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107 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What is the treatment for hyperparathyroidism due to parathyroid hyperplasia?
Remove 3.5 glands, mark remaining half gland with surgical clip.
High risk of recurrence: autotransplant from neck to forearm.
Categorize the following drugs (neuroleptics or atypical antipsychotics):
olanzapine
thioridazine
quetiapine
molindone
chlorpromazine
haloperidol
fluphenazine
laxopine
risperidone
thiothixene
trifluoperazine
clozapine
aripiprazole
paliperidone
droperidol
Neuroleptic (High potency):
Haloperidol
Fluphenazine
Thiothixene
Droperidol

Neuroleptic (Moderate potency):
Molindone
Laxopine
Trifluoperazine

Neuroleptic (Low potency):
Chlorpromazine
Thioridazine

Atypical antipsychotic:
Olanzapine
Risperidone
Aripiprazole
Quetiapine
Clozapine
Paliperidone
What mineralcorticoid medication is used in the treatment of aldosterone deficiencies such as adrenal insufficiency and 21-hydroxylase deficiency?
Fludrocortisone
Lesion to which area of the brain leads to the following clinical scenario?
Contralateral hemiballismus
Hemispatial neglect syndrome
Coma
Poor repetition
Poor comprehension
Poor vocal expression
Contralateral hemiballismus: Subthalamic nucleus
Hemispatial neglect syndrome: Right parietal lobe
Coma: reticular activating system (pontine lesion)
Poor repetition: arcuate fasciculus
Poor comprehension: Wernicke's area
Poor vocal expression: Broca's area
Lesion to which area of the brain leads to the following clinical scenario?
Resting tremor
Intention tremor
Hyperorality, hypersexuality, disinhibited behavior
Personality Changes
Dysarthria
Agraphia and acalculia
Resting tremor: Basal ganglia
Intention tremor: Cerebellar hemisphere
Hyperorality, hypersexuality, disinhibited behavior: Bilateral Amygdala lesion (Kluver bucy)
Personality Changes: Frontal lobe lesion
Dysarthria: Cerebellar vermis
Agraphia and acalculia: Left parietal lobe
At what age do physicians begin to dose dexamethasone with or prior to the first dose of antibiotics in cases of suspected bacterial meningitis?
6 months of age
What drugs are most commonly used in renal disease to bind phosphate in order to prevent hyperphosphatemia?
Calcium carbonate
Calcium acetate

Do Not Use Calcium citrate
What is the classic presentation of a patient with aspirin overdose?
Tinnitus
Starts are respiratory alkalosis (hyperventilation) becomes mixed respiratory alkalosis AND metabolic acidoses

Hyperthermia
Dehydration
What is the empiric treatment for a brain abscess?
Antibiotics
- if from neurosurgery: Vancomycin and ceftazodine
Needle Aspiration for drainage
Corticosteroids
What is the treatment for cluster headaches?
100% Oxygen
Ergots
Sumatriptan
In which patient populations are -triptan drugs contraindicated?
Pregnany
CAD
Prinzmetal's angina
What side effects can arise from theophylline overdose?
Seizures
Hyperthermia
Hypotension
Cardiac tachyarrhythmias
What is the following heart disease?

ST segment elevation in leads corresponding to the perfusion of multiple arteries

Hypotension + distant heart sounds + distended neck veins

Cardiac cath shows equal pressures in all heart chambers

Chest pain that lessens when the patient leans forward
ST segment elevation in leads corresponding to the perfusion of multiple arteries
Acute pericarditis

Hypotension + distant heart sounds + distended neck veins
Beck's triad of cardiac tamponade

Cardiac cath shows equal pressures in all heart chambers
Constrictive pericarditis

Chest pain that lessens when the patient leans forward
Acute pericarditis
Which blood pressure medications should be avoided in patients with ischemic stroke or subarachnoid hemorrhage because of the increase in intracranial pressure associated with them?
Nitroprusside and Nitroglycerine
What is the antidote to the following toxin?

