Don't Forget

Front 1

Rx for serotonin syndrome

Back 1

Cryproheptadine

Front 2

Rx for neuroleptic malignant syndrome

Back 2

Dantrolene
or agonists, e.g. bromocriptine

Front 3

Ragged red fibers indicate

Back 3

Mitochondrial myopathy

Front 4

Blotchy red muscle fibers on Gomori trichrome stain indicate

Back 4

Mitochondrial myopathy

Front 5

Key sign of mitochondrial myopathy

Back 5

Ragged red muscle fibers!

Front 6

Treatment for orotic aciduria?

Back 6

Oral uridine administration (feedback inhiibits CPS 2 --> decreased orotic acid)

Front 7

Normal CFTR protein ____ Cl from sweat an _____ Cl in lungs and GI tract

Back 7

Reabsorbs from sweat
Actively secretes in lungs/ GI tract

Front 8

Three stop codons

Back 8

UAG
UGA
UAA

Front 9

Mucicarmine stain

Back 9

Cryptococcus
(detects polysaccharide capsule)
(also methenamine silver)

Front 10

Mechanism of Shiga-toxin

Back 10

Inactivates 60S ribosomal subunit --> inhibition of protein synthesis

Front 11

Two bacteria that inhibit EF-2

Back 11

C. diphtheriae
Pseudomonas

Front 12

Rx Legionnaire's disease

Back 12

Erythromycin

Front 13

Two bugs with cold agglutinins

Back 13

Mycoplasma pneumoniae
EBV

Front 14

Bronchiolitis obliterans

Back 14

Chronic rejection with lung transplant is from inflammation/ fibrosis of bronchiolar walls (NOT vascular, as in most chronic rejection)

Front 15

Respiratory distress, diffuse neurological impairment, and upper body petechial rash within several days of severe long bone fractures?

Back 15

Fat embolism syndrome

Front 16

Effect on which murmurs, and why:
inspiration

Back 16

R-sided murmurs louder

Front 17

Effect on which murmurs, and why:
expiration

Back 17

L-sided murmurs louder

Front 18

Effect on which murmurs, and why:
Valsalva/ standing

Back 18

Decreased venous return --> must murmurs softer, except HCM and MVP

Front 19

Effect on which murmurs, and why: squatting/ passive leg raise

Back 19

Increased TPR --> most murmurs louder, except HCM and MVP

Front 20

Effect on which murmurs, and why: handgrip

Back 20

Increased afterload --> MR, VSD, and AR become louder; HCM softer

Front 21

How do you differentiate CML from a leukemoid reaction?

Back 21

Leukocyte alkaline phosphatase:
Decreased in CML
Normal/ elevated in leukemoid rxn

Front 22

Precocious puberty, paralysis of conjugate vertical gaze, and obstructive hydrocephalus

Back 22

Germinoma in the pineal gland

(Parinaud syndrome is paralysis of conjugate vertical gaze due to lesion in superior colliculi)

Front 23

Intestinal biopsy in lactase deficiency shows

Back 23

Normal appearing villi

Front 24

Foamy enterocytes on intestinal biopsy indicates

Back 24

Abeta-lipoproteinemia

Front 25

Meiosis I is arrested in?

Back 25

PrOphase until Ovulation

Front 26

Meiosis II is arrested in?

Back 26

METaphase until fertilization (when egg met a sperm)

Front 27

somatomedin C is also known as

Back 27

Insulin-like growth factor 1 (IGF-1)

Front 28

A lesion to which hypothalamic nucleus --> anorexia?

Back 28

Lateral

Front 29

A lesion to which hypothalamic nucleus --> hyperphagia

Back 29

Ventromedial

Front 30

Leptin inhibits which hypothalamic nucleus?

Back 30

Lateral (which causes hunger)

Front 31

Leptin stimulates which hypothalamic nucleus?

Back 31

Ventromedial

Front 32

Which brain tumor commonly destroys the ventromedial hypothalamic area?

Back 32

Craniopharyngioma

Front 33

Hemolytic anemia, hypercoagulable state, and decreased blood counts

Back 33

Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

Front 34

Deficiency of CD 55 and CD 59 is diagnostic of?

Back 34

Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

Front 35

PNH is caused by impaired synthesis of?

