Dispatch Ch 2

Front 1

An approved minimum equipment list or FAA Letter of authorization allows certain instruments or equipment

Back 1

to be inoperative prior to beginning a flight in an aircraft if prescribed procedures are followed.

Front 2

What action is necessary when a partial loss of ILS receiver capability occurs while operating in controlled airspace under IFR

Back 2

report the malfunction immediately to ATC

Front 3

What action should be taken if one of the two VHF radios fail while IFR in controlled airspace?

Back 3

Notify ATC immediately

Front 4

while flying IFR in controlled airspace, if one of the two VOR receivers fails, which course of action should the pilot-in-command follow

Back 4

Advise ATC immediately

Front 5

While flying in controlled airspace under IFR, the ADF fails, What action is required?

Back 5

Notify ATC immediately

Front 6

If a required instrument on a multiengine airplane becomes inoperative, which document dictates whether the flight may continue En route

Back 6

Certificate holder's manual

Front 7

Which pressure is defined as station pressure?

Back 7

actual pressure at field elevation

Front 8

what is corrected altitude (approximate true altitude)?

Back 8

indicated altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard

Front 9

when setting the altimeter, pilots should disregard

Back 9

the effects of nonstandard atmospherics temperatures and pressures

Front 10

if the ambient temperatures warmer than standard at FL350, what is the density altitude compared to pressure altitude

Back 10

higher than pressure altitude

Front 11

En route at FL270, the altimeter is set correctly. on descent,the pilot fails to set the local altimeter setting of 30.57. if the field elevation is 650 feet, and the altimeter is functioning properly, what would it indicate upon landing

Back 11

sea level

Front 12

during a en route descent in a fixed- thrust and fixed – pitch attitude configuration,both the ram air input and drain hole of the pitot system become completely blocked by ice. What airspeed indication can be expected

Back 12

decrease in indicated airspeed

Front 13

what can a pilot expect if the pitot system RAM air input and drain hole are blocked on ice

Back 13

the airspeed indicator may act as an altimeter

Front 14

if both the ram air input and drain hole of the pitot system are blocked by ice, what airspeed indication can be expected

Back 14

no variation of indicated airspeed in level flight if large power changes are made

Front 15

how will the airspeed indicator react if the ram air and put it to the pitot head is blocked by ice, but the drain hole and static port are not

Back 15

indication will drop to zero

Front 16

( see figure 241 ) you see the indication in the figure on your PFD, but your standby indicator reads 120 kn and the power is set for 120 – knot cruise in level flight, you decide the

Back 16

pitot tube may be plugged with ice or a bug

Front 17

automated flight decks or cockpits

Back 17

decrease the work load in terminal areas

Front 18

information obtained from flight data and cockpit . Voice recorders shall be used only for determining

Back 18

possible causes of accidents or incidents

Front 19

for what purpose in a cockpit voice recorders and flight data recorders not be used

Back 19

determining any certificate action, or civil penalty, arising out of an accident or occurrence

Front 20

how long is cockpit voice recorder and flight recorder data kept, in the event of an accident or ocurrence resulting in terminating light

Back 20

60 days

Front 21

if an air carrier airplanes airborne radar is inoperative and thunderstorms are forecast along the proposed route of flight, an airplane may be dispatched only

Back 21

in day VFR conditions

Front 22

an air carrier airplanes airborne radar must be in satisfactory operating condition prior to dispatch,if the flight will be

Back 22

conducted under VFR conditions at night with scattered thunderstorms reported en route

Front 23

What action should be taken by the pilot in command of a transport category airplane if the airborne weather radar becomes inoperative en route an IFR flight for which weather reports indicate possible thunderstorms?

Back 23

Proceed in accordance with the approved instructions and procedures specified in the operations manual for such an event

Front 24

which airplanes are required to be equipped with a ground proximity warning glide slope deviation alerting system?

Back 24

all turbine powered airplanes

Front 25

Information recorded during normal operation if a cockpit voice recorder in a large pressurized airplane with four reciprocating engines?

