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200 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What are the clinical findings in a pt with lead poisoning? (FA p233)
mnemonic=LEAD
-Lead Lines on gingivae (Burton's lines) and on epiphyses of long bones on x-ray
-Encephalopathy and Erythrocyte basophilic stippling
-Abdominal colic and sideroblastic Anemia
-Drops-wrist and foot drop.

Dimercaprol and EDTA 1st line of treatment. Succimer for kids. (It "sucks" to be a kid who eats lead)
Which anticancer agent fits the following description? (FA p344 – FA p347)
•toxicity is increased by allopurinol
6-mercaptopurine-because metabolized by xanthine oxidase

get bone marrow, GI, and liver toxicities
Which anticancer agent fits the following description? (FA p344 – FA p347)
•cardiotoxic; monitor patients using ejection fraction
Doxorubicin, daunorubicin
Which anticancer agent fits the following description? (FA p344 – FA p347)
•blocks polymerization of tubulin
Vincristine, Vinblastine
Which anticancer agent fits the following description? (FA p344 – FA p347)
•hyperstabilizes polymerized microtubules
Paclitaxel, other taxols
Which anticancer agent fits the following description? (FA p344 – FA p347)
•known to cause hemorrhagic cystitis
Cyclophaosphamide, Ifosfamide
Which anticancer agent fits the following description? (FA p344 – FA p347)
•crosses blood-brain barrier; used in brain cancers
Nitrosoureas
What are the side effects of clonidine? (FA p272)
-dry mouth
-sedation
-severe rebound hypertension
Which artery is most often the culprit in a myocardial infarction? (FA p262)
LAD > RCA > circumflex
What is exstrophy of the bladder?
What condition is associated with this abnormality? (FA p134)
-Exstrophy occurs due to failure of the abdominal wall to close during fetal development and results in protrusion of the posterior bladder wall through the lower abdominal wall. The cause of bladder exstrophy is maldevelopment of the lower abdominal wall, leading to a rupture which causes the bladder to communicate with the amniotic fluid.

-Epispadias
What serotonin agonist can be used to treat migraine headaches? (FA p413)
Sumatriptan
-Causes vasoconstriction, inhibiton of trigeminal activation and vasoactive peptide release.
What are the clinical uses of ondansetron? (FA p324)
Control vomiting postoperatively and in patients undergoing cancer chemotherapy

You will not vomit with ONDANSetron, so you can go ON DANCing
What is a syringomyelia? What symptoms are commonly seen in pts with syringomyelia? (FA p129)
-Enlargement of the central canal of spinal cord. Crossing fibers of spinothalamic tract are damaged.

-"Cape-like" bilateral loss of pain and temperature sensation in the upper extremities with preservation of touch sensation.

-Most common at C8-T1
-often presents in patients with Chiari II malformation
What problem / abnormality is a/w the following buzzwords?
-(FA p91) calf pseudohypertrophy
Duchenne's Muscular dystrophies.

-Pseudohypertrophy of calf muscles due to fibrofatty replacement of muscle
What problem / abnormality is a/w the following buzzwords?
-(FA p91) Gower’s maneuver
Duchenne's Muscular Dystrophy

-require assistance of the upper extremities to stand up
What problem / abnormality is a/w the following buzzwords?
-(FA p90) tendon xanthomas
Familial hypercholesterolemia (hyperlipidemia type IIA)
What problem / abnormality is a/w the following buzzwords?
-(FA p90) subluxation of lenses
Marfan's synderome
What problem / abnormality is a/w the following buzzwords?
-(FA p90) café-au-lait spots
Neurofibromatosis type 1 (von Recklinghausen's disease)
What problem / abnormality is a/w the following buzzwords?
-(FA p128) tuft of hair on lower back
Spina bifida occulta
What is the typical presentation of a pt with Hodgkin’s disease? (FA p337)
Presence of Reed-Sternberg cells, Localized, single group of nodes; extranodal rare; contiguous spread (stage is strongest predictor of prognosis)
-constitutional ("B") signs/ symptoms-low-grade fever, night sweats, weight loss
-Mediastinal lymphadenopathy
Which cancers are a/w xeroderma pigmentosa? (FA p216)
-Melanoma
-Basal cell carcinoma
-Especially squamous cell carcinomas of skin
Which cell types do not require insulin for the uptake of glucose? (FA p281, FA p112)
Brain and RBCs
What is the typical presentation of a pt with pancreatic insufficiency? What is the treatment for pancreatic insufficiency? (FA p307)
-Chronic pancreatitis can lead to pancreatic insufficiency--->steatorrhea, fat-soluble vitamin deficiency, and diabetes mellitus

