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775 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Define the term "policy".
A policy is an overall plan that contains general goals and broad guidelines.
Define the term "program".
A program is a plan or a system under which action may be taken towards a goal.
Define "Enviromental Pollution".
Enviromental Pollution is any act that alters the natural enviroment in an adverse way.
What are the four main sources of pollution?
1) Agricultural
2) Industrial
3) Municipal
4) Transportation
List the seven sources of Agricultural pollution.
1) Insecticides
2) Pesticides
3) Natural and chemical fertilizers.
4) Animal feedlot drainage.
5) Salt from field irrigation.
6) Silt from uncontrolled land errosion.
7) Herbicides.
What are the 3 basic forms of industrial pollution?
1) Acid (mines/factories)
2) Radioactive wastes (Powerplant operations)
3) Thermal discharges. (mining/processing of certain ores)
What is the main source of Municipal Pollutants?
Raw/inadequately treated sewage.
List the 4 sources of Municipal Pollutants.
1) Raw sewerage.
2) Road salt.
3) Storm-water runoff.
4) Refuse.
What contributes to Transportation Pollution?
1) Automobiles
2) Trains
3) Aircraft
4) Watercraft
What source contributes the most to Transportation Pollution?
What are Hydrocarbons?
Unburned fuel vapors.
What is the most serious effect of pollution?
What does burning oil and coal produce?
Sulfer Oxides.
What is the results of sulfer oxide exposure to steel?
Corrosion ratios increase by a factor of 2 or 4.
What is the result of sulfer oxide mixing with other pollutants?
It can cause steel to corrode at an even higher rate.
Why are pesticides considered "Non-selective"?
Because they usually kill more that the organisms than they were designed to eliminate.
What is the primary pollution concern of the Navy?
Shipboard waste.
Shipboard pollutants are similar to what types of civillian operations?
Municipal and Industrial.
What is the purpose of the Clean Air Act?
To establish the responsibility of air quality on each individual state.
As amended, what is the purpose of the Clean Water Act?
To restore, and maintain the chemical, physical and biological integrity of the nation's waters.
In foreign waters, Navy vessels, comply with what aggreement when dumping wastes overboard?
As applicable Status of Forces Agreement (SOFA)
If no SOFA exists what guidelines does Navy vessels follow?
The guidelines that the host country's military forces.
Naval vessels may not discharge hazardous materials within what distance of U. S. coastline?
12 nautical miles
Naval vessels shall not dispose of unpulped trash within what distance of the U.S. coastline?
25 nautical miles
Pulped trash shall not be dumped within what distance of the U. S. coastline?
12 nautical miles
When can submirines dumped compacted trash?
When they are over 12 nautical miles from U. S. coastlines and the material is negatively buoyant and if the depth is over 1000 fathoms.
When dealing with foreign coastlines what is the minimum distance a U. S. vessel be before dumping trash?
25 nautical miles.
Noise restrictions are established by what program?
Noise Prevention Program
In support of Natural, Historic and Archeological Resource Protection the Navy has established what 5 programs for guidance of its properties?
1) Land Management
2) Forest Management
3) Fish and Wildlife Management
4) Outdoor Recreation
5) General Services
What does the Land management program entail?
1) Soil/water conservation.
2) Land restoration
3) Noxious weed/poisonous plant control.
4) Agricultural land leasing.
5) Range Management
6) Landscaping
7) Ground maintenance
What does the Forest and Wildlife Management program entail?
1) Marine mammal protection
2) Migratory fish protection
3) Game/non-game species management
4) Animal damage control
What is The Outdoor Recreation Program designed to protect?
1) Migratory bird
2) Endangered species
3) Nature's beauty
General Support Programs are broken up in what way?
1) People
2) Nature
What are the different people driven General Support programs?
1) Youth programs
2) Public participation
3) Cooperative aggreements with public agencies.
What are the different nature driven General Support programs?
1) Resources inventory
2) Conservation awards
3) Coastal area management
4) Wetland protection
5) Flood plain management
6) Natural area preservation
7) Animal disease eradication
Who set up the Navy Sponsor Program?
What is the purpose of the Navy Sponsor Program?
To ease the relocation of naval personnel and their families when transferred on PCS orders.
What is the Navy's policy regarding assignment of sponsors?
A sponsor will assigned any time a member is tranferred via PCS.
What document should members request a sponsor?
NAVPERS 1330/2 - Navy Sponsor Notification
What program was designated to assist personnel in foreign countries?
The Oversea Duty Support Program
Besides the ODSP, what are two other resources that can be utilized for information about a foreign country you may visit?
1) Family Service Center
2) SITES website: www.dmdc.osd/mil/sites
What does MILCAP stand for?
What is the purpose of MILCAP?
It is a special incentive awards program designed to find new ideas which will effectively increase performance within the DoN.
What is the monetary cap of MILCAP?
What instruction outline the MILCAP?
The Navy's Health and Physical Readiness Program promotes active health and fitness at what level?
The command level.
After which week can a woman no longer be assigned or travel overseas?
After the beginning of the 28 week of pregnance.
After what week can a woman no longer fly?
The 28th week.
What are the INCONUS transferring restrictions regarding a pregnant female?
She cannot transfer to a deploying unit during the period from the 20th week of pregnancy through 4 months after the expected date of delivery.
What restriction exists for pregnant women serving onboard ships?
She cannot remain onboard if the time for medical evacuation to a treatment facility is more than 6 hours.
Beyond what week must a woman leave her shipboard billet?
The 20th week.
At what point in time will a female air controller be restricted from tower duties?
Normally after their 27th week but waiting until their 28th week is possible.
If a pregnant female is assigned to a deployable squadron what happens at the 20th week of pregnancy?
She should be reassigned to a non-deploying squadron untill the conclusion of her recuperative period.
If a woman is attending a Navy school and she finds out that she is pregnant; what course of action is prescribed?
The school's CO determines whether or not she can complete the training based upon the training schedule, projected delivery date and the required recuperation dates.
Normally a CO will grant a woman how many days convalescent leave after the baby has been delivered?
6 weeks (42 days)
Under what conditions can a woman be seperated from the Navy without maternity benifits?
1) If she was pregnant before entry into Basic Training.
2) If the pregnancy is certified during Basic Training.
3) If the training occurred during initial training.
Who will determine if a woman became pregnant during initial training?
Permanent Duty Station.
Before what week of pregnancy may a woman request seperation from naval service?
Before her 20th week of pregnancy.
What is document identification of a Family Care Plan Certificate?
NAVPERS 1740/6
What is the NAVPERS 1740/7?
Family Care Plan Arrangements
What is the purpose of the NAVPERS 1740/6 and NAVPERS 1740/7?
The certify that your family members will be cared for in your absence by providing logistical, relocation and financial arragement plans.
Custodians designated on the NAVPERS 1740/6 & 7 must have what documents?
A power of attorney that authorizes medical care in "loco parentis" (as the partent).
If the person designated "loco parentis" doesn't live locally what other requirements must be met?
1) A nonmilitary escort, for your family, to them.
2) Financial support to transport the family or caregiver to a designated location.
What is the mission of the U. S. Navy's Public Affairs Program?
To keep the public and members of naval service informed about the Navy's instrumental part in national policy/security, Navy operations and programs, and the responsibilities/activities of naval personnel as U.S. citizens.
What are the objectives of the Navy's Public Affairs Program?
To ensure the public is aware of the nature/purpose/need of the Navy, to illustrate the contributions of the Navy in scientific research/community assistance. It also shows the public how its' sailors are doing their job/ that career advantages of naval service.
What reference can be reviewed for indepth information regarding the Navy's Public Affairs and Community Relations Program?
SECNAVINST 5720.44, chapter 2.
What is the purpose of the Integrity and Efficiency (I&E) Program?
To detect, deter and eliminate fraud, waste, abuse and mismanagement.
What does the term "fraud" mean?
Fraud is intentional misleading or deceitful conduct that deprives the government of its resources or rights.
Define the term "waste".
Waste is the extravagant, careless, or needless expenditure of government resources.
Define the term "abuse".
Abuse is the intentional wrongful or improper use of government resources.
Define the term "mismanagement".
Mismanagement is to manage incomptently or dishonestly.
What are the 4 methods of reporting Fraud, Waste, Abuse or Mismanagement?
1) Chain of command.
2) Navy Hotline.
4) Write your Congressmen.
Which instruction outlines the Standards of Conduct and Professional Ethics?
What is the mission of the Inspector General (IG)?
To "inquire into and report" on any matter that affects the discipline or military effiency of the DoN.
What is one method that the IG can use to fulfill its mission?
By providing a method of receiving and investigating reports of fraud, waste, mismanagement, and related improprieties.
If a Federal Agency want to maintain a record on someone to whom must the fact be reported?
