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74 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
- 3rd side (hint)
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what instruction governs the Non Nuclear Cert Program?
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OPNAVINST 8023.24B
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what rates are governed by 8023.24B?
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AO, FC, CTT, GM, PR
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there are five rates
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what is the objective of the qual cert program?
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train and certify civilian and military to handle ordnance
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how long is a cert good for?
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12 months
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what is HERO
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hazards of elctromagnetic radiation to ordnance
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What are the four classes of HERO?
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safe, unsafe, susceptible, unreliable
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SUSU
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purpose of setting HERO
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prevent (inadvertent) firing of ordnance that is susceptible to RF energy.
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what does EMCOM stand for?
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emissions control
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Name two factors that the HERO/EMCOM bill relies upon
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amount/type of ordnance involved and the RF environment
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what type of info will you find on the HERO/EMCOM bill
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list of HERO susceptible, HERO unsafe and their allowable RF levels
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who is responsible for setting (ensuring) HERO?
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CSOOW
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purpose of the stray voltage check
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to ensure that before a weapon is connected to the aircraft there is no stray voltage in the wiring
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What is AIM
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air launched air intercept guided missle
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What is AGM?
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air to ground guided missle
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What is RIM?
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ship launced air intercept guided missle
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What is ATM?
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air launched training guided missle
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What is CBU?
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cluster bomb unit
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What is active guidance
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the missle has both radar transmitter and receiver relying on no outside source
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What is semi active guidance?
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missle has only radar receiver; requires launching aircraft radar to guide it to target
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What is passive guidance?
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missle relies upon outside source such as heat for lock
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how many weapons elevators are onboard WASP?
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5
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where can the elevators bring weapons to onboard
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upper v, hanger bay, flight deck, mess deck
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What Is hung ordnance?
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any weapon attempted to be fired or released but malfunctioned, didnt drop, and the status is unknown
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What is unexpected ordnance?
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any weapon never attempted to be fired and is considered in a safe status
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Yellow is reguards to ammunition
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high explosives
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Brown is regards to ammunition
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live motor rocket
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Blue in regards to ammunition
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training/inert
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not just training, INERTia ;)
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Grey w/ red bands in regards to ammunition
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irritant (harassing agent)
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Black in regards to ammunition
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armored piercing ammunition
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Light green in regards to ammunition
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smoke or marker
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White in regards to ammunition
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illuminating ammunition or ammunition that provides colored light
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What is LFORM?
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landing force operational reserve material
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What is class V(A) LFORM material?
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aviation ammunition
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A for ammo
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What is class V(W) LFORM?
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ground ammunition
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What magazines are designed to stow LFORM?
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cargo hold 4 and 5 lower, cargo hold 9
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what is NAVSEA OP 4?
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guidance for the handling of ordnance onboard ships
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ordnance afloat
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Name the 5 types of bombs
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LDGP= low drag general purpose
laser guided cluster fire training |
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describe the AGM -114 Hellfire
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air to surface missle developed primarily for anti armor use
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no "shield" could protect you
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describe the AIM -9 Sidewinder
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supersonic air to air weapon; passive infrared target detection
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sonic; red;
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2 versions of the AGM -65 Maverick?
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E laser and F infrared
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Who's design is the M61A1 gun system based upon?
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Richard J Gatlin
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gatlin gun
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what are the two rates of fire for the M61A1?
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low 4000 high 6000
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what are the two modes of fire for the M61A1?
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air to air and air to ground
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What percentage of low drag general purpose bombs is explosive?
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45%
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what are the two modes of operation for the SLQ-32?
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active and passive
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what is active mode?
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actions that the enemy can detect
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what is passive mode?
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actions that the enemy can't detect
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what are the two primary surface search radars onboard?
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SPS-67 SPS -64
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weapons that the AV8B can employ
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25mm gun, maverick missle, sidewinder missle, LDGP, laser guided bombs, rockets
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weapons that the AH1W cobra can employ
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20mm gun, rockets hellfire missle, sidewinder missle
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weapons that the UH1N huey can employ
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rockets, 7.62mm
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what is the difference between a rocket and a missle?
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a rocket has no guidance a missle does
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how many .50cal mounts are onboard and their locations
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4 onboard; 2 portside, 1 starboard, 1 on the fantail
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how many 25mm are onboard?
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4
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what is the effective range of the 25mm?
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2700 yards
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how many CIWIS Mounts are onboard?
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2
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where are CIWIS located?
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04 level forward 01 level stbd aft
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effective range of CIWIS?
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1200 yards 1NM
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how many NATO sea sparrow launchers are on board?
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2
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where are the sea sparrow launchers located at?
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04 level forward 02 level aft
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how many missles are in each sea sparrow launcher?
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10
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how many RAM launchers are onboard?
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2, one operational the other was removed for JSF testing
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where are the RAM launchers located?
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04 level forward 02 level port aft
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how many missles are in each RAM launcher?
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21
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what is the function of the FIM-92 stinger?
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shoulder launched aerial intercept guided missile
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where is the bomb farm located?
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stbd side forward side of the island
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how many bomb jettison ramps are on the flight deck?
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10
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who is the gun boss and what does his job entail?
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LCDR KERR responsible for all weapons personnel
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who is the ordnance handling officer? (OHO)
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CWO3 Garr
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how many divisions are in weapons dept?
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4
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what is G1
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flight deck ordnance, armament weapons support equipment (AWSE)
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what is G2
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ships armory/ magazine sprinklers
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what is G3
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magazines/ bomb assembly
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what is G4
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admin/ QA/ ordnance control/ logistics
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