-Pancreatic enzymes
Why is the murmur of aortic stenosis not heard during the first part of systole? (FA p248)
-Paradoxical splitting-seen in conditions that delay LV emptying (aortic stenosis, left bundle branch block).
-Normal order of valvel closure is reversed so that P2 sound occurs before delayed A2 sound. Therefore on inspiration, the later P2 and earlier A2 sounds move closer to one another, "paradoxically" eliminating the split
What are the potential metabolic fates of pyruvate? (FA p103)
Can go to 4 different pathways
-Alanine carries amino groups to the liver from muscle
-Oxaloacetate can replenish TCA cycle or be used in gluconeogenesis
-Transition from glycolysis to the TCA cycle
-End of anaerobic glycolysis (major pathway in RBCs, leukocytes, kidney medulla, lens, testes, and cornea)
What physical changes take place in REM sleep? (FA p71)
Dreaming, loss of motor tone, possibly a memory processing function, erections, increased brain O2 use
-increased and variable pulse, REM, increased and variable BP, penile/clitoral tumescence. Occurs every 90 minutes; duration increases throughout the night. ACh is the principal neurotransmitter invovled in REM sleep. REM sleep decreases with age
What nerve innervates the “glossus” muscles?
What nerve innervates the “palat” muscles? (FA p397)
-glossus-All muscles with root glossus in their names (except palatoglossus-vagus) are innervated by hypoglossal (XII) nerve
-palat-All muscles with root palat in their names (except tensor veli palatini-mandibular branch of CN V) are innervated by vagus (X) nerve
Which types of cancer are associated with the following chromosomal translocations? (FA p339)
t (9;22)
CML (bcr-abl hybrid)
Which types of cancer are associated with the following chromosomal translocations? (FA p339)
t (8;14)
Burkitt's lymphoma (c-myc activation)
Which types of cancer are associated with the following chromosomal translocations? (FA p339)
t (14;18)
Follicular lymphomas (bcl-2 activation)
Which types of cancer are associated with the following chromosomal translocations? (FA p339)
t (15;17)
M3 type of AML (responsive to all-trans retinoic acid)
Which types of cancer are associated with the following chromosomal translocations? (FA p339)
t (11;22)
-Ewing's Sarcoma
Which types of cancer are associated with the following chromosomal translocations? (FA p339)
t (11;14)
-Mantle cell lymphoma
What cell type produces PTH?
What cell type produces calcitonin? (FA p283, FA p284)
-PTH-chief cells of parathyroid
-calcitonin-parafollicular cells (C cells) of thyroid
Explain the relationship between renin, angiotensin, and aldosterone. (FA p440)
-Renin converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin I
-Angiotensin I is converted to Angiotensin II by ACE (ACE also blocks bradykinin)
-Angiontensin II stimulates aldosterone release from the adrenal gland
Which part of the cochlea is sensitive to high-frequency sound? (FA p398)
Cochlear membrane=scuba flipper: narrow/stiff at the base (high frequency) and wide/flexible at the apex (low frequency)
-hearing loss in the elderly-high frequency--->low frequency
What are the vitamin K clotting factors?
What drug antagonizes vitamin K?
Why is heparin given concurrently as this particular drug is initiated? (FA p98)
-2, 7, 9, 10, protein C and S
-Warfarin-vitamin K antagonist
-maybe because warfarin acts on the liver and has a slow onset of action (b/c impairs synthesis). Heparin has a rpid onset of action and acts on the blood.
What is the most common rescue agent during an asthma attack?
Which adrenergic receptors are responsible for bronchodilation? (FA p230)
-Albuterol
-beta2>beta1
A long-time pt of yours comes to your office complaining of sexual dysfunction. What is your immediate differential diagnosis?
What drugs are known for causing sexual dysfunction? (FA p70)
-Drugs (antihypertensives, neuroleptics, SSRIs, ethanol)
-Diseases (depression, diabetes)
-Psychological (performance anxiety)
What are the common causes of restrictive cardiomyopathy? (FA p264)
-Sarcoidosis
-Amyloidosis
-Postradiation Fibrosis
-Endocardial fibroelastosis (thick fibroelastic tissue in endocardium of young children)
-Hemochromatosis (dilated cardiomyopathy can also occur)
What are the steps in the conversion of vitamin D to its active form in the body? (FA p284)
Vitamin D3 from sun exposure in skin. D2 ingested from plants. Both converted to 25-OH vitamin D in liver and to 1,25 (OH)2 vitamin D (active form) in kidney
What protozoal organism is associated with cat feces? What diseases does this organism commonly cause? (FA p159)
-Toxoplasma gondii
-Brain abscess in HIV, birth defects (ring-enhancing brain lesions)
Which immunoglobulin isotype fits the following statement? (FA p198)
•associated with allergies because it is bound by mast cells and basophils and causes them to degranulate and release their histamine
IgE
Which immunoglobulin isotype fits the following statement? (FA p198)
•present in large quantities on the membrane of many B cells
IgD
Which immunoglobulin isotype fits the following statement? (FA p198)
•crosses the placenta and, additionally, confers immunity to neonates in the first few months of life
IgG
Which immunoglobulin isotype fits the following statement? (FA p198)
•can occur as a dimer
IgA
Which immunoglobulin isotype fits the following statement? (FA p198)
•the predominant immunoglobulin in sero-mucous secretions such as saliva, colostrum, milk, tracheobronchial secretions, and genito-urinary secretions
IgA
Which immunoglobulin isotype fits the following statement? (FA p198)
•can be a pentamer
IgM
What are the findings of Brown-Sequard syndrome? (FA p390)
Hemisection of spinal cord. Findings:
-Ipsilateral UMN signs (corticospinal tract) below lesion
-Ipsilateral loss of tactile, vibration, proprioception sense (dorsal column) below lesion
-Contralateral pain and temperature loss (spinothalamic tract) below lesion
-Ipsilateral loss of all sensation at level of lesion
-LMN signs (eg flaccid paralysis) at level of lesion.

If lesion occurs above T1, presents with Horner's syndrome
Your pt has facial angiofibroma, ash-leaf spots of skin depigmentation, history of seizures, and mental retardation. What condition does this pt have?
What neoplasms is this pt at risk of developing? (FA p216)
-Pt. has tuberous sclerosis (facial angiofibroma, seizures, mental retardation)
-astrocytoma, angiomyolipoma, and cardiac rhabdomyoma
Describe the structure of a microtubule. What are the functions of microtubules?
-Cylindrical structure composed of a helical array of polymerized dimers of alpha- and beta-tubulin. Each dimer has 2 GTP bound.
-Incorporated into flagella, cilia, mitotic spindles. Grows slowly, collapses quickly. Also involved in slow axoplasmic transport in neurons.
Which drugs inhibit microtubules? (FA p83)
-Mebendazole/thiabendazole (antihelminthic)
-Griseofulvin (antifungal)
-Vincristine/vinblastine (anti-cancer)
-Paclitaxel (anti-breast cancer)
-Colchicine (anti-gout)
What are the clinical manifestations of Addison’s disease?
-Hypotension (hyponatremic volume contraction) and skin hyperpigmentation (due to MSH, a by-product of increased ACTH production from POMC)
What is the cause of Addison’s disease? (FA p286)
-Adrenal Atrophy and Absence of hormone production; involves All 3 cortical divisions
-Primary deficiency of aldosterone and cortisol due to adrenal atrophy or destruction by disease
What is the difference between Medicare and Medicaid?
-MedicarE is for the Elderly
-MedicaiD is for the Destitute