The "Federal Register"
If someone illegally discloses private information about another individual what will be the maximum fine?
What does Navy Regulations, Article 1164 dictate?
Equal opportunity shall be afforded to all on the basis of individual effort, capabilities, and talents without discrimination as to race, color, religion, creed, sex or national origin. Naval personnel shall demonstrate a strong commitment to stand on these principles and carry them out.
What is the key component of Navy Regulations, Article 1164?
What program dictates policy regarding equality?
The Command Managed Equal Opportunity (CMEO) Program.
Who provides guidance and policy for the CMEO program?
Withing the Navy who is charged with setting up individual CMEO programs?
CO of each command.
After women were allowed in sea duty construction battalions how many billets opened up for women?
Over 4,000.
How long must a servicemember be TAD before they have to report to the Housing Referral Office prior to negotiating any agreement for off-base housing?
30 days.
If you have been living in an appartment and it gets placed on a restriction list do you have to vacate the domicile?
What right does the First Amendment of the Constitution provide all people?
Freedom of speech and assembly.
What document(s) provide individuals protection from undue treatment when expressing grievances?
1) Navy Regulations
2) U.S. Navy Equal Opportunity Manual.
Military customs and traditions, ceremonies and rites of passage are "leadership tools" designed to instil what?
"Esprit de corps"
Define "hazing".
Behavior that is degrading, embarrassing or can cause injury.
If an individual consents to hazing is it alright to continue?
No. The perpetrator is still liable.
What must happen for sexual harassment to occur?
Unwanted sexual must occur in or impact on the work environment.
What does "Quid Pro Quo" translate to?
This for that.
Regarding sexual harassment, what creates a "hostile environment"?
Any behavior that makes the workplace offensive, intimidating, or abusive to another person, even if performance isn't affected.
What does Article 1165 of the U.S. Navy Regulation cover?
Who appoints a Command Ombudsman?
After appointment, an OMBUDSMAN must attend what evolution?
A 21 hour traing course.
In what year did the role of the OMBUDSMAN shift from grievance-processing to morale and welfare of families within the command?
Wo determines the content and priorities of the OMBUDSMAN program?
What binds an OMBUDSMAN to confidentiality?
The Privacy Act.
What program sets standards for reenlistment?
Reenlistment Quality Control Program
All first-term reenlistments (E1-E6) must be approved through what program?
What does Encore stand for?
Options for
Can first-term E1 and E2 personnel re-enlist?
Yes but only if they are enrolled in a special program.
Are E3 personnel allowed to re-enlist?
Only if they meet the professional growth criteria and have been approved by ENCORE.
What is a DD214?
Certificate of Release/Discharge from Active Duty.
What does the Re-enlistment code "RE-R1" indicate?
Recommended for preferred re-enlistment.
What does re-enlistment code "RE-1" mean?
Eligible for re-enlistment.
What does re-enlistment code "RE-R3" mean?
Eligible for probationary re-enlistment.
What does re-enlistment code RE-4 mean?
Not eligible for re-enlistment.
What does democracy depend upon?
The ability of a countries members to vote.
Who directs and supervises the Navy's voting program?
Chief of Naval Personnel
What does FPCA stand for?
Application for
What is SF Form 76?
What is SF Form 1987 (revised)?
Application pertaining to Federal elections.
What is the recommended delivery of stateside absentee ballot's?
September 15.
What is the recommended delivery date of absentee ballots for overseas personnel?
August 15.
What three references are utilized for basic disciplinary laws for the U.S. Navy?
1) U.S. Navy Regulations
2) Standard Orginization and Regulations of the U.S. Navy.
When was the Code of Conduct first perscribed for U.S. servicemen?
Who came up with the Code of Conduct?
President Dwight D. Eisenhowser
What military conflict made the Code of Conduct necessary?
Korean conflict.
What is the purpose of the Code of Conduct?
To provide U.S. military personnel that have been captured by the enemy a set of ideals and ethical standards to help resist the physical, mental and moral onslaughts of their captors.
What document forbids physical and mental torture of POW's?
Geneva Convention
When was the Code of Conduct amended to use gender-neutral language?
Which president is responsible ammending the Code of Conduct in 1988?
Ronald Reagan
What purpose did Executive Order 12633 serve?
It ammended the Code of Conduct to include gender-neutral language.
How many articles make up the Code of Conduct?
Which Article of the Code of Conduct states: I am an American, fighting in the forces which guard my country and our way of life. I am prepared to give my life in their defense."?
Article 1
What does Article 2 of the Code of Conduct state?
I will never surrender of my own free will. If in command I will never surrender the members of my command while they still have the means to resist.
What does Article 3 of the Code of Conduct state?
If I am captured I will continue to resist by all means available. I will make every effort to escape and aid others to escape. I will accept neither parole nor special favors from the enemy.
What does Article 4 of the Code of Conduct state?
If I become a prisoner of war, I will keep faith with my fellow prisoners. I will give no information or take part in any action which might be harmful to my comrades. If I am senior, I will take command. If not, I will obey the lawful orders of those appointed over me and will back them up in every way.
What does Article 5 of the Code of Conduct state?
When questioned, should I become a prisoner of war, I am required to give name, rank, service number and date of birth. I will evade answering further questions to the utmost of my ability. I will make no oral or written statements disloyal to my country and its allies or harmful to their cause.
What does Article 6 of the Code of Conduct?
I will never forget that I am an American, fighting for freedom, responsible for my actions, and dedicated to the principles which made my country free. I will trust in my God and in the United States of America.
What are Air Force military police known as?
Security Police
What two branches of the military refer to security personnel as Military Police?
Marine Corps
Security personnel in the Navy are known as what?
Shore Patrol
Can officers be assigned Shore Patrol duties?
What are security units that contain multiple branch personnel called?
Armed Forces Police Detachment
How are Armed forces Police Detachment identified?
They wear armbands with "AFPD" written on them.
What are MAA's?
Masters-At-Arms are shipboard police officers.
What are PPO's?
Police Petty Offices are the same as MAA but their duties exist on a divisional level.
Who does the MAA force work for?
The XO.
What does the word "discipline" mean in Latin?
"To teach".
What is discipline?
The training that developes self-control, character, and efficiency, or is the result of such training.
Is discipline a "character builder" or a destroyer of individuality"?
A "character builder".
What is the purpose of discipline in the military services?
To build a body of human beings trained and controlled for concerted action for the attainment of a common goal.
In what way does the Navy view the value of punishment?
That it shows the wrong-doer and others that the offense must not be repeated.
What is the name of the theory that the Navy subscribes to in regards to punishment?
The Deterrent Theory.
Personnel that are administering punishment are doing so as required by what?
Navy Regulations.
Where can the UCMJ be found?
Manual for Courts-Martial (1995 edition)
What document describe the principle parts of the Department of the Navy?
U.S. Navy Regulations
Who is responsible for ensuring the U.S. Navy Regulations conform to current DoN needs?
What does Article 92 of the UCMJ cover?
Failure to obey an order or regulation.
What do the first two digits of a UCMJ article indicate?
It shows from which chapter of the Navy Regs the article was taken.
What is Article 137 of the UCMJ?
It dictates that all specifically enumerated article shall be carefully explained to each enlisted member.
Which Article of the Navy Regs deals with the publishing and posting of orders and regulations?
Which Navy Reg Article outlines the rules when dealing with foreigners?
Navy Regs Article 1001.
Officers of the Naval Service.
Navy Regs Article 1002.
Precedence of Officers.
Navy Regs Article 1003.
Relative rank and precedence of officers of different services.
Navy Regs Article 1010.
Manners of addressing officers.
Navy Regs Article 1020.
Exercise of authority.
Navy Regs Article 1021.
Authority over subordinates.
Navy Regs Article 1022.
Delegation of authority.
Navy Regs Article 1023.
Abuse of authority.
Navy Regs Article 1024.
Contradictory and conflicting orders.
Navy Regs Article 1025.
Authority of an officer in command.
Navy Regs Article 1033.
Authority in a boat.
Navy Regs Article 1034.
Authority and responsibility of a senior officer under certain circumstances.
Navy Regs Article 1037.
Authority of warrant officers, noncommissioned officers and petty officers.
Navy Regs Article 1038.
Authority of a sentry.
Navy Regs Article 1052.
Orders to active service.
An individual can only be ordered to active service by what entity?
Chief of Naval Personnel.
Navy Regs Article 1064.
Detail of enlisted persons for certain duties.
Which Navy Regs Article states that petty officers shall no be detailed to perform mess duties except when nonrated personnel are unavailable?
Navy Regs Article 1064.
Navy Regs Article 1101.
Demand for court martial.
Navy Regs Article 1102.
Limitations on certain punishments.