Antimuscarinic, anticholinergic agents

Benzodiazepines

Tricyclic Antidepressants

Warfarin

Methanol, ethylene glycol

Arsenic
Antimuscarinic, anticholinergic agents
Physostigmine

Benzodiazepines
Flumazenil

Tricyclic Antidepressants
Sodium bicarbonate

Warfarin
Vitamin K, FFP

Methanol, ethylene glycol
Fomepezol, ethanol

Arsenic
Dimercaprol, Succimer, Penicillamine
What is the Parkland burn formula?
4mL x kg (patient weight) x % of body surface burned = Lactated ringer volume (+ maintenance IV fluid)
Half in first 8 hours
Second half over the next 16 hours
What are the symptoms of neuroleptic malignant syndrome?
Altered mental status
Muscle rigidity
Hyperthermia
Autonomic instability
Rhabdomyolysis
What is the treatment for neuroleptic malignant syndrome?
Dantrolene (stops muscle contractions)
Discontinue medications
IV fluids and cooling
Bromocriptine or amantadine are alternatives
Compare PTH, alkaline phosphatase, serum calcium, and serum phosphate levels in patients with the following diseases:
Paget's disease
Osteomalacia/Rickets
Chronic renal failure
Osteoporosis
Osteopetrosis
Primary hyperparathyroidism
Hypoparathyroidism
Pseudohypoparathyroidism
Paget's disease
- PTH normal
- Alk Phos elevated
- Ca normal
- Phos normal


Osteomalacia/Rickets
- PTH increased
- Alk Phos normal or elevated
- Ca decreased
- Phos decreased

Chronic renal failure
- PTH increased
- Alk Phos normal or elevated
- Ca decreased
- Phos increased

Osteoporosis
- PTH normal
- Alk Phos normal
- Ca normal
- Phos normal

Osteopetrosis
- PTH normal
- Alk Phos normal
- Ca normal
- Phos normal

Primary hyperparathyroidism
- PTH increased
- Alk Phos increased
- Ca increased
- Phos decreased

Hypoparathyroidism
- PTH decreased
- Alk Phos normal
- Ca decreased
- Phos increased

Pseudohypoparathyroidism
- PTH increased
- Alk Phos normal
- Ca decreased
- Phos increased
What is the treatment for cluster headaches?
100% oxygen
Sumatriptan
Ergots
Which class of antihypertensives is contraindicated in the following patients?

- COPD
- Bilateral renal artery stenosis
- Pregnancy
- Advanced renal failure
- Gout
COPD
- Non-selective beta-blocker

Bilateral renal artery stenosis
- ACE-Is/ARBS

Pregnancy
- ACE-Is/ARBs

Advanced renal failure
- (with hyperkalemia) ACE-Is/ARBs, spironolactone

Gout
- Diuretics
What heart sounds are considered benign when there is no evidence of disease?
Low grade Systolic murmur
Split S1
Split S2 on inspiration
S3 (only in asymptomatic patients)
What heart defect is associated with the following disorders?

- Chromosome 22q11 deletions
- Down syndrome
- Congenital rubella
- Turner's syndrome
- Marfan's syndrome
Chromosome 22q11 deletions
- Truncus arteriosus, Tetralogy of Fallot

Down syndrome
- Endocardial cushion defect, VSD, ASD

Congenital rubella
- PDA, pulmonary artery stenosis

Turner's syndrome
- Coarctation of the aorta

Marfan's syndrome
- Aortic regurgitation
What is the next step once a brain tumor has been identified on CT or MRI of the head?
Look for metastasis/source
Full body CT scan
Bone scan
What are the W's of post-op fever?
Wind: Atelectasis, Pneumonia
Water: UTI
Wound/Wein: Wound infection, thrombophlebitis
Walking: DVT, PE
Wonder drugs: Antibiotics

and Sinusitis
What medication combination is used in the treatment of TB meningitis?
Rifampin
Isoniazid
Pyrizinamide
Ethambutol
What are the characteristic features of a patient presenting with pericarditis?
Plueritic chest pain
Pain worse when laying down
Friction rub
Dyspnea
Fever
Cough
JVD
Pulsus paradoxus
Diffuse ST segment elevations
What is the antidote to the following toxin?