Back 25

may all be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes

Front 26

Which rule applies to the use of the cockpit voice recorder erasure feature?

Back 26

any information more than 30 minutes old may be erased

Front 27

A cockpit voice recorder must be operated

Back 27

from the start of the before starting engine checklist to completion of final checklist upon termination of flight

Front 28

for the purpose of testing the flight recorder system

Back 28

a total of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data accumulated at the time of testing may be erased

Front 29

What type service should normally be expected from an En route Flight Advisory Service?

Back 29

Weather advisories pertinent to the type of flight, intended route of flight, and altitude

Front 30

Below FL 180, en route weather advisories should be obtained from an FSS on

Back 30

122.0 MHz

Front 31

The federal Aviation Administration's Flight Information Service Data Link (FISDL) is designed to provide data on a common frequency to flight crews from

Back 31

17,500 feet MSL down to 5,000 feet AGL

Front 32

The federal Aviation Administration's Flight Information Service Data Link (FISDL) provides the following products:

Back 32

METARS, SIGMETS, PIREPS, and AIRMETS.

Front 33

The federal Aviation Administration's Flight Information Service Data Link (FISDL) products, such as ground radar precipitation maps.

Back 33

are not appropriate for finding a path through a weather hazard area

Front 34

who must the crew of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane be able to communicate with, under normal conditions, along an entire routes (in either direction) of flight?

Back 34

appropriate dispatch office

Front 35

What would be the identification when a VORTAC is undergoing routine maintenance and is considered unreliable?

Back 35

The identifier would be removed

Front 36

Which indication may be received when a VOR is undergoing maintenance and is considered unreliable?

Back 36

Coded identification T-E-S-T

Front 37

What is the maximum permissible variation between the two bearing indicators on a dual VOR system when checking one VOR against the other?

Back 37

4* on the ground and in flight.

Front 38

During a VOT Check of the VOR equipment, the course deviation indicator centers on 356* with the TO/FROM reading FROM. This VOR equipment may

Back 38

be used during IFR flights, since the error is within limits

Front 39

If an airborne checkpoint is used to check the VOR system for IFR operations, the maximum bearing error permissible is

Back 39

plus or minus 6*

Front 40

Which entry shall be recorded by the person performing a VOR operational check?

Back 40

Date, place, bearing error, and signature

Front 41

What record shall be made by the pilot performing a VOR operational check?

Back 41

The Date, place, bearing error, and signature in the aircraft log or other record

Front 42

Which checks and inspections of flight instruments or instrument systems must be accomplished before an aircraft can be flown under IFR

Back 42

VOR within 30 days and altimeter systems and transponder within 24 calendar months

Front 43

When is DME or suitable RNAV required for an instrument flight

Back 43

At or above 24,000 feet MSL if VOR navigational equipment is required

Front 44

What DME indications should a pilot observe when directly over a VORTAC site at 12,000 feet?

Back 44

2 DME miles

Front 45

where does the DME indicator have the greatest error between the ground distance and displayed distance to the VORTAC

Back 45

High altitudes close to the VORTAC

Front 46

(refer to figure 112) While arcing left on the IAH 10 DME Arc, the pilot experiences a left crosswind component.Where should the bearing pointer be referenced relative to the 90* (wingtip) position to maintain the 10 DME rangs

Back 46

ahead of the left wingtip reference

Front 47

When an air carrier flight is operated under IFR or over-the-top on "victor airways" which navigation equipment is required to be installed in duplicate?

Back 47

VOR

Front 48

An air carrier operates a flight in VFR over-the-top conditions. What radio navigation equipment is required to be a dual installation

Back 48

VOR

Front 49

If an air carrier airplane is flying IFR using a single ADF navigation receiver and the ADF equipment fails, the flight must be able to

Back 49

proceed safely to a suitable airport using VOR aids and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane radio system

Front 50

If the middle marker for Category I ILS approach is inoperative,

Back 50

the airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed, by means of one other independent navigation system, to suitable airport and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane radio system

Front 51

When must an air carrier airplane be DME/suitable RNAV system equipped?

