communications intelligence systems should be classified: |
Top secret |
|
Regulations of the Department of Defense require that the contractor shall establish such procedures as are necessary to ensure that any employee discovering the loss, compromise, or suspected compromise of classified information outside a facility promptly reports to: |
The nearest FBI office |
|
What should definitely not appear on the identification card of employees of defense contractors? |
Top secret, secret, or confidential |
|
The basic document for conveying to the contractor the classification and declassification specifications for a classified contract is: |
DD Form 254 |
|
A document that is classified "confidential" shall exhibit the marking at: |
Both the top and bottom of the page |
|
Unclassified material should be marked: |
With no marking |
|
An unclassified document that is attached to a classified document should have a notation stating: |
"Unclassified when separated from classified enclosure" |
|
Foreign classified material should be marked in accordance with instructions received from: |
The foreign contracting authority |
|
Department of Defense regulations regarding the protection of classified information requires that defense contractors maintain accountability of top secret information for a minimum time of: |
Three years |
|
What is prohibited by the Department of Defense regulations regarding the method of transmitting top secret information outside a facility? |
U.S. Postal Service |
|
For personnel security clearances required in connection with a facility security clearance, applications shall be submitted to the: |
Cognizant Security Office |
|
According to Department of Defense regulations, "interim" personnel security clearances must be approved by the: |
Contracting officer |
|
Department of Defense regulations require initial approval in writing prior to processing any classified information in an ADP system by which of the following authorities: |
Cognizant Security Office |
|
An ADP system that operates in a manner where all users with access to the system have both a security clearance and a need to-know status for all classified information that is in the system is known as: |
Dedicated Security Mode |
|
An ADP system that operates in a manner in which all users with access to the system who have a security clearance for the highest classification and most restrictive types of information in the system is known as: |
System High Security Mode |
|
The Department of Defense Personnel Security Questionnaire (Industrial) Form is: |
DD 48 |
|
What schedule has an accepted medical use in treatment and a low potential for abuse with limited psychological and physical dependence when compared to other substances and drugs? |
Schedule IV |
|
The primary federal law that provides the legal foundation for the current federal strategy of reducing the consumption of illicit drugs is: |
Title II, Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act of 1970 |
|
The Federal Act mandates that for simple possession of any controlled substance the first offense is: |
Up to 1 year in jail/prison and/or a $5000 fine |
|
The federal trafficking penalty for a Schedule I narcotic that is the first offense is: |
15 years in prison and/or a $25,000 fine |
|
The main source of nonsynthetic narcotics is: |
Poppy, Papaver somniferus |
|
Narcotics are known by a number of trade names. One of the trade names is: |
Paregoric |
|
Watery eyes, runny, nose, yawning, loss of appetite, irritability, tremors, panic, chills and sweating, cramps, and nausea would indicate withdrawal symptoms of: |
Heroin |
|
What is not a correct statement regarding methadone? |
Methadone is only effective when administered by injection. |
|
What drug has a brand name of Quaalude and is classified as a "depressant" under the Controlled Substances Act? |
Methaqualone |
|
Which ISO standard covers quality management systems? |
ISO 9001:2000 |
|
Risk management generally includes: |
Risk treatment |
|
Which statement best describes risk: |
Frequency rather than probability |
|
Which ISO standard covers information technology? |
ISO 27001:2005 |
|
What is a possible source of danger, or conditions that have a capacity to produce a particular type of adverse effects? |
Hazard |
|
Which ISO standard covers environmental management systems? |
ISO 14001:2004 |
|
What is a potential cause of an unwanted incident, which may result in harm to individuals, assets, or the environment? |
Threat |
|
What best describes a group of individuals functionally responsible for directing the development and execution of the response and operational continuity plan? |
Crisis management team |
|
What is an event that causes great damage or loss? |
Disaster |
|
What creates susceptibility to a source of risk that can lead to a consequence? |
Vulnerability |
|
Three financial reports or statements have become accepted as standards, created in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles, that make it possible to paint a clear picture of a company's current and prospective financial health. Two of these reports are: the income statement and balance sheet. The third report is: |
Statement of cash flows |
|
Calculating the return on investment (ROI) is an effective way to compare the desirability of different ways of spending. Which best describes ROI? |
(Investment value at end of period/Investment value beginning of period) - 1 |
|
What organization is the administrator and coordinator of the U.S. private sector voluntary standardization system? |
American National Standards Institute |
|
What is the operating principle of ISO’s management systems standards? |
Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle |
|
What family of standards addresses environmental management? |
ISO 14000 |
|
