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223 Cards in this Set

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State the three objectives of first AID?
Save life, prevent further injury, and prevent infection.
State the methods for controlling bleeding?
Direct pressure, elevation, pressure points, and as a last resort tourniquet.
How many pressure points are on the body and name a few of them?
There are a total of 22, 11 on each side. The jaw, temple, collar bone, inner-thight, ankles, wrist etc....
Describe the syptoms and treatment for shock?
Shock is a disruption of the circulator system. Syptoms may include lacklustered eyes, irregular breathing, cold or pale skin, and nausea. treatment is to lay victim down, feet elevated 6-12 inches and cover to maintain body heat.
Three clasifications of burns?
1st degree
2nd degree
3rd degree
Heat exhaustion?
Serious disturbance of blood flow to the brain, heart, and lungs. skin is cool, moist, and clammy, pupils dialated, and normal or subnormal body temp. Sweeting proffusly. treatment is to move victim to a cool place, apply cold cloths to in areas of the body, if victim is cconscious give one teaspoon salt dissolved in a liter of cool water.
Heat stroke?
A very serious break down of the sweating mechanism. victim is unable to relive excessive body heat. Treatment is to douse with cold water, move to air conditioned area and apply cold cloths to inner areas of the body. Place victim on back with shoulders elevated slightly.
Personal rescue for shock? and treatment?
Do not touch body. attempet to secure elecrical power. if not possible try to remove wires with non conductive materials. once victim is free start CPR immidatly and transport to medical.
Hypothermia?
The geneal cooling of the body from exposure of low or rapidly cooling temps. may appear unconsious sometimes dead. Treatment is to bring body back to normal temp.
Superficial frost bite?
Ice crystals forming on the outer tissues from exposure to 32 degrees or less.
Deep frost bite?
Ice crystals forming in the deeper skin tissues from exposure to 32 degrees or less. Do not rub the affected area. run under warm water or have place warm bottles against it.
Purpose of the Naval aviation safety program?
The primary objective is to preserve human and material resources.
Safety resposibilites of the CO?
requires that all personnel are drilled and instructed in all safety precaustions and procedures and that they are complied with.
Aviation safety officer?
Primary advisor to the CO on all aviation safety matters. Responsible for establishing and the managment of aviation safety and maintain appropriate aviation safety records and mishap stats.
Grounds safety offier?
Does the same thing as the aviation safety officer except for ground safety.
Department head safety responsibilities?
Coordinates the departments safety programs with the units safety officer and supervise the DIVOS. they ensure that all safety precaustions are srictly observed.
DIVO's safety?
Insures that department personnel are instructed and that they comply. Also makes avalible any safety requirements.
Safety PO?
Will ensure that personnel within the division are drilled and instructed and will be the shop point of contact for all safety matters.
Fuction of the safety cousel/enlisted safety committee?
is formed to set goals, manage assets and review safety related recommendations. The ground aviation and aero medical safety officers must be standing members of the council.
Human error mishaps?
cause nearly every mishap. includes persons who maintaind the equipment, or manufactored the parts. involes both physical and emotional factors.
Maint and supporting factors mishaps?
includes inproper maint, priority assignment, or lack of proper QA.
Admin or supervisory factors?
Improper level of supervision, or failure to require personnel to meet PQS.
Material failure malfuction?
Consider all material failurs carefully. weather it be faulty design, defective manufacture or repair. It all leads back to human error.
Enviromental factors?
Rarely and act of GOD. Failure to review weather conditions before going flying is human error.
Class A mishap?
1 million or more. Faital or permanent disability.
Class B mishap?
200K-1MIL. Disable or 3 or more personnel hospitalized.
Class C mishap?
10k-200k. Non fatal injury resulting in no lose of work beyond the day.
Class D mishap?
10k or less not loss of work.
Objectives of AVGFE?
To provide a safe working environment when working with fuel systems.
Hazards associated with RF energy?
generate electrical currents and or voltage large enough to cause life threatening electric shock , burns, bio changes , and cataracts. and premeture unwanted detonation fo EED.
The concept of ORM?
It is a systematic desicion making process used to weight the risk vs the benifits.
Identify hazards?
Begin by laying out all the risks in the operation.
Assess hazards?