Acetaminophen
Lead
Cyanide
Methemoglobin
Opioids
Acetaminophen: N-acetylcysteine

Lead: Succimer (children), EDTA, Dimercaprol and Penicillamine (adults)

Cyanide: Sodium thiosulfate, Hydroxocobalamin, Nitrates (Amyl or sodium)

Methemoglobin: Methylene blue, Vitamin C

Opioids: Naloxone, naltrexone
What are the indications for surgical parathyroidectomy in patients with a parathyroid adenoma?
Parathyroid adenoma:
Serum Ca > 1 above upper limit
Urine 24 Ca > 400 mg
Cr clearance reduced by 30%
Bone mineral density T score < -2.5 at any site
Younger than 50 years of age
A 50 year old male with a 25 pack-year history presents with his second bout of pneumonia in the last 6 months. CXR reveals a lobar consolidation in the same location as the previous pneumonia. What is the next step in the management of this patient?
CT scan of chest (rule out cancer)
What imaging study is used to diagnose a DVT?
Compression ultrasonography
What radiologic study is used to diagnose injury to the urethra?
Retrograde cystourethrogram
What are the symptoms of a basilar skull fracture?
Raccoon eyes
Battle sign (bruising over mastoid process)
Blood behind tympanic membrane
CSF draining from ear, nose
What is the drug of choice for trigeminal neuralgia?
Carbamazepine
What is the treatment for normal pressure hydrocephalus? What is the treatment for pseudotumor cerebri?
Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus:
- Ventriculoperitoneal Shunt

Pseudotumor cerebri:
- Weight loss
- Acetazolamide
- Serial lumbar punctures
- Shunting of CSF
What is the treatment for Guillain-Barre syndrome?
- Plasmapharesis or IVIG
- Supportive care
- Intubation if necessary
How do you distinguish the Somogyi effect from the dawn phenomenon?
Both cause high morning glucose levels

Check 2-3am glucose level

Somogy: glucose low -> Stress hormone release

Dawn phenomenon: glucose high
What type of immunodeficiency increases the risk of anaphylactic transfusion reaction?
IgA deficiency
Which antihypertensive class is first-line in patients with the following problems?

- No comorbidities
- Diabetes
- Heart failure (multiple)
- BPH
- Left ventricular hypertrophy
- Hyperthyroid
- Osteoporosis
- Benign essential tremor
- Post-menopausal female
- Migraines
No comorbidities
- Thiazide diuretics

Diabetes
- ACE-Is/ARBs

Heart failure (multiple)
- Beta-blocker, ACE-I/ARB, Spironolactone

BPH
- Alpha blocker (zosins)

Left ventricular hypertrophy
- ACE-I/ARB

Hyperthyroid
- Beta-blocker

Osteoporosis
- Thiazide diuretics

Benign essential tremor
- Beta-blocker

Post-menopausal female
- Thiazide diuretic

Migraines
- Beta-blocker
What are the HACEK bacteria?
Culture-negative endocarditis:

Haemophilus
Actinobacillus
Cardiobacterium
Eikenella
Kingella
At what point do patients with chronic COPD qualify for home O2?
O2 Sat ≤ 88%
Pulmonary hypertension
Peripheral edema
Polycythemia
What is the initial treatment of a localized non-small cell lung cancer?
Surgical resection
What is the treatment for acute mesenteric ischemia?
Hemodynamic monitoring
Pressors for hypotension
Broad spectrum antibiotic
NG Tube decompression and bowel rest

Heparin or enoxaparin for anticoagulation
Embolectomy
Resection of necrotic bowel
When is rifampin prophylaxis indicated in cases of bacterial meningitis?
In close contacts in patients with Neiserria meningitis of H. Influenza type b.
What is the treatment for acromegaly?
Transsphenoidal resection of pituitary adenoma.
External beam radiation 2nd line.
Somatostatin or Cabergoline
What infectious agent most likely corresponds to the following statement?