Which term best describes the establishment of performance metrics and evaluates its resilience performance? |
Performance evaluation |
|
Private policing is related to the larger notion of privatization. Which best describes the evidence related to private firms? |
Private firms can deliver more efficient services at lower cost |
|
Peter Drucker, an authority on management, identified the first and most critical question in defining business purpose and mission? |
Who is the customer? |
|
The management principle which suggests that one supervisor can effectively control a limited number of people is? |
Span of control |
|
The theory developed by Dr. Frederick Herzberg that worker satisfaction comes from the work itself and not from factors such as salary and benefits is: |
The work motivation theory |
|
Oscar Neuman published a classic in which he presented ideas and applied strategies from a New York public housing project to aid in reducing the risk of being victimized, and reducing the fear of crime when on the streets. What is the name of this book? |
Defensible Space |
|
In order to properly initiate effective control measures, it is necessary for the security manager to be knowledgeable of the pertinent characteristics and effects of the use of controlled substances. What is the best and most relevant definition of "addiction"? |
A condition resulting from repeated use of a drug in which physical dependence is established because of biochemical and physiological adaptation to the drug |
|
What asset protection strategy can be used as a blueprint for developing security objectives? |
WAECUP |
|
A simplified answer to the question of why employees steal is: |
The theft triangle |
|
What asset protection strategy points out potential sources of threats? |
STEP |
|
What asset protection strategy can be used as a model for analyzing proposd organizational projects? |
SWOT |
|
Which tool follows six attributes to evaluate the attractiveness of a target for attack? |
CARVER model |
|
In loss prevention management the budget is a basic management tool. What is the oldest and simplest type of budget? |
Line item budget |
|
A tool for evaluating the purpose of a space, its definition, in terms of management and identity, and its design as it relates to desired function is referred to as? |
CPTED 3-D and beyond |
|
What is not a recommended action in planning for continuity of management during an emergency? |
Prepare a job classifications file showing interrelated skills. |
|
Measured horizontally 6 inches above ground level and at least 30 feet outside the exclusion area to barrier, the perimeter band of lighting must provide a minimum intensity of: |
0.2 foot-candle |
|
For a search with voluntary consent to be valid, the person being searched must: |
1. Be aware of his or her rights 2. Not be coerced in any way 3. Be the person giving the consent 4. Give consent in writing whenever possible |
|
The hallucinogen mescaline is derived from: |
The peyote cactus |
|
A controlled area established to safeguard classified material that, because of its size or nature, cannot be adequately protected by other prescribed safeguards is termed to be: |
Closed area |
|
According to a consensus of drug treatment professionals, the drug that now poses a greater risk to the user than any other drug of abuse is: |
Phencyclidine |
|
The term used to refer to the body of the crime and all the elements necessary to prove that a crime has been committed is: |
Mens rea |
|
Many offenses that do not require proof of intent are called: |
Strict liability crimes |
|
Entry of personnel and materials is: |
most important countermeasure to bombs |
|
The most common safety device are: |
Smoke detectors |
|
Detects invisible products of combustion (germinal/ incipient sensor) |
Ionization fire detector |
|
This includes the floor above and below the fire |
Partial high-rise evacuation |
|
Planning/prevention, mutual assistance, and community resources is called: |
Disaster control |
|
proposals, analysis, alternate plans, and methods for achieving future goals is: |
Planning |
|
Any condition, behavior, or object that can cause accident, injury, or death is a: |
Hazard |
|
An evacuee holding area is at least how many feet away? |
300 |
|
Vehicle stand off distance is at least how many feet? |
80 |
|
Fact-finding searching, examining, observing, collecting, and studying in order to respond to an inquiry or problem so a hypothesis or conclusion can be drawn is known as: |
Investigation |
|
The principle cost of any investigation is: |
Personnel cost |
|
3 tools sometimes referred to as the 3 I's? |
Information, interviewing, instrumentation |
|
What are the three investigative goals in any investigation? |
ID parties involved, ID information sources, present evidence |
|
There are generally 3 types of Investigations and they are: |
applicant/background, incident investigations, administrative inquiries |
|
List the five investigative elements |
TATOR:
Timeliness Accuracy Thorough Objectivity Relevance
|
|
What are 7 common investigations: |
Claims, misconduct, explosion/arson, sabotage, theft, traffic, and undercover |
|
A union representative to be present if requested by union member is known as: |
NLRB v. Weingartten |
|
A sudden, violent, and noisy gaseous expansion is the definition of: |
An explosion |
|
What are 3 explosion categories: |
Flash fire, explosions, detonations (compounded explosions) |
|
List 5 fundamental explosions: |
Boiler, flammable gas, chemical, dust, nuclear |
|
Black powder, smokeless powder and nitrocellulose are all: |
Low explosives |
|
Secretive observation of persons/places/things to obtain information |
Surveillance |
|
What are two types of surveillance? |
Physical (human) and technical (electronic) |
|
What are the 3 most common undercover techniques? |
OSI...