Navy Regs Article 1104.
Treatment and release of prisoners.
When in confinement, how often should an individual be checked on to see about their condition?
At least every 4 hours.
Navy Regs Article 1105.
Places of confinement.
Who designates whether or not a location is a suitable naval brig?
Navy Regs Article 1110.
Standards of conduct.
Navy Regs Article 1111.
Pecuniary dealings with enlisted persons.
Navy Regs Article 1112.
Lending money and engaging in a trade or business.
Navy Regs Article 1113.
Endorsement of commercial product or process.
Navy Regs Article 1115.
Report of fraud.
Navy Regs Article 1121.
Disclosure, publication and security of official information.
Navy Regs Article 1122.
Adverse matter in officer fitness reports and enlisted performance evaluation reports.
Navy Regs Article 1125.
Inspection of the record of a persom in the naval service.
Navy Regs Article 1126.
Correction of naval records.
Navy Regs Article 1127.
Control of official records.
Navy Regs Article 1129.
Records of fitness.
Navy Regs Article 1132.
Compliance with lawfull orders.
Navy Regs Article 1133.
Language reflecting on a superior.
Navy Regs Article 1134.
Exchange of duty.
Navy Regs Article 1135.
Relations with foreign nations.
Navy Regs Article 1136
Foreign religious institutions.
Navy Regs Article 1137.
Obligation to report offenses.
Navy Regs Article 1145.
Service examinations.
Navy Regs Article 1150.
Redress of wrong committed by a superior.
Navy Regs Article 1138.
Responsibilities concerning marijuana, narcotics and other controlled substances.
Navy Regs Article 1151.
Direct communication with the CO.
Navy Regs Article 1140.
Capture by an enemy.
Navy Regs Article 1152.
Suggestions for improvement.
Navy Regs Article 1142.
Unavoidable seperation from a command.
Nav Reg Article 1154.
Communications to the congress.
Nav Reg Article 1143.
Report of a communicable disease.
Nav Reg Article 1155.
Dealings with members of congress.
Navy Regs Article 1144.
Navy Regs Article 1156.
Forwarding individual requests.
Navy Regs Article 1166.
Sexual Harassment.
Navy Regs Article 1157.
Leave and liberty.
Navy Regs Article 1167.
Supremacist activities.
Navy Regs Article 1159.
Possession of weapons.
Navy Regs Article 1160.
Possession of government property.
Navy Regs Article 1162.
Alcoholic beverages.
Navy Regs Article 1164.
Equal Opportunity and treatment.
Navy Regs Article 1165.
Fraternization prohibited.
What is OPNAVINST 3120.32?
Orginization and
Regulations of the
U.S. Navy (SORN)
What does the SORN dictate?
It specifies duties and responsibilities of personnel within a unit orginization.
Naval personnel who fail to comply with regulations my be awarded punishment based upon what document?
SORN Article 510.5.
Armed forces ID cards and leave papers.
Which SORN dictates that accessible and appropriate space shall be set aside?
What does SORN 510.18 dictate?
It states that no person shall use emergency for any purpose other than which it is intended.
What does SORN 510.21 cover?
It covers the illegal possession of "Government Property".
Which SORN Article covers the responsibility of Naval units to report to Customs after returning from foreign ports?
Article 510.14.
What does SORN Article 510.27 cover?
It dictates how to handle "Intoxicated Persons".
Which SORN Article covers the proper use of government "Motor Vehicles"?
Article 510.34
What does SORN Article 510.35 cover?
It covers procedures to be used when medical/dental personnel are "Working Stocks of Narcotics".
Which SORN Article covers the use of "Photographic Equipment" onboard naval facilities?
SORN Article 510.44
On wahat date did all military forces begin being governed by one military code?
May 31, 1951.
Prior to 1951, what military code did the Navy fall under?
Articles for the Government of the Navy. "Rocks and Shoals"
What did the Manual for Courts-Martial, US 1951 do for the US military?
It standardized military legal procedures.
What is the date of the newest version of the Manual for Courts-Martial?
At what interval should all enlisted personal be trained on Article 137 of the UCMJ?
1) At the time the person enters active service.
2) After 6 months of active duty.
3) When the person reenlists.
Who is responsible creating the UCMJ as we see it today?
Secretary of Defense, James Forrestal. (1951)
What articles of the UCMJ must be explained to enlisted personnel as per Article 137 of the UCMJ.
2 3 7-14
15 25 27
31 37 38
55 77-134 137
138 139
How many Articles are include in the UCMJ?
What does Article 2 of the UCMJ cover?
Persons subject to the UCMJ.
What does Article 3 of the UCMJ cover?
Jurisdiction to try certain persons even though they have been seperated from the service.
What do Articles 7-14 of the UCMJ cover?
Apprehension and restraint.
What does Article 15 of the UCMJ cover?
NJP (Captain's Mast)
What does Article 25 of the UCMJ cover?
Membership of courts-martial.
What does Article 31 of the UCMJ cover?
Compulsory self-incrimination prohibited.
What does Article 37 of the UCMJ cover?
Unlawful influence on the court.
What does Article 38 of the UCMJ cover?
Duties of counsel.
What does Article 55 of the UCMJ cover?
Certain cruel and unusual punishments prohibited.
What do Articles 77-134 of the UCMJ cover?
Punitive articles.
What does Article 137 of the UCMJ cover?
Articles that must be explained.
What does Article 138 of the UCMJ cover?
Complaints of wrongs.
What does Article 139 of the UCMJ cover?
Payments for injury or loss of property.
How does Navy Regulations supplement Article 137 of the UCMJ?
By requiring each command to place the text of the UCMJ Articles in a conspicuous place.
When can a reservist be held accountable to the UCMJ?
Starting on the beginning date of their orders.
Can civillians be held accountable under the UCMJ?
Not if it is a time of "peace".
Under which Article of the UCMJ can a person be tried by court-martial, even after discharge, for offences committed while enlisted?
Article 3.
Under Article 7 of the UCMJ, when can Enlisted police officer apprehend an officer?
1) When ordered to by a commissioned officer.
2) When not doing so would result in disgrace of the service.
3) When a serious offense is inevitable.
4) If the officer has escaped from prior custody.
Which Article of the UCMJ gives civil law enforcement authority to arrest a deserter?
Article 8.
According to Article 9 of the UCMJ, how is "arrest" defined?
As the restraint of a person by an order not imposed as a punishment for an offense, directing him to remain within certain specified limits.
Under Article 9 of the UCMJ how is "confinement" defined?
The physical restraint of a person.
Under which Article of the UCMJ allows a CO to delegate the order to arrest a comissioned officer?
None. Article 9 states that this shall NOT be delegated.
What is the title of Article 10 of the UCMJ?
Restraint of persons charged with offenses.
What is the title of Article 11 of the UCMJ?
Reports and Receiving of Prisioners
What is the title of Article 12 of the UCMJ?
Confinement with Enemy Prisioners Prohibited.
What is the title of Article 13 of the UCMJ?
Punishment Prohibited Before Trial.
Which Article of the UCMJ bears the title, "Delivery of Offenders to Civil Authorities"?
Article 14.
What is Article 15 of the UCMJ?
When servicemember's receive NJP from a captain's mast do they have a civillian criminal history?
What is the title of Article 25 of the UCMJ?
Who may serve on courts-martial.
Can warrant officers serve on court-martials?
Yes. They can serve on General Court Martials and Special Court Martials of anyone that isn't a commissioned officer.
Under what conditions may an enlisted person serve on general and special court martials?
1) If requested by the accused in writing before the formation of the court.
2) If they aren't a part of the accused member's unit.
Article 31 of the UCMJ, "Complusory Self-Incrimination Prohibited" provides the accused protection under which Ammendment of the US Constitution?
Fith Admendment.
Which Article of the UCMJ is designed to ensure that each court, it's members/officers are free to fulfill their functions without fear of reprisal?
Article 37.
What does the term "punitive articles" mean?
Laws of Congress telling you what you must/must not do, under pain of punishment.
If you are convicted of being guilty of public intoxication within the civilian community and have to serve jail time what articles of the UCMJ can you be charged with?
1) Article 86 (Absent without leave)
2) Article 134 (Bringing discredit upon the Navy)
Under Article 77 of the UCMJ how is "Principals" defined?
A person that is guilty of intent to aid or encourage the person(s) who committed the crime.
Article 94 (Mutiny) can be downgraded to what offense?
Article 92 (Failure to obey order or regulation).
Article 94 (Sedition) can be downgraded to what offense?
Article 116 (Riot of breach of peace).
Article 95 (Resistance, breach of arrest and escape ) can be downgraded to what offense?
Article 134 (General Article)
Article 118 (Murder) can be downgraded to what offense?
