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188 Cards in this Set

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"1.1.OCD is more common in males than in females among those aged:
a. 8 to 12,
b. 22 to 26,
c. 38 to 42,
d. 52 to 56"
"1.1 The rates of OCD for males and females are about equal among adults but are diff among children.
A. CORRECT Because onset of disorder earlier for males than females among children. OCD is more prevalent among boys than girls."
"1.12 A mental health facility establishes a new policy that prohibits the use of all forms of positive punishment to control the behavior of its inpatients. Which of the following techniques would be unacceptable under this policy:
a. verbal reprimancs (e.g., yelling ""stop"" after an undesirable behavior),
b. response cost (e.g., removing TV privileges after an undesirable behavior),
c. Premack Principle (e.g., making TV privileges contingent on the performance of a desirable behavior),
d. time-out (e.g., placing the individual in an empty room for 10 minutes after an undesirable behavior).
"1.12 Positive punishment involves applying a stimulus following a behavior to reduce or eliminate that behavior.
A. CORRECT Verbal reprimands are +ve punishment,
B. incorrect Response cost is a type of -ve punishment,
C. incorrect The Premack Principle is +ve reinforcement,
D. incorrect Time-out is classified as a type of -ve punishment."
"1.13 A distribution of scores has a mean of 110 and a SD of 10. Adding 12 pts to each score in the distribution will:
a. inc the mean by 12 but have no effect on the SD
b. inc the mean by 12 and the SD by the sq root of 12
c. inc the mean and the SD by 12
d. inc the SD by the sq root of 12 but have no effect on the mean."
"1.13 Adding or subtracting a constant to every score in a distribution changes the measures of central tendency but not measures of variability.
A. CORRECT - Adding 12 pot will inc the mean and other measures of central tendency by 12 pts but will have no effect on the SD or other measures of variability."
"1.14 When calculating the t-statistic for indep samples, use of the ""pooled variance"" is based on the assumption that:
a. the sample variances are equal.
b. the sample variances are dependent
c. the population variances are equal
d. the population variances are unequal"
"1.14 A pooled variance is used when it can be assumed that the variances of the populations represented by the samples are the same even though the sample variances differ.
C. correct - A pooled variance is a weighted average of the variance of each group. It is used whenver it can be assumed that the population variances are about equal."
"1.16 A researcher would be interested in the selection ratio, base rate, and validity coefficient of a test when she is evaluating the test's:
a. differential validity
b. external validity
c. incremental validity
d. concurrent validity"
c. Correct - The selection ratio, base rate and validity coeff are used to estimate a test's incremental validity using the Taylor-Russell tables."
"1.22 Dr. Traight obtains the permission from a child's mother and father before beginning an evaluation that will be used by the court to help determine custody rights. Before the eval is completed, however, the mother withdraws her consent. Dr. T should:
a. make a custody recommendation on the basis of the info he has already obtained
b. continue the eval since both parents gave their consent prior to beg the eval
c. continue the eval since both parents gave their consent prior to beg the eval
d. contact the court to determine the approp course of action."
"1.22 Normally, a psychologist would not eval a child without the consent of both parents.
D. Correct - given the limited info provided in the question, this is best response. Whenever one parent does not give consent (or withdraws consent) for eval in a custody case or other court proceeding, a psychologist should seek guidance from the court on how to proceed."
"1.24 The use of functional brain imaging techniques to study ADHD has linked its symptoms to lower-than-normal levels of metabolic activity in the:
a. prefrontal cortex and basal ganglia
b. prefrontal cortex and ARAS
c. entorhinal cortex and SCN
d. entorhinal cortex and thalamus"
"1.24 Knowing the fns of the brain areas listed in the responses and the core symptoms of ADHD would have helped you choose correct answer even if unfamiliar with imaging research.
A. Correct - the prefrontal cortex is involved in exec cog fns (e.g., planning, d-making, attn), while the BG are involved in regulation of movement. Abnormalities in both linked to ADHD."