Operative, Surveillance and Informants. |
|
What is the most important aspect of an undercover operation |
Credible cover |
|
A document duplicating the text of a questioned document in order to show that it is the product of a particular person or machine (e.g., handwriting/typewriter) |
Exemplar |
|
This speaks for itself (e.g., fingerprints) |
Real evidence |
|
3 evidence categories are: |
Movable, fixed, fragile |
|
This test locates nitrates on skin/clothing (i.e., proximity to discharged firearm) |
Walker test |
|
This is the study of body language based on behavioral patterns of non verbal communication |
Kinesics |
|
Study of words, meanings, and human interaction through communication |
Semantics |
|
Charred wood in scaled pattern is called: |
Alligatoring |
|
Pattern of thin irregular lines in glass exposed to high temperatures |
Craze lines |
|
Minute irregular lines on the edge of broken glass caused by sudden/powerful force |
Hackle marks |
|
List the 8 informant types |
One-time, occasional, employee, anonymous, criminal, personal, mental, and controlled |
|
What is AFIS? |
Automatic fingerprint identification system |
|
What is AIMS? |
Arson information management system |
|
Define the 4 spatial zones |
Public (>=12ft.) Social (1-12 ft.) Personal (1.5 to 4 ft.) Intimate (< 1.5 ft.) |
|
Some known homicide facts include: |
50% 8 PM – 2 AM Fri/Sat; 65% w/firearms; 20% knives |
|
This test shows habits, fears, sexual attitudes, depression, and evidence of social introversion |
MMPI |
|
Dishonest or undesirable persons known to an organization can be found here |
Master indices file |
|
Employment/non-employment verification is typically held for |
7 years |
|
3 lines of defense are: |
Property line (outer barrier), building exterior (middle), interior controls |
|
Blood evidence should be stored at what temperature? |
40 – 50 degrees |
|
Negative investigative information is typically held for |
3 years |
|
What is the weakest area within a window |
Glass |
|
This type of coverage is commonly referred to as employee honesty insurance: |
Fidelity Coverage |
|
This type of coverage is commonly referred to as performance bonds and it provides protection for failure to live up to contractual obligations: |
Surety Coverage |
|
This insurance is provided at a reasonable rate based on the size and accepted risk of insured property. |
Federal Crime Insurance |
|
This does not need to be inserted into a reader or scanned and they send a code to a receiver via magnetic, optical, or ultrasonic pulses: |
Proximity cards |
|
These contain bar codes similar to those found on products in most grocery stores and early cards used the visible bar codes and were easy to duplicate. |
Optical coded cards |
|
Costs of security operations vs. savings/ reductions are referred to as: |
Cost-benefit analysis |
|
When thinking about a physical boundaty it is oftentimes said that this is the first line of defense: |
Perimeter protection |
|
This is an interior room constructed of solid materials (i.e., a safe for people) |
Strong room |
|
All lighting must be in compliance with this organization |
Illuminating Engineering Society |
|
The sensor that is used when light air turbulence, vibration, or motion is present outside the room is a(n): |
Acoustic detector |
|
Store inventory shortages are mainly caused by: |
Shoplifting losses, employee theft and paperwork errors |
|
Whoever has knowledge of the actual commission of a felony cognizable by a court of the United States but conceals and does not as soon as possible make known the same to some judge or other person in civil or military authority is guilty of the following violation: |
Misprision of felony |
|
Information regarding the revelation of significant military plans or intelligence operations should be classified as: |
Secret |
|
The sensor that is used when air turbulence is present in the room being protected and when there are no potential false alarm sources outside the room and in the field of the detector is a(n): |
Microwave motion detector |
|
According to a 1979 survey by the American Society for Industrial Security, the number of organizations in the United States offering security courses is greater than: |
180 |
|
Richard Roe came home early from work and found his wife in bed with another man. Roe become immediately incensed and killed both. He is probably guilty of: |
Voluntary manslaughter |
|
Approximately what percentage of medium and large security departments deputize private security personnel or give them special police powers? |
25 percent |
|
What tactics are commonplace and generally used by saboteurs to disrupt industrial operations |
Chemical means, Electronic methods, and Fire |
|
Protective lighting purposes include: |
psychological, object illumination, and physical deterrent |
|
Define lumens |
light output or quanttity of light |
|
What is luminance? |
Intensity of light |
|
What does AEV stand for? |
Articles of extraordinary value |
|
What are three types of security zones? |
Restricted, controlled, and unrestricted |
|
List 4 areas of protection |
Grounds, building perimeter, building interior, and building contents |
|
What is GPBTO? |
General purpose barbed tape obstacle |
|
Signs are posted at ___ foot intervals along the perimeter |
100 foot intervals |
|
color cameras require ___________________ of monochrome cameras to achieve the same picture quality. |
Twice the light level |
|
Number of lumens per square foot or meter is called: |
Lux |
|
When we see an object our eyes are sensing the light reflected from that object |
Reflectance |
|
Measure of the warmth or coolness of light. |
Corrected Color Temperature (CCT) |
|
The ability of a lamp to faithfully reproduce the colors seen in an object. |
Color Rendition Index (CRI) |
|
Most modern codes dealing with high rise fire safety mandate... |
CENTRAL STATION or FIRE DEPT. MONITORING |
|
High rise elevators travel at a speed of _____ feet per minute. |
1500 feet per minute |
|
The process of determining the probability and cost of potential loss is known as: |
Risk Assessment |
|
This lock is generally used in automobiles, desks and cabinets |
Wafer Lock |
|