Back 51

Whenever VOR navigation equipment is required

Front 52

While on an IFR flight in controlled airspace, the failure of which unit will precipitate an immediate report to ATC?

Back 52

DME

Front 53

(See Figure 242) The moving map below reflects a loss of

Back 53

position information

Front 54

(Refer to Figures 142 and 143) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "D" correspond?

Back 54

17

Front 55

(Refer to Figures 142 and 143) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "E" correspond?

Back 55

6

Front 56

(Refer to Figures 142 and 143) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "F" correspond?

Back 56

16

Front 57

(Refer to Figures 142 and 143) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "A" correspond?

Back 57

1

Front 58

(Refer to Figures 142 and 143) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "B" correspond?

Back 58

19

Front 59

(Refer to Figures 142 and 143) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "C" correspond?

Back 59

12

Front 60

(Refer to Figure 139) What is the lateral displacement of the aircraft in nautical miles from the radial selected on the No.1 NAV?

Back 60

5.0 NM.

Front 61

(Refer to Figure 139) On which radial is the aircraft as indicated by the No. 1 NAV?

Back 61

R-345

Front 62

(Refer to Figure 139) Which OBS selection on the No.1 NAV would center the CDI and change the ambiguity indication to a TO

Back 62

165

Front 63

(Refer to Figure 139) What is the lateral displacement in degrees from the desired radial on the No. 2 NAV?

Back 63

4*

Front 64

(Refer to Figure 139) Which OBS selection on the No.2 NAV would center the CDI

Back 64

174

Front 65

(Refer to Figure 139) Which OBS selection on the No.2 NAV would center the CDI and change the ambiguity indication to a TO

Back 65

354

Front 66

(Refer to Figures 140 and 141) To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation "A" correspond?

Back 66

9 and 6

Front 67

(Refer to Figures 140 and 141) To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation "B" correspond?

Back 67

5 and 13

Front 68

(Refer to Figures 140 and 141) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "C" correspond?

Back 68

12

Front 69

(Refer to Figures 140 and 141) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "D" correspond?

Back 69

2

Front 70

(Refer to Figures 140 and 141) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "E" correspond?

Back 70

8 and 3

Front 71

(Refer to Figures 140 and 141) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "F" correspond?

Back 71

4

Front 72

(Refer to Figures 140 and 141) To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation "G" correspond?

Back 72

7 and 11

Front 73

(Refer to Figures 140 and 141) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "H" correspond?

Back 73

1

Front 74

(Refer to Figures 140 and 141) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "I" correspond?

Back 74

11

Front 75

(Refer to figure 125) Which RMI illustration indicates the aircraft to be flying outbound on the magnetic bearing of 235* FROM the station? (wind 050* at 20 knots.)

Back 75

3

Front 76

(Refer to Figure 125) What is the magnetic bearing To the station as indicated by illustration 4

Back 76

055*

Front 77

(Refer to figure 125) Which RMI illustration indicates the aircraft is southwest of the station and moving closer TO the station?

Back 77

1

Front 78

(Refer to figure 125) Which RMI illustration indicates the aircraft is located on the 055* radial of the station and heading away from the station

Back 78

2

Front 79

Which publication includes information on operations in the North Atlantic (NAT) Minimum Navigation Performance Specifications Airspace?

Back 79

14 CFR Part 91

Front 80

How may an aircraft operate in North Atlantic (NAT) Minimum Navigation Performance Specifications Airspace with less than the minimum navigation capabilities required by 14 CFR part 91, Appendix C?

Back 80

By requesting a deviation from the administrator

Front 81

What type navigation system is Inertial Navigation System (INS)?A navigation computer which provides position?