medicaid is federal and state assistance for very low income people
What are the three parts of Medicare? (FA p66)
-Medicare Part A = hospital
-Medicare Part B = doctor bills
-Medicare Part C = medicare + choice-people can receive their medicare benefits through private insurance companies
-Medicare Part D = Prescription Drug Plan
How do the symptoms of a gastric ulcer differ from the symptoms of a duodenal ulcer?
-Gastric Ulcer-pain can be greater with meals-weight loss. Often occurs in older patients. H. pylori infection in 70%. Chronic NSAID use also implicated. Due to decreased mucosal protection against gastric acid.
-Duodenal Ulcer-Pain decreases with meals-weight gain. Almost 100% have H. pylori infection. Due to increased gastric acid secretion or decreased mucosal protection. Hypertrophy of Brunner's glands.
What are the two most common causes of peptic ulcer disease? (FA p312)
-H. pylori infection
-Chronic NSAID use
What neoplasm accounts for 85-90% of adult renal cancers? (FA p447)
-Renal Cell Carcinoma
Which primary brain tumor fits the following description? (FA p406)
•pseudopalisading necrosis
Glioblastoma multiforme (grade IV astrocytoma)
Which primary brain tumor fits the following description? (FA p406)
•polycythemia
Hemangioblastoma
Which primary brain tumor fits the following description? (FA p406)
•neurofibromatosis II
Schwannoma
Which primary brain tumor fits the following description? (FA p406)
•a/w von Hipple-Lindau syndrome
Hemangioblastoma
Which primary brain tumor fits the following description? (FA p406)
•foamy cells, high vascularity
Hemangioblastoma
Which primary brain tumor fits the following description? (FA p406)
•prolactinemia-->galactorrhea, amenorrhea, anovulation
Pituitary adenoma
Which primary brain tumor fits the following description? (FA p406)
•psammoma bodies
Meningioma
Which primary brain tumor fits the following description? (FA p406)
•fried-egg appearance
Oligodendroglioma
Which primary brain tumor fits the following description? (FA p406)
•perivascular pseudorosettes
Medulloblastoma
Which primary brain tumor fits the following description? (FA p406)
•loss of peripheral vision
Pituitary Adenoma and Craniopharyngioma
Which primary brain tumor fits the following description? (FA p406)
•worst prognosis of any primary brain tumor
Glioblastoma multiforme (grade IV astrocytoma)
Km is the substrate concentration at one-half Vmax. Vmax is the maximum velocity of a reaction. How does a competitive antagonist affect Km and Vmax? How does a noncompetitive antagonist affect Km and Vmax? (FA p222, FA p224)
Competitive Antagonist
-Km: increased
-Vmax: unchanged

Noncompetitive antagonist
-Km: unchanged
-Vmax: decreased
What is the classic presentation of a pt with Buerger’s disease? What is the treatment? (FA p270)
-Seen in heavy smokers
-Intermittent claudication, superficial nodular phlebitis, cold sensitivity (Raynoud's phenomenon), sever pain in affected part. May lead to gangrene and autoamputation of digits.
-Treatment-smoking cessation
What is the cause of maple syrup urine disease?
What are the clinical features of maple syrup urine disease? (FA p110)
Blocked degradation of branched amino acids (Ile, Leu, Val) due to decreased alpha-ketoacid dehydrogenase. Causes increased alpha-ketoacids in the blood, especially Leu
-Casuses severe CNS defects, mental reardation, and death
Maple syrup urine disease
-mnemonic
I Love Vermont maple syrup from maple trees (with branches)
-Isoleucine
-Leucine
-Valine
What is the cause of endemic cretinism? What is the cause of sporadic cretinism? (FA p288)
-Endemic-endemic goiter-lack of iodine
-Sporadic-caused by defect in T4 formation or developmental failure in thyroid function
What are the features of cretinism? (FA p288)
-Pot-bellied, pale, puffy-faced child with protruding umbilicus and protuberant tongue
-Mentally retarded
What lab findings allow you to distinguish iron deficiency anemia from a microcytic, hypochromic anemia resulting from thalassemia? (FA p333)
-Iron deficiency anemia-decreased heme synthesis
-Thalassemia-mutations lead to decreased globin synthesis
List the aminoglycosides, tetracyclines, and macrolides
Aminoglycosides
-"Mean" GNATS can NOT kill anaerobes
-Gentamycin, Neomycin, Amikacin, Torbramycin, Streptomycin

Tetracylcines
-Tetracycline, doxycycline, demeclocyline, menocycline

Macrolides
-Erythromycin, azithromycin, clarithromycin
What viruses are associated with the following statements? (FA p165- FA p169)
• fever + cervical lymphadenopathy + hepatosplenomegaly
-Mononucleosis?
-EBV
Which vitamin fits the following description? (FA p94- FA p98)
• deficiency causes beriberi or Wernicke-Korsakoff
-Vitamin B1 (thiamine)
From which arteries do the umbilical arteries arise? (FA p127)
UmbiLical arteries-mediaL umbilical ligaments

***umbilical arteries arise from the internal iliac arteries
How can you distinguish a lower motor neuron lesion from an upper motor neuron lesion? (FA p388)
-UMN lesion has weakness, increased reflexes, increased tone, positive Babinski, and spastic paralysis
-Upper MN=everything up (tone, DTRs, toes)
-LMN lesion has weakness, atrophy, fasciculations, decreased reflexes, decreased tone
-Lower MN=everything lowered (less muscle mass, decreased muscle tone, decreased reflexes, downgoing toes)

***upgoing babinski is normal in infants
***fasciculation=muscle twitching
What is the classic presentation of a pt with Takayasu’s arteritis? (FA p270)
-known as "pulseless disease"--->;weak pulses in upper extremities
-primarily affects Asian females <40

FAN MY SKIN On Wednesday
-Fever
-Arthritis
-Night sweats
-MYalgias
-SKIN nodules
-Ocular disturbances
-Weak pulses in upper extremities
Which antibiotics are the inhibitors of protein synthesis? Which ribosomal subunit does each inhibit? (FA p181)
Buy AT 30, CCELL (sell) at 50
<span style=" font-weight:600;">
30s inhibitors
-A=Aminoglycosides (streptomycin, gentamicin, tobramycin, amikacin) [bactericidal]
-T=Tetracyclines [bacteriostatic]

50s inhibitors
-C=Chloramphenicol, Clindamycin [bacteriostatic]
-E=Erythromycin [bacteriostatic]
-L=Lincomycin [bacteriostatic]
-L=Linezolid [variable]
What are the two causes of homocystinuria? How does the treatment differ for each? (FA p110)
-3 forms
-all are autosomal recessive
-cystathionine synthase deficiency-treatment--->;decrease methionine and increase cystine, and increase B12 and folate in diet
-decreased affinity of cystathionine synthase for pyridoxal phosphate-treatment--->;increase vitamin B6 in diet
-homocysteine methyltransferase deficiency
Which vitamin fits the following description? (FA p94- FA p98)
• deficiency causes scurvy
-Vitamin C (ascorbic acid)
What viruses are associated with the following statements? (FA p165- FA p169)
• meningitis + orchitis + parotitis
-Mumps Virus--->;a paramyxovirus

symptoms:
Mumps makes your parotid glands and testes as big as POM-poms
-Parotitis
-Orchitis (inflammation of testes)
-aseptic Meningitis