This is the most common interior/exterior lock |
Pin tumbler lock |
|
What is the oldest mechanical lock with the least value? |
Warded lock |
|
The Illumination of piers, docks, and open decks (and water approach) is typically what foot candle? |
1.0 Foot candle |
|
What is the minumum foot candle brightness for Restricted area lighting? |
.40 foot candle |
|
When the power fails emergency lighting should start: |
within 10 seconds (NFPA 101) |
|
Ideally, when watching security monitors you should not exceed: |
10 monitors and 2 hours |
|
List 3 trade secret requirements: |
Competitive advantage, must be secret, used in the business |
|
Information of value owned by or entrusted to a company; relevant to it's status or operation; not disclosed publicly best describes |
Proprietary information |
|
This is analysis to minimize proprietary information exposure |
Operational security (OPSEC) |
|
Who has a duty to protect proprietary information? |
Fiduciaries |
|
Protects literary works, etc. |
Copyright |
|
Distinguishing word, name, symbol, or device used in the trade of products |
Trademark |
|
Distinguishes the source of a service rather than a product |
Service mark |
|
This is granted by DOD for access to classified information |
Facility security clearance (FSC) |
|
Completed background investigations, if apparently completely favorable or containing unfavorable information, are reviewed by a |
Responsible supervisory security employee |
|
Job descriptions should NEVER be |
Vague |
|
Turnstiles come in generally two sizes: |
36 inches high and 7 foot high |
|
Covered parking lot lighting requirements |
5.0 foot candles |
|
Security Survey is also referred to as a (2) |
a “needs” assessment |
|
Reducing actual crime may not... |
reduce the fear of crime |
|
_________ penetrate walls, ________ does not. |
Microwaves penetrate walls, ultrasonic does not. |
|
Two Types of Door Locks |
a. Cylindrical |
|
These locks have no moving parts |
Electromagnetic |
|
Ultrasonic Sensors travel at... |
1130 feet per second. |
|
Many countermeasures to aid life safety affect... |
asset safety |
|
The FIRST step in assuring life safety is to... |
comply with local building and fire codes. |
|
FIRE DETECTION: What is PRIMARY RESPONSE? |
The detection of products of combustion and/or the combustion process. |
|
Manual fire alarm devices MUST be located... |
on each floor. |
|
If a sprinkler system is complete, it protects |
All levels |
|
The most significant hazard threatening industrial facilities is: |
FIRE |
|
Control over the entry of personnel and materials is the most important countermeasure to: |
BOMBS |
|
Data media must be protected in specially insulated records containers which protect the contents against temperatures up to: |
150 F and 80% humidity |
|
The most common of all terrorist tactics is |
BOMBING |
|
What are Halogenated agents (1211, 1302) ? |
Non-corrosive chemical agents used for extinguishing fires in areas containing computers and electrical equipment |
|
The largest single item of expense in the security operation is the cost of the |
Security personnel |
|
This is a management method used to minimize risks through application of security measures commensurate with the threat |
Risk analysis |
|
As a general rule, local law enforcement has very little effect on many crimes against business. Exceptions are: |
Burglaries, robberies and arson |
|
The two major components of economic crime are: |
White collar and ordinary crime |
|
This is a body condition wherein ever-increasing amounts of a drug are needed to gain the desired effect. |
Tolerance |
|
This is a condition resulting from repeated use whereby the user must administer progressively larger doses to attain the desired effect, thereby reinforcing compulsive behavior |
Drug Dependence |
|
This refers to an alteration of the normal functions of the body that necessitates the continued presence of a drug in order to prevent the withdrawal or abstinence syndrome |
Physical dependence |
|
When thinking about Financial Aspects... "CL" = "L/T" = |
Current Liability Long term Liability |
|
This is one of the biggest problem concerning payroll |
"Ghosting"
Paying people that don’t exist Can use "Pay-out" to detect Ghosting manually paying each employee
Recommended twice a year |
|
This is Money owed to vendors |
Payables |
|
Money owed by customers |
Receivables |
|
Span of Control - the number of personnel which one individual can effectively control |
1 supervisor to 3 employees - ideal 1 supervisor to 6 employees - good 1 supv to 12 employees - Acceptable |
|
This requires that the benefits from an activity be weighed against the benefits to be lost if the planned activity is carried out at a lesser level or not done at all. |
Zero based budgeting |
|
This is the activity which plans, organizes and controls activities in an organization |
Management |
|
Five principal crime risk management methods: |
Risk Avoidance Risk Reduction Risk Spreading Risk Transfer Risk Acceptance |
|
This is an urban planning and design process which integrates crime prevention with neighborhood design and urban development. and it has little or no effect on white collar crime, embezzlement, and fraud. |
Environmental Security (E/S) |
|
Attitude of maintaining perceived boundaries. Outsider quietly recognized, observed. |
Territoriality |
|
Ability of inhabitants of particular territory to casually and continually observe public areas. |
Natural Surveillance |
|
Involves the ability of design to counteract the perception that the area is isolated and vulnerable to crime. |
Image and Milieu |
|
Locales that allow for high degree of observation by police |
Safe area |
|
Crime Analysis has the following components: |
Data Collection Analysis Dissemination Feedback |
|
Unsafe acts cause what percentage of all accidents |
85% |
|
Anything from serious injury to a breakdown in quality control. |
Incident |
|
An undesired event resulting in physical harm to a person or damage to property. |
Accident |
|
This uses assets over a wide spectrum of activity by forming ad hoc teams to work on shorter term projects. |
Matrix management |
|
Define Liaison: |