Article 119 (Manslaughter)
Article 122 (Robbery) can be downgraded to what offense?
Article 121 (Larceny and wrongful appropriation)
Article 124 (Maiming) can be downgraded to what offense?
Article 128 (Assault)
What is the title of Article 80 of the UCMJ?
What is the title of Article 81 of the UCMJ?
How does the UCMJ define the term "Conspiracy"?
An agreement between 2 or more people to commit a crime.
What is the title of Article 82 of the UCMJ?
What is the title of Article 83 of the UCMJ?
Fradulent Enlistment, Appointment or Seperation.
What is the title of Article 84 of the UCMJ?
Unlawful Enlistment, Appointment, or Seperation.
What is the difference between Article 83 and 84 of the UCMJ?
Article 83 pertains to the person receiving the enlistment/appointment/seperation and Article 84 pertains to the person who helps someone else obtain the enlistment/appointment/seperation.
What is the title of Article 85 of the UCMJ?
If you miss ships movement you can be charged with what offense under the UCMJ?
Article 87. (Missing Movement).
If you return from leave late what offense can you be charged with according to the UCMJ?
Article 86 (Absence Without Leave).
What is the title of Article 88 of the UCMJ?
Contempt Towards Officials.
If a commisioned officer uses contemptuous words against the President which Article of the UCMJ is he guilty of?
Article 88.
If a servicemember strikes a superior commissioned officer they can be charged with what article of the UCMJ.
Article 90. (Assulting or Willfully Disobeying Superior Commissioned Officer.
What is the title of Article 91 of the UCMJ?
Insubordinate Conduct Toward a Warrant Officer, NCO or Petty Officer.
What is the title of Article 92 of the UCMJ?
Failure to Obey Order or Regulation.
What is the title of Article 93 of the UCMJ?
Cruelty and Maltreatment.
What is the title of Article 94 of the UCMJ?
Mutiny or Sedition.
If you resist arrest you can be charged with what Article of the UCMJ?
Article 95 (Resistance, Breach or Arrest, and Escape.
What is the title of Article 96 of the UCMJ?
Releasing Prisioner without Proper Authority.
What is Article 97 of the UCMJ?
Unlawful Detention.
What is Article 98 of the UCMJ?
Noncompliance with Procedural Rules.
What is Article 99 of the UCMJ?
Misbehavior before the Enemy.
What is Article 100 of the UCMJ?
Subordinate Compelling Surrender.
What is Article 101 of the UCMJ?
Improper use of Countersign.
What is Article 102 of the UCMJ?
Forcing a Sfaeguard.
What is Article 103 of the UCMJ?
Captured or Abandoned Property.
What is Article 104 of the UCMJ?
Aiding the Enemy.
What is Article 105 of the UCMJ?
Misconduct as Prisioner.
If you are accused of being a spy you can be charged with what Article of the UCMJ?
Article 106. Spies.
What is Article 107 of the UCMJ?
False Statements.
Being untruthful can result in being charged with which Articles of the UCMJ?
What is Article 108 of the UCMJ?
Military Property of the US-Loss, Damage, Destruction or wrongful Disposition.
What is Article 109 of the UCMJ?
Property Other Than Military Property of the US-Waste, Spoilage or Distruction.
What is Article 110 of the UCMJ?
Improper Hazarding of Vessel.
What is Article 111 of the UCMJ?
Drunken or Reckless Driving.
What is Article 112 of the UCMJ?
Drunk on Duty.
What is Article 112a of the UCMJ?
Wrongful Use, Possession, etc., of Controlled Substances.
What is Article 113 of the UCMJ?
Misbehavior of Sentinel.
Which Article of the UCMJ covers "Dueling"?
Article 114.
What does the term "malingering" mean?
Avoiding duty by pretending to be sick or physically/mentally disabled.
Which Article of the UCMJ covers "Malingering?
Article 115.
What is Article 116 of the UCMJ?
Riot or Breach of Peace.
According to the UCMJ what does the term "riot" mean?
Used when a disturbance is caused by 3 or more people and is engaged against anyone that may oppose them.
What is Article 117 of the UCMJ?
Provoking Speeches or Gestures.
What is the UCMJ Article that covers "murder"?
Article 118.
What are the basic requirements that have to be met for someone to be charged with Article 118?
1) Premeditation.
2) Wanton disregard for human life.
3) Is engaged in the attempted act of burglary, sodomy, rape or aggravated arson.
What is Article 119 of the UCMJ?
How is "manslaughter" defined in the UCMJ?
A killing that occurs in the heat of sudden passion
What are the 2 types of "manslaughter"?
1) Voluntary.
2) Involuntary.
What is the definition of "involuntary manslaughter" according to the UCMJ?
When someone is killed but the killing was accidental.
What is Article 120 of the UCMJ?
Rape and Carnal Knowledge.
What is Article 121 of the UCMJ?
Larceny and Wrongful Appropriation.
What is Article 122 of the UCMJ?
What is Article 123 of the UCMJ?
What is Article 123a of the UCMJ?
Making, Drawing, or Uttering Check, Draft, or Order without Sufficient Funds.
What is Article 124 of the UCMJ?
What is Article 125 of the UCMJ?
What is Article 126 of the UCMJ?
What is Article 127 of the UCMJ?
What is Article 128 of the UCMJ?
What is Article 129 of the UCMJ?
What is Article 130 of the UCMJ?
What is Article 131 of the UCMJ?
What is Article 132 of the UCMJ?
Frauds Against the US.
What is Article 133 of the UCMJ?
Conduct Unbecoming an Officer and a Gentleman.
What is Article 134 of the UCMJ?
General Article.
What is Article 137 of the UCMJ?
Articles to be Explained.
What is Article 138 of the UCMJ?
Complaints of Wrongs.
What is Article 139 of the UCMJ?
Redress of Injuries to Property.
What does the statement "Being put on report." mean?
It means that you may appear before the CO at sometime for NJP (UCMJ Art 15).
According to the UCMJ a person may appeal punishment awarded at Captain's Mast but within what timeframe?
Usually 5 days.
Aboard ship what are 2 types of communications?
1) Interior
2) Exterior
What is the most important communications systems found onboard a ship?
Sound powered telephone.
What are the 7 parts of a sound powered telephone?
1) Headband
2) Earpiece
3) Junction box
4) Breastplate
5) Yoke
6) Pushbutton (talk)
7) Mouthpiece (xmitter)
When using a sound powered phone how far from your mouth should the xmitter?
1/2 to 1 inch away.
What are the 3 basic sound powered phone systems onboard ships?
1) Primary
2) Auxilliary
3) Supplementary
What is the purpose of the Primary Systems of the sound powered phones?
Used to control armament, engineering, damage control, maneuvering and surveillance functions during battle.
How are the Primary Systems of the sound powered phone designated?
What is the purpose of the Auxilliary Systems of the sound powered phones?
Used to duplicate many primary circuits in the event that primary systems are damaged.
How are Auxillary Systems of the sound powered phones designated?
Same as Primary Systems but preceded by the letter "X".
What is the purpose of the Supplementary System of the sound powered phones?
Used to provide direct connection from one precise point of the ship to another.
Why do Supplementary Systems of the sound powered phones usually have a buzzer?
Because they are not normally manned.
By what method are Supplementary Systems of the sound powered phones characterized?
By use of a letter and numerical code.
How can Auxillary Systems sound powered phones be identified?
They have no letter after the letter "J".
What does the sound-powered phone circuit code "JA" indicate?
Captain's Battle Circuit
What does the sound-powered phone circuit code "JC" indicate?
Weapons Control
What does the sound-powered phone circuit code "JL" indicate?
What does the sound-powered phone circuit code "21JS" indicate?
Surface Search Radar
What does the sound-powered phone circuit code "22JS" indicate?
Air Search Radar
What does the sound-powered phone circuit code "61JS" indicate?
Sonar Information
What does the sound-powered phone circuit code "1JV" indicate?
Maneuvering and Docking
What does the sound-powered phone circuit code "2JZ" indicate?
Damage Control
What does the sound-powered phone circuit code "XJ8" indicate?
Replenishment at Sea
What does "IVCS" stand for?
What is the purpose of the IVCS?
It combines the features of sound-powered phones, dial phones, and intercommunication units into one system.
What does the IVCS consist of?
1) Terminals
2) Accessories
3) 2 Computer-controlled Interior Communications Switching Centers (ICSC)
What happens to sound-powered phones when IVCS are installed?
They become designated as secondary communications circuits.
What are the 2 types of terminal devices used with IVCS?
1) Network terminal
2) Dial Terminal
Which terminal device closely mimics the service provided by sound-powered phones?
Network terminals.
What are 4 types of accessories used on network and dial terminals of the IVCS?
