Dit Daily Review Quizes

Front 1

DAY 15

Back 1

DAY 15

Front 2

What drug is a derivative of 6-mercaptopurine?

Back 2

Azathrionine

Front 3

Causes phocomelia

Back 3

Thalidomide

Front 4

Immunosupressant that is Nephrotoxic in 75% of patients

Back 4

Cyclosporine

preventable with?

Hint 4

Mannitol diuresis

Front 5

Side effect of acne, HTN, osteoporosis, hyperglycemia and immunosuppression --> infection

Back 5

Glucocorticoids like prednisone

Front 6

inhibits secretion of IL-2 and other cytokines

Back 6

Tacrolimus and Cyclosporine

Front 7

Alkylating agent that requires bioactivation in the liver

Back 7

Cyclophosphamide

Front 8

inhibits Dihydrofolate reductase

Back 8

Methotrexate

Front 9

What arachidonic acid product opposes prostacyclin?

Back 9

Thromboxane -- proTHROMBOTIC, vasoconstriction, bronchoconstriction

Prostacyclin does the opposite

Front 10

Causes hemolytic anemia in G6PD patients

Back 10

Sulfa drugs, Fava beans, Dapsone, Primaquine, Isoniazid, High Dose Aspirin, Ibuprofen, Nitrofurantoin, Naphthalene

Front 11

What enzyme is deficient in fructose intolerance

Back 11

Aldolase B

Front 12

WHat enzyme deficient in Essential fructosuria

Back 12

Fructokinase

Front 13

What enzyme deficient in Classic Galactosemia

Back 13

Galactose -1-phosphate Uridylyltransferase

Front 14

What might you see in a 1st trimester fetus with Down Syndrome

Back 14

increased nuchal translucency

Front 15

Which protozoa matches description:
Diarrhea in campers and hikers

Back 15

Giardia Lamblia

Front 16

Which protozoa matches description:
Itchy Vaginitis

Back 16

Trichomonas

Front 17

Which protozoa matches description:
Sandfly is the vector

Back 17

Leishmania

Front 18

Which protozoa matches description:
Ixodes tick is the vector

Back 18

Babesia
What else uses this vector?

Hint 18

Burrelia Borgdorferi

Front 19

Which protozoa matches description:
Anopheles mosquito is the vector

Back 19

Plasmodium

Front 20

Which protozoa matches description:
Sodium Stibogluconate is the treatment

Back 20

Leishmania

Front 21

Which protozoa matches description:
Suramin or melarsoprol is treatment

Back 21

Trypanosoma

Front 22

Which protozoa matches description:
Maltese cross seen in RBC

Back 22

Babesia

Front 23

Which protozoa matches description:
treat with metronidazole

Back 23

Giardia Entamoeba or Trichomonas

Front 24

Which protozoa matches description:
Severe diarrhea in AIDS patients

Back 24

Cryptosporidium

Front 25

What is the result of a glycolytic enzyme deficiency?

Back 25

RBC hemolysis

Front 26

What is the result of a deficiency in Pyruvate dehydrogenase?

Back 26

Neurologic defects

Front 27

What cofactors required for pyruvate dehydrogenase

Back 27

Tender Loving Care For No One

Thiamine pyrophosphate, Lipoic acid, CoA, FAD, NAD,

What other enzyme requires these cofactors?

Hint 27

Alpha ketoglutarate dehydrogenase

Front 28

How does the presentation of a right parietal lobe lesion differ from a left parietal lobe lesion

Back 28

non dominant(right) lesion presents with hemispatial neglect syndrome

dominant(left) lesion presents with Gerstmann syndrome(agraphia, acalculia, finger agnosia, L-R disorientation)

Front 29

What disorder is a/w internuclear ophthalmoplegia?

Back 29

Multiple Sclerosis

Where is the lesion?

Hint 29

Medial Longitudinal Fasciculus

Front 30

Symptoms of fructosuria

Back 30

benign, asymptomatic since fructose cannot enter cells

Front 31

fructose intolerance causes what?

Back 31

F1P accumulates causing decrease in available phosphate which results in inhibition of glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis

Front 32

What sugars do you avoid in fructose intolerance?

Back 32

fructose AND sucrose(glucose+fructose)

Front 33

Presents with failure to track objects or develop a social smile

Back 33

Galactokinase deficiency
Symptoms?

Hint 33

Galactose in blood/urine, but more importantly INFANTILE CATARACTS

Front 34

What sugars do you avoid in Classic Galactosemia?

Back 34

Galactose and lactose(glucose + galactose)

symptoms?

Hint 34

infantile cataracts with mental retardation

Front 35

What causes infantile cataracts? Why?

Back 35

Both galactokinase deficiency and classic galactosemia due to galactitol accumulating in the lens

Front 36

What is another name for catalase?

Back 36

Glutathione peroxidase
What does it do?

Hint 36

destroys hydrogen peroxide and consumes glutathione

Front 37

Hyperacute rejections

Back 37

Ab mediates(Type II)

Front 38

Chronic rejection -

Back 38

T-cell and antibody mediated vascular damage where MHC I from donor are perceived as MHC I from self presenting non-self antigen.

fibrosis of?

Hint 38

Graft tissue(like small airways of lung--NOT ALVEOLI)

Front 39

Acute rejection

Back 39

Cell mediated(Type IV), reversible with?

