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27 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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What drugs act on microtubules?
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Mebendazole, thiabendazole (antihelminthic)
Griseolfulvin (antifungal) Vincristine/Vinblastine (anticancer) Paclitaxel (antibreast cancer) Colchicine (antigout) |
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What are the clinical findings in a patient with lead poisoning?
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Lead lines on gingivae (Burton's lines) and on epiphyses of long bones on x-ray
Encephalopathy and erythrocyte basophilic stippling Abdominal coli and sideroblastic anemia Drops in wrist and foot Tx: dimercaprol and EDTA, succimer for kids |
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How does blood pressure response to epinephrine administration change if an alpha-blocker is administered before hand?
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Giving an alpha blocker before epinephrine results in a net depressant effect
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What are the steps involved in the contraction of smooth muscle?
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1. Action potential
2. Smooth muscle membrane depolarization 3. Voltage-gated Ca channels open 4. Increased Ca in cytoplasm 5. Ca binds to calmodulin 6. Activation of myosin light chain kinase (MLCK) 7. Myosin P + actin--> cross bridge formation with contraction |
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What are the characteristics of thoracic outlet syndrome?
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An embryologic or childbirth defect affecting inferior trunk of the brachial plexus (T8, C1)
1. Atrophy of the thenar and hypothenar eminences 2. Atrophy of the interosseus muscles 3. Sensory deficits on the medial side of the forearm and hand 4. Disappearance of the radial pulse upon moving the head to the opposite side |
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What is the treatment of choice for tapeworm?
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Praziquantel
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What is the treatment of choice for bacterial vaginitis?
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Metronidazole
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What is the treatment of choice for pinworm?
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-bendazoles or pyrantel pamoate
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What is the treatment of choice for schistosomiasis?
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Praziquantel
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What is the treatment of choice for amoebic dystentery?
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Metronidazole and iodoquinol
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What is the treatment of choice for leishmaniasis?
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Sodium stibogluconate
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What is the treatment of choice for Chagas disease?
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Nifurtimox
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What is the treatment of choice for giardiasis?
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Metronidazole
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What is the definition of first-degree heart block?
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PR interval is prolonged (>200msec). Asymptomatic.
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What is Bell’s palsy? How is it distinguished from a higher motor neuron lesion (motor cortex, corticobulbar, thalamus)?
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Complete destruction of the facial nucleus itself or its branchial efferet fibers (facial nerve proper)
Peripheral ipsilateral facial paralysis with inability to close eye on involved side Can occur idiopathically, gradual recovery in most cases Complication in AIDS, Lyme disease, Herpes zoster, Sarcoidosis, Tumors, Diabetes |
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What do the G cells of the GI tract secrete?
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Gastrin.
Increases H secretion, increases growth of gastric mucosa, increases gastric motility Increased by stomach distension, amino acids, peptides, vagal stim Decreased by stomach pH <1.5 Increased in Zollinger-Ellison syndrome, phenylalanine and tryptophan are potent stimulators |
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What do the I cells of the GI tract secrete?
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Cholecystokinin
Increases pancreatic secretion, increases gall bladder contraction, decreases gastric emptying Increased by fatty acids, aminos In cholelithiasis, pain worses after fatty meal due to an increase in CCK |
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What do the S cells of the GI tract secrete?
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Secretin
Increases pancreatic HCO3 and bile secretion, decreases gastric acid secretion Increased by acid, fatty acids Increased HCO3 neutralizes gastric acid in duodenum allowing pancreatic enzymes to function |
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What do the D cells of the GI tract secrete?
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Somastatin
Decreases gastric acid, pepsinogen, insulin, glucagon secretion, decreases gall bladder contraction Increased by acid, decreased by vagal stimulation Used to treat VIPoma and carcinoid tumors |
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What do the parietal cells of the GI tract secrete?
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Gastric acid and intrinsic factor
Increased by histamine, Ach, gastrin, decreased by somastating, GIP, prostaglandin, secretin Gastrinoma: gastrin secreting tumor causing continuous high levels of acid secretion and ulcers |
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What do the chief cells of the GI tract secrete?
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Pepsin
Digests protein Increased by vagal stimulation and local acid Inactive pepsin becomes pepsinogen with H ion presence |
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What roles do prostaglandins and angiotensin II play on the renal arterioles?
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Prostaglandin: dilates afferent arterioles leading to an increased RPF and GFR and same FF
Angiotensin II: preferentially constricts efferent arterioles leading to decreased RPF and GFR and the same |
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What are the common causes of secondary hyperaldosteronism? In your own words, describe why renin levels are high in secondary hyperaldosteronism.
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Causes: renal artery stenosis, CHF, chronic renal failure, cirrhosis, nephrotic syndrome. High renin.
Kidney perception of low intracascular volume results in an overactive renin-angiotensin syndrome. |
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What are the typical signs and symptoms of hyper- and hypothyroidism?
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Hyper: heat intolerance, weight loss, increased appetite, hyperactivity, diarrhea, increased reflexes, chest pain, palpatations, arrythmias, warm moist skin, fine hair
Hypo: cold intolerance, weight gain, decreased appetite, hypoactivity, lethargy, fatigue, weakness, constipation, decreased reflexes, myxedema, dry cool skin, coarse brittle hair |
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Where are T cells found in the spleen? Where are B cells found in the spleen?
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T cells found in periarterial lymphatic sheath (PALS) and in the red pulp of the spleen
B cells found in follicles within the white pulp of the speen. |
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What effects do prostaglandins and thromboxane have on platelet aggregation?
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Prostaglandins: decrease vascular tone, increase pain, uterine tone, and temperature
Thromboxane: increase platelet aggregation, vasoconstriction |
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What are the common causes of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?
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Sepsis (gram negative)
Trauma Obstetric complications Pancreatitis, acute Malignancy Nephrotic syndrome Transfusion STOP Making New Thrombi Labs: schistocytes, increased fibrin split products (d-dimers), decreased fibrinogen, decreased factor 5 and 8 |