1) Handsets
2) Headsets
3) Spray-tight enclosures
4) Loud speakers.
What is known as the heart of the IVCS?
What is the purpose of the ICSC of the IVCS?
They perform the switching actions that connect call.
What is the purpose of the shipboard intercom systems, circuits 1MC - 59MC?
To xmit orders and information between stations within the ship.
Who is in charge of the 1MC at all times?
Who is responsible for operating the 1MC?
What is the 2MC used for?
Engineers' announcing system.
What is the 3MC used for?
Hanger deck announcing system.
What is the 6MC used for?
Bullhorn. (Ship to ship communications)
Propulsion Plant
Damage Control
Flight Deck
Submarine Control
Troop Administration and Control
Underwater Troop Communication
Aviation Control
Captain's Command
Electronic Control
Electrical Control
Flag Command
Machinery Control
Sonar and Radar Control
Sonar Control and Information
Special Weapons
Weapons Control
Launcher Captains'
Cargo Handling
Flag Administration
CIC Coordinating
Instrumentation Space
Research Operations
Aviation Ordinance and Missle Handling
Torpedo Control
Integrated Operational Intelligence Center
Aircraft Maintenance and Handling Control
Ship Administration
Repair Officers' Control
Sonar Service
Hanger Deck Damage Control
Which system connects to the same stations as 1JS phones?
Which system is an approximate parallel of the JA phones?
Which system is a substitute for the JX phones?
What system is the intercom equivalent of the JF phones?
What is DC WIFCOM?
It is an improved means of Damage Control Central using modern hand-held radios specifically designed for shipboard needs.
What is Channel 1 of DC WIFCOM used for?
Repair 5 Area.
What is Channel 2 of DC WIFCOM used for?
Repair 2 Area.
What is Channel 3 of DC WIFCOM used for?
Repair 3 Area.
What is Channel 4 of DC WIFCOM used for?
Designated for ship-to-ship communications.
Besides ship-to-ship communications what other purpose can Channel 4 of the DC WIFCOM System be used for?
1) Ship contol communications.
2) Secondary DCC.
3) Secondary CONN.
4) Bridge major configurations.
In DC scenarios, who is given the DC WIFCOM hand-held transceivers?
1) Investigators.
2) Scene leaders.
When is Code Alfa used?
To indicate that there are divers down: keep well clear and at slow speed.
When is Code Bavo used?
"I am taking in, discharging, or carrying dangerous materials."
When is the KILO flag used?
When personnel are working aloft.
Where is the Mike 1 flag used?
"This ship has medical guard duty."
Where is the Mike 2 flag used?
"This ship has dental guard duty."
Where is the OSCAR flag used?
"Man overboard"
Where is the FLAG FIVE used?
"Breakdown: the vessel is having engine or steering difficulty."
Where is the HOTEL flag used?
"This ship has a harbor pilot onboard."
What does the INDIA flag indicate?
"Preparing to come alongside in-port or at anchor."
What does the JULIETT flag indicate?
"I have a semaphore message to transmit."
What does the PAPA flag indicate?
General recall: All personnel return to the ship."
What does the QUEBEC flag indicate?
"Boat recall: All boats return to the ship."
What does the ROMEO flag indicate when flown in port?
That the ship has READY DUTY.
What the ROMEO flag indicate when flown at sea?
"Preparing to replenish"
What does the SIERRA flag indicate?
"Holding flag hoist drill"
When a ship flies the FIRST SUBSTITUTE flag what does it indicate?
"It indicates the absence of the flag officer or unit commander."
When a ship flies the SECOND SUBSTITUTE flag what does it mean?
"It indicates the absence of the Chief of Staff."
What does the Third Substitute flag mean if flown for less than 72 hours?
Absence of the captain.
What does the Third Substitute flag mean if it has been flown over 72 hours?
Absence of the XO.
Where do comissioned ships fly the ensign when not under way?
Flagstaff at the stern.
Where do commissioned ships fly the union jack when not underway?
Jack staff at the bow from 0800 to sunset.
Where is the ensign normally flown while a ship is underway?
From the Gaff.
If a ship has more than one mast where is the Gaff normally positioned?
On the Aftermast.
What is a Mack?
Combination mast and stack.
If a ship has two macks where will the ensign be flown from?
It depends on which one configured to accept halyards or a gaff.
What happens to the union jack when a general court-martial is in session?
It is hoisted at the yardarm.
When was the official flag of the US Navy established?
April 24 1959.
A personal boat delonging to a CO has what marking on the bow?
An arrow.
When the spread-eagle flag staff used?
For any civillian official or flag officer whose official salute is 19 guns or more.
When is the Halbert flagstaff used?
For a flag officer or general officer whose official salute is less than 19 guns or for a civil official whose salute is 11 guns or more but less than 19.
When is a Ball flagstaff used?
For an officer of the grade, or relative grade, of captain in the Navy, and for certain diplomatic officials.
When is a Flat-truck flagstaff used?
For an officer below the grade, or relative grade, of commander, and for civil officials entitled to honors of a lesser nature.
When is a Star flagstaff used?
For an officer of the grade, or relative grade, of commander.
What is the order of importance regarding flagstaffs?
1) Spread-eagle
2) Halbert
3) Ball
4) Star
5) Flat truck
What is a "call"?
An informal visit of courtesy that needs no special ceremony.
Regarding ships' visits what does the term "official" mean?
A formal visit of courtesy that requires special honors and ceremonies.
How can the term "custom" be described?
A way of that has continued consistently for such a long period that it has become like law.
What does the term "courtesy" mean?
A form of polite behavior and excellence of manners.
What is the most common form of salute?
Hand salute.
Approximately how close should an officer be before you salute him?
6 paces.
Bearing a rifle: when should you "present arms"?
When standing in a sentry box and you are approached/addressed by an officer.
2) When halted while on patrol by an officer.
3) When in ranks and so commanded.
Bearing a rifle: When should you "Rifle salute at order arms"?
1) When reporting individually to an officer indoors.
2) When reporting a roll call (if already at order arms).
Bearing a rifle: When do you "Rifle salute at right shoulder arms"?
1) When on patrol and passing (without stopping) an officer.
2) When leading a detail past an officer.
3) When transversing alone to/from duty and you pass an officer.
What are "honors"?
Salutes rendered to individuals of merit.
What does the term "close aboard" mean?
Passing within 600 yards for ships and 400 yards for boats.
What are "passing honors"?
Honors (other than gun salutes) rendered on occasions when ships, officials or officers pass in boats or gigs, or are passed (flag officers or above) close aboard.
When walking with a senior person on which side do you position yourself?
On the left.
What is the title of NAVPERS 15665?
U.S. Navy Uniform Regulations
What is the neckerchief made of?
Black silk, acetate or other suitable material.
How big is the neckerchief?
36 inches square.
What type of knot is the neckerchief tied with?
Square knot.
In which uniform do women wear the neckerchief?
Dress whites.
What 2 uniforms are considered "working uniforms" for men?
Dungarees and winter working blues.
What is the all-weather coat made from?
65% polyester and 35% cotton poplin.
Whwhat is the uniform called when large medals are worn?
Full dress.
What uniforms are considered "working uniforms" for women?
1) Belted blue slacks or skirt and blue winter shirt.
2) Dungarees.
How tall can the heel of womens pumps be?
No more than 2 5/8 inches and no less than 5/8 inch.
In what situation can a female E-6 and below wear the garrison cap in blues?
When they are wearing the V-neck sweater rather than the dress blue coat.
How should men's uniforms be marked?
With a 1/2 inch stamp or a 1/2-1 inch stencil.
What uniform items may be worn with civilian clothing?
1) All-weather coat/raincoat (without insignia).
2) Belts with civilian buckles.
3) Knit watchcap.
4) Command/Navy ballcap.
5) Gloves.
6) Handbag.
7) Blue windbreaker jacket (without insignia).
8) Khaki windbreaker jacket (without insignia).
9) Shoes.
10) Socks/hosiery.
11) Cardigan and blue pullover sweater (recruit issue).
12) Black V-neck pullover sweater (without nametap).
13) Underwear.
What does the MCPON rating badge look like?
Like any other MCPO except that it has 3 gold stars in line above the eagle and a gold star in the space where the specialty mark would be.
What does the rating insignia of a CMC look like?
It has 2 silver stars above the eagle and a silver star takes place of the specialty mark.
How can you tell if an officer is a "line officer"?
A star is worn on the sleeve or shoulder board.
What are the 2 divisions of a line officer?
1) Unrestricted.
2) Restricted.
What type of line officer can hold command of a sea command?
An "unrestricted line" officer.
Can a restricted line officer ever hold a command position? Explain.
Yes, but only of designated shore facilities.
What is the order of seniority regarding officers of the same rank, time of commissioning but of different category?
