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60 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Bone is composed of which of the following elements?
1. Organic only 2. Inorganic only 3. Both 1 and 2 above 4. Ethmoid |
Bone itself is a living, highly vascular tissue, which is made up of both inorganic (minerals) and organic (cells & connective tissue fiber) elements.
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The inner spongy, porous portion of bone is referred to as what type of bone?
1. Cortical 2. Compact 3. Connective 4. Cancellous |
Bone consists of a hard outer shell called cortical or compact bone and an inner spongy, porous portion referred to as cancellous bone.
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The thin layered connective tissue that surrounds each bone and provides nourishment through many vascular vessels is referred to as what type of bone?
1. Cartilage 2. Periosteum 3. Inner mucosa 4. Cartilaginous |
A thin layer of connective tissue, called periosteum, surrounds each bone and provides nourishment through many vascular vessels.
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The cranium is formed by how many cranial bones?
1. 8 2. 6 3. 3 4. 28 |
The cranium is formed by eight cranial bones,
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This bone is shaped like a wing.
A. Frontal Bone B. Parietal Bones C. Temporal Bones D. Occipital Bone E. Sphenoid Bone F. Ethmoid Bone |
The sphenoid bone has a wing-like shape and is internally wedged between several other bones in the front part of the cranium.
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These bone(s) has/have four borders and is/are shaped like a curved plate.
A. Frontal Bone B. Parietal Bones C. Temporal Bones D. Occipital Bone E. Sphenoid Bone F. Ethmoid Bone |
The two parietal bones are located behind the frontal bone. These bones form the greater part of the right and left sides and the roof of the skull. They each have four borders and are shaped like a curved plate.
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This bone has small openings through which nerves pass to the roof of the mouth.
A. Frontal Bone B. Parietal Bones C. Temporal Bones D. Occipital Bone E. Sphenoid Bone F. Ethmoid Bone |
The ethmoid bone is situated in front of the sphenoid bone in the front part of the cranium. Through small openings in this bone pass nerves to the roof of the mouth that are responsible for sense of smell.
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This bone has a large opening called the foramen magnum.
A. Frontal Bone B. Parietal Bones C. Temporal Bones D. Occipital Bone E. Sphenoid Bone F. Ethmoid Bone |
The occipital bone forms the back part of the skull and the base of the cranium. It joins with the parietal and temporal bones. In the center, underside (inferior) portion of the cranium, there is a large opening called the foramen magnum, through which nerve fibers from the brain pass and enter into the spinal cord.
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By the time a child reaches 5 or 6 years of age, this bone has usually fused together.
A. Frontal Bone B. Parietal Bones C. Temporal Bones D. Occipital Bone E. Sphenoid Bone F. Ethmoid Bone |
In children, the frontal bone develops as two parts. They are usually fused together by age 5 or 6.
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The internal ear structures are enclosed by these bone(s).
A. Frontal Bone B. Parietal Bones C. Temporal Bones D. Occipital Bone E. Sphenoid Bone F. Ethmoid Bone |
One temporal bone is located on each side of the head. It is readily recognized as “fan-shaped.” Each encloses the internal ear structures and have depressions called glenoid fossae that forms the articulation with the mandible.
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The facial skeleton is made up of how many stationary bones including the mandible?
1. 7 2. 15 3. 22 4. 28 |
The facial skeleton consists of 14 stationary bones and a mobile lower jawbone (mandible).
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These bones form the cheek bones, and help form the sides and floor of the orbits.
A. Maxille bones B. Palatine bones C. Zygomatic bones D. Lacrimal bones E. Nasal bones F. Vomer bone G. Mandible |
The zygomatic bones make up the prominence of the cheeks and extend from the zygomatic process of the temporal bone to the zygomatic process of the maxilla. The zygomatic bones form the “cheek bones” and help to form the sides and floor of the orbits.
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The smallest and most fragile of the cranial bones.