A linking up or connecting of parts of a whole in order to bring about proper coordination of activities. |
|
Economic Crime is: |
Financially motivated crime with a direct impact on the economy |
|
The largest indirect cost of economic crimes for the past 20 years is: |
Liability |
|
Among classical theories of human behavior in the work environment, one emphasizes negative aspects of employee behavior which is known as: |
McGregor’s "Theory X" |
|
Unsafe conditions cause |
the remaining 15% |
|
Among classical theories of human behavior in the work environment is one which suggests that employees do not inherently dislike work and will actually seek responsibility and better performance if encouraged to do so. It is known as: |
McGregor’s "Theory Y" |
|
Dr. Frederick Herzberg developed a position that motivation comes from work itself, not from those factors such as salary and job security. This theory is known as: |
The work motivation theory |
|
What is known to be one of the disadvantages of contract security services? |
Turnover |
|
The process of determining the probability and cost of potential loss is known as: |
Risk assessment |
|
The behavioral scientist whose key concept is that every executive relates to his subordinates on the basis of a set of assumptions termed theory X and theory Y was formulated by: |
Douglas McGregor |
|
Spotting the individual loss events that might take place is the primary step in dealing with security vulnerability. This process is called |
Loss event profile |
|
The likelihood or probability of risks affecting the assets becoming actual loss events is known as: |
Loss event probability |
|
The impact or effect on the enterprise if the loss occurs is known as: |
Loss event criticality |
|
There are two generally accepted definitions of risk. These are more commonly known to risk managers and security officers as: |
Pure risk and dynamic risk |
|
Bonds which require that an employee be investigated by the bonding company to limit the risk of dishonesty, and if that trust is violated, the insurance company must indemnify the employer, are called: |
Fidelity Bonds |
|
Protection for a corporation, if there is a failure to perform specified acts within a certain period of time, is known as a: |
Surety Bond |
|
The urban planning and design process which integrates crime prevention techniques with neighborhood design is known as: |
Environmental Security (E/S) |
|
The ability of design to counteract the perception that the area is isolated and criminally vulnerable is known as: |
Image and Milieu |
|
A key element in focusing the use of police and security resources to address crime problems is commonly called: |
Crime analysis |
|
All admissions or confessions must be: |
voluntary |
|
Types of crime scene searches are: |
1. Circle search 2. Strip search 3. Grid search 4. Zone or sector search |
|
This is a document requested by the investigator which duplicates the text of a questioned document and is known to be the product of a particular person or machine: |
Exemplar |
|
The three most frequently used investigative techniques are: |
a. Informants
b. Surveillance
c. Undercover |
|
This is defined generally as the secretive and continuos observation of persons, places and things to obtain information concerning the activities and identities of individuals |
Surveillance |
|
As a general rule, sensitive investigative reports, such as undercover reports, should be disseminated on a: |
"need-to-know" basis |
|
Two techniques most commonly used during an interrogation are: |
1. Sympathetic 2. Logic and reasoning |
|
The space above a dropped ceiling is known as: |
Plenum |
|
What does VPE stand for? |
Variable Path Encryption (VPE)
It is particularly useful to secure cellular signals. A call is made to a toll-free number of the VPE provider. A unit attached to the cellular set and a unit at the VPE provider alter the communication between them. |
|
The class of person under a duty to safeguard a proprietary secret is known as: |
Fiduciaries |
|
The three basic security processes are: |
Information
Physical
Personnel |
|
Of the three basic security processes, which one is the MOST critical? |
Personnel |
|
One well known honesty test is the: |
Reid Report |
|
A popular psychological test used by employees in personnel screening procedures is the: |
Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Investor (MMPI) |
|
The two major tools used in employee selection procedures are: |
The application & the interview |
|
Approximately 10% of the completed applications will have falsifications serious enough for management review before making an offer of employment is called: |
The RULE OF TEN |
|
The most important information gathering tool in a background investigation is the completed |
Application form |
|
As a general rule, no application more than how many days old should be considered without a re-interview of the applicant |
90 |
|
Personnel Security’s primary purpose is to: |
Insure that a firm hires employees best suited to assist the firm in achieving its goals, and after hired, assist in providing the necessary security to the employees while they are carrying out their functions |
|
There are virtually no restrictions on what can be asked of an individual once an: |
Offer of employment has been made. |
|
Approximately what percent of all professional applicants falsify some aspect of their educational background. |
5 % |
|
A personal interview of each applicant should be conducted by a: |
Trained interviewer |
|
This amendment provides for freedom of speech, religion, press, assembly and to petition the government |
First amendment |
|
This amendment provides the right to keep arms (weapons) |
Second amendment |
|
This amendment prohibits unreasonable searches and seizures and also sets out the requirement that a warrant be supported by probable cause |
Forth amendment |
|
This amendment prohibits double jeopardy, compulsory self incrimination, and deprivation of life, liberty or property without due process |
Fifth amendment |
|
This amendment provides that the accused have a speedy public trial, know the charges against him, confront witnesses against him, have compulsory process to obtain his witnesses, and have assistance of a counsel for his defense |