1) Line
2) Medical
3) Supply
4) Chaplain
5) Civil Engineer
6) JAG
7) Dental
8) Medical Service
9) Nurse
At what paygrade are all Warrant Officers commissioned?
When can an officer wear the "Command at Sea" insignia?
When they are an officer below flag rank and have (or have had) command of a commissioned ship or aviation squadrons at sea.
Officers currently in command wear the "Command at Sea" badge where?
On the right breast.
If an officer was in command, but is no longer, where do they wear the "Command at Sea" badge?
On the left breast below any ribbons, medals or any other insignia.
Who can wear the "Command Ashore/Project Manager" badge?
Any officer below flag rank who has (or had) command ashore or served as a Project Manager.
Who is entitled to wear the "Small Craft OIC/POIC" insignia?
Anyone currently serving (or did serve) as and OIC of a small craft. {Enlisted wear silver....Officers wear gold}
What are the 7 categories of awards?
1) Military decorations
2) Unit awards
3) Nonmilitary decorations
4) Campaign and service awards
5) Foreign decoration and non-US service awards
6) Marksmanship awards
7) Awards of military societies and other organizations.
What was the first military decoration awarded to individuals by the US?
The Purple Heart.
When was the Purple Heart conceived and by whom?
1782. George Washington.
When was the Purple Heart revived and by whom?
1932. President Roosevelt.
What is the maximum number of medals that can be in 1 row?
The Armed Forces ID card meets what requirement of the Geneva Convention?
Article 17 which pertains to the treatment of prisoners of war.
What are the deminsions of the "dog tags"?
Approximately 2 inches long by 1 1/8 wide. They are attached to a 25 inch necklace.
When in a jumper uniform, a womans hair my extend to what length?
1 1/2 inch below the top of the jumper collar.
How much bulk, as measured form the scalp, can a womans hair have?
2 inches.
How far past the tip of the finger can a womans fingernails be?
1/4 inch.
What size earring can a woman wear in uniform?
6mm (1/8-1/4 inch)
What is the primary purpose of formations?
To move a large group of people in an orderly fashion.
When in a formation, how far should you be standing behind someone?
40 inches as measured from your chest to their back.
What is the distance of 1 "pace" while marching in formation?
30 inches for men and 24 inches for women.
What are the 2 types of commands that are given while in formation?
1) Preparatory
2) Execution
What command is meant to cancel a command or an order started but haven't yet completed?
"As you were".
What is the basic military position?
How many movements are used in the command "Right Face"?
How many movements are required to cexecute the command "About Face"?
What should happen when the command "Open Ranks" is executed?
1) Front rank takes 2 paces forward.
2) The second rank takes 1 pace forward.
3) The third rank stands fast.
4) Each rank afterward takes 2, 4 or 6 steps backward.
When the command "Close Ranks" is given what should happen?
1) The first rank stands fast.
2) The second rank takes 1 pace forward.
3) The third rank takes 2 paces forward.
4) The fourth rank takes 3 paces forward....and so on.
5) Cover without command.
How does the Navy define (CBR-D)?
"Definsive measures taken against the effects of a chemical, a biological, or a nuclear weapons attack."
During what war was the gas mask created and why?
The gas mask was created during WWI due to the creation of clorine gas.
What is the primary purpose of biological/chemical weapons?
Mass casualties of personnel, livestock, and/or crops.
What is the primary purpose of nuclear weapons?
Mass destruction of targets and personnel.
What are CBR and nuclear weapons commonly referred to as?
Weapons of "Mass Destruction".
Chemical Warfare (CW) operations are designed to what affect?
Kill or disable personnel by affecting blood, nerves, eyes, skin, lungs or stomach.
Biological Warfare (BW) operations are designed to what affect?
Includes microorganisms, fungi, toxins, and microtoxins to cause disease that will kill or produce other casualties.
What are the two types of antipersonnel agents?
1) Casualty
2) Incapacitating
What type of agen is "Sarin"?
A nerve agent.
What are the physical properties of "Sarin"?
1) Colorless
2) Odorless
3) Volatile liquid
What are the physiological effects of "Sarrin"?
1) Difficulty breathing
2) Miosis
3) Blurred vision
4) Headache/nausea
5) Convulsions
6) Death
How long does it take for "Sarin" take to work?
5-15 minutes.
What is "VX"?
"VX" is a nerve agent that is colorless, oderless, low volatility, oily liquid.
What are the psysiological effects of "VX"?
1) Difficulty breathing.
2) Miosis
3) Blurred vision
4) Headache/nausea
5) Convulsions
6) Death
How quick does "VX" work?
Usually within 30 minutes.
What is the CW agent "Mustard"?
A blister agent that has a garlic odor with medium volity bearing and is a oily liquid.
What are the physiological effects of the CW agent "Mustard"?
1) Blisters or irritates skin, eyes, and lungs.
Whow long does it take for the CW agent "mustard" to take effect?
4-6 hours.
What are the physical properties of the CW agent Hydrogen Cyanide?
1) Almond ordor.
2) Highly volatile gas.
What are the physiological effects of the CW agent Hydrogen Cyanide?
It prevents the normal transfer of oxygen from the blood to the body tissue resulting in respiratory paralysis.
What type of CW agent is Hydrogen Cyanide?
A Blood agent.
What are the 4 classes of "casualty agents"?
1) Blood
2) Choking
3) Nerve
4) Blister
Generally speaking, what are the affects of Nerve Agents?
They affect bodily functions.
What other condition is similar to the affects of nerve agent poisoning?
Heat stress.
If someone is being affected by a nerve agent what should they do?
Inject themselves with atropine and pralidoxime cloride (2-PAM-C1) in the lateral thigh muscle.
What are the effects of antropine?
Antropine acts to dry up secretions in the respiratory tract and to stimulate the central respiratory functions.
What are the effects of Pralidoxime cloride (@-PAM C1)?
2-PAM C1 relieves muscle paralysis, especially in the respiratory tract.
If an individual has experienced a mild case of mustard gas exposure to the skin, what should they do?
Apply calamine lotion or topical steriod creams.
What are the general symptoms of any biological disease?
1) Fever
2) Malaise
3) Inflammation
What is malaise?
A feeling of bodily discomfort and weakness.
What causes inflammation?
It is caused by the reaction of bodily tissues combating and sealing off an infection.
What causes Anthrax?
Bacillus Anthracis.
What causes Plague?
Yersinia Pestis.
What causes Tulareminia?
Francisella Tularensis.
What causes Botulinum Toxin?
Clostridium Botulinum.
What are the physiological effects of anthrax?
1) Mild fever/fatigue.
2) High fevers.
3) Rapid pulse rate.
4) Death within 5-12 days.
What are the physiological effects of plague?
1) Fever
2) Headache
3) Rapid heart rate.
4) Pneumonia
5) Hemorrhaging of the skin/muscous membranes.
6) Untreated: death occurs 2-3 days.
What are the symptoms of there being fluid in the lungs?
1) Shallow/rapid breathing
2) Hacking/painful cough
3) Frothy saliva
4) Ashen gray color
What are the symptoms of a victim that has been affected by the BW "Tularemia"?
1) Fever
2) Chills
3) Headaches
3) Muscular pain
What is the mortality rate of the BW "Tularemia"?
Untreated = 30-60%
Treated = 1%
How long after exposure to BW "Tularemia" are the effects begin to manifest?
3-5 days
What are the physiological effects of the BW "Botulinum Toxin"?
1) Extreme weakness
2) Nausea
3) Headaches
4) Intestinal pain
Death due to respiratory paralysis.
how long after exposure to the BW "Botulinum Toxin" do the effect begin to occur?
2-26 hours.
What are the 4 classes of nuclear explosions?
1) High altitude blast
2) Air blast
3) Surface blast
4) Subsurface blast
How are nuclear explosions classed?
According to the point of detonation in regard to the surface of the planet.
How is a "High Altitude Blast defined?
A blast that occurs above 100,000 feet.
What is the purpose of a high altitude blast?
To destroy or interrupt satelites and communication systems through the effect of an EMP.
What does EMP stand for?
Electromagnetic Pulse
What is an EMP?
AN intense electrical surge that affects electronic or electrical equipment in a burnout that is the equivalent of a lighting strike.
How is an "Air Blast" defined?
A nuclear explosion that occurs below 10,000 feet and doesn't touch the planets surface.
What is the desired effect of an Air Blast detonation?
An over pressurization that crushes everything in its path.
How can a "Surface Blast" detonation be defined?
A nuclear detonation in which the fireball touches the planet's surface.
What are the 2 types of nuclear radiation?
1) Initial
2) Residual
When does initial radiation occur?
Within the first minute after explosion.
How are the effects of nuclear weapons divided?