- Food poisoning as a result of mayonnaise sitting out too long
- Rice-water stools
- Diarrhea transmitted from pet feces
- Food poisoning resulting from reheated rice
- Most common cause of traveler's diarrhea
- Diarrhea after a course of antibiotics
- Diarrhea + recent ingestion of water from a stream
- Food poisoning as a result of mayonnaise sitting out too long: Staph aureus
- Rice-water stools: Vibrio cholera, ETEC
- Diarrhea transmitted from pet feces: Yersinia enterocolitica
- Food poisoning resulting from reheated rice: Bacillus cereus
- Most common cause of traveler's diarrhea: ETEC
- Diarrhea after a course of antibiotics: C. diff
- Diarrhea + recent ingestion of water from a stream: Giardia lamblia
What infectious agent most likely corresponds to the following statement?

- Mild intestinal infection that can become neurocysticercosis
- Food poisoning from undercooked hamburgers
- Diarrhea from seafood
- Bloody diarrhea from poultry
- Diarrhea + pink-eye
- Bloody diarrhea -> liver abscess
- Diarrhea in an AIDS patient
- Dehydrated child with greenish diarrhea in winter months
- Mild intestinal infection that can become neurocysticercosis: Taenia solium
- Food poisoning from undercooked hamburgers: E. coli 0157:H7
- Diarrhea from seafood: Vibrio cholera, Vibrio parahemolyticus
- Bloody diarrhea from poultry: Campylobacter, Salmonella
- Diarrhea + pink-eye: Adenovirus
- Bloody diarrhea -> liver abscess: Entamoeba hystolitica
- Diarrhea in an AIDS patient: Cryptosporidium
- Dehydrated child with greenish diarrhea in winter months: Rotavirus
What are the most common causes of acute pancreatitis?
Alcohol
Gall stones
Elevated TG
Hyperglycemia
Trauma
Drugs
A COPD patient comes to the ER with tachycardia and hypotension. During the evaluation he begins to have seizures. What is the most likely etiology?
Theophylline overdose
What is the ACLS treatment for asystole?
Transcutaneous pacing
CPR
Alternating Epinephrine + Atropine
Which antihypertensive drug fits the following side effect?
- First dose orthostatic hypotension
- Hypertrichosis
- Dry mouth, sedation, severe rebound HTN
- Bradycardia, impotence, asthma exacerbation
- Reflex tachycardia
- Cough
- Avoid in patients with sulfa allergy
- Angioedema
- Development of drug-induced lupus
- Cyanide toxicity
- First dose orthostatic hypotension: alpha-blockers
- Hypertrichosis: Minoxidil
- Dry mouth, sedation, severe rebound HTN: Clonidine
- Bradycardia, impotence, asthma exacerbation: Beta-blocker
- Reflex tachycardia: Vasodilators
- Cough: ACE-I
- Avoid in patients with sulfa allergy: Hydrochlorothiazide
- Angioedema: ACE-I
- Development of drug-induced lupus: Hydralazine
- Cyanide toxicity: Nitroprusside
What is the treatment for febrile seizures?
Observation
Supportive care (lower temperature)
What is the empiric treatment for pneumonia in a 2 month-old? 2 year-old?
2 month old:
Macrolide (Erythromycin) +/- Cefotaxime

2 year old:
Amoxicillin or Ampicillin
What are the classic findings of Henoch-Schonlein purpura (HSP)?
Palpable purpuric rash around lower extremities
GI symptoms: abdominal pain, vomiting, intussusception
Renal disease: hematuria, proteinuria
Arthritis
What are Ranson's criteria in determining the prognosis in patients with acute pancreatitis?
Glucose
Age
LDH
AST
WBC

