Dit Day 6

Front 1

name the specific antidotes:

salicylates

Back 1

NaHCO3 (alkalinize urine)

Front 2

Amphetamines

Back 2

NH4Cl (acidify urine)

Front 3

antimuscarinic, anticholinergic agents

Back 3

physostigmine

Front 4

beta blockers

Back 4

glucagon

Front 5

digitalis

Back 5

stop dig, normalize K, lidocaine, anti-dig Fab fragments, Mg

Front 6

lead

Back 6

CaEDTA, succimer

Front 7

mercury

Back 7

diMERCaprol

Front 8

copper

Back 8

penicillamine

Front 9

cyanide (may be 2/2 nitroprusside use to dec severely elevated BP acutely)

Back 9

nitrite, hydroxocobalamin, thiosulfate (aka. sulfur)

Front 10

methemoglobin

Back 10

methylene blue, vitamin C

Front 11

methanol, ethylene glycol (antifreeze)

Back 11

fomepizole

Front 12

benzodiazepines

Back 12

flumazenil

Front 13

TCAs

Back 13

NaHCO3

Front 14

tPA, streptokinase

Back 14

aminocaproic acid

Front 15

theophylline

Back 15

beta-blocker

Front 16

norepinephrine extravasation (p/w blanching of vein at site where NE is being infused)

Back 16

phentolamine (alpha-1 blocker)

Front 17

a pt with recent MI, 3 days later has sudden chest complaints -- cardiac auscultation reveals loud systolic murmur in the apical region. what happened?

Back 17

papillary muscle rupture as part of a post-mi complication

Front 18

in the evolution of an MI, what is the histologic features at each stage?
- 0-4 hrs
- 4-24 hrs
- 2-4 days
- 5-10 days
- 10+ days

Back 18

0-4 hrs: no change
4-24 hrs: early coagulative necrosis, release of contents of necrotic cells into bloodstream
2-4 days: hyperemia with acute inflammation (neutrophilic emigration)
5-10 days: macrophages degraded important structural components (high risk of free wall rupture, tamponade, papillary muscle rupture, etc)

10+ days: scar tissue complete, risk of ventricular aneurysm

Front 19

rapid onset sharp chest pain that radiates to the scapula

Back 19

aortic dissection

Front 20

rapid onset sharp pain in 20 y/o and a/w dyspnea

Back 20

spontaneous pneumothorax

Front 21

sharp pain lasting hrs-days and is somewhat relieved by sitting forward

Back 21

pericarditis

Front 22

pain made worse by deep breathing and/or motion

Back 22

musculoskeletal pain

Front 23

the pcwp is a good estimate of pressure in which heart chamber? what is that number?

Back 23

left atrial pressure -- pcwp <12

Front 24

what are the normal BPs in teh right and left ventricles?

Back 24

right - <25/5
left - <130/10

Front 25

what is the MOA of each class of antiarrhythmic?

Back 25

"No Bad Boy Keeps Clean"

class i - na channel blocker
class ii - beta blockers
class iii - potassium (K) channel blockers
class iv - calcium channel blockers

Front 26

name the drugs in each group of class 1 antiarrhythmic drugs (A,B,C)

Back 26

"Police Department Question
The Little Man
For Pushing Ecstacy."

class Ia - procainimide, disopyramide, quinidine
class Ib - Lidocaine, Mexiletine
class Ic - Flecainide, Propafenone, Encainide

Front 27

draw out the phases of myocardial action potential and describe which ion channels are responsible for each phase.

Back 27

check answer on page 256

Front 28

draw out the phases of pacemaker action potential and describe which ion channels are responsible for each phase.

Back 28

check answer on page 257

Front 29

which antihypertensive class or drug fits the following SEs:
1) ototoxic (esp w/ aminoglycosides)
2) dry mouth, sedation, severe rebound HTN
3) avoid in patients w/ sulfa allergy

Back 29

1) loop diuretics
2) clonidine
3) diuretics (loop and thiazides are also sulfa drugs)

Front 30

which antihypertensive are safe in pregnancy?

Back 30

1) hydralazine
2) methyldopa
3) nifedipine
4) labetalol

Front 31

which lipid-lowering agent matches the following?
1) SE: GI discomfort, bad taste
2) binds C. diff toxin

Back 31

1) bile acid resins
2) cholestyramine (a bile acid resin)