Back 35

GPI anchor, which is necessary for attachment of CD55/CD59, the "decay accelerating factor" that inhibits complement on RBC membrane

Front 36

Homogenous sheets of cells with translucent cytoplasm on renal biopsy

Back 36

RCC (clear cell)

Front 37

Opsoclonus, myoclonus, truncal ataxia

Back 37

Paraneoplastic syndrome in neuroblastoma

Front 38

Aniridia, GU malformations, and mental- motor retardation are associated with which childhood tumor?

Back 38

Wilms' tumor

Front 39

What can cause hepatic adenoma to regress?

Back 39

Cessation of OCPs

Front 40

Characteristics of polymyalgia rheumatica

Back 40

Neck, torso, shoulder, and pelvic girdle pain + morning stiffness

Fatigue, fever, and weight loss

Front 41

Alport's Syndrome causes defects in these three organs

Back 41

Kidneys (progressive nephritis), ears (deafness), eyes

Front 42

ADPKD is associated with these three complications

Back 42

Polycystic liver disease
Berry aneurysms
Mitral valve prolapse

Front 43

Guillain-Barre Syndrome has a ___ inflammatory infiltrate

Back 43

Endoneural

Front 44

Bell's Palsy is a complication of these diseases

Back 44

ALexander graHam BELL w/ STD
AIDS
Lyme disease
Herpes zoster
Sarcoidosis
Tumors
Diabetes

Front 45

ADPKD is carried by a mutation on chromosome?

Back 45

16

Front 46

RFs for esophageal squamous cell cancer

Back 46

Alcohol
Achalasia
Cigarettes
Diverticula (e.g. Zenker's)
Esophageal web (Plummer-Vinson)
Esophagitis

Front 47

Iron-deficiency anemia, atrophic glossitis (beefy red tongue), esophageal web

Back 47

Plummer-Vinson Syndrome

Front 48

Werdnig-Hoffman disease presents similarly to?

Back 48

Poliomyelitis (LMN lesions from destruction of anterior horns --> flaccid paralysis)

Front 49

Inheritance of Werdnig-Hoffman?

Back 49

AR (death at 7mo)

Front 50

Hemochromatosis is caused by a mutation on chromosome?

Back 50

6 (mutant HFE gene can't detect circulating iron levels, so keeps expressing iron uptake proteins --> increased GI absorption)

Front 51

Degeneration of this part of the brain occurs in Wilson's disease

Back 51

Basal ganglia (specifically putamen)

Front 52

When should supplementary O2 be used in COPD?

Back 52

Very rarely! These pts have adjusted to hypercapnia, so they depend instead on hypoxia for respiratory drive–increasing their oxygen could decrease that drive.

Front 53

Three diseases on chromosome 7

Back 53

Ehlers-Danlos
Osteogenesis imperfecta
CF

Front 54

3 structural changes in the heart with aging

Back 54

Lipofuscin deposits
Decreased LV cavity size
Sigmoid-shaped ventricular septum blocking LV outflow tract

Front 55

Chemo agents: ____ is given with doxorubicin to prevent _____

Back 55

Dexrazoxane (iron chelating agent)
Cardiotoxicity

Front 56

Chemo agents: ____ is given with cyclophosphamide or ifosfamide to prevent _____

Back 56

Mesna (has a thiol group that binds toxic metabolite, acrolein)
Hemorrhagic cystitis

Front 57

Chemo agents: ____ and ____ are given with cisplatin and carboplatin to prevent ____ and _____

Back 57

Amifustine (thiol-based cytoprotective free-radical scavenger)
Hydration (IV saline --> chloride diuresis --> cispaltin stays in nonreactive state)
Nephrotoxicity and acoustic nerve damage

Front 58

Serum levels of ceruloplasmin are increased/ decreased in Wilson's?

Back 58

Decreased

Front 59

Rx for Wilson's

Back 59

Penicillamine (chelator)

Front 60

Rx for hemochromatosis

Back 60

Deferoxamine (chelator) and phlebotomy

Front 61

Tension pneumothorax: ____ breath sounds and ____ to percussion

Back 61

Absent
Hyperresonance

Front 62

Fever, rash, oliguria, and eosinophilia 1-2 wks after started a new med

Back 62

Acute interstitial nephritis

Front 63

2 reasons the kidney is susceptible to emboli?

Back 63

Receives 3-5x more blood flow
Few collaterals

Front 64

2 diseases that stain PAS+

Back 64

Whipple's
alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency

Front 65

Lipid drugs that can increase TG levels?