Ca
Hematocrit
O2
BUN
Base deficit
Sequestration of fluid
What is the treatment for the following diarrheal illness?
- Entamoeba histolytica
- Giardia lamblia
- Salmonella
- Shigella
- Campylobacter
Entamoeba histolytica: Metronidazole
Giardia lamblia: Metronidazole
Salmonella: Quinolone, TMP-SMX (high risk patients)
Shigella: Quinolone, TMP-SMX
Campylobacter: Erythromycin
Which type of lung cancer is associated with the following paraneoplastic syndrome?
- Elevated ACTH-> glucocorticoid excess -> Cushing's syndrome
- Elevated PTH related peptide -> Hypercalcemia
- Elevated ADH -> SIADH -> hyponatremia
- Antibodies to presynaptic Ca channels -> Lambert-Eaton syndrome
Elevated ACTH -> glucocorticoid excess -> Cushing's syndrome: Small cell lung cancer

Elevated PTH related peptide -> Hypercalcemia: Squamous cell

Elevated ADH -> SIADH -> hyponatremia: Small cell

Antibodies to presynaptic Ca channels -> Lambert-Eaton syndrome: Small cell
Which type of vasculitis fits the following description?
- Weak pulses in upper extremities
- Necrotizing granulomas of lung and necrotizing glomerulonephritis
- Necrotizing immune complex inflammation of visceral/renal vessels
- Young male smokers
- Young Asian women
- Young asthmatics
Weak pulses in upper extremities: Takayasu
Necrotizing granulomas of lung and necrotizing glomerulonephritis: Wegener's
Necrotizing immune complex inflammation of visceral/renal vessels: Polyarteritis nodosa
Young male smokers: Buergers
Young Asian women: Takayasu
Young asthmatics: Churg-Strauss
Which type of vasculitis fits the following description?
- Infants and young children; involved coronary arteries
- Most common vasculitis
- A/w hepatitis B infection
- Occlusion of ophthalmic artery can lead to blindness
- Perforation of nasal septum
- Unilateral headache, jaw claudication
Infants and young children; involved coronary arteries: Kawasaki
Most common vasculitis: Temporal arteritis
A/w hepatitis B infection: Polyarteritis nodosa
Occlusion of ophthalmic artery can lead to blindness: Temporal arteritis
Perforation of nasal septum: Wegener's
Unilateral headache, jaw claudication: Temporal arteritis
Which lipid-lowering agent matches the following description?
- SE: Facial flushing
- SE: Elevated LFTs, myositis
- SE: GI discomfort, bad taste
- Best effect on HDL
- Best effect on triglycerides/VLDL
- Best effect on LDL/cholesterol
- Binds C. diff toxin
SE: Facial flushing: Niacin
SE: Elevated LFTs, myositis: Statins, fibrates
SE: GI discomfort, bad taste: Bile acid sequestrants
Best effect on HDL: Niacin
Best effect on triglycerides/VLDL: Fibrates
Best effect on LDL/cholesterol: Statins
Binds C. diff toxin: Cholestyramine
What drugs are known for causing elevated prolactin levels?
Anti-psychotics (Dopamine antagonists)
Methyldopa
Verapamil
What is the most common cause of aortic stenosis in a 50 year old patient?
Congenital bicuspid aortic valve
What is the most common cause of aortic regurgitation in a 70-year old patient?
Senile (degenerative) calcification
What is the classic (but rare) EKG finding in pulmonary embolism?
S1Q3T3
What is the most likely cause of secondary hypertension given the following findings?
- Hypertension measures in arms but low BP in LE
- Proteinuria
- Hypokalemia
- Tachycardia, diarrhea, heat intolerance
- Hyperkalemia
- Episodic sweating, tachycardia
Hypertension measures in arms but low BP in LE
- Coarctation of the aorta