-can cause sterility (especially after puberty)
What are the exceptions to informed consent? (FA p66)
1. Patient lacks decision-making capacity or is legally incompetent
2. Implied consent in an emergency
3. Therapeutic privilege-withholding information when disclosure would severly harm the patient or undermine informed decision-making capacity
4. Waiver-patient waives the right of informed consent
Which part of the brain is responsible for attention / alertness? (FA p381) (Hint: lesion results in coma)
-reticular activating system (midbrain)
-lesion leads to reduced levels of arousal and wakefulness (ex. coma)
What drugs are known for causing diabetes insipidus? What drugs are used to treat diabetes insipidus? (FA p291)
-lithium
-demeclocycline [ADH antagonist]

treatment:
-for central DI--->;intranasal desmopressin (ADH analog)
-for nephrogenic DI--->;hydrochlorothiazide, indomethacin, or amiloride
What antibiotics are well known for causing both ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity? (FA p181)
Aminoglycosides
What is the rule of 2’s associated with Meckel’s diverticulum? (FA p314)
The five 2's
-2 inches long
-2 feet from the ileocecal valve
-2% of population
-Commonly presents in first 2 years of life
-May have 2 types of epithelia (gastric/pancreatic)
What are the positive symptoms of schizophrenia (adding a symptom)?
-Delusions
-Hallucinations-often auditory
-Disorganized speech (loose associations)
-Disorganized or catotonic behavior
-What drugs regulate the secretion of gastric acid? (FA p307)
-prostaglandins/misoprostol inhibit cAMP--->;inhibits H+ secretion
-atropine inhibts ACh binding to M3 receptor (competitive antagonist)--->;inhibits H+ secretion
-cimetidine inhibits histamine binding to H2 receptor (competitive antagonist)--->;inhibits H+ secretion
-omeprazole-H+/K+ ATPase inhibitor--->;inhibits H+ secretion
What is the female homologue to the following male body parts? (FA p134)
Male Female
-corpus spongiosum
-Cowper / bulbourethral glands
-prostate gland
-glans penis
-ventral penile shaft
-scrotum
What is the female homologue to the following male body parts? (FA p134)
Male
corpus spongiosum---->;vestibular bulbs
Cowper / bulbourethral glands---->;Greater vestibular glands (of Bartholin)
prostate gland---->;urethral and paraurethral glands (of skene)
glans penis---->;glans clitoris
ventral penile shaft---->;labia minora
scrotum---->;labia majora
A woman presents to your clinic with vaginal irritation and greenish vaginal discharge. You take a sample of the discharge and notice Clue cells under the microscope. With what drug are you going to treat this woman? (FA p152)
-she has Gardnerella vaginalis
-treat with metronidazole
What are the side effects of the antiarrhythmic amiodarone? (FA p277)
-Pulmonary fibrosis
-Corneal deposits
-Hepatotoxicity
-Skin deposits resulting in photdermatitis
-Neurologic effects
-Constipation
-Cardiovascular effects (bradycardia, heart block, CHF)
-Hypothyroidism/hyperthyroidism
Which vitamin fits the following description? (FA p94- FA p98)
• deficiency causes Rickets and osteomalacia
-vitamin D
What structures arise from the Paramesonephric ducts? What other name is given to the Paramesonephric ducts? (FA p133)
Develops Into:
-fallopian tube
-uterus
-upper 1/3 of vagina (lower 2/3 from urogenital sinus)

Paramesonephric ducts-AKA--->;mullerian duct
What is the goal of antianginal therapy? (FA p273, FA p246)
Goal-reduction of myocardial O2 consumption (MVO2) by decreasing 1 or more of the determinants of <span style="text-decoration: underline;">MVO2
Determinants of MVO2-end diastolic volume, blood pressure, heart rate, contractility, ejection time
What are the fundamental differences between hexokinase and glucokinase? (FA p101)
-They both phosphorylate glucose to yeild glucose-6-phosphate
-Hexokinase-ubiquitous. High affinity (low Km), high capacity (high Vmax), induced by insulin; feedback inhibited by glucose-6-phosphate
-Glucokinase-Liver and beta cells of pancreas. Low affinity (high Km), high capacity (high Vmax), induced by insulin; no direct feedback inhibition

-Glucokinase-phosphorylates excess glucose (ex after a meal) to sequester it in the liver. Allows liver to serve as a blood glucose "buffer"
What is Eisenmenger’s syndrome? (FA p258)
-Uncorrected VSD, ASD, or PDA causes compensatory vascular hypertrophy, which results in progressive pulmonary hypertension
-As pulmonary resistance increases, the shunt reverses from Left to Right to <span style="text-decoration: underline;">Right to Left
-which causes late cyanosis (clubbing and polycythemia)
Which ketone body imparts a fruity odor to breath during ketoacidosis?
Which ketone body is not detected by a urine test? (FA p115)
-acetoacetate--->;breath smells like acetone (fruity odor)
-Beta-hydroxybutyrate (to be used in muscle and brain)--->;urine test for ketones does not detect
What is the mechanism of disease in Guillain-Barre syndrome? What are the clinical findings in this syndrome? (FA p403)
-Inflammation and demyelination of peripheral nerves and motor fibers of ventral roots (sensory effect less severe than motor)
-causes symmetric ascending muscle weakness beginning in distal lower extremities
-Facial paralysis in 50% of cases
-autonomic function may be severly affected (ex cardiac irregularities, hypertension, or hypotension)
-although all patients survive; the majority revover completely after weeks to months

-clinical findings:
-increased CSF protein with normal cell count (albuminocytologic dissociation)
-increased protein--->;papilledema
What are the negative symptoms of schizophrenia (removing a normal finding/trait)? (FA p421)
-Flat affect
-Social withdrawal
-Lack of motivation
-Lack of speech or thought
The thalamus is a relay station that conducts signals to and from the brain. Which thalamic nuclei are the relay stations for the following body sensations/activities? (FA p377)
• visual sensation
-Lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN)

Medial for Music
Lateral for Light
What is the cause of achalasia? How is achalasia diagnosed? (FA p309)
-Achalasia=absence of relaxation
-Failure of relaxation of lower esophageal spincter due to loss of myenteric (Auerbach's) plexus
-associated with an increased risk of esophageal carcinoma