Back 65

Bile acid resins

Front 66

If alk phos is elevated, what test should be done next?

Back 66

GGT (can distinguish etiology: alk phos is increased in both bone and hepatobiliary diseases, but GGT is specific for hepatobiliary disease)

Front 67

Polyarteritis nodosa is associated with what infection?

Back 67

HBV

Front 68

Fever, ab pain, peripheral neuropathy, muscle weakness, weight loss

Back 68

Polyarteritis nodosa

Front 69

Vasculitis associated with antibiotic use (often penicillin)

Back 69

Microscopic polyangiitis

Front 70

Formation of microabscesses containing fibrin and neutrophils at the dermal papillae tips

Back 70

Dermatitis herpetiformis (from IgA and IgG Abs cross reacting with reticulin, a BM anchoring fibril protein)

Front 71

2 vitamins not in adequate amounts in breast milk?

Back 71

Vita D and K

Front 72

Mechanism of N-acetylcysteine in CF

Back 72

Cleaves disulfide bonds within mucous glycoproteins --> loosens mucous plugs

Front 73

5 drug classes with antimuscarinic effects

Back 73

Atropine
TCAs
H1 antagonists
Neuroleptics
Antiparkinsonian rugs

Front 74

Why do bile acid resins and fibrates increase the risk of gallstones?

Back 74

Increase cholesterol synthesis and excretion

Front 75

Initial injury in thoracic aortic aneurysms?
Initial injury in AAAs?

Back 75

Vaso vasorum obliteration
Intimal streak (atherosclerosis)

Front 76

Fulminant liver disease one week after open cholecystectomy

Back 76

Halothane toxicity --> fulminant hepatitis

Front 77

Why does central retinal artery occlusion present with a cherry red spot on the macula?

Back 77

Macula has separate blood supply (choroid artery), so is not affected by retinal artery occlusion like the rest of the retina

Front 78

Only lab abnormality of sickle cell trait?

Back 78

Will sickle when sodiummetabisulfite is added

Front 79

HFE gene is on the short arm of chromosome

Back 79

6

Front 80

Renal papillary necrosis is associated with these four conditions:

Back 80

DM
Acute pyelonephritis
Chronic phenacetin use (e.g. acetaminophen)
SCD (or trait)

Front 81

Granular, muddy brown casts

Back 81

Acute tubular necrosis

Front 82

3 causes of papilledema

Back 82

Malignant HTN
Communicating hydrocephalus
Guillain-Barre

Front 83

Medial calcification

Back 83

Monckeberg (asymptomatic)

Front 84

Differential cyanosis

Back 84

Cyanosis in lower, but not upper, extremities

Indicative of PDA

Front 85

Potency of inhaled anesthetic =

Back 85

1/MAC
MAC = minimum alveolar concentration at which 50% of population is anesthetized

Front 86

Atypical lymphocyte

Back 86

EBV

Front 87

Auspitz sign

Back 87

Psoriasis (bleeding spots when scales are scraped off)

Front 88

Acanthosis (increased stratum spinosum), parakeratosis, and decreased stratum granulosum

Back 88

Psoriasis

Front 89

Intraepidermal vesicles, hyperkeratosis, acanthosis, spongiosus, inflammation

Back 89

Atopic dermatitis

Front 90

Nitroprusside toxicity and treatment?

Back 90

Cyanide toxicity (releases CN)
Rx: sodium thiosulfate (donates sulfur to liver rhodanase to enhance metabolism/ detox of cyanide --> thiocyanate)

Front 91

Pathogenesis of vitiligo vs. albinism?

Back 91

Absent melanocytes
Poor melanin formation in melanocytes

Front 92

Melanosome aggregates within the cytoplasm of melanocytes manifests as

Back 92

Cafe au lait spots

Front 93

Councilman body

Back 93

Apoptotic hepatocyte (acidophilic/ eosinophilic)

Front 94

Secondary complication risk from subarachnoid hemorrhage?

Back 94

Vasospasm 2-3 days later

Front 95

Treatment/ prevention of SAH-associated vasospasm?

Back 95

CCBs

Front 96

Argatroban is a?

Back 96

Direct thrombin inhibitor

Front 97

Which vasculitis extends into contiguous veins and nerves?

