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31 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What are the signs of PCP intoxication?
Belligerence, impulsiveness, fever, psychomotor agitation, vertical and horizontal nystagmus, tachycardia, ataxia, homicidality, psychosis, delirium
What enzyme is deficient in alkaptonuria? What are the manifestations of alkaptonuria?
(ochronosis)
Congenital deficiency of homogentisic acid oxidase in the degradative pathway of tyrosine. Autosomal recessive. Benign disease.

Findings: dark connective tissue, pigmented sclera, urine turns black on tanding, may have debilitatin arthralgias
Which type of E. coli causes the very common “Traveler’s diarrhea?
Traveler’s diarrhea: ETEC (labile toxin/stable toxin)
Which fungal infection causes diaper rash?
Candida albicans
Which fungal infection is an opportunistic mold with septate hyphae that branch at a 45 degree angle?
Aspergillus fumigatus
Which fungus is an opportunistic mold with irregular nonseptate hyphae that branch at wide angles (>90 degrees)?
Mucor and Rhizopus
Which fungus is a dimorphic fungi common to SW US (San Joaquin Valley fever)?
Coccidioidomycosis
Which fungus causes thrush in immunocompromised pts and vulvovaginitis in women?
candida
Which fungus is a dimorphic fungi with broad-based budding yeast?
Blastomycosis
Which fungus is known for causing pneumonia in AIDS patients?
Pneumocystis jiroveci
Findings: bilateral CXR appearance, Dx: lung biopsy
Histo:methenamine silver
Tx: TMP-SMX
Which fungus is dimorphic and common to Mississippi and Ohio river valleys?
Histoplasma
Which fungus causes a skin infection in those pricked by a thorn?
Sporotrichosis
Which yeast known for causing meningitis in AIDS patients?
Cryptococcus
Found in soil, pigeon droppings
Heavily encapsulated yeast
Histo: stains with India ink
Soap bubble lesions in brain
What is the cause of Chronic Granulomatous disease? What are the consequences of Chronic Granulomatous disease?
Deficiency in NADPH oxidase  decrease in reactive oxygen species (superoxide) and absent respiratory burst in neutrophils; increased susceptibility to catalase-positive organisms (s. aureus, e. coli, aspergillus); labs: negative nitroblue tetrazolium dye reduction test
What are the two most common complications after an MI?
1. Cardiac arrhythmia – important cause of death before reaching hospital; common in first few days
2. LV failure and pulmonary edema
What is Dressler’s syndrome?
autoimmune phenomenon resulting in fibrinous pericarditis (several weeks post-MI)
Compare the leading causes of death in ages 1-14 to those in ages 15-24?
1-14: injuries, cancer, congenital anomalies, homicide, heart disease
15-24: injuries, homicide, suicide, cancer, heart disease
What is the A-a gradient, and what might an increased A-a gradient indicate?
A-a gradient: PAO2 – PaO2 = 10-15 mm Hg; increased A-a gradient may occur in hypoxemia; causes include shunting, V/Q mismatch, fibrosis (diffusion block)
In which order elimination is the rate of elimination proportional to the drug concentration?
First-order elimination: constant fraction of drug eliminated per unit time. Cp decreases exponentially with time
Where can you find nicotinic acetylcholine receptors in the body?
Ligand-gated Na+/K+ channels; Nn (found in autonomic ganglia) and Nm (found in neuromuscular junction) subtypes
What is the most common tumor of the appendix?
Carcinoid tumor (neuroendocrine cells) high levels of serotonin secretion
Which antibiotic is known for causing teeth discoloration?
Tetracycline
Which antibiotic is known for causing tendonitis?
Fluoroquinolones
Which antibiotic is known for causing red man syndrome?
Vancomycin
Which antibiotic is known for causing grey baby syndrome?
Chloramphenicol
particularly in premature infants since they lack UDP-glucuronyl transferase
Which antibiotic is known for causing cartilage damage in children?
Fluoroquinolones
Which antibiotic is known for causing nephrotoxicity (esp with cephalosporins) and ototoxicity (esp with loop diuretics)?
Aminoglycosides
Which antibiotic is known for causing pseudomembranous colitis?
Ampicillin and Clindamycin
Describe the steps involved in the pupillary light reflex.
1. Light in either retina sends a singal via CN II (optic) to pretectal nuclei in midbrain that activate bilateral Edinger-Westphal nuclei; pupils contract bilaterally (consensual reflex). Result: illumination of 1 eye results in bilateral papillary constriction. Marcus Gunn pupil: afferent papillary defect (due to optic nerve damage or retinal detachment); decreased bilateral papillary constriction when light is shone in affected eye
Which diuretic is used to lower intracranial pressure? What are the contraindications to the use of this diuretic?
Mannitol: Contraindicated in anuria, CHF
What are the common causes of eosinophilia?
NAACP: neoplastic, asthma, allergic processes, collagen vascular diseases, parasites (invasive)