Proteinuria
- Renal disease

Hypokalemia
- Hyperaldosteronism

Tachycardia, diarrhea, heat intolerance
- Hyperthyroidism

Hyperkalemia
- Renal failure, Renal artery stenosis

Episodic sweating, tachycardia
- Pheochromocytoma
An elderly female with a history of cholelithiasis presents with a 5-day history of vague, recurrent abdominal pain and vomiting. What diagnosis do you immediately suspect?
Gall stone ileus
A patient presents to the ER with a very painful irreducible inguinal mass. What is the next step in the management of this patient?
Surgical correction of the incarcerated inguinal hernia
A 4-month-old child presents with nonbilious vomiting despite changing formulas from milk-based to soy-based. What is the most likely etiology?
Congenital pylorus stenosis
A patient presents to clinic for follow-up and is found to have a BP of 150/85. You note in the chart that during his last visit 1 month ago, his BP was 145/90. What is the next step in the management of this patient?
Recheck blood pressure in 2-4 weeks.
You need 3 BP on 3 different occasions to diagnose HTN.
Which glomerular disease would you suspect most in a pt with the following findings?
- Most common nephrotic syndrome in children
- IF: granular pattern of immune complex seposition; LM: hypercellular glomeruli
- IF: linear pattern of immune complex deposition
- Kimmelstiel-Wilson lesions (nodular glomerulosclerosis)
- most common nephrotic syndrome in adults
- EM: loss of epithelial foot processes
- Nephrotic syndrome a/w hepatitis B
- Nephrotic syndrome a/w HIV
Most common nephrotic syndrome in children
- Minimal change disease

IF: granular pattern of immune complex seposition; LM: hypercellular glomeruli
- Post-infectious

IF: linear pattern of immune complex deposition
- Goodpasture's

Kimmelstiel-Wilson lesions (nodular glomerulosclerosis)
- Diabetic nephropathy

most common nephrotic syndrome in adults
- FSGS or membranous?

EM: loss of epithelial foot processes
- Minimal change

Nephrotic syndrome a/w hepatitis B
- Membranoproliferative

Nephrotic syndrome a/w HIV
- FSGS
Which glomerular disease would you suspect most in a pt with the following findings?
- Anti-GBM antibodies, hematuria, hemoptysis
- EM: subendothelial humps and tram-track appearance
- Nephritis, deafness, cataracts
- LM: Crescent formation in the glomeruli
- LM: segmental sclerosis and hyalinosis
- Purpura on back of arms and legs, abdominal pain, IgA nephropathy
- Positive ANCA
- Anti-dsDNA antibodies
Anti-GBM antibodies, hematuria, hemoptysis
- Goodpasture's

EM: subendothelial humps and tram-track appearance
- Membranoproliferative

Nephritis, deafness, cataracts
- Alport's

LM: Crescent formation in the glomeruli
- Rapidly progressive

LM: segmental sclerosis and hyalinosis
- FSGS

Purpura on back of arms and legs, abdominal pain, IgA nephropathy
- Henoch-Schonlein Purpura

Positive ANCA
- Crescentic glomerulonephritis

Anti-dsDNA antibodies
- Lupus nephritis
What is the treatment for an MI due to cocaine overdose?
Lorazepam
CCB for BP control

Do not give Beta-blockers (unmasked alpha1 vasoconstriction -> raise BP)
In which immunodeficiency is there an absence of a thymic shadow on newborn chest x-ray?
DiGeorge syndrome or SCID
A post-op patient has poor urine output, a BUN of 85, Creatinine of 3, and clear lungs. What is the next step in the management of this patient?
Prerenal azotemia

Give IV fluids
Which vaccines should not be given to an HIV positive patient?
Live virus vaccines
- Varicella zoster
- Intranasal influenza
- Oral polio
- Yellow fever
- BCG
- Anthrax
- Oral typhoid
- Small pox

Exception: MMR is given as long as CD4 > 200
When would you suspect thrombocytopenia due to heparin use? What is the most feared complication of heparin-induced thrombocytopenia?
Heparin use and decreased Plt count by 50% suggests HIT

Thrombosis (DVT, PE, stroke) is the most feared complication
What is the next step in the management of a child with severe asthma exacerbation and persistently low oxygen saturation despite medication?
Oxygen supplementation
Maintain O2 sat > 92%
Intubate if necessary:
- altered mental status
- unable to speak due to work of breathing
- O2 sat < 92%
What is the classic presentation of a patient with androgen insensitivity syndrome?
Normal appearing, infertile female
46 XY
Testes present
No uterus, ovaries present