-Barium swallow shows dilated esophagus with an area of distal stenosis--->;bird's beak
What are the common causes of anion gap acidosis? (FA p443)
MUDPILES:
<span style=" font-weight:600;"><span style="font-weight:400;">-M<span style="font-weight:400;">ethanol (formic acid)
-Uremia
-Diabetic ketoacidosis
-Paraldehyde or Phenformin
-Iron tablets or INH
-Lactic acidosis
-Ethylene glycol (oxalic acid)
-Saclicylates
Which two antiviral agents can be used to treat CMV infection? (FA p188, FA p189)
-Ganciclovir and Foscarnet
The thalamus is a relay station that conducts signals to and from the brain. Which thalamic nuclei are the relay stations for the following body sensations/activities? (FA p377)
• facial sensation
-Ventral posterior nucleus, medial part (VPM)
-facial sensation (via CN V)

-You put Makeup on your face, and the sensory info is relayed through the VPM
Which vitamin fits the following description? (FA p94- FA p98)
• deficiency causes cheilosis and corneal vascularization
-Vitamin B2 (riboflavin)
The thalamus is a relay station that conducts signals to and from the brain. Which thalamic nuclei are the relay stations for the following body sensations/activities? (FA p377)
• motor to the body
-Ventral anterior/lateral (VA/VL) nuclei
What anatomic structures are found in the retroperitoneum? (FA p296)
SAD PUCKER
-Suprarenal glands (aka adrenal glands)
-Aorta/IVC
-Duodenom (2nd, 3rd, 4th parts)
-Pancreas (except tail--->;it is intraperitoneal)
-Ureters
-Colon (only ascending and descending branches)
-Kidneys
-Esophagus
-Rectum
-What are the different stages of sleep?
-How do they differ from one another? (FA p71)
-Stage 1 (5%), 2 (45%), 3-4 (25%), REM (25%)

-Stage 1-->;light sleep, has Theta waves
-Stage 2-->;deeper sleep; bruxism, has Sleep spindles and K complexes
-Stage 3-4-->;deepest, non-REM sleep: sleepwalking; night terrors; bedwetting (slow-wave sleep); Delta (lowest frequency, highest amplitude) waves
-REM-->;Dreaming, loss of motor tone, possibly a memory processing function, erections, increased brain O2 use; has Beta waves
-What pt population is more prone to transposition of the great vessels?
-What substance should be given when a newborn is diagnosed with transposition of the great vessels? (FA p259)
-offspring of a diabetic mother
-PGEE-keeps PDA open-necessary to sustain life
How does the drug dose response curve change with the addition of a competitive antagonist compared to a noncompetitive antagonist? (FA p224)
-A competitive antagonist shifts curve to the right, decreasing potency and increasing EC50
-A noncompetitive antagonisht shifts the agonist curve downward, decreasing efficacy
What is the most common primary cardiac tumor in adults?

in children? (FA p268)
-in adults--->;myxoma [(90% occur in the atria (mostly LA). Myxomas are usually described as a "ball-valve" obstuction in the LA (associated with multiple syncopal episodes)]

-in children--->;rhabdomyosarcoma (associated with tuberous sclerosis)
-What is the clinical use for the drug Tamoxifen?
-What is the main concern when using this drug?
-What other agent may be a better choice? (FA p346)
-Breast Cancer. It is also useful to prevent osteoporosis.
-Tamoxifen may increase the risk of endometrial carcinoma via partial agonist effects; "hot flashes."
-Raloxifene does not cause endometrial carcinoma because it is an endometrial antagonist.
The thalamus is a relay station that conducts signals to and from the brain. Which thalamic nuclei are the relay stations for the following body sensations/activities? (FA p377)
• body sensation
-Ventral Posterior Nucleus, lateral part (VPL)
-body sensation (proprioception, pressure, pain, touch, vibration via dorsal columns, spinothalamic tract)
Which vitamin fits the following description? (FA p94- FA p98)
• deficiency causes night blindness and dry skin
-Vitamin A (retinol)
-What is the cause of Horner’s syndrome?

-What symptoms are seen in Horner’s syndrome? (FA p391)
-lesion of spinal cord above T1 (ex Pancoast's tumor, Brown-Sequard syndrome [cord himisection], late-stage syringomyelia)

-PAM is horny (Horner's)
-Ptosis (slight drooping of eyelid)
-Anhidrosis (absence of sweating) and flushing (rubor) of affected side of face
-Miosis (pupil constriction)
-What are the possible causes of SIADH?
-What cancer is known for causing SIADH? (FA p291)
-Ectopic ADH (small cell lung cancer)
-CNS disorders/head trauma
-Pulmonary disease
-Drugs (ex. cyclophosphamide)
What is the Cushing reaction? (FA p256)
Cushing reaction-increased intracranial pressure constricts arterioles--->;cerebral ischemia--->;hypertension (sympathetic response) and reflex bradycardia

Note: Cushing triad=hypertension, bradycardia, respiratory depression

-central chemoreceptors are responsible for the Cushing Reaction
-central chemoreceptors respond to changes in pH and PCO2 of brain interstitial fluid
What viruses are associated with the following statements? (FA p165- FA p169)
• Koplick spots
-Rubeola (measles virus)
-koplik spots (red spots with blue-white center on buccal mucoa
-rash spreads from head to toe

3 C's of Measles
-Cough
-Coryza
-Conjunctivitis
-What endogenous hormones regulate the secretion of gastric acid?
-Increased by histamine (via increased cAMP), ACh (via Gq), gastrin (GRP stimulates gastrin release)
-Decreased by somatostatin (via Gi), GIP, prostaglandin (via Gi), secretin
Guillain-Barre syndrome
-associated with
-infections--->;autoimmune attack of peripheral myelin due to molecular mimicry (ex Campylobacter jejuni or herpesvirus infection), inoculations, and stress, but no definitive link to pathogens
What are the signs of bacterial endocarditis? (FA p266)
Bacteria FROM JANE
-Fever-most common symptom
-Roth's spots-round white spots on retina surrounded by hemorrhage
-Osler's Nodes-tender raised lesions on finger or toe pads
-Murmur
-Janeway lesions-small erythematous lesions on palm or sole
-Anemia
-Nail-bed hemorrhage
-Emboli
Which vitamin fits the following description? (FA p94- FA p98)
• deficiency causes an increase in PT and PTT
-Vitamin K
What viruses are associated with the following statements? (FA p165- FA p169)
• councilman bodies
Yellow fever virus--->;a flavivirus--->;transmitted by Aedes mosquitos
-virus has monkey or human reservoir