"1.25 Recent research has shown that single-session Psychological Debriefing (PD):
a. is as effective as, or in some cases more effective than, multiple-session PD for preventing PTSD
b. is as effective as multiple-session PD for preventing PTSD only when the session is sufficiently long to elicit a cathartic reaction
c. is effective for preventing PTSD only when it is administered within 24 hours following exposure to the traumatic event
d. is not effective for preventing PTSD and may actually inc the risk for PTSD symptoms"
"1.25 Although 1-session PD is often utilized as prevention for PTSD, recent empirical research has not been supportive of its use.
B. incorrect - not that some evidence that multi-session PD may be ineffective also.
D. Correct - B. Litz et al. (n.d.) for example, conclude from their review of research and meta-analysis of studies by Rose et al. (2001) that there is ""sufficient empirical evidence to recommend that PD not be provided to individuals immed. after trauma."" The studies showed that 1-session PD is not effective, and in some cases, actually incs likelihood of PTSD symptoms."
Richard Stuart's operant interpersonal therapy combines the principles of operant conditioning with:
a. social role theory
b. social constructionism
c. object relations theory
d. social exchange theory
Stuart describes successful marriages as involving a high degree of reciprocal +ve behavioral exchanges.
d. CORRECT - a primary influence on Stuart's approach was social exchange theory (Thibaut and Kelley, 1959) which conceptualizes satisfaction in relationships in terms of cost-reward ratios.
1.28 As defined by Murray Bowen, "triangulation" is LEAST likely to develop in families when family members:
a. are disengaged
b. are highly diff'ated
c. have clear, overt rules that define their relationships
d. seek satisfaction rather than security in family relationships
Familiarity with Bowen's terminology would have helped you choose the correct response.
a. Incorrect - Disengagement is a term associated with Minuchin not Bowen
b. CORRECT - Diff'ation is an important concept for Bowen, and he proposes that, when family members are highly diff'ated, they are less likely to become triangulated with other family members.
1.29 Damage to the medial temporal lobe is unlikely to have a signif impact on implicit memory as long as the _______ is/are unaffected:
a. basal ganglia
b. mammillary bodies
c. medial thalamus
d. septum
1.29 Mishkin et al. (1997) have proposed a circuit for implicit memory that involves a number of brain structures.
a. CORRECT - According to Mishkin, the BG are central to implicit memory.
b. Incorrect - damage to mammillary bodies is assoc with impairments in explicit memory
c. Medial thalamus is involved in mediation of explicit memory, while ventral thalamus is involved in implicit memory
d. Septum has not been linked to implicit memory.
1.31 Which of the following is least common side effect of the beta-blocker propanolol (Inderal):
a. bradycardia
b. fatigue and malaise
c. decreased sexual ability
d. coldness in extremities
The beta-blockers are assoc. with a no. of undesirable side effects.
a. Incorrect - Bradycardia occurs in about 10% of cases
b. Incorrect - Fatigue and malaise also occur in about 10% of cases and may lead to a misdiagnosis of depn.
c. Incorrect - Dec'd sexual ability also occurs in about 10% of cases
d. CORRECT - Coldness in extremities occurs in less than 1% of cases.
1.33 Driver's (1979) notion of "career concept" refers to an individual's:
a. work-related values
b. career-related identity
c. work-related personality characteristics
d. career decisions
"Career concept" is key concept in M.J. Driver's theory of career mgmt in organizations.
d. CORRECT - As defined by Driver, career concept refers to an individual's career decisions, which vary along 3 dimensions: frequency of job change: direction of change: and type of change in job content. Driver distinguishes b/w 4 diff career concepts - steady state, linear, spiral and transitory.
1.35 Studies examining risk factors for recidivism among juvenile offenders has identified which of the following as being the BEST predictor of re-offending:
a. IQ
b. SES
c. Age at 1st offense
d. hx of maltreatment/abuse
The research on risk and protective factors was recently summarized by C. Schwalbe, S. Day and M. Fraser.
a. Incorrect - Schwalbe et al. report correlation of .142 b/w low IQ and re-offense.
b. Correlation for SES and re-offense is .065
c. CORRECT - Schwalbe et al. found strongest correlation (i.e., -.346) b/w age at first onset and reoffense (younger the age of 1st offense, higher risk for recidivism).
d. Incorrect - These authors report correlation of .112 b/w hx of maltreatment and re-offense.