Back 97

Buerger's disease (thromboangiitis obliterans)

Front 98

Auer rods stain with?

Back 98

Peroxidase

Front 99

What substance mediates malignancy-associated hypercoagulability?

Back 99

Thromboplastin

Front 100

Firm and brown spleen in SCD pt

Back 100

Autosplenectomy (occurs in all pts by 8-10yo); due to vascular occlusion from extensive ingestion of sickled cells by splenic macrophages

Front 101

Port-wine stain is associated with these 3 other manifestations

Back 101

Sturge-Weber disease:
Ipsilateral leptomeningeal angiomatosis (intracerebral AVM)
Seizures
Early-onset glaucoma

Front 102

Hemiballismus is usually due to a ____ near _____

Back 102

Lacunar stroke
Subthalamic nucleus

Front 103

Potential complication of CMV retinitis

Back 103

Retinal detachment

Front 104

Two foods that don't contain gluten

Back 104

Oats and rice

Front 105

Abetalipoproteinemia is an inability to form

Back 105

Chylomicrons

Front 106

PE causes what acid/base disturbance?

Back 106

Hyperventilation --> respiratory alkalosis

Front 107

Most common cause of aortic aneurysms?

Back 107

Atherosclerosis

Front 108

How does HBC cause HCC?

Back 108

Integrates into host DNA (vs. HCV: injury and inflammation --> genetic instability)

Front 109

Waxing and waning lymphadenopathy

Back 109

Follicular lymphoma

Front 110

Hyperpigmented mouth

Back 110

Peutz-Jeghers Syndrome (+ hamartomas throughout GI tract and increased risk of colon and other cancers)
- AD

Front 111

Weight loss drug?

Back 111

Orlistat

Front 112

Mechanism of Orlistat?

Back 112

Intestinal lipase inhibitor

Front 113

2 causes of renal artery stenosis

Back 113

Atherosclerosis
Fibromuscular dysplasia (females)

Front 114

Bromocriptine: mechanism and 2 uses

Back 114

Dopamine agonist
PD and hyperPRL

Front 115

How to prevent cyclosporine nephrotoxicity?

Back 115

Mannitol diuresis

Front 116

Complication of alkaptonuria?

Back 116

Debilitating arthralgias

Front 117

Transmembrane proteins are composed of?

Back 117

Hydrophobic (nonpolar) aas

Front 118

Cellular ischemia promotes influx of _____ and efflux of _____?

Back 118

Na, Cl, H2O, and Ca
K+ and H+

Front 119

Hallmark of ischemic injury?

Back 119

Cytoplasmic Ca accumulation

Front 120

Inferior mesenteric vein drains to the

Back 120

Poral vein

Front 121

GPCRs work via ____ hydrolysis

Back 121

GTP

Front 122

E6 ____, E7 _____

Back 122

shuts off p53
shuts off Rb

Front 123

3-hydroxybutyrate, acetone, and acetoacetate are

Back 123

Ketone bodies

Front 124

____ soluble materials cross the placenta, while _____ don't

Back 124

Lipid
Water

Front 125

Complication of mumps?

Back 125

Sexual dysfunction

Front 126

Genetic shift causes

Back 126

Pandemics

Front 127

Genetic drift causes

Back 127

Epidemics

Front 128

Antigenic drift is another way of describing

Back 128

Random mutation

Front 129

Genetic shift occurs due to

Back 129

Genetic reassortment

Front 130

No genetic exchange occurs with

Back 130

Phenotypic mixing (just get surface proteins)

Front 131

Thrombotic complication of mucormycosis?

Back 131

Cavernous sinus

Front 132

Sign of cavernous sinus thrombosis?

Back 132

CN VI palsy (lateral gaze palsy)

Front 133

Systemic Rx for psoriasis?

Back 133

Retinoids

Front 134

Galactosyl beta-1,4-glucose is also known as?

Back 134

Lactose

Front 135

Decreased intestinal lactose activity with age due to?

Back 135

Decreased gene expression

Front 136

Hyperorality, hyperphagia, hypersexuality, disinhibition

Back 136

Kluver-Bucy Syndrome

Front 137

Kluver-Bucy syndrome is due to lesion where?

Back 137

Bilateral amygdala

Front 138

Contraction alkalosis mechanism?

Back 138

Volume loss --> increased aldosterone --> decreased H+ and K+

Front 139

Lumbar kyphosis: contracture of?