-symptoms:
-high fever, black vomitus, and jaundice
-councilman bodies (acidophilic inclusions) may be seen in liver
Which vitamin fits the following description? (FA p94- FA p98)
• deficiency causes macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia
-Vitamin B12 (cobalamin)--->;see neuorlogic symptoms--->;due to abnormal myelin
-Folic Acid--->;don't see neurologic symptoms (most common vitamin deficiency in the US)
Which portion of the renal tubule fits the following description? (FA p450, FA p439)
• impermeable to sodium, passively reabsorbs water
• Ca reabsorption influenced by PTH
• reabsorbs the majority of glucose and amino acids
• Na reabsorption regulated by aldosterone
• impermeable to water, actively reabsorbs Na, K, and Cl
• reabsorbs the majority of bicarbonate, sodium, and water
• water reabsorption regulated by ADH
Which portion of the renal tubule fits the following description? (FA p450, FA p439)
• impermeable to sodium, passively reabsorbs water--->;thin descending loop of Henle
• Ca reabsorption influenced by PTH--->;early distal convoluted tubule
• reabsorbs the majority of glucose and amino acids--->;early proximal tubule
• Na reabsorption regulated by aldosterone--->;distal convoluted tubule
• impermeable to water, actively reabsorbs Na, K, and Cl--->;thick ascending loop of Henle
• reabsorbs the majority of bicarbonate, sodium, and water--->;early proximal tubule
• water reabsorption regulated by ADH--->;collecting tubules
-What is the most common vitamin deficiency in the US?
-What disease develops when there is a deficiency of this vitamin? (FA p96)
-Folic acid
-Macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia; no neurologic symptoms (as opposed to B12 deficiency)
-seen in alcoholism and pregnancy
The thalamus is a relay station that conducts signals to and from the brain. Which thalamic nuclei are the relay stations for the following body sensations/activities? (FA p377)
• auditory sensation
-Medial geniculate nucleus (MGN)

-Lateral for Light
-Medial for Music
Compare the leading causes of death in ages 15-24 to those in ages 25-64? (FA p66)
-Ages 15-24--->;Injuries, homicide, suicide, cancer, heart disease
-Ages 25-64--->;Cancer, heart disease, injuries, suicide, stroke
What viruses are associated with the following statements? (FA p165- FA p169)
• (+) heterophil antibody
EBV--->;a herpesvirus

-can cause infective mononucleosis
-infects B cells

-characterized by fever, hepatosplenomegaly, phayngitis, and lymphadenopathy (especially posterior cervical nodes)

-peak incidence 15-20 years old
-abnormal circulating cytotoxic T cells

positive monospot test-heterophil antibodies detected by agglutination of sheep RBCs
What viruses are associated with the following statements? (FA p165- FA p169)
• negri bodies
-Rabies virus
-Negri bodies are characteristic cytoplasmic inclusions in neurons infected by rabies virus.

Rabies has a long incubation period (weeks to months), which allows for immunization after exposure

symptoms:
-causes fatal encephalitis with seizures, hydrophobia, hypersalivation, and pharyngeal spasm
Homocystinuria Diagram
In what phase of meiosis is primary oocyte arrested until just prior to ovulation?
In what phase of meiosis is an oocyte arrested until fertilization? (FA p460)
-Arrested in prophase I until ovulation
-Arrested in Metaphase II until fertilization
What is the most common precursor of choriocarcinoma?
What are the buzzwords for the gross appearance of this? (FA p462)
-Hydatidiform mole-cystic swelling of chorionic villi and proliferation of chorionic epithelium (trophoblast)
-Increased beta-hCG, “Honey-combed uterus,” “cluster of grapes appearance, abnormally enlarged uterus
Which antifungal drug fits the following description? (FA p186 - FA p187)
-side effect: arrhythmias
-Amphotericin B
Which antifungal drug fits the following description? (FA p186 - FA p187)
-side effect: liver dysfunction
-Azoles-fluconazole, ketoconazole, clotrimazole, miconazole, itraconazole, voriconazole
Which antifungal drug fits the following description? (FA p186 - FA p187)
-interferes with microtubule function
-Griseofulvin-interferes with microtubule function; disrupts mitosis. Deposits in keratin-containing tissues
Which antifungal drug fits the following description? (FA p186 - FA p187)
-inhibits steroid synthesis in fungi and in humans
Caspofungin? Nystatin?
-not sure
Which antifungal drug fits the following description? (FA p186 - FA p187)
-oral treatment for superficial fungal infections
Griseofulvin
What is the cause of I-cell disease? (FA p82)
-I-cell disease (inclusion cell disease)-inherited lysosomal storage disorder; failure of addition of mannose-6-phosphate to lysosome proteins (enzymes are secreted outside the cell instead of being targeted to the lysosome).
-results in coarse facial features, clouded corneas, restricted joint movement, and high plasma levels of lysosomal enzymes
-often fatal in childhood
Which diuretics lower serum calcium levels?
Which diuretics cause calcium retention? (FA p452)
-loops (furosemide) lower calcium
-hydrochlorothiazide causes calcium retention
Why is diphenhydramine (Benadryl) a poor medication choice in the elderly and those with BPH? (FA p229, FA p486)
-it is a reversible inhibitor of H1 histamine receptors
-its toxicities are sedation, antimuscarinic, and anti-alpha-adrenergic
What heart sound is a/w dilated congestive heart failure?
What heart sound is a/w chronic hypertension? (FA p248)
-S3-in early diastole during rapid ventricular filling phase. Associated with increased filling pressures and more common in dilated ventricles (but normal in children)
-S4-“atrial kick”-in late diastole. High atrial pressure. Associated with ventricular hypertrophy. Left atrium must push against stiff LV wall.
What are the irreversible enzymes of glycolysis?
What are the irreversible enzymes of gluconeogenesis? (FA p102, FA p104)
-Glycolysis-Hexokinase/glucokinase, phosphofructokinase-1 (rate-limiting enzyme), pyruvate kinase, pyruvate dehydrogenase
-Gluconeogenesis-Pathways Produce Fresh Glucose-Pyruvate carboxylase, PEP carboxykinase, Fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase, Glucose-6-phosphatase
A smear of your patient’s blood reveals target cells. What diseases do you immediately suspect? (FA p332)
-HALT, said the hunter to his target
-HbC disease, Asplenia, Liver Disease, Thalassemia
How does flutamide differ from finasteride in relation to mechanism of action and clinical use? (FA p471)
-flutamide-a nonsteroidal competitive inhibitor of androgens at the testosterone receptor. Used in prostate carcinoma
-finasteride (propecia)-a 5-alpha-reductase inhibitor (decreased conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone). Useful in BPH. Also promotes hair growth-used to treat male-pattern baldness.
What breast pathology fits the following description? (FA p466 - FA p468, FA p499)
-small, mobile, firm mass with sharp edges in 24 yr old woman
fibroadenoma-most common tumor in those less than 25
What breast pathology fits the following description? (FA p466 - FA p468, FA p499)
-histologic “leaflike appearance”
-Phyllodes tumor-most common in 6th decade
What breast pathology fits the following description? (FA p466 - FA p468, FA p499)
-commonly presents with nipple discharge
Intraductal papilloma
What breast pathology fits the following description? (FA p466 - FA p468, FA p499)
-eczematous patches on nipple
Paget’s disease
What breast pathology fits the following description? (FA p466 - FA p468, FA p499)
-multiple bilateral fluid-filled lesions with diffuse, cyclical breast pain
fibrocystic disease-cystic histologic type
What breast pathology fits the following description? (FA p466 - FA p468, FA p499)
-firm, fibrous mass in a 55 yr old woman
Invasive ductal malignant breast tumor
What is the difference between schizophrenia, schizophreniform, schizoaffective, schizoid and schizotypal? (FA p425, FA p421, FA p426)?
-schizophrenia-greater odd thinking than schizotypal-periods of psychosis and disturbed behavior with a decline in functioning lasting >6 months. Associated with increased dopaminergic activity
-must have2 or more of
-delusions, hallucinations-often auditory, disorganized speech (loose associations), disorganized or catatonic behavior, negative symptoms-flat affect, social withdrawal, lack of motivation, lack of speech or thought