Sixth amendment |
|
This amendment provides the right to trial by jury |
Seventh amendment |
|
This amendment prohibits excessive bail, excessive fines and cruel and unusual punishment |
Eighth amendment |
|
The first ten amendments to the Constitution of the U.S. is called? |
The Bill of Rights |
|
This is the legal concept which holds the employer, as well as the employee, liable if the "wrong" was committed while the employee was acting within the scope of employment |
Vicarious liability |
|
This is the legal rule that an employer is responsible for the action or lack of action of an employee taken within the course of employment. |
Respondeat Superior (Let the master respond) |
|
This is a legal term for the "body of the crime" or the elements of the crime which must be proved. It does not mean a dead body |
Corpus delicti |
|
This is the only crime specifically mentioned in the U.S. Constitution |
Treason |
|
This type of bond is insurance on a person covering that person’s dishonesty |
Fidelity bond |
|
This refers to the legal concept that one may be held responsible for some acts without the necessity to prove criminal intent (mens rea). They are usually in the areas of public health, safety and welfare and they are generally classified as "mala prohibitum" |
Strict liability |
|
List the three major security processes utilized in providing the total protection of an organization |
1. Information Security 2. Physical Security 3. Personnel Security |
|
This is the most critical of the 3 security processes. |
PERSONNEL SECURITY |
|
The key functions of the personnel security processes are: |
• Screening • Background Investigations • Investigation of current employees • Security awareness & education • Protection of employees from discriminatory practices |
|
The procedure by which jobs are researched to determine the activities and responsibilities is called: |
Job analysis |
|
Prior to an organization engaging in the recruitment for employment, the organization must define the job specifications. The two key tools in this process are what? |
Job analysis & Job description |
|
The relationship the job has with other jobs, the personal qualifications necessary to perform the job and the condition under which the work or tasks are performed is included within the: |
JOB ANALYSIS |
|
One of the important outputs of the job analysis is the: |
JOB DESCRIPTION. |
|
Four elements within the job description are: |
1. General purpose of the job 2. Duties and responsibilities 3. Knowledge, skills and abilities 4. Education and/or training |
|
List some uses of a job description and what they can be used for: |
1. Recruiting and screening 2. Hiring and placement 3. Onboarding or orientation process 4. Developing procedures 5. Training and development 6. Test design (related to the job) |
|
The U.S. Department of Labor forecast that employment of security officers would grow by what percent between 2008 and 2018, which is faster than the average for all occupations. |
14 percent |
|
Number of officers required for a facility is determined by: |
Physical complexity and size of facility Number of employees Nature of work Number of entrances & hours they are open Value & amount of assets being protected Number of patrols needed Number of escorts & special assignments |
|
Once the employer has attracted a number of candidates through the recruitment efforts, the ____________ ________ begins with the screening of information. |
APPLICATION PROCESS |
|
All relevant aspects of the candidate’s background are weighed using the |
WHOLE MAN RULE |
|
Assuming a security officer works 40 hours a week, each post that is staffed 24 hours a day, seven days a week, requires a minimum of 4.2 officers. However, to compensate for sick, vacation, and holiday leave, each post requires |
4.5 officers |
|
The primary function of the security officer is ______ _______ , which is the regulation of movement into, out of, and within a designated building or area. |
ACCESS CONTROL |
|
Federal law prohibits asking prospective employee questions regarding: |
Marital status Children Owns or rents Religion Garnishment Arrests |
|
Restrictions regarding screening are provided by many laws such as: |
Equal Pay Act of 1963 (EPA) (EEOC) Civil Rights Act of 1964 Age Discrimination Act of 1967 Privacy Act of 1974 (gov’t records) Americans Disabilities Act of 1990 (15+) Fair Credit Reporting Act |
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Personnel Investigations usually involve 4 general techniques: |
1. Backgrounding 2. Positive Vetting 3. Polygraphing 4. Profiling |
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A complete background investigation usually covers four steps: |
1. Personal History Statement (PHS) 2. Evaluation of the PHS 3. National agency check 4. Full field investigation |
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Some focal issues in the screening process are: |
Signs of instability in job/career Over or under qualified Declining salary history No referencing of supervisors Gaps in residences or unexplained moves Inadequate or no personal references |
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Common omissions or falsifications: |
Applicant does not sign application PO Box or incomplete addresses Conflicting dates on jobs, schooling, etc. Criminal records (leaving ? blank) Gaps in employment Changing occupation Reason for leaving left blank |
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National Agency Check consist of at least the following agencies: |
FBI, DOD, ALL military braches including Coast Guard, Civil Service records, Immigration and Naturalization Agency, CIA, Department of State and Treasury Department |
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Purpose of the background Investigation is to: |
1. Verify accuracy and completeness 2. Develop relevant information 3. Determine suitability of candidate |
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The MOST IMPORTANT information gathering tool in a background investigation is the completed |
APPLICATION Form |