Hint 39

cyclosporine and OKT3(CD-3 Ab)

Front 40

Cyclosporine MOA

Back 40

inhibits calcineurin, preventing production of IL-2 and its receptor

Front 41

Tacrolimus MOA

Back 41

binds to FK binding protein which inhibits secretion of IL-2 and other cytokines

Front 42

Sirolimus MOA

Back 42

binds mTOR and inhibits T-cell proliferation in response to IL-2

Front 43

Toxic effects increased by allopurinol

Back 43

Azathioprine because active metabolite is metabolized by..?

Hint 43

xanthine oxidase

Front 44

Results of pregnancy quad screen in down syndrome

Back 44

decreased AFP,
decreased estriol,
increased beta-hCG,
increased inhibin A

Front 45

What type of down syndrome is not maternally associated?

Back 45

down syndrome from mosaicism. Two cell lines due to defect during early embryogenesis

Front 46

What diseases demonstrate locus heterogeneity?

Back 46

Marfan's syndrome, MEN 2B, homocysteinuria all cause Marfanoid habitus.

Albinism

Front 47

Pleiotropy

Back 47

1 gene, many problems

PKU is a good example

Front 48

What genetic disease is X-linked dominant?

Back 48

hypophosphatemic rickets or vitamin d resistant rickets. Increased phosphate wasting at proximal tubule results in ricket like presentation.

Front 49

What mitochondrial diseases?

Back 49

mitochondrial myopathies and Leber's hereditary optic neuropathy - acute loss of central vision due to egeneration of retinal ganglion cells and axons.

Front 50

bilateral absence of vas deferens

Back 50

CF
Treatment?

Hint 50

N-acetylcysteine which cleaves disulfide bonds within mucous glycoproteins

Front 51

DAY 14

Back 51

DAY 14

Front 52

Most common primary malignant bone tumor of children

Back 52

Osteosarcoma

Front 53

Most common benign bone tumor

Back 53

Osteochondroma

Front 54

11;22 translocation

Back 54

Ewing Sarcoma

Front 55

Soap bubble appearance on x-ray

Back 55

Giant Cell tumor of bone

Front 56

onion skin appearance on bone

Back 56

Ewing Sarcoma

Front 57

Codman's triangle on xray

Back 57

Osteosarcoma

Front 58

MCC Hypocalcemia

Back 58

deficiency of PTH or deficiency of Calcium

Insufficient calcium intake, or Vit D deficiency(more common)

Acute Pancreatitis or
Parathyroid disease,

What can cause Vit D deficiency?

Hint 58

Chronic Renal Disease

Front 59

Pseudohypoparathyroidism

Back 59

Kidneys are unresponsibe to PTH

Front 60

Wernicke's Encephalopathy

Back 60

Confusion, Ophthalmoplegia, Ataxia

Korsakoff Syndrome?

Hint 60

Memory Loss, Personality Changes, Confabulation

Front 61

Side effect: Agranulocytosis

Back 61

Clozapine, Carbemazapine, Colchicine, PTU/Methimazole

Front 62

Side effect: Osteoporosis

Back 62

Corticosteroids and long term heparin use

Front 63

Side effect: Pulmonary Fibrosis

Back 63

Bleomycin, Busulfan, amiodarone

Front 64

Side effect: Gynecomastia

Back 64

Some Drugs Create Awesome Knockers

Spironolactone
Digitalis
Cimetidine
Estrogen
Ketoconazole
Chronic Alcohol/MJ

Front 65

Side effect: Photosensitivity

Back 65

SAT
Sulfonamides
Amiodarone
Tetracycline

Front 66

Side effect: Drug induced lupus

Back 66

Sulfonamides, Hydralazine, Isoniazid, Procainamide, Phenytoin

Front 67

4 Cardinal features of Parkinsons

Back 67

Tremor(pill rolling), Akinesia, Rigidity(Cogwheel), Lewy Body Dimentia

Lewy Body Dementia
--Visual Hallucinations
--Repeated falls
--Syncope

Front 68

HTN cutoff

Where does the thoracic duct drain?

Back 68

140/90

At the junction of the left subclavian and internal jugular

Front 69

Organisms causing endocarditis

Back 69

Staph Aureus(most common)
Staph Epidermidis
Viridens Strep
Enterococci

Culture negative
Haemophilus
Actinobacillus
Cardiobacter
Eikenella
Kingella

Front 70

Common locations of tophi in gout

Back 70

External Ear
Olecranon Bursa
Achilles Tendon

Acute attacks occur commonly after?

Hint 70

A large meal or alcohol consumption

Front 71

Anti-TSH receptor antibodies

Back 71

Grave's Disease

Front 72

Antimitochondrial antibodies

Back 72

Primary Biliary Cirrhosis

Front 73

anticentromere antibodies

Back 73

CREST Scleroderma

Front 74

antihistone antibodies

Back 74

Drug induced lupus

Front 75

anti smooth muscle antibodies

Back 75

Autoimmune Hepatitis

Front 76

Which lymph node does cancer in the stomach met to?

Back 76

Celiac nodes

Front 77

Which lymph node does cancer in the duodenum/jejunum?

Back 77

Superior Mesenteric Nodes

Front 78

Which lymph node does cancer in the sigmoid colon met to?

Back 78

colic --> Inferior mesenteric nodes

Front 79

Which lymph node does cancer in the rectum met to?

Back 79

internal iliac --> inferior mesenteric

Front 80

Which lymph node does cancer in the Testes met to?

Back 80

Para-aortic(retroperitoneal)

Scrotum?

Hint 80

Superficial Inguinal