-schizophreniform-type of schizophrenia lasting 1 to 6 months

-schizoaffective disorder-type of schizophrenia lasting at least 2 weeks of stable mood with psychotic symptoms, plus a major depressive, manic, or mixed (both) episode. 2 subtypes: bipolar or depressive

-schizoid-voluntary social withdrawal, limited emotional expression, content with social isolation (vs. avoidant)

-schizotypal-eccentric appearance, odd beliefs or magical thinking, interpersonal awkwardness-schizoid + odd thinking
What is the mechanism of action of local anesthetics?
Which nerve fibers are blocked first with local anesthesia? (FA p411)
-Block Na+ channels by binding to specific receptors on inner portion of channel. Preferentially bind to activated Na+ channels, so most effective in rapidly firing neurons.
-Order of nerve blockade-small-diameter fibers>large diameter. Myelinated fibers > unmyelinated fibers
-small myelinated fibers > small unmyelinated fibers > large myelinated fibers > large unmyelinated fibers
-Order of loss- pain > temperature > touch > pressure
What are the two most common causes of dementia in the elderly? (FA p402)
-Alzheimer’s disease and multi-infarct dementia
Where would you expect to find B cells in a lymph node?
Where would you find T cells, plasma cells, and macrophages? (FA p192)
-B cells-follicle
-T cells-paracortex
-Plasma cells-in the medullary cords in the medulla
-Macrophages-in the medullary sinuses in the medulla
What lab values would allow you to distinguish between thrombocytopenia, von Willebrand’s disease, and DIC? (FA p336)
-thrombocytopenia-decreased platelet count, increased bleading time, normal PT and PTT
-von Willebrand’s disease-normal platelet count, increased bleeding time, normal PT, normal or increased PTT
-DIC-decreased platelet count, increased bleeding time, increased PT, increased PTT
What are the muscles of mastication? (FA p397)
-M’s Munch
-Lateral Lowers (when speaking of pterygoids with respect to jaw motion)
3 muscles close jaw: Masseter, teMporalis, Medial pterygoid
1 opens: lateral pterygoid
All are innervated by the trigeminal nerve (V3)
How can excess ethanol cause hypoglycemia? (FA p98)
-Ethanol metabolism increases NADH/NAD+ ratio in liver, causing diversion of pyruvate to lactate and OAA to malate, thereby inhibiting gluconeogenesis and stimulating fatty acid synthesis. Leads to hypoglycemia and hepatic fatty change (hepatocellular steatosis) seen in chronic alcoholics
What characterizes serotonin syndrome?
When might you see it? (FA p432)
-hyperthermia, muscle rigidity, cardiovascular collapse, flushing, diarrhea
-get Serotonin syndrome with any drug that increases serotonin (MAO inhibitors)
What electrolyte abnormality is associated with the following signs and symptoms? (FA p449)
•excess free water intake, coma
-low serum Na+
What electrolyte abnormality is associated with the following signs and symptoms? (FA p449)
•flattened T waves on EKG
-low serum K+
What electrolyte abnormality is associated with the following signs and symptoms? (FA p449)
•kidney stones, abdominal pain
-high serum Ca2+
What electrolyte abnormality is associated with the following signs and symptoms? (FA p449)
•decreased reflexes--> respiratory arrest
-high serum Mg2+
What electrolyte abnormality is associated with the following signs and symptoms? (FA p449)
•peaked T waves on EKG
-high serum K+
What electrolyte abnormality is associated with the following signs and symptoms? (FA p449)
•dehydration, delirium, coma
-high serum Na+
What electrolyte abnormality is associated with the following signs and symptoms? (FA p449)
•neuromuscular irritability
-low serum Mg2+
What would you expect to find in a pt with a lesion of
-CN XII?
-CN X? (FA p396)
-tongue to same side-lick your wounds
-uvula to opposite side
What are some of the distinctive clinical features of Williams syndrome? (FA p93)
-William's Syndrome-microdeletion of long arm of chromosome 7
-deleted gene is elastin gene
-distinctive "elfin" facies, mental retardation, well-developed verbal skills, cheerful dispostition, extreme friendliness to strangers, CV problems
-On which cells would you find CD3 molecules?
-On which cells would you find CD4 molecules?
-To what do CD4 molecules bind?
-On which cells would you find CD8 molecules?
-To what do CD8 molecules bind? (FA p195)
-CD3-T cells
-CD4-Helper T cells-bind to class II MHC on APC
-CD8-Cytotoxic T cells-bind to class I MHC on virus infected cell
What causes the S1, S2, S3, and S4 heart sounds? (FA p248)
-S1-mitral and tricuspid valve closures-loudest at mitral area
-S2-aortic and pulmonary valve closure-loudest at left sternal border
-S3-in early diastole during rapid ventricular filling phase. Associated with increased filling pressures and more moccin in dilated ventricles (normal in children)
-S4-"atrial kick"-in late diastole. High atrial pressure. Associated with ventricular hypertrophy. Left atrium must push against stiff LV wall
Name five or more drugs that inhibit acetylcholinesterase. What is the clinical application for each? (FA p229)
-Atropine-eye-increase pupil dilation and cycloplegia, airway-decreased secretions, stomach-decreased acid secretion, gut-decreased motility, bladder-decreased urgency in cystitis
-Benztropine-Parkinson's-Park my Benz-CNS
-Ipratropium-respiratory-asthma, COPD-I Pray I can breathe soon
-Oxybutynin-Genitourinary-reduce urgency in mild cystitis and decreas bladder spasms