Back 139

Anterior abdominal muscles

Front 140

Lumbar lordosis: contracture of?

Back 140

Hip flexors (weakness of hip extensors)

Front 141

Antipsychotics are dopamine ____

Back 141

Antagonists

Front 142

2 lung volumes that increase in COPD?

Back 142

RV > TLC

Front 143

What are incretins (and one example)

Back 143

GI hormones secreted by gut mucosa that stimulate insulin secretion in response to a sugary meal
GLP-1

Front 144

Carbonic anhydrase actiivty in bone

Back 144

Bone remodeling (osteoclast activity)

Front 145

Negri bodies are _____ in the _____, pathognomonic for _____

Back 145

Eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusions
Hippocampal neurons
Rabies virus

Front 146

Pharnygeal muscle spasms

Back 146

Rabies

Front 147

Path of rabies

Back 147

Wound --> neuron axons --> salivary glands

Front 148

Xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis

Back 148

Infectious renal phlegmon

Front 149

GBS can be caught from

Back 149

Mother's vagina

Front 150

Kartagener's is a ____ defect

Back 150

Dynein

Front 151

Dynein moves ____

Back 151

Retrograde

Front 152

Kinesin moves ____

Back 152

Anterograde

Front 153

Achalasia has ___ pressure at the LES

Back 153

High

Front 154

Flask-shaped ulcer after submucosal abscess of colon ruptures

Back 154

Entamoeba histolytica

Front 155

Bloddy diarrhea or red-brown liver abscess

Back 155

Entamoeba histolytica (amoebiasis)

Front 156

Transmission of entamoeba histolytica

Back 156

Cysts in water

Front 157

Diagnosis of entamoeba histolytica

Back 157

Serology or trophozoites or cysts in stool; RBCs in cytoplasm of entamoeba

Front 158

Rx of amebiasis

Back 158

Metronidazole and iodoquinol

Front 159

Rx for Crigler-Najjar

Back 159

Phenobarbital (increases liver enzyme synthesis), but only for Type II (less severe)

Front 160

Defect in Crigler-Najjar

Back 160

Absent UDP-glucuronyl transferase

Front 161

What is kernicterus

Back 161

Bilirubin deposition in brain

Front 162

Two causes of elevated unconjugated bilirubin in newborns

Back 162

Gilbert's (mildly decreased UDP-glucoronyl transferase or decreased bilirubin uptake)
Crigler-Najjaar

Front 163

Toxicity of amphotericin

Back 163

Nephrotoxicity --> decreased GFR, dose dependent
Which also causes electrolyte abnormalities (hypokalemia and hypomagnesemia)
Fever/ chills (infusion related)
Arrhythmias (precipitated by hypokalemia)
IV phlebitis
Anemia (from decreased EPO)

Front 164

Preventive strategies for pts on amphotericin

Back 164

Hydration (to reduce nephrotoxicity)
Supplement K and Mg

Front 165

Form of amphotericin that reduces toxicity

Back 165

Liposomal

Front 166

Drug that inhibits rental tubular secretion of penicillins/ cephalosporins?

Back 166

Probenecid

Front 167

What acts as a mineralocorticoid in the hypertensive CAHs?

Back 167

11-deoxycorticosterone

Front 168

Cough-induced syncope: typical pt and mechanism

Back 168

Overweight male with COPD
Decreased venous return

Front 169

Mictruition syncope (when rising from bed to urine): mechanism

Back 169

Orthostatic hypotension from peripheral pooling

Front 170

Syncope from stimulation of _____ sinus?

Back 170

Carotid (increases vagal tone --> bradycardia)

Front 171

Ataxia telangiectasia is a defect in ___ gene that is important in ____

Back 171

ATM gene
DNA repair

Front 172

Photosensitivity, short stature, erythema, telangiectasias (+ lymphoproliferative and GI malignancies

Back 172

Bloom syndrome (defective DNA helicase)

Front 173

Palmar erythema is a manifestation of

Back 173

Hyperestrogenemia

Front 174

NEurofibromas contain ____ cells

Back 174

Schwann (+ fibroblasts)

Front 175

NF-1 chromosome?