Lab: High testosterone, high estrogen, high LH
What is the most common food borne bacterial GI tract infection?
Salmonella
What is the classic presentation of a patient with hyperprolactinemia?
Hypogonadism
Galactorrhea
Impotence (males)

Prolactinoma:
Visual changes
Headaches
What lab changes will be seen in a patient with hyperaldosteronemia?
Hypokalemia
Mild hypernatremia
Metabolic alkalosis
Increased 24-hour urine aldosterone
What is the antidote for the following overdoses?
- Opioids
- Heparin
- Benzodiazepines
- Barbiturates (phenobarbital)
- Carbon monoxide
Opioids
- Naloxone, naltrexone

Heparin
- Protamine sulfate

Benzodiazepines
- Flumazenil

Barbiturates (phenobarbital)
- Bicarbonate (alkalinize urine), dialysis

Carbon monoxide
- 100% O2
What is the definition of primary amenorrhea?
Absence of menses at age 16 with normal growth and secondary sexual characteristics
Absence of menses at age 13 with no secondary sexual characteristics
What type of oral contraceptive can be given to lactating women?
Progestin-only pills
(Estrogen decreases milk production)
What lab changes would you see in the following disease (Plt Count, Bleeding Time, PT, PTT)
- HUS or TTP
- Hemophilia A or B
- von Willebrand disease
- DIC
- Warfarin use
- End stage liver disease
- Aspirin use
HUS or TTP
- Low Plt, High BT, normal PT, normal PTT

Hemophilia A or B
- Normal Plt, Normal BT, Normal PT, High PTT

von Willebrand disease
- Normal Plt, High BT, Normal PT, High PTT

DIC
- Low Plt, High BT, High PT, High PTT

Warfarin use
- Normal Plt, Normal BT, High PT, High PTT

End stage liver disease
- Low/Normal Plt, High/Normal BT, High PT, High PTT

Aspirin use
- Normal Plt, High BT, Normal PT, Normal PTT
Compare the serum iron, ferritin, and transferrin levels in iron deficiency anemia to anemia of chronic disease.
Iron deficiency Anemia:
Decreased Serum Iron, Decreased Ferritin, Increased Transferrin

Anemia of chronic disease:
Decreased Serum Iron, Increased Ferritin, Decreased Transferrin
What medications are necessary in patients with end stage renal disease?
Vitamin D supplementation
Phosphate binders
Daily Aspirin and Statins to prevent CAD
EPO supplementation (Goal Hb 11-12)
BP and Glucose Control
ACE-Inhibitor
What is the treatment for hyperkalemia?
Insulin and dextrose
Calcium gluconate (or chloride)
Alkalinize serum with sodium bicarb
Albuterol
Loop diuretics
Kayexelate
What are 4 potassium sparing diuretics?
Spironolactone
Eplerenone
Triemterene
Amiloride
What findings do the following signs describe and with what diseases are they associated with?

- Deep palpation of RUQ -> arrest of inspiration due to pain
- Charcot's triad (fever, jaundice, RUQ pain), hypotension, altered mental status
- RLQ pain on passive extension of the hip
- RLQ pain on passive internal rotation of the flexed hip
- LUQ pain and referred left shoulder pain
- Ecchymosis of the skin overlying the flank
- Ecchymosis of the skin overlying the periumbilical area
Deep palpation of RUQ -> arrest of inspiration due to pain
- Murphy's sign: Cholecystitis

Charcot's triad (fever, jaundice, RUQ pain), hypotension, altered mental status
- Reynold's Pentad: Cholangitis

RLQ pain on passive extension of the hip
- Psoas sign: Appendicitis

RLQ pain on passive internal rotation of the flexed hip
- Obturator sign: Appendicitis