Back 81

by signals from self-contained gyros and accelerometers

Front 82

A flight navigator or a specialized means of navigation is required aboard an air carrier airplane operated outside the 48 contiguous United States and District of Columbia when

Back 82

the airplane's position cannot be reliably fixed for a period of more than 1 hour

Front 83

Routes that require a flight navigator are listed in the

Back 83

Air Carrier's Operations Specifications

Front 84

Where is a list maintained for routes that require special navigation equipment

Back 84

Air Carrier's Operations Specifications

Front 85

An air carrier that elects to use an Inertial Navigational System (INS) must meet which equipment requirement prior to takeoff on a proposed flight

Back 85

Only one INS is required to be operative, if a Doppler Radar is substituted for the other INS

Front 86

Which equipment requirement must be met by an air carrier that elects to use a dual Inertial Navigation System (INS) on a proposed flight

Back 86

Only one INS is required to be operative, if a Doppler Radar is substituted for the other INS

Front 87

Within what frequency range does the localizer transmitter of the ILS operate

Back 87

108.10 to 111.95 MHZ

Front 88

What functions are provided by ILS?

Back 88

Guidance, range, and vertical angle

Front 89

What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS inner marker

Back 89

Continuous dots at the rate of six per second

Front 90

What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS middle marker

Back 90

alternate dots and dashes identified as a low pitched tone

Front 91

What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS outer marker

Back 91

continuous dashes at the rate of two per second

Front 92

If installed, what aural and visual indications should be observed over the ILS back course marker

Back 92

a series of two dot combinations, and a white marker beacon light

Front 93

Which component associated with the ILS is identified by the last two letters of the localizer group

Back 93

Middle compass locator

Front 94

Which component associated with the ILS is identified by the first two letters of the localizer identification group

Back 94

outer compass locator

Front 95

Which facility may be substituted for the middle marker during Category I ILS approach

Back 95

Compass locator

Front 96

If the middle marker for a category I ILS approach is inoperative,

Back 96

the inoperative middle marker has no effect on straight-in minimums

Front 97

When is the course deviation indicator (CDI) considered to have a full-scale defection?

Back 97

When the CDI deflects from the center of the scale to full-scale left or right

Front 98

Which "rule-of thumb" may be used to approximate the rate of descent required for a 3* glidepath

Back 98

5 times groundspeed in knots

Front 99

The rate of descent for a 3.5* angle of descent glidescope is

Back 99

740 ft/min at 120 knots groundspeed

Front 100

(Refer to figures 135 and 138) which displacement from the localizer and glide slope at the 1.9 NM point is indicated?

Back 100

710 feet to the right of the localizer centerline and 140 feet above the glide slope

Front 101

(Refer to figures 136 and 138) which displacement from the localizer centerline and glide slope at the 1,300-point from the runway is indicated?

Back 101

21 feet above the glide slope and approximately 320 feet to the left of the runway centerline

Front 102

(Refer to figures 137 and 138) which displacement from the localizer and glide slope at the outer marker is indicated?

Back 102

1,550 feet to the left of the localizer centerline and 210 feet below the glide slope

Front 103

The lowest ILS Cateory II minimumes ar

Back 103

DH 100 feet and RVR 1,200 feet

Front 104

which ground components are required to be operative for a Category II approach in addition to LOC, glide slope, marker beacons, and approach lights

Back 104

All of the required ground components

Front 105

When may a pilot descend below 100 feet above the touchdown zone elevation during a Category II ILS instrument approach when only the approach lights are visible

Back 105

when the red terminal bar of the approach light systems are in sight

Front 106

in addition to the localizer,glide slope, marker beacons, approach lighting, and HIRL, which ground components are required to be operated for a category II instrument approach to a DH below 150 feet AGL

Back 106

each required ground component

Front 107

what is the lowest category IIIA minimum

Back 107

RVR 700 feet

Front 108

how does the LDA differ from an ILS LOC

Back 108

the LDA. Offset from roadway plus3°, ILS-aligned with runway

Front 109

how does the SDF differ from an ILS LOC

Back 109

SDF-6° or 12° wide, ILS-3° to 6°,

Front 110

if receiver autonomous integrity monitoring (RAIM) is not available when setting up for GPS approach, the pilot should

Back 110

select another type of approach using another type of navigation aid

Front 111

without receiver autonomous integrity monitoring (RAIM) capability, the accuracy of the GPS derived