A. Maxille bones B. Palatine bones C. Zygomatic bones D. Lacrimal bones E. Nasal bones F. Vomer bone G. Mandible |
The lacrimal bones are the smallest and most fragile of the cranial bones. These thin, scalelike structures are located in back of the frontal process of the maxilla.
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The only movable bone in the skull.
A. Maxille bones B. Palatine bones C. Zygomatic bones D. Lacrimal bones E. Nasal bones F. Vomer bone G. Mandible |
The mandible (lower jaw-bone) is the longest, strongest, and the only movable bone in the skull.
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The bones are somewhat L-shaped.
A. Maxille bones B. Palatine bones C. Zygomatic bones D. Lacrimal bones E. Nasal bones F. Vomer bone G. Mandible |
The palatine bones are located behind the maxillae. The bones are somewhat L-shaped and form the posterior portion of the hard palate and the floor of the nose. Anteriorly, they join with the
maxillary bone. |
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Small oblong bones, somewhat rectangular in shape.
A. Maxille bones B. Palatine bones C. Zygomatic bones D. Lacrimal bones E. Nasal bones F. Vomer bone G. Mandible |
The nasal bones are small oblong bones somewhat rectangular in shape. They lie side by side and are fused at the midline to form the bridge of the nose (nasal septum). These bones are responsible for the shape of the nose.
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Consists of a body and four processes.
A. Maxille bones B. Palatine bones C. Zygomatic bones D. Lacrimal bones E. Nasal bones F. Vomer bone G. Mandible |
The maxillae bones are the largest bones of the face and together form the upper jaw.
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Connects with the ethmoid bone and together they form the nasal septum.
A. Maxille bones B. Palatine bones C. Zygomatic bones D. Lacrimal bones E. Nasal bones F. Vomer bone G. Mandible |
The vomer bone is a thin, flat, single bone almost trapezoid in shape. It connects with the ethmoid bone and together they form the nasal septum.
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The process that is located posterior on the ramus and forms the head of the mandible is known by which of the following terms?
1. Palatine 2. Coronoid 3. Condyloid 4. Alveolar |
Condyloid process—Also called mandibular condyle, located posterior on the ramus and forms the head of the mandible. It is knuckle-shaped, and articulates in the glenoid fossa of the temporal bone to form the temporal mandibular joint.
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A dentist will use anesthetic to block nerve impulses of the mandibular teeth in which of the following areas?
1. Mental protuberance 2. Mandibular foramen 3. Maxillary foramen 4. Zygomatic foramen |
Mandibular foramen—Located near the center of each ramus on the medial side (inside).
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What process helps lift the mandible to close the mouth?
1. Palatine 2. Coronoid 3. Condyloid 4. Alveolar |
Coronoid process—Located anterior of the condyle, and provides attachment for the temporal’s muscle, which helps lift the mandible to close the mouth.
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How many small bones are located in each middle ear?
1. One 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four |
In each middle’ ear and located in the auditory ossicles are three small bones named the malleus, incus, and staples.
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What oval depression in the temporal bone articulates with the mandibular condyle?
1. Glenoid fossa 2. Temporal fossa 3. Coronoid eminence 4. Articular eminence |
Glenoid fossa—Oval depression in the temporal bone that articulates with the mandibular condyle.
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When you are smiling, what muscle raises the comer of the mouth?
1. Zygomaticus major 2. Zygomaticus minor 3. Buccinator 4. Mentalis |
Zygomaticus Major
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How many pairs of muscles in the mandible make chewing movements possible?
1. One 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four |
Lateral pterygoid
Medial pterygoid Temporalis Masseter |
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The moist inner lining of the side walls of the mouth is known by which of the following terms?
1. Fat tissue 2. Papillae 3. Mucosa 4. TMJ |
The cheeks are the side walls of the mouth. They are made up of layers of skin, a moist inner lining called mucosa, fat tissue, and certain muscles.
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In what area of the external lips does the red mucous membrane end and the normal outside skin of the face begin?