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Define Vetting |
It is a process of inspecting or examining with careful thoroughness. This process is rarely used in the United States; it is mostly used in England. |
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The essence of vetting is: |
* A personal interview under stress * Interview based on previous answers * Other information is used during the interview that confirms or denies information given by applicant |
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The basic reasons for vetting include: |
1. To impeach applicant 2. Observe applicant’s behavior under stress 3. Open areas of exploration hidden 4. Provide new investigative leads |
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Investigative standards (Information sought or developed) MUST BE: |
- Relevant to hiring decision - Reliable (Factual sources) - If unfavorable, be confirmed by AT LEAST one other source. |
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Define profiling |
It is a process whereby a subject’s reaction to a future critical situation is predicted by observing his or her behavior, by interviewing him or her, or by analyzing his or her response to a questionnaire. |
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An example of a test prepared for profiling purposes is the: |
Reid Report developed by John E. Reid and Associates. |
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If money is not a consideration, ideally all information furnished by the applicant on the application form and given orally should be verified. This would be categorized as a: |
Full field investigation |
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A decision on whether to arm an officer should be based on: |
~ If there is a greater danger to life safety without the weapon ~ The officer may reasonably be expected to use fatal (deadly) force |
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A contracted investigative agency should be advised in writing: |
1. Reason for reports, nature of investigations, basis for pricing reports and the time service periods. 2. Agency not to represent itself as organization 3. The identity, telephone number and mailing address of organization personnel to who reports should be made |
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Exit interviews are valuable because: |
1. Gives employee the opportunity to list grievances 2. Management often learns of problems not previously known 3. Helps reduce loss when a checklist is used to have company property returned 4. Used to remind employees of legal obligation to protect trade secrets or confidential records |
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One of the types of employment assessments is the Medical examination and it is important to remember this important fact: |
Under the ADA, the medical exam cannot be performed until after the job offer has been made to the candidate |
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The following are all types of Assessment Instruments: |
*Performance or work sample tests * Ability tests (example: typing test) * Aptitude tests (Ability to learn) * Personality inventories (MMPI, Myers-Briggs) * Honesty/Integrity Tests (Reid Report) * Medical examinations * Drug testing & Polygraph testing |
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The employee Polygraph Protection Act prohibits most private employers from using polygraph tests to screen job candidates. There are exceptions such as: |
~ Employees in certain security services ~ Organizations involved with the lawful manufacturing and distribution of controlled substances |
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Employee at-will is a doctrine of American law that defines an employment relationship in which either party can terminate the relationship with no liability provided that: |
1. There is no expressed contract (written agreement) for a definite term 2. Employer does not have collective bargaining 3. The employment action (Termination) does not violate public policy (Civil Rights Act, ADA, etc.) |
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Another name for Employment Orientation is Employee Onboarding which is: |
A process designed to familiarize the new employee with the organization’s culture, goals, objectives, procedures and rules. The process also identifies requirements for employees to protect assets and play a role in loss prevention |
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A Financial and lifestyle inquiry may be considered when: |
Employee is being considered for promotion (more responsibilities)
When assigned to a position with more sensitive duties
On a cyclical basis for sensitive positions |
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Security awareness is a state of mind and the purposes are: |
1. To understand the relationship between security and a successful operation 2. To know one’s personal obligation 3. To comply with legal and regulatory requirements 4. To comply with any contractual obligations |
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The basic measures for mitigating risk include: |
1. Pre-employment screening 2. Access control and other security measures 3. A fully disseminated written policy 4. Complying with regulatory obligations (OSHA) 5. An interdisciplinary team who has special training (Threat Management Team) |
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Common criminal acts targeted at key business persons include: |
Kidnapping Extortion Assassinations Bombings Sabotage |
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Criminal Acts are oftentimes used as a vehicle to obtain: |
* Money * Influence business or government decision making * Public recognition for their organization and/or cause |
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Prevention and defense are the common elements to mitigate terrorist acts and risk to potential targets. The perpetrator of criminal acts has to undertake the following: |
Identify probable targets and venues for attack
Develop a plan
Gather intelligence |
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In planning stages, the activities are separated into: |