For each hazard identified determine the associated degree of rist in terms of probability and serverity.
Make risk decisions?
Develop risk control options that will reduce the amount of risk assoiciated with each task.
Implement controls?
Controls can be used to reduse the degree of risk associated with hazards.
Supervise?
conduct follow ups to insure that personnel are following the controls.
Dual chain of command?
From the Pesident to the Secretary of defense to commanders of unified or specified commands. and From the SECNAV to the CNO to commanders of operating forces.
Unified commands?
Composed of elements from more than once service.

atlantic, pacific, european, southern, central, readiness.
Secified commands?
Made up of units from only one service. North american aerospace defencse command.

Air mobility command.
Fleet commanders?
CINCPACFLT- pacific fleet 3 and seven.
CINCANTFLT-atlantic 2nd
CINCNAVEUR-european 6th.
Task force commanders?
This system developed during WWW II further divides fleets into forces,groups, units, and elements.
SECNAV?
Civlilian in charge of the department of the navy. It is currently donald winters.
CNO?
is the most senior officer in the navy reports to the SECDEF and president on the conducts of war. its is currently adm. mcmullen
Naval airforce commanders?
there is one for the atlantic and pacific fleets. usually a vice adm
type commanders?
In charge of certain type squadrons.
Functional wind commanders?
they are incharge of the squadrons under there control for a specifc TMS
MCPON?
Assigned to the CNO's office for a period of three years. Advise CNO on enlisted matters.
Fleet master cheif?
Reports to fleet commander in chief on the moral, readiness, physical and emotional parts of enlisted.
Force master chiefs?
Report to force group commanders about enlisted personnel. There are 22 of them.
CMC?
CMC is the enlisted advisor to the CO for training, rule, regs, and good disaplne.
What are the 6 areas of naval doctorine?
warfare, logistics, intel, command and control, operations, and planning.
the conditions that led to the formation of the navy?
The original 13 colonies were only aloud to trade with england. England tax the collinest which became known as taxation without representation. The colonies formed the contenital congrass and made a list of demands they though were fare. On the second meeting they formed the army and Authorized the purchace of naval ships. the navy was born on 13OCT 1775
State the three levels of war?
tactical, operational,and strategic.
What happen 7-8 May 1942?
The battle of the Coral Sea. The us broke japans code to seize port moresby. became known as the first carrier to carrier battle.
3-5 june 1942?
Battle of Midway was the turning point of th pacific war. US broke another code. US sunk 4 japaness carriers and the us lost one.
13-15 NOV 1942?
Battle of guadalcanal. The 5 sullivan brothers insisted on staying togather on the same ship the navy allowed it. durning the battle there sheep was sunk and they were all killed. Navy changed its policies.
8 MAY 1911?
CPT chambers ordered 2 curtis byplanes for 5500 dollars each. known as the birth of naval aviation.
20MAR 1922?
First aircraft carrier USS Langley
First jet powered aircraft?
10MAR48 FJ-1 fury.
5MAY 1961?
Allan shepard first naval aviator in space.
Inertia?
The willingness of an object to remain at rest or continue in motion unless acted upon by an outside force.
Acceleration?
The rate of change of speed of an object.
Speed?
the rate of movement in a given amount of time.
Velocity?
the quickness or speed of a object in agiven time and direction.
Newtons first law?
An object will remain at rest or remain in motion unless acted upon by and outside force.
Newtons second law?
state that if an object moving with uniform speed is acted upon by and outside force the change of motion or acceleration will be directly proptional to the amound of force and inversly proportional to the object being moved.
Newtons third law?
For every action there is an equal or opposite reaction
Bernoulli's principal?
that when fluid flowing through a tube reaches a constriction the speed of the fluid increase and the pressure decreases.
Small craft wind warnings?
33 knots or less.
Gale wind warning?
34-47 knots.
storm?
48 knots or greater.
tropical depression
33 knots or less.
Tropical storm.
34-63 knots
typhoon?
64 knots or greater.
Lift?
The force that acts in an upward direction to support flight.
Weight?
The force of gravity acting downward on a aircraft.
Drag?
The force that holds an aircraft back.
Thrust?
The force produced by engines that acts in a forward direction.
Longitudinal axis?
Imaginary reference line running from nose to tail of the aircraft. axis about which role occures.