1. Lip border 2. Lip point 3. Vermilion border 4. Orbicularis oris |
Vermilion border-The area of the external lips where the red mucous membrane ends and normal outside skin of the face begins is known as the vermilion border.
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What are the rough projections on the surface of the tongue called?
1. Taste buds 2. Papillae 3. Fissures 4. Warts |
On the surface of the tongue are rough projections called papillae. They provide the tongue with friction in handling food and also act as taste buds.
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Where are the taste buds located?
1. Cheeks 2. Tongue only 3. Roof of the mouth only 4. Both 2 and 3 above |
The four types of taste sensations are sweet, sour, bitter, and salty-all resulting from stimulation of the taste buds. Most are located on the tongue and the roof of the mouth.
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What muscles elevate the tongue and depress the mandible?
1. Mylohyoid 2. Temporalis 3. Medial pterygoid 4. Lateral pterygoid |
The mylohyoid muscles anatomically and functionally form the floor of the mouth. They elevate the tongue and depress the mandible.
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What is the name of irregular ridges or folds that are
located behind the central incisors? 1. Skin tags 2. Palate 3. Pugae 4. Rugae |
Hard palate
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How many pints of saliva do the salivary glands produce on a daily basis?
1. One to four 2. Two to three 3. Two to four 4. Six to eight |
The salivary glands produce two to three pints of saliva daily, which greatly aids in the digestion process.
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How many phases is deglutition divided into?
1. One 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four |
It is divided into three phases; the first phase of swallowing is voluntarily; phases two and three are involuntary.
Phase one: the collection and swallowing of masticated food. Phase two: passage of food through the pharynx into the beginning of the esophagus. Phase three: the passage of food into the stomach. |
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When teeth are in the odontogenesis phase, every
tooth goes through how many developmental processes? 1. One 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four |
When teeth are in the odontogenesis phase (tooth formation), every tooth goes through three developmental processes. They are categorized into the growth, calcification, and eruption periods.
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Dental development usually begins in which of the following weeks of prenatal life?
1. Fourth 2. Fifth only 3. Sixth only 4. Either 2 and 3 |
Dental development usually begins in the fifth or sixth week of prenatal life.
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How many total tooth buds are present in a prenatal
maxillary and mandibular arch? 1. 32 2. 20 3. 15 4. 10 |
20
Usually 10 tooth buds are present in each dental arch and they give rise to future primary teeth. Tooth buds |
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What is the name of the last period of tooth growth?
1. Histodifferentiation 2. Morphodifferentiation only 3. Eruptodifferentiation only 4. Both 2 and 3 above |
The last period of growth is also known as histodifferentiation (the acquisit on of tissue characteristics by cell groups) or bell stage.
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How many years does it take permanent teeth to emerge after crown completion?
1. One 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four |
Tooth buds for the permanent teeth form between the 17th week of fetal life through the age of 5 years.
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When primary teeth get ready to fall out and make way for the eruption of permanent teeth, what is the name of the process?
1. Exposure 2. Histology 3. Infoliation 4. Exfoliation |
When primary teeth get ready to fall out and make way for the eruption of permanent teeth, they go through a process called exfoliation (shedding).
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The part of the crown that is visible in the mouth is known by which of the following terms?
1. Clinical crown 2. Clinical tooth 3. Clinical enamel 4. Clinical exposure |
The term clinical crown is applied to the part of the crown exposed (visible) in the mouth.
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What priority category will family members of an active duty member be placed on for treatment eligibility?
1. 1A 2. 2 3. 1B 4. 4 |
2
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Which of the following methods is often the best use of treatment time?
1. Block 2. Fixed 3. Non-fixed 4. Increment |
The increment method is
often the best use of treatment time because the patient is appointed only for the time needed to complete the procedure. |
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When making a patient an appointment, where should you first enter the information?
1. Appointment book 2. Appointment card 3. Patient’s record 4. Patient log |
Enter the information in the appointment book or computer system first, and then complete the patient’s appointment card.
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Which type of register will show the date, name, grade/rate, and reason for visit?