Back 111

altitude information should not be relied upon to determine aircraft altitude

Front 112

overriding an automatically selected sensitivity during a GPS approach will

Back 112

cancel the approach mode Annunciation

Front 113

if a visual descent point (VDP) is published on a GPS approach, it

Back 113

will not be included in the sequence of waypoints

Front 114

GPS instrument approach operations, outside the United States, must be authorized by

Back 114

a Sovereign country or governmental unit

Front 115

authorization to conduct any GPS operation under IFR requires that

Back 115

air carrier and commercial operators must meet the appropriate provisions of their approved operations specifications

Front 116

a pilot employed by in air carrier and/or commercial operator may conduct GPS/WAAS instrument approaches

Back 116

only if approved in their air carrier/commercial operator operation specifications

Front 117

authorization to conduct any GPS operation under IFR requires that

Back 117

air carrier and commercial operators must meet the appropriate provisions of their approved operation specifications

Front 118

when using GPS for navigation and instrument approaches, a required alternate airport must have

Back 118

an approved instrument approach procedure, besides GPS, that is expected to be operational and available at the ETA

Front 119

GPS missed approach requires that the pilot take action to sequence the receiver

Back 119

after the in a MAWP

Front 120

if the missed approach is not activated, the GPS receiver will display

Back 120

an extension of the inbound final approach course

Front 121

"unreliable", as indicated in the following GPS NOTAMS: SFO 12/051SF0 W AAS LNAV/VNAV AND LPV MNM UNRELBL WEF0512182025-0512182049 means

Back 121

within the time parameters of the NOTAM, the predicted level of service will not support LPV approaches

Front 122

What does "UNREL" indicated in the following GPS and WAAS NOTAM: BOS WAAS LPV AND LNAV/VNAV MNM UNREL WEF 0305231700-0305231815

Back 122

the predicted level of service, within the time parameters of the NOTAM, may not support LPV approaches

Front 123

if flying a published GPS departure

Back 123

the GPS receiver must be set to terminal course deviation indicator sensitivity

Front 124

to use a substitute means of guidance on departure procedures, pilots of aircraft with RNAV systems using DME/DME/IRU without GPS input must

Back 124

ensure their aircraft navigation system position is confirmed within 1000 feet at the start point of a take off roll

Front 125

missed approach routing in which the first track is via a course rather than direct to the next waypoint requires

Back 125

additional action by the operator to set the course

Front 126

how can a pilot identify a military airport at night

Back 126

green and white beacon light with dual flash of the white

Front 127

how can a pilot identify a lighted heliport at night

Back 127

green, yellow, and white beacon light

Front 128

holding positions signs have

Back 128

white inscriptions on a red background

Front 129

airport information signs, used to provide destination or information, have

Back 129

black inscriptions on a yellow background

Front 130

( refer to figure 223 ) the " runway hold position" signed denotes

Back 130

intersecting runners

Front 131

( refer to figure 228) what is the purpose of the runway/runway hold position sign

Back 131

denotes intersecting runways

Front 132

( refer to figure 225 ) what is the purpose of no entry sign

Back 132

identifies paved area where aircraft are prohibited from entering

Front 133

( refer to figure 226 ) what does the outbound destination sign identify

Back 133

identifies direction to take-off runways

Front 134

what is the advantage of HIRL or MIRL on an IFR runway as compared to a VFR runway

Back 134

Amber lights replace white on the last 2000 feet of runway for a caution zone

Front 135

identified touchdown zone lighting (TDZL)

Back 135

two rows of transverse light bars disposed symmetrically about the runway centerline

Front 136

identify runway remaining lighting on centerline lighting systems

Back 136

alternate red and white lights from 3000 feet to 1000 feet, then red lights to the end

Front 137

identified taxi leadoff lights associated with the centerline lighting system

Back 137

alternate green and yellow lights curving from the centerline of the runway to a point on the exit

Front 138

identify the runway distance remaining markers

Back 138

signs with increments of 1000 feet distance remaining

Front 139

( refer to figure 129) what is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9