Contingency Event – A potential act like terrorism
Crisis – A specific situation that arises from the act like kidnapping, assassination, etc. |
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The focus of any planning should include: |
1. Threat assessment 2. Resources allocation (interdisciplinary group of experts) 3. Education and training (Understanding early warning signals of an attempted kidnapping, how to respond, and if abducted, how to survive) |
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Various laws and regulations require U.S. employers to provide a safe workplace. An example of relevant federal law is: |
OSHA 29 U.S.C. § 654(a). In addition, certain legal duties and tort concepts have become associated with claims and lawsuits arising from workplace violence. |
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An ASIS CRISP (Connecting research in Security to Practice) report – Fatigue Effects and countermeasures in 24/7 Security Operations – found that: |
Automation often places a human into a monitoring role, which is not usually handled well. |
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Intervention of workplace violence starts with establishing open communication with all employees and providing a vehicle for employees to report: |
Complaints or concerns about aberrant behavior in the workplace. |
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A popular psychological test used by employees in personnel screening procedures is the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI). This test is designed to show: |
Habits, fears, sexual attitudes, depression, and evidence of social introversion. |
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The two major tools used in employee selection procedures are: |
The application & The interview |
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In explaining why people steal, we have historically used the theft triangle, which consists of: |
MOD...
(MOTIVATION) Rationalization, Opportunity, and(DESIRE) need or want. The person must have a need or want for the asset, be able to rationalize a basis for taking the asset and have the access or opportunity to take the asset. |
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Loss prevention techniques are designed to: |
Eliminate the opportunity |
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Dealing with disturbed people requires sensitivity. The goal is to: |
1) Prevent harm from the person’s acts 2) To control the person with a minimum of injury, discomfort, or embarrassment. |
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Recap Amendment 1 |
Freedom of religion, speech, press, and assembly; right of petition |
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Recap Amendment 2 |
Right to bear arms |
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Recap Amendment 3 |
Limit on quartering of troops |
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Recap Amendment 4 |
Protection against unreasonable search and seizure |
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Recap Amendment 5 |
Due process, double jeopardy; self incrimination |
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Recap Amendment 6 |
Right to speedy trial |
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Recap Amendment 7 |
Trial by jury in civil cases |
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Recap Amendment 8 |
No excessive bail or fine; no cruel or unusual punishment |
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Recap Amendment 9 |
People retain rights |
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What is the Lautenberg amendment |
Forbids anyone convicted of domestic violence (felony or misdemeanor) from possessing a firearm |
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In the vertical model, also known as the hierarchical model, authority comes from where? |
The top or senior manager and flows down through a series of managers and supervisors until it stops with the front-line staff. |
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The Shamrock model is based on the three-leafed shamrock: |
1. The first leaf represents a small core of professionals, managers and skilled technicians 2. The second leaf consists of third-party suppliers who have been chosen for their expertise and ability to provide quality service 3. The third leaf consists of part-time and temporary workers who are employed as needed |
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Define Job Analysis |
The systematic collection and recording of information about the purpose of a job, its major duties, the conditions under which it is performed, required contacts with others, and the knowledge, skills, and abilities needed to perform the job effectively. |
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Douglas McGregor’s key concept is that every supervisor relates to subordinates on the basis of assumptions termed: |
Theory X and Theory Y |
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Abraham H. Maslow identified a hierarchy of needs, beginning with the most basic physical needs: |
- Physiological - Safety and security - Social or affiliation - Ego - Self-actualization |
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Warren G. Bennis’s theory: |
Attempts to avoid the polarization of human relations versus scientific management, and employee satisfactions versus organizational requirements. |
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According to Chris Argyris, |
Traditional organizational principles, structures, and procedures are incompatible with the mental health of employees. |
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Recap Amendment 10 |
Powers not delegated to the US to states or people |
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The classes of offenses under United States federal law are: |
* 5 FELONIES
* 3 MISDEMEANORS
* 1 INFRACTION |
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When watching CCTV monitors it is recomended not to exceed this many monitors and this time? |
10 monitors and 2 hours |