1) Blast waves (shock waves)
2) Incendiary
3) Radiation
How can the injuries from blast waves be divided?
1) Primary (direct)
2) Secondary (indirect)
Fires created by a nuclear explosion can be categoried in what way?
1) Firestorms
2) Conflagrations
What are the 4 hazards that makeup nuclear radiation?
1) Alfa particles
2) Beta particles
3) Gamma rays
4) Nutrons
How are Alfa Particles tAaken into the body?
Injestion or cuts to the skin.
How are Beta Particles hazardous to personnel?
By comming into contact with the skin or get inside the body?
How do Gamma Rays affect the body?
By passing through the body and ionizing its atoms.
Which nuclear radiation has the most penetration power?
What are the hazards of Neutron radiation?
The neutron is captured in the atoms of the body and releases Gama Rays and Beta Particles.
What does initial radiation contain?
1) Gamma Rays
2) Neutron radiation
What does Residual Radiation contain?
1) Gamm Rays
2) Beta Particles
Of Initial radiation and Residual radiation, which is of most concern?
Residual radiation.
What does TREE stand for?
Transient Radiation Effects on Electronics.
When does TREE occur?
When electronics systems are exposed to Gamma Rays and Neutron radiation.
What is meant by the term "Blueout"?
It is the prolonged disturbance of an underwater detonation and is caused by ocean basin shock reverbrations that interfere with passive sonar systems.
What is meant by the term "Blackout"?
It is caused by an atmospheric nuclear explosion and is the interference of the radio transmissions through ion fields formed in a detoniation.
What are counter-actions to overcome the effects of a "Blackout"?
1) Alternate communications paths.
2) Shifting radio operating frequencies.
3) Changing transmission modes.
4) Waiting for the effects to diminish.
What action does the ship take immediately after a CW, BW or nuclear attack?
Survey teams are dispersed throughout the ship to determine the extent and location of any contamination.
What is the minumum number of people that are involved in a survey team?
1) Monitor
2) Recorder
3) Messenger
What are the jobs of the monitor in a survey team?
1) In charge of the party.
2) Carries high and low range meters.
3) Responsible for team safeties.
4) Determines intensities and locations of contamination.
What are the jobs of the recorder in a survey team?
1) Maintains a record of intensity readings, time of reading and specific hazards.
2) Act as a marker.
What are the jobs of the messenger of a survey team?
1) Reports to damage control central the contaminated areas and the readings.
What are the 2 types of radiation surveys that are conducted?
1) Rapid (gross)
2) Detailed
How is a "rapid survey" defined?
Preliminary reconnaissance to obtain estimation levels.
How is a "detailed survey" defined?
Determines the effectiveness of decontaimination measures.
How are CBR markers labeled?
1) GAS
2) BIO
During a nuclear radiation survey what 2 measurements are taken?
1) Intensity (dose rate)
2) Total amount (dose)
What are "intensity" and "total amount" measurements used to calculate during a radiation survey?
1) Safe entry time
2) Stay time
How is "dose rates" expressed?
Roetgens (gamma ray only)
How is "total does" expressed?
Rads....(any type of radiation.
What does RADIAC stand for?
Indication, and
What are the 2 basic types of personnel dosimeters?
1) Self Reading
2) Non-Self Reading
In what ranges do self reading dosimeter come?
1) 0-5 roentgens
2) 0-200 roentgens
3) 0-600 roentgens
4) 0-200 milliroentgens
What do self reading dosimeters measure?
Exposure to radiation over a period of time only.
What should be done to a self reading dosimeter after each use?
It should be recharged and the indicator line set to zero.
What is the only known method of detecting BW contaminats?
Stage 1) Sampling phase conducted by CBR survey team.
Stage 2) Laboratory stage conducted by medical personnel.
What is the M256A1?
A Vapor Sample Detector Kit.
What are 3 methods of detecting a CW attack?
1) M256A1
2) M8 liquid chemical agent paper.
3) M9 liquid chemical agent paper.
What is used to detect phosgene gas?
Draeger tubes.
What is the AN/KAS-1A?
A portable Chemical Warfare directional Detector (CWDD)
What permanently installed system is used to detect CW agents?
Permanent Chemical Agent Detector System. (CAPDS)
What are the M256A1 NOT used for?
It is NOT designed to indicate when it is necessary to put on gas masks.
What color, shape and information is found on a CBR contamination marker?
1)Yellow = Chemical
Blue = Biological
White = Radiological
2) Inverted triangle
3) Dose Rate, Date/Time of reading and time of burst (if known).
In the event of a nuclear attack onboard ship, what condition is set?
Circle W.
What is the MCU-2/P?
Gas mask.
What is the purposes of the MCU-2/P?
1) Filter air.
2) Purifies the air.
How long after the announcement of a CBR attack do you have to put on the MCU-2/P?
10 seconds.
What are the 3 expanded features of the MCU-2/P?
1) 2 voice emitters.
2) Drinking tube.
3) Flexible lens.
What is the shelf life of CBR overgarments after its removed from its protective envelope?
14 days.
Once exposed to chemical contamination, how long will the CBR overgarments provide protection?
6 continuous hours.
What does MOPP stand for?
What is the purpose of MOPP?
To establish levels of readiness.
How many levels of MOPP are there?
Level 1 = least protection
Level 4 = most protection
What conditions are set at MOPP Level 1?
Readiness Condition III and Material Condition YOKE.
When MOPP Level 1 is set at what position should gas masks be set at?
Fitted for immediate use.
What MOPP condition dictates that all CBR equipment and supplies will be inventoried?
MOPP Leve 1.
At which MOPP level will all CBR equipment and medical supplies be issued?
MOPP Level 1.
What Material Condition is set at MOPP Level 2?
Zebra (modified)
At which MOPP Level should all stowed detection and monitoring equipment, supplies be prepositioned as specified in the ship's CBR Defense Bill?
MOPP Level 2.
At which MOPP Level will the gas mask be worn on the person (in its carrier)?
MOPP Level 2.
Which MOPP Level dictates that the overgarments are donned?
MOPP Level 3.
Which MOPP Level dictates that General Quarters is activated?
MOPP Level 3.
At which MOPP Level is Material Condition ZEBRA set?
MOPP Level 3.
At which MOPP Level is CIRCLE WILLIAM set?
MOPP Level 4.
At which MOPP Level will countermeasures washdown systems be set to run intermittently?
MOPP Level 3.
At which MOPP Level will countermeasures washdown systems be set to run constantly?
MOPP Level 4.
During which MOPP Level are the monitor detection equipment and materials posted?
MOPP Level 4.
At which MOPP Level may Readiness Condition 1 be relaxed and Readiness Condition 2 be set?
MOPP Level 3. (at CO discretion)
How many levels of decontamination are there?
What is the purpose of level 1 decontamination?
It is necessary to safeguard personnel in protective gear.
What is the M291?
Personnel Decontamination Kits
What are the 2 types of contamination hazards?
1) Pickup
2) Transfer
What is the purpose of the limited operational decontamination?
Level 2 is meant to destroy, neutralize or remove persistant chemical agents that are located on structures/equipment in places where they could be a hazard.
What are the 4 levels of decontamination?
1) Emergency personnel decontamination.
2) Limited operational decontamination.
3) Operationally complete decontamination.
4) Complete decontamination.
Which decontamination level is NOT mission essential for shipboard units?
Level 4.
What are 2 types of washdown methods used to remove radioactive particles?
1) Mechanical
2) Manual
To destroy most BW agents how hot should dry air be?
180 degrees.
What does the M291 Decontamination Kits contain?
6 sealed foil packets. (3 complete skin applications)
When treating for nerve agents what should should you do?
Inject 1 each of antropine and oxmine. Wait 10-15 minutes. If symptoms persist repeat the process.
What is the Collective Protection System?
A system of protecting specific areas of the ship from CBR contamination by filtering the air supply and overpressurization of the space.
How is the Collective Protection System divided?
1) Total protection
2) Limited protection.
What determines a ship's level of Collective Protection System?
Determined by the ship's mission, operational requirements and overall cost of installation.
What is the purpose of the Navy Goal Card?
It reinforces goal setting and goal accomplishment by first-term sailors.
What are some of the topics found on the Navy GoalCard?
1) Advanced training and education for your rate.
2) Montgomery GI Bill benefits and goals.
3) Voluntary education,such as TA and SOCNAV.
4) Officer programs.
5) Advancement.
6) Career milestones.
The Apprenticeship Program.
Job discriptions.
What are the areas of goal setting that is covered on the Pocket Goal Card?
1) DEP goals.
2) Navy Core Values.
3) Recruit training goals.
The Sailor's Creed.
4) Fleet goals, personal priorities.
5) Space for personal goals.
What is the purpose of the Professional Development Board?