1. Front desk 2. Special 3. Appointment 4. Patient |
The patient register or log is maintained at the appointment desk and shows the date, name, rank/rate, and reason for the visit.
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Which NAVMED form is used to schedule dental appointments?
1. 6600/5 2. 6600/2 3. 6600/3 4. 6600/4 |
The appointment book consists of a series of NAVMED 6600/5 Forms or local forms that resemble the 6000/5.
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Which NAVMED form is used as a dental appointment card?
1. 6600/2 2. 6600/4 3. 6600/6 4. 6600/8 |
A NAVMED 6600/6 is given to each patient scheduled for a dental appointment.
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What type of list is used for patients requiring extensive treatment?
1. Class three priority list 2. Patient three list 3. Patient call list 4. Both 2 and 3 |
The Patient Call List is used for patients requiring extensive treatment, or need to be seen sooner than the next available scheduled appointment time.
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The dental computerized recall system uses a maximum of how many lists?
1. 3 2. 6 3. 9 4. 12 |
The system uses twelve separate lists or file sections (one for each month).
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Which of the following information does DENMIS NOT have the capability to process?
1. Dental Workload reports 2. Provider NMIMC reports 3. Provider Treatment Time reports 4. Patient and Unit Dental Treatment Needs reports |
Provider NMIMC reports
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The Daily DIRS record is designed to give providers what type of a treatment record?
1. Monthly 2. Weekly 3. Bi-weekly 4. Daily |
The Daily DIRS record (formally known as NAVMED 6600/11) is designed to give providers a record of treatment performed daily.
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BUMED Instruction 6300.10 is divided into how many parts?
1. Five 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four |
The program has three parts, which are Internal, External and Patient Relations.
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Which program allows patients to voice and document how they are treated?
1. Patient Complaint 2. Patient Contact 3. Patient Survey 4. Patient Quality Assurance |
Patient Contact
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Validated patient complaints and compliments are
incorporated into which of the command’s annual assessments? 1. Quality of Life 2. Quality of Care 3. Quality Insurance 4. Quality Assurance |
Quality Assurance
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The new Dental Record Jacket is which of the following NAVMED forms?
1. 6150/21-30 2. 6150/10-19 3. 6150/09-19 4. 6150/00-08 |
6150/21-30
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Which number of the SSN is preprinted on the
Dental Record Jacket? 1. Last 2. Second to last 3. Third to last 4. Fourth to last |
Second to last
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A patient without an SSN will have which of the following substitute SSN’s established if the birth date is August 11, 1959?
1. 000-08-1159 2. 001-08-1159 3. 800-59-1108 4. 800-08-1159 |
800-08-1159-substitute” SSN by coding the first three digits with 800 and the last six digits as the month, day, and year of the patient’s birth (i.e., MM-DD-YY).
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Which of the following FMP codes will be placed in
the two diamonds preceding the SSN for a retired member from the USN? 1. 01 2. 20 3. 30 4. 60 |
20
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Which of the following phrases is written in the lower portion of the patient’s identification box for retired 0-7 and above personnel?
1. “VIP” 2. “ADMIRAL” 3. “FLAG/GENERAL OFFICER” 4. “ATTENTION ON DECK” |
For all retired flag and general officers (i.e., 0-7 and above), enter the phrase “FLAG OFFICER” or “GENERAL OFFICER,”
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Which of the following symbols and color of felt-tip
pen will be placed in the alert box if the patient has an allergy or sensitivity? 1. “A/S” Black 2. "X” Red 3. “A/S” Red 4. “X” Black |
Immediately below the instruction box, indicate in the alert box whether the patient has sensitivities or allergies by entering an “X” in the appropriate boxes (if none, leave blank).
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Which, if any, of the following color felt-tip pen is
used to mark the annual verification section on the right-hand side of the jacket? 1. Red 2. Blue 3. Black 4. None of the above |
The annual verification section is located on the right-hand side of the jacket and starts with the year 1996-2014. Leave this section blank. This block should not be, completed for dental records.
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