1.37 Young child exhibiting insecure-disorganized attachment pattern reacts to return of mother in Strange Situation with disorganized, conflicted, and, in some cases, self-injurious behaviors. This attachment pattern has been linked to parental abuse and neglect, and more recently, with:
a. elevated levels of cortisol in the child during the events of the Strange Situation
b. lower-than-normal levels of cortisol in child during events of SS
c. elevated levels of cortisol in child only when mother returns during SS
d. elevated levels of cortisol in mother (but not child) during events of SS
Research has linked attachment patterns to diff levels of neurohormones and brain activity.
a. CORRECT - levels of cortisol, a stress hormone released by adrenal gland, differ for children with secure and insecure attachment to their primary caregivers. Specifically, while securely attached children show an inc in cortisol levels when caregiver leaves the SS, the level of cortisol decs when caregiver returns. In contrast, for children exhibiting insecure-disorged attachment, cortisol levels remain elevated throughout SS.
1.40 Encoding in ST working memory is believed to be:
a. visual only
b. auditory only
c. visual and auditory
d. visual, auditory and tactile
Current theories of STM view it as consisting of both visual and auditory components.
c. CORRECT - Auditory working memory temporarily stores verbal info such as names and ph nos, while visual working memory stores visual info such as the appearance and location of objects.
1.45 Berscheid's (1989) "emotion-in-relationship" model predicts that:
a. women are more likely than men to underestimate their emotional investment in a marital relationship
b. men are more likely than women to underestimate their emotional investment in a marital relationship
c. newly-weds are more likely than long-term partners to underestimate their emotional investment in a marital relationships
d. long-term partners are more likely than newly-weds to underestimate their emotional investment in a marital relationship
According to Berscheid, partners is most likely to experience a high deg of emotion in an intimate relationship when his/her partner's behavior disrupts an organized sequence of behavior.
d. CORRECT Disruptions in organized sequences of behavior (ested behavior patterns) - and the resulting emotional response - are more likely in the early stages of a relationship than later stage.
1.47 The MMPI's F scale:
a. incls items that are infreqly endorsed by "normals"
b. incls items that apply to or describe the majority of ppl
c. is used to correct scores on several clinical scales
d. is a measure of response consistency.
The MMPI-2 incls several validity scales that provide info on an examinee's test-taking attitudes and style.
a. CORRECT - An extremely high score on F scale indics carelessness in responding or a deliberate attempt to "fake bad"
b. Incorrect - L scale
c. Incorrect - K scale
d. Incorrect - TRIN and VRIN scales
1.49 To serve as an expert witness in a court case, you:
a. must have consent of person you will be testifying about
b. must testify only with regard to what you have personally observed
c. must be qualified by court to offer opinions and conclusions
d. must be qualified by attorneys for the plaintiff and defendent to offer opinions and conclusions
An expert witness is allowed to draw conclusions from available data, even if the data were not personally observed or obtained.
c. CORRECT - Expert witnesses are qualified by the court to offer opinions and conclusions.
1.51 The research has found that individual therapy, group therapy and family therapy are effective treatments for Bulimia Nervosa. With regard to indiv therapy, research has shown that:
a. beh therapy is superior to either CBT or IPT in ST and LT effects
b. CBT is superior to either behavior therapy or IPT in terms of ST and LT effects
c. CBT is superior to either IPT or behavior therapy in terms of short-term effects, but CBT and IPT are about equally effective in terms of LT effects.
d. Behavior therapy, CBT and IPT are about equally effective in terms of ST effects, but CBT is superior in terms of LT effects.
Not surprisingly, CBT has been ested as beneficial for bulimia nervosa.
c. CORRECT - Fairburn compared the 3 therapies and found CBT superior in terms of ST effects. However, LT follow-up revealed that CBT and IPT similar effects on eating behs and attitudes towards weight and shape.
1.53 Current theories conceptualize the "attention deficits" of ADHD as conseq of:
a. marked inability to sustain or focus attn
b. marked inability to regulate attn
c. inadequate cogn flexibility
d. lower-than-normal levels of task-related motivation
"Attention deficit" misleading since ADHD indivs not necessarily unable to focus or sustain attn.
b. CORRECT - Attn deficits in ADHD are currently viewed as an inability to regulate attn. Manifested as probs inhibiting attn to nonrelevant stimuli and focusing too intensely on certain stimuli to exclusion of others.