1) Interviews sailors who want advanced training.
2) Advises career sailors who are having trouble advancing.
Who make up PERMANENT Professional Development Board members?
1) CMC
2) CCC
3) Personnel Officer
4) ESO
Who make up SUPPLEMENTARY board members of the Professional Development Board?
1) Division Officer
2) Division Chief
3) Division Career Counselor
Where can information regarding the advancement system be found?
At the E-9 level EM and IC are compressed into what rate?
What are the 3 divisions of the AB rating?
1) ABE
2) ABH
3) ABF
What is a "designated striker"?
Someone E1-E3 that has been designated as being technically qualified for a certain rate.
What are the 2 standards that the Navy has created for every enlisted paygrade/rate?
1) Naval Standards
2) Occupational Standards
Where are Naval Standards and Occupational Standards published?
Manual of Navy Enlisted Manpower and Personnel Classifications and Occupational Standards
What are 2 sources that you can use to study/prepare for the advancement exams?
1) Advancement Handbook
2) Navy Enlisted Advancement System (NAES)
What type of information does the NAES contain?
1) General information about the advancement system.
2) Study tips.
3) Explanation on Final Multiple computations.
4)Explanation of the profile sheet.
What information does the Advancement Handbook contain?
1) Outlines Occupational Skills.
2) Knowledge factors for the rate.
3) Exam Expectations.
What are Naval Standards?
Military requirements for a paygrade.
What are Occupational Standards?
A listing of the things you must be able to do to be consicered professionally qualified for a rate.
To be advanced to E2 and E3 what 3 requirements must be met?
1) Have time in rate.
2) Be recommended by the CO.
3) Complete the BMR.
What is the NAVEDTRA number for the BMR?
What does PARS stand for?
What are PARS?
Skills and abilities that can be demonstrated by actual performance.
Where can PARS and BIBS be found?
1) Streamlined Automated Logistics Transmission System (SALTS)
2) NETPDC Web site.
Who develops the BIBS?
When are the BIBS posted?
March, September and July (for the E7 test)
What is the Final Multiple computed from?
1) Merit rating.
2) Personnel testing.
3) Experience.
How is "Merit Rating" computed?
By averaging your performance marks for the last 3 years.
How many types of designation are there to indicate sea-shore roataions?
What is "Sea/Shore Code 1"?
Land based activities or schools lating more than 18 months.
What is the sea/shore code for "Preferred Overseas Shore Duty"?
Code 6
What is the sea/shore Code for Sea Duty?
What is sea/shore Code 3?
Overseas Shore Duty
What is sea/shore Code 4?
Nonrated Sea Duty
What is the sea/shore code for Nuetral Duty?
What is sea/shore code 7?
Partial Sea Duty
What is sea/shore code 8?
Double Sea Duty?
What is NAVPERS 1306/63?
Duty Preference Form
Where can a detailed listing of duty choices be found?
1) Chapter 25 of the TRANSMAN.
2) OPNAVINST 3111.14 (Homeports and Permanent Duty Stations of Activities of the Opersting Forces of the Navy.
When should you fill out a NAVPERS 1306/63?
1) After 6 months at you 1st duty station.
2) Within 24 hours of reenlisting.
What is the most significant personnel management tool in anyone's Service Record?
Evaluation Report
After being signed where is your Evaluation sent?
What is the NAVPERS 1070/600?
Enlisted Service Record
On what page of the ESR is your enlistment contract found?
Page 1 (bottom-most page)
What is NAVPERS 1070/617?
Seperator of the ESR labeled "Career Performance Data".
What is the NAVPERS 1070/604?
Enlisted Qualification History
What is the NAVPERS 1070/602?
Dependency Application/ Record of Emergency Data
What is the NAVPERS 1070/613?
Administrative Remarks Form
What is the NAVPERS 1070/604?
Enlisted Qualifications History
What does 3-M Stand for?
Maintenance and
Management System
What is the main purpose of the 3-M System?
To improve the material readiness of the fleet.
How are most PQS's divided?
1) 100 Series = Fundamentals
2) 200 Series = Systems
3) 300 Series = Watch Stations
How does the Navy define "training"?
Training is being taught skills directed to specific tasks.
How does the Navy define "education"?
Education is being taught broad, general and specific knowledge.
What is the purpose of the ESO?
To be responsible for all training within and for the individual unit.
What is the purpose of training?
To support and improve fleet readiness.
What is GMT?
Nonoccupational training that all naval personnel are required to take on a periodic basis.
What is NMT?
Navy Military Training
A combination of formal and informal training, staff leadership, supervision, mentoring, counseling, and positive reinforcement.
What is a Class R school?
It provides general indoctrination and teaches skill and knowledge in basic military subjects. (Basic Training)
What is taught in "A school"?
Basic technical knowledge and skills required to prepare you for a Navy rating and further specialized training.
What is a "C School"?
It provides you with the advanced knowledge, skills, and techniques to perform a particular job in a billet.
What is an "F School"?
It provides team training to officers and enlisted personnel who are normally members of ships' company.
What are "P Schools"?
They provide undergraduate education and indoctrination and basic training in fundamentals.
What is taught in a Class V School?
They provide training in the skills that lead to a designation as a naval aviator or a Naval Flight Officer.
What is the NAVEDTRA 12061?
Catalog of Nonresident Training Courses
What is the purpose of the Basic Skills Program?
Tuition free, on duty courses to help sailors improve their skills and military performance.
What does PACE stand for?
Program for
What is the purpose of PACE?
To provide undergraduate coursefrom accredited colleges or universities to shipboard personnel.
What does DANTES stand for?
Activity for
DANTES is a program that is ran by what organization?
What does EEAP stand for?
Each year, the SoN appoints how many enlisted men and women to the Naval Academy?
170 (85 from Regular Navy and 85 Reserve Navy)
What is NAPS?
Naval Academy Preparatory School
Where can information on the Naval Reserve Officer Programs be found?
Retention Team Manual
Who considers applications made to the Seaman to Admiral Program?
A board convened by the Chief of Naval Personnel.
When enrolled in the NROTC, how long do you have to complete your degree?
40 months.
How many different types of enlistemnt discharges are there?
What are the 5 types of discharges?
1) Honorable
2) General
3) OTH
4) Bad Conduct
5) Dishonorable
What is the only way to receive a Bad Conduct Discharge?
By the approved sentence of a general or a special court-martial.
What is the only way to receive a Dishonorable Discharge?
By a general court-martial and as appropriate for the offense as part of the punishment.
What is the purpose of the Family Advocacy Program?
To help families undergoing stress.
What section of the Naval Military Personnel Manual provides advice to all paygrade in regards to financial difficulties?
What is meant by "Gross Income"?
The total amount of pay before deductions.
What are "Deductions"?
The amount of money taken from pay.
What are 3 examples of "deductions"?
1) Income taxes.
2) Social Security
What are "allotments"?
The money taken from gross income for preset expenditures.
What is "Net Income"?
The money paid to a member after all deductions and allotments are paid.
What is another term for "Net Income"?
Take Home Pay.
What are "fixed expenses"?
Expenses that are the same each month.
What are "Fixed or Variable expenses"?
Expenses that are different each month.
What is "The Rule of 72"?
A generic method of estimating the number of years that it takes for an investment to double at a specific rate or rate of return.
SGLI may only be secured in what increments?
What is the maximum amount of SGLI that anyone can have?
How long after seperation does SGLI contu=inue to cove a member?
120 days.
Who supervises the SGLI and VGLI?
Office of Servicemen's Group Life Insurance.
What program has the DoN established to address spousal/child abuse?
Family Advocacy Program (FAP)
What are the 5 primary goals of the DoN FAP?
1) Victim safety and protection.
2) Offender accountabilty.
3) Rehabilitation.
4) Community accountability.
5) Consistant responses.
What is the body's natural reaction to tension, pressure and change?
What is the first step in dealing with stress?
Identify the stressors.
How does the Navy define "leadership"?
The art influencing people to progress towards the accomplishment of a specific goal.
How can you determine your leadership abilities?
1) Examin you conduct.
2) Review your duties/responsibilities.
3) Determine how well you're doing.
What are 3 elements that make up an effective Navy leader?
1) Moral principles.
2) Personal example.
3) Administrative ability.
What makes up a "good order"?
1) What's to be done.
2) When to do it.
Immediate obedience is an appropriate response to what?
A Command.
Reasoned obedience is a proper response to what?
An order.
To be a good follower what traits should develop?
1) Loyalty
2) Initiative
3) Dependability
What is the primary goals of the "Continuous Improvement Program"?
1) Increase productivity.
2) Produce better quality through leadership.
What 3 things can you do to build morale?
1) Instill pride.
2) Display integrity.
3) Keep personnel informed.