Back 139

1000 feet

Front 140

( refer to figure 130) what is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9

Back 140

2000 feet

Front 141

( refer to figure 130) what is the runway distance remaining at "B" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9

Back 141

3000 feet

Front 142

( refer to figure 130) what is the runway distance remaining at "C" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9

Back 142

2000 feet

Front 143

( refer to figure 130) what is the runway distance remaining at "D" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9

Back 143

1000 feet

Front 144

( refer to figure 131) what is the runway distance remaining at "E" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9

Back 144

2000 feet

Front 145

( refer to figure 131) what is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9

Back 145

3000 feet

Front 146

( refer to figure 131) what is the runway distance remaining at "D" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9

Back 146

3000 feet

Front 147

( refer to figure 131) what is the runway distance remaining at "B" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9

Back 147

2000 feet

Front 148

( refer to figure 131) what is the runway distance remaining at "F" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9

Back 148

1000 feet

Front 149

( refer to figure 131) what is the runway distance remaining at "C" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9

Back 149

1000 feet

Front 150

what is the purpose of REIL

Back 150

identification of a runaway surrounded by a preponderance of other lighting

Front 151

identify REIL

Back 151

synchronized flashing lights laterally at each side of the runway threshold

Front 152

land and hold short operations (LAHSO) include landing and holding short

Back 152

of some designated point on the runway

Front 153

a land and hold short operations (LAHSO) clearance, that the pilot accepts

Back 153

does not preclude a rejected landing

Front 154

in conducting land and hold short operations (LAHSO) the pilot should have readily available

Back 154

the published available landing distance (ALD) landing performance of the aircraft, and slope of all LAHSO combinations at the destination airport

Front 155

The airport markings , singage and lighting associated with land and hold short (LAHSO) consists of

Back 155

red and white signage, yellow hold sure markings, and at some airports in pavement nights

Front 156

(Refer to figure 224) The ILS critical area markings Denote

Back 156

where you are clear of all ILS critical area.

Front 157

The Ils critical area sign indicates

Back 157

the edge of the ILS critical area

Front 158

(Refer to figure 227) The "taxiway ending" marker

Back 158

indicates taxiway does not continue

Front 159

taxiway centerline leadoff lights are color-coded to warm pilots that

Back 159

they all within the runway environment or ILS/MLS critical area

Front 160

taxes lead all lights associated with the centerline lighting system

Back 160

alternate green and yellow lights curving from the centerline of the runway to the edge of the taxiway

Front 161

a pilot approaching to land a turbine powered aircraft on a runway served by a VASI shall

Back 161

maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing

Front 162

a pilot of a high-performance airplane should be aware that flying a steeper than normal VASI glide slope angle may result in

Back 162

increased landing rollout

Front 163

what is the advantage of a three-bar VASI

Back 163

a normal glide angle is afforded both high and low cockpit aircraft

Front 164

the higher glide slope of the three-bar VASI is intended for use by

Back 164

high cockpit aircraft

Front 165

what does the precision approach path indicator (PAPI) consist of

Back 165

row of four lights perpendicular to the Runway: red and white

Front 166

what are the indications of precision approach path indicator

Back 166

high-white, on glidepath-red-white: low-red

Front 167

what does the tri-color VASI consists of

Back 167

one light projector with three colors: red, green, and Amber

Front 168

which color on a tri-color VASI is a "high" indication

Back 168

Amber

Front 169

which color on a tri-color VASI is an "on course" indication

Back 169

Green

Front 170

which color on a tri-color VASI is a "low" indication

Back 170

red

Front 171

what is the normal range of the tricolor VASI at night

Back 171

5 miles

Front 172

what does the pulsating VASI consist of

Back 172

one-light projector, pulsing white when above glide slope or red when more than slightly below glide slope, steady white when on glide slope, steady red for slightly below glide path

Front 173

What are the indications of the pulsating VASI?

Back 173

High-pulsing white, on glidepath-steady white, slightly below glide slope steady red, low-pulsing red