Back 175

17

Front 176

Fexofenadine: class

Back 176

2nd generation H1 antagonist (+ (des) loratidine, cetirizine

Front 177

In ulcerative colitis, ______ (immune cell type) accumulate in the _____

Back 177

Neutrophils
Crypt lumina (crypt abscess)

Front 178

Ovarian atresia occurs via

Back 178

Apoptosis

Front 179

Demeclocycline is used to treat?

Back 179

SIADH

Front 180

Mechanism of paclitaxel in coronary artery stents?

Back 180

Inhibits intimal hyperplasia (Sirolimus also used)

Front 181

Only 2 RNA viruses that replicate in the nucleus?

Back 181

Retroviruses and influenza

Front 182

Somatization disorders requires 4 ____ symptoms, 2 ___ symptoms, and 1 each of ___ and ____ symptoms

Back 182

Pain
GI
Sex
Pseudoneurological

Front 183

Huntington's is an increase in ____ repeats (not CAG)

Back 183

polyglutamine

Front 184

Pseudodementia occurs in ____ pts

Back 184

Psychiatric

Front 185

CAH pts develop this acid-base abnormality

Back 185

Metabolic alkalosis

Front 186

Location of psoas abscess

Back 186

Groin

Front 187

MHC genes are on chromosome

Back 187

6

Front 188

HLAs are involved in

Back 188

Antigen presentations

Front 189

Minute ventilation =

Back 189

Alveolar ventilation + dead space ventilation

Front 190

Dysmenorrhea + dyspareunia

Back 190

Endometriosis (+ infertility)

Front 191

2nd most common CMV infection

Back 191

Colitis

Front 192

NRTIs and NNRTIs have no effect on cells that

Back 192

Have already had HIV integrated into their genomes

Front 193

LE edema can be caused by obstruction of

Back 193

IVC

Front 194

Glycogen storage disease caused by a defective lysosomal enzyme

Back 194

Pompe's

Front 195

Chronic HBV w/ high vs. low infectivity

Back 195

HBeAg + vs anti-HBeAg _

Front 196

Clopidogrel must he activated by

Back 196

P450 system

Front 197

As prevalence increases, what happens to PPV and NPV?

Back 197

Both increase

Front 198

Definition of low birth weight

Back 198

<2500g

Front 199

Normal grief lasts how long?

Back 199

2 months

Front 200

Why is imipramine used to treat enuresis?

Back 200

Decreases Stage 4 sleep

Front 201

Etiology of narcolepsy

Back 201

Low levels of orexin (hypocretin)

Front 202

Rx: of narcolepsy

Back 202

stimulants and sodium oxybate (GHB)

Front 203

Ethical situation with alcoholic

Back 203

Temporary incapacitation, so can't make own health decisions

Front 204

2 positively charged aas

Back 204

Lysine and arginine (with histidine, are the basic aas)

Front 205

Heterochromatin is formed by _____ while euchromatin is formed by _____

Back 205

DNA methylation
Histone acetylation

Front 206

Rx of orotic aciduria

Back 206

Uridine (causes feedback inhibiiton of CPS2)

Front 207

Single stranded binding proteins

Back 207

Prevent DNA strands from reannealing

Front 208

DNA repair disease with hypersensitivity to ionizing radiation

Back 208

Ataxia telangiectasia

Front 209

Process of nucleotide excision repair

Back 209

Endonucleases cleave oligonucleotide containing damaged bases; DNA polymerase and ligase fill and reseal the gap

Front 210

alpha-amanitin inhibits ____ --> ____ failure

Back 210

RNA Pol II
Liver

Front 211

What disease has antibodies to spliceosomal snRNPs?

Back 211

Lupus

Front 212

____ targets ribosomes to the RER

Back 212

Signal recognition peptides

Front 213

Addition to _____ to lysosomal proteins targets the protein to the lysosome

Back 213

Mannose-6-phosphate

Front 214

Disease with failure of addition of mannose-6-phosphate

Back 214

I-cell disease

Front 215

Coarse facial features, clouded corneas, restricted joint movement, hgh plasma levels of lysosomal enzymes

Back 215

I-cell disease

Front 216

Type III cartilage is called ____ and is found where?

Back 216

Retiulin
Skin, vessels, uterus, fetal tissue

Front 217

Three complications of Ehlers-Danlos

Back 217

Joint dislocation, berry aneurysms, organ rupture

Front 218

Type of collagen most frequently affected in Ehlers-Danlos

Back 218

Type III