Lateral axis?
imaginary line running paralles to the wings. axis about which pitch occurs.
Vertical axis?
Imaginary reference line runing from top to bottom of the aircraft. axis about which yaw occurs.
Fix wing aircraft flight controls?
Aileros provide control about the logitudinal axis, the elevators provide control about the lateral axis, the rudder provides control about the vertical axis.
Purpose of flaps?
Gives aircraft extra lift/
Purpose of spoiler?
Used to decrease wing lift.
Purpose of slats?
moveable control surface attached to the leading edge of the wing. when the are extended the provide stability control at low speeds.
Horizontal stabilater?
Provide lateral axis stability.
Vertical stabilizer?
maintains stability about its vertical axis.
Explain the term angle of attack?
the angle at which a body sucha as an air foil or fuselage meets a flow of air.
Basic components of hydraulic system?
Resivor
pumps
lines
selector valve
actuating unit
5 basic sections of jet engine?
intake, compressor, turbine, combustion chamber, exhaust.
Turbojet is?
projects a column of air to the rear at an extremely high velocity.
turboshaft?
Delivers power through a shaft to control something oter than a prop. Use on helo's.
Turboprop?
Propulsion is accomploshed by the conversion of the makority of the gas energy into mechanical energy to turn a prop.
Turbofan?
Same as turbo prop except that the propeller is replaced by a duct enclosed axial flow fan.
State the purpose of after burners?
provide extra thrust for take off and combat maneuveres.
jp-4 nato code and characteristcs?
F-40, flash point of -10F causes low TGT and slow acceleration.
JP-5 NATO code and characteristics?
F-44, Flash point of 140F the only ship board authorized fuel.
JP-8 NATO code and characteristics?
F-34, Flash point of 100F.
Three hazards associated wih jet fuel?
Exlosive, enhalation, toxic contact with skin and eyes. may cause death.
Identify the reasons for NDI>
NDI provides 100% sampling with no affect to the use of the part or system being inspected.
Purpose of pitot-static?
Provides barometric pressure for rate of climb indicator, barometer, altimider, turn and back indicator.
Circuit braker?
Protective device that opens when the circuit goes over a predetermined value.
Fuse?
Is placed in line with a circute and melts away braking the flow when the predermined value is exceded.
Voltage?
The driving force behind current. Can be the base value for determing the unknown circuit value.
Current>
the flow of electrons. Current is directly proprtional to the applid voltage and inversly proprtional to the circuit resistance.
Resistance?
The opposing force to the flow of electrons.
Define the term a/c handling?
any movement of an aircraft.
State the purpose of standard taxi signals.
they are standardized for all services so that there is not mix up.
Stat the vehical speed limit on the flight line.
5 MPH within 50 feet of aircraft. and 10 MPH outsite that radious.
What is the max towing speed for aircraft.
as fast as the fastes wing walker can walk.
Name the 4 catigories of tie downs and how many chains are required for each one?
initial-4 intermediate-8 permenanet-12 and hevy weather is 18.
-Explain the runway numbering system.
Runways are labeled in relation to there magnetic heading rounded off to the nearest 10degrees. labeled left,right,center if there is more than one.
What are threashold marking?
Runways 200ft wide have 10ft stripes marking the landing area each 12 ft appart. for runways less than 200 ft they run the whole length minus 20ft on each end.
Airfield lighting.
Its is governed by the FAA and is standard for all Airfields regardless of service or location.
What Identifies and airport when it is closed?
navigable airspace obstuction lights, rotation beacon used as visual orientation aid,
Runway taxi way marking system?
Runway light are installed to provide visual guidance at night inder low visibility conditions durning aircraft takeoff and landing. taxi lights are blue. Two blue lights called entrance exit light are spaced 5 feet apart and are placed on eacg side of a taxiway entrance to or exit from a runway or parking area.
Airfield rotating beacon?
Used to Identify an airfield when it is below VFR conditions. Rotation is in a clockwise direction, rotats at a constant speed,
HC?
HELICOPTER COMBAT SUPPORT
HCS?
HELICOPTER COMBAT SUPPORT SPECIAL
HM?
HELICOPTER MINE COUNTERMEASURES.
HS?
ANTISUB
HSL?