LUQ pain and referred left shoulder pain
- Kehr's sign: Ruptured spleen

Ecchymosis of the skin overlying the flank
- Grey-turner sign: Pancreatitis

Ecchymosis of the skin overlying the periumbilical area
- Cullen sign: Pancreatitis
What xray findings is indicative of croup? Epiglottitis?
Croup: Steeple sign
Epiglottitis: Thumb sign
What is the treatment for RSV bronchiolitis?
Oxygen
Maintain airway
Racemic epinephrine
Beta-agonists

Do not use Steroids
Ribavirin for last case
What is Beck's triad?
Cardiac tamponade:

Hypotension
Distant heart sounds
Distended neck veins
What is the typical initial post-op fever work-up?
CBC
UA
Blood and urine culture
XRay
What are the indications for a carotid endarterectomy?
Carotid occlusion >70-99% + Symptomatic
Asymptomatic 80-99% (and life expectancy > 5 years)
What type of leukemia matches the following description?
- Most common neoplasm is children (peak age 3-4 years)
- Most common leukemia in adults (average age 50)
- Philadelphia chromosome is almost always seen
- Smudge cells on peripheral smear
- Peripheral blasts are PAS+ and TdT+
- Peripheral blasts are PAS-, myeloperoxidase+ and have Auer rods
- Pancytopenia in a Down syndrome patient
Most common neoplasm is children (peak age 3-4 years)
- ALL

Most common leukemia in adults (average age 50)
- CLL

Philadelphia chromosome is almost always seen
- CML

Smudge cells on peripheral smear
- CLL

Peripheral blasts are PAS+ and TdT+
- ALL

Peripheral blasts are PAS-, myeloperoxidase+ and have Auer rods
- AML

Pancytopenia in a Down syndrome patient
- ALL
What is the next step in the management of testicular torsion confirmed with US?
Manual detorsion
Surgical detorsion with bilateral orchioplexy
What are the causes of hypovolemic hyponatremia?
Diuretics (esp Thiazides)
Addisons disease (mineralocorticoid deficiency)
Fluid loss and replacement with water
Fever + rash + elevated creatinine + eosinophilia. What is the diagnosis?
Acute interstitial nephritis
What distinguishes primary biliary cirrhosis from primary sclerosing cholangitis?
PBC:
- Positive anti-mitochondrial antibodies
- Positive ANA
- Females > males
- A/w other autoimmune disorders

PSC:
- Positive pANCA
- Males > females
- a/w Ulcerative colitis
- ERCP shows "beads on a string"
What is the treatment for Whipple disease?
TMP-SMX for 1 year
What type of current or past Hepatitis B exposure is present in each of the following scenarios?

- HepBsAg - HepBsAb - HepBcAb +

- HepBsAg + HepBsAb -HepBcAb +

- HepBsAg - HepBsAb + HepBcAb -

- HepBsAg - HepBsAb + HepBcAb +
HepBsAg - HepBsAb - HepBcAb +
- Window period in the acute infection


HepBsAg + HepBsAb -HepBcAb +
- Chronic infection


HepBsAg - HepBsAb + HepBcAb -
- Vaccination

HepBsAg - HepBsAb + HepBcAb +
- Recovery from infection
What is the differential diagnosis of ground-glass infiltrates on CXR?
Interstitial pneumonia
PCP pneumonia
Pulmonary edema (CHF, ARDS)
Pulmonary hemorrhage
Hypersensitivity pneumonitis
What medication is used to close a PDA?
Indomethacin
What complications can arise from electrical burns?
Cardiac dysrhythmias
Compartment syndrome
Bony injuries
Myoglobinuria that leads to renal failure
Neurologic disturbances
What eye abnormality is seen when there is a lesion to the oculomotor nerve (CN III)?
Eye is "down and out"
Pupil is fixed and dilated (interruption of parasympathetic innervation)
What are the differing presentations of Alzheimer's dementia, Pick's disease, and Lewy body dementia?
Alzheimers:
- MCC of dementia

Pick's disease:
- Personality and behavioral changes

Lewy body dementia
- Alzheimers with Parkinsonian symptoms
- Visual hallucinations
- Unexpected falls and syncopal episodes