-Methscopolamine-GI-peptic ulcer treatment
What are the main differences between nephritic syndrome and nephrotic syndrome? (FA p445)
-nephritic-Inflammatory process involving the glomeruli, leading to proteinuria, azotemia, RBC casts in urine, oliguria, hypertension and proteinuria (<3.5 g/day)
-Nephrotic-massive proteinuria (>3.5 g/day, frothy urine), hyperlipidemia, uremia, fatty cast, maltese cross
What are the acidic and basic amino acids? Where can you find high concentrations of basic amino acids? Why are these amino acids found in these areas? (FA p107)
-Acidic-glutamate and aspartate
-Basic-arginine, lysine, histidine
-basic-increased in histones, which bind negatively charged DNA
What bacteria are known for causing bloody diarrhea? (FA p174)
-Campylobacter, Salmonella, shigella, Enterohemorrhagic E. coli, Enteroinvasive E. coli, Yersinia enterocolitica, C. difficile (watery and bloody)
-Entamoeba histolytica-protozoan
What are the leading causes of death in infants? (FA p66)
-congenital anomalies
-short gestation/low birth weight
-SIDS
-Maternal complications of pregnancy
-Respiratory Distress Syndrome
What is the equation for determining a drug’s volume of distribution? (FA p222)
Vd=(amount of drug in the body) / (plasma drug concentration)
What nerve injury would you suspect in a pt with the following motion deficits? (FA p355)
•foot drop (loss of dorsiflexion)
-common peroneal-trauma to lateral aspect of leg or fibula neck fracture
What nerve injury would you suspect in a pt with the following motion deficits? (FA p355)
•loss of plantar flexion
-tibial-knee trauma
What nerve injury would you suspect in a pt with the following motion deficits? (FA p355)
•loss of knee jerk
-femoral?-pelvic fracture
What nerve injury would you suspect in a pt with the following motion deficits? (FA p355)
•loss of hip adduction
-obturator?-anterior hip dislocation
What changes in sleep patterns are seen in pts with depression? (FA p423)
-decreased slow-wave sleep
-decreased REM latency
-increased REM early in sleep cycle
-increased total REM sleep
-Repeated nighttime awakenings
-Early-morning awakening (important screening question)
What are the clinical features of hyperammonemia? (FA p108)
-tremor
-slurring of speech
-somnolence
-vomiting
-cerebral edema
-blurring of vision
What changes in sleep patterns and sexual anatomy are seen in the elderly? (FA p70)
-sleep patterns-decreased REM sleep, decreased slow-wave sleep, increased sleep latency, increased awakenings during the night
-sexual changes-
-men-slow erection/ejaculation, longer refractory period
-women-vaginal shortening, thinning, dryness
Describe the probe and sample to which the probe binds in the following molecular biology techniques: Southern blot, Northern blot, and Western blot. (FA p86)
-Southern Blot-DNA probe-binds complimentary DNA
-Northern Blot-radioactive DNA probe binding to sample RNA
-Western Blot-labeled antibody is used to bind to relevant protein
What are the diagnostic criteria for major depressive episode?
SIG E CAPS
-atleast 5 for 2 weeks
-Sleep disturbance, loss of Interest (anhedonia), Guilt or feelings of worthlessness, loss of Energy, loss of Concentration, Appetite/weight loss, Psychomotor retardation or agitation, Suicidal idealations, depressed mood
What is the clinical definition of chronic bronchitis? (FA p482)
Productive cough for > 3 consecutive months in >= 2 years

disease of small airways
What is the blood supply to the embryonic foregut, midgut, and hindgut? What adult structures arise from these primitive guts? (FA p299)
-Foregut-celiac artery-stomach to proximal duodenum, liver, gallbladder, pancreas
-Midgut-superior mesenteric artery-distal duodenum to proximal 2/3 of transverse colon
-Hindgut-inferior mesenteric artery-distal 1/3 of transverse colon to upper portion of rectum, splenic flexure is a watershed region
Which tract of the spinal cord relays sensory information from the body? Which tract relays pain and temperature sensation? Which tract relays motor sensation to the body? (FA p388)
-Sensory-dorsal column/medial lemniscal pathway
-Pain and Temperature-Spinothalamic Tract
-Motor Sensation-Lateral cortiospinal tract
What is the most common tumor of the salivary gland? What is the most common malignant tumor of the salivary gland? (FA p308)
-most common-pleomorphic adenoma
-most common malignant-mucoepidermoid carcinoma
Which neoplasm is most commonly responsible for the hormone paraneoplastic syndrome? (FA p218)
-ACTH --> Cushing’s syndrome
-small cell lung carcinoma
Which neoplasm is most commonly responsible for the hormone paraneoplastic syndrome? (FA p218)
-PTH-related peptide --> hypercalcemia
-squamous cell lung carcinoma
-renal cell carcinoma
-breast carcinoma
Which neoplasm is most commonly responsible for the hormone paraneoplastic syndrome? (FA p218)
-erythropoietin --> polycythemia
-renal cell carcinoma
-hemangioblastoma
Which neoplasm is most commonly responsible for the hormone paraneoplastic syndrome? (FA p218)
-ADH --> SIADH
-small cell lung carcinoma
Does a partial agonist always have a lower potency than a full agonist?

Does a partial agonist always have a lower maximal efficacy than a full agonist? (FA p224)
-a partial agonist may be more potent, less potent, or equally potent; potency is an independent factor

-partial agonist acts on the same receptor system as the full agonist but has a lower maximal efficacy regardless of the dose