ANTISUB LT
VAQ-
TATICAL ELECTRONIC WARFARE
VAW
CARRIER AIRBORNE EARLY WARNING
VC?
FLEET COMPOSITE.
VF
FIGHTER
VFA
STRIKE FIGHTER
VMFA
MARINE STRIKE FIGHTER
VP
PATROL
VQ
FLEET AIR RECON
VR
AIRCRAFT LOGISTICS
VRC
CARRIER LOGISTICS
VS
CARROER ANTISUB NOT IN USE
VX/VXE-
AIR TEST AND EVALUATION.
AE-
AMMUNITION SHIP
AD
DESTROYER TENDER
AFS
COMBAT STORE SHIP
AS
SUB TENDER
AO/AOE
OILER AND OILER/AMMO
CG
GUIDED MISSLE CRUISER
CV/CVN
CARRIER/ NUCLEAR CARRIER
DD/DDG
DESTROYER AND GUIDED MISSILE DESTROYER
FFG
GUIDED MISSILE FRIGATES
LCC
AMPHIBIOUS COMMAND SHIP
LHA
AMPHIBIOUS ASSULT SHIP
LHD
AMPHIBIOUS WARFARE SHIP
LPD
AMPHIBIOUS TRANSPORT DOCK
LSD
DOCK LANDING SHIP
MCS
MINE COUNTERMEASURES SUPPORT SHIP
Chemical warfare?
intentional use of lethal or non lethal chemical agents to produce casualties.
Biological warfare?
The intentional use of living organisms to cas harm to people, animals, supplies.
Radiological warfare?
Intentional use of radiaton wepons to cause death in man.
MCU-2/p protective mask
Gas mask that protects against CBR agents. It protects the eye, throat, lunds.
Chemical protective overgarment?
Is treated with chemicals to nutralize blistering agents .
wet weather clothing?
worn over other types of clothing used to protect against liquid agents and radiation. easly decontaminated
Atropine/2 pan chloride auto injector?
nerve agent therpy self administerd.
IM-143 pocket dosimeter?
self reading pocket dosimeter ins intrument about the size and shape of a fountain pen measures exposure to radiation.
DT-60 personnel dosimeter>
Is not self read it is the high range casualty dosimeter which must be placed in a special radiac computer indicator to determine exposure.
What are the 4 chemical casualty agents?
chocking, nerve,blood, blistering.
High altitude air burst?
point of detination is above 100000ft. Create a wide spreat EMP which damages the earth Ioniphere.
Air burst>
Immediatly after the explosion a huge fireball is formed. Fireball does not touch the ground. all materials within the fire ball are vaporized.
Surface burst?
produces te worst fall out. fireball touches the ground vast amounts of surface material is vaporized and taken into the fire ball as the fireball rises the devris is sucked up by the stong wind it comes back down as radioactive fall out.
Blast?
injuries cause by blast are primary and secondary. Primary is from initial blast and secondary is from debris
flash burns/blindness
Primary burns are from direct exposure to radiaton from the blast. secondary is from fires cause by the explosion.
radiation?
Alpha particals have to be ingested, beta particals cause burns, gamma rays penetrate the whole body, neutron rays are the strongest they become radioactive and release more gamma rays through out the body.
MOPP?
Mission oriented protective posture.
MOPP 1?
gas mask are issued to all hands on board ship.
MOPP 2?
gas masks are carried by all hands. decontamination stations are set up
MOPP 3? N
New filters are installed Don chemical protective overgarments Go to GQ.
MOPP 4?
Don gas masks and secure the PPE. initiate continous monitoring of detection equipment.
NATOPS?
Naval air training and operationl procedures standardization.
What is NATOPS for?
A positive approch to improving combat readiness nad reducing mishaps.
NAVFLIRS?
naval fligt records subsystem is used to record every attempt at flight and missions performed.
COMNAVAIRLANT
COMNAVAIRPAC
CNATRA
A-M AND A-Z
N-Z AND A-Z
AND A-G THERE IS NO SECOND
sTANDARD SUBJECT IDENTIFICATION CODE?
IS A 4 OR 5 DIGIT CODE USED TO FILE AND RETREIVE MESSAGE. THERE ARE 14 CATIGORIES.
Passing instructions?
navy automated message processng system relay for the most part on certain elements at the beginning of the text such as flag words assist in the autimatic internalroutin of messages.
Maintenance officer?
Is responsible for the completion of the departments mission.
MMCO
Is responsible for the over all production and supply.
MCO
is responsible to the MMCO for the tool control program.
Aircraft service period adjustment?
Is a depot level evaluation of te aircrafts general material condition.
State the purpose of MTIP?
Maint training improvement program. Is use to evlauate the technical levels of aviation techs.
MILSTRIP?
Military standard requisitioning and issuing procedures.
What are the 6 catigories of hazmat?
Flammables, toxics, aerosal cans, comressed gases, corrosive material,oxidizing materials.
Generator Control unit?
GCU monitors and regulates each generator output.
A/C denerators
Aircraft use 3 sources of of power. AC power, Aux power, and external power. 115/200 VAC, three phase, 400 hz.
LF/ADF?
Te set is made up of one receiver and one antenna located on the bottom of the forward fuselage. Used for postion fixing an maintaining course.
DALS?
Downed aviator locator system. used to locate downed crew who are equiped with AN/PRC-112.
AFCC?
Advance flight control system is the digital computer. It controls the SAS actuators and trim actuator in all four control channels.
Purpose of the AFCS?
is an electrohydromeechanical system which provides inputs to oflight control system.
Function of EGI?
Embedded GPS navigation system is comprised of two EGI units in the nose. Works in two modes EGI/INS and INS only.
ODV?
Overspeed and drain valve. as three functions provides main fuel flow to fuel injectors during engine starting and operation. purges fuel manifold when the engine is stock chocked, converts fuel when DEC overspeed occurs.
tail gear box?
Provided rpm reduction and drive angle change of 105 degree with 1190 rpm output.
accessory module?
provides a mechanical drive for hydraulics and electric.
Input modules?
Connect MGB and engines togather by shafting and gears. Provide angle change and gear reduction.
Cold section?
Ingests outside air, separates foreign objects for the air and exhausts them, compresses the resulting clean and directs for combustion.
Hot section module?
Three subassy. Combustion liner, stage 1 nozzle assy, and stage 1 & 2 gas generator turbines.
SPIE-
Special patrol insertion/extraction SPIE ring rope is attached to cargo hook and secured up through the spie ring down to the deck.
McGuire rig?
Each Mcguire rig is secured to three tie down using a triple bowline knot.
Fast rope?
is connected to the rescue hoist. A wire braided safetu lanyards is attached from the fast rope to a tiedown ring.
Define NOE?
Nap of the earth.
IFR?
Instrument flight rules.
VFR?
Visual flght rules
Purpose of HERO?
RF radiation can and may trigger certain types of ordnance. Program was designed to keep the two seperate.
Three levels of hero?
safe, susceptible, and unsafe
Purpose of stray voltage check?
To insure the proper voltage need for detonation is avalible.
MK 58 MOD O?
used durning day or night for any condition that calls for long burning time. Burns 40-60min visible up to 3 miles.
MK 25 MOD 4?
to provide day or night reference points for marking the course of enemy subs. 10-20 min burn time.
MK 124 MOD 0?
is used by downed aircrew as a signal device by either smoke or flare. Red flare for night use and orange smoke for day 20 sec burn time.
MK 80 MOD 0?
used by down aircrew personnel as a distress signal device 4.5 sec burn time.
Continuity?
To tell if the circuit is complete or continous.
Voltage?
to isolate malfuctionhs to major components.
Frequency?
The number of complete cycle per second existing in any form of wave motion.
Ohms law?
Current in a electrical circuit is directly proportional to the electomotive force in the circuit and inversely proportional to the resistance.
5 components of MH60 power train?
main trans module, drive shafts, oil cooler, IGB, TGB.
T700-GE-401C Characteristics?
front drive turbo shaft engine. max continous shp 1662, intermediat shp 1800 for 30 min, and contingency power rating of 19400 for 2.5 min.
ESU?
electonic sequencing unit
LCF?
low cycle fatigue.
Ng?
gas generator turnine speed.
Np?
power turbine speed.
Nr?
Main rotor speed.
P3?
compressor inlet temp
T2?
Compressor inlet temp
TGT?
Turbine gas Temp.