1.55 Ho (1987) and others recommended use of a(n) __________approach when working with Af-Am clients:
a. ecostructural
b. solution-focused
c. systemic family therapy
d. ethnographic
Esp low income Af-Am recommend incorporating multiple systems including immed. family, extended fam, social service agencies and church.
a. CORRECT - Boyd-Franklin calls it "multi systems model", Ho uses term "ecostructural."
1.56 Helms' (1995) white racial ID model distings b/w 6 strategies, and each status assoced w/ diff info processing strategy. For example, the "flexibility and complexity" strat is characteristic of the __________ status:
a. internalization
b. integrative awareness
c. reintegration
d. autonomy
Helms' 6 identity statuses are: contact, disintegration, reintegration, pseudo-indep, immersion/emersion, autonomy.
d. Info proc flexibility and complexity are characteristic of final status. Attributes of autonomy status include awareness of one's own whiteness and role in perpetuating racism and a commitment to abandoning a sense of white entitlement.
1.58 Drugs that block activity of _______produce dry mouth, blurred vision, postural hypotension, tachycardia, and sedation.
a. 5-HT
b. ACh
c. glycine
d. glutamate
Symtpoms listed are anticholinergic effects.
b. CORRECT - ACh is one of the NT's classified as cholinergic. Drugs that block ACh activity produce anticholinergic effects.
c. Incorrect - Glycine is found in SC and exerts inhib effect.
d. Incorrect - Glutamate is assoc with learning and memory and effects of alcohol.
1.69 A psych is hired by defendant's attorney to eval defendant for possible insanity defense. Prior to conducting eval, the psyc:
a. should inform defendent that all info provided during eval is confidential and will be revealed only to his attorney.
b. should inform def that info will be provided only to his att unless def and his att decide to use results of eval to support insanity defense.
c. should inform def that only info reled to mental state at time he committed crime is not confidential and will be provided to court and to opposing attorney.
d. should inform def that any info he provs during course of eval will be revealed not only to his att but also to court and opposing att.
When hired by def att to eval def for court case, lts of confidentiality must be discussed prior to conducting eval.
b. CORRECT - client should be advised that info will be shared with att only unless client and his att decide to use it to support an insanity or similar defense.
1.71 When a research study may cause participants pain, deception:
a. is prohibited if pain is physical but not if psyc in nature
b. is ordinarily prohibited whether it is phys or psyc in nature
c. is acceptable only if no alt methods for obt data are avail.
d. acceptable only if justified by study's "prospective value"
1.71 Deception in research acceptable only when certain conditions met.
b. CORRECT - This response most consis with Std 6.15(b), which states " Psychologists never deceive research participants about signif aspects that wd affect their willingness to participate, such as physical risks, discomfort, or unpleasant emotional experiences."
1.72 A physician is most likely to Rx which of following for 36 year old man who has dx of premature ejac:
a. drug that stimulates DA receptors
b. drug that inhibits GABA receptors
c. drug that inhibs reuptake of serotonin
d. drug that stimulates reuptake of endorphins
1.72 Premature ejac linked to low 5-HT levels.
a. Incorrect - Inc'd DA activity can cause or exacerbate prem ejac
b. Incorrect - GABA helps reduce anx'y. Therefore, it would likely be more effective to stimulate (rather than inhibit) GABA receptors.
c. CORRECT - SSRIs (e.g., Dapoxetine) are currently used.
d. Endorphins have not been linked.
1.74 33-yr old married woman w/ one child recs dx of Sz. Her husband has no symptoms or fam hx of the disorder. Which of her relatives is at greatest risk for rec'ing same dx:
a. parent
b. adopted sibling
c. biological sibling
d. child
1.74 Research on concordance rates for Sz supported a genetic etiol. of DO.
a. Incorrect - Concordance rate for parent of indiv who recs dx of Sz is about 6%
b. Incorrect - Concordance rate for biol siblings is 9%
c. Incorrect - Concord rate for adopted sibling would be same as for gen pop i.e., 1%
d. CORRECT - concord rate for biol offspring of 1 Sz parent is 13%
1.76 For Hispanic-American fams, the strongest fam bond is most often b/w:
a. husband and wife
b. parent and child
c. bro and sis
d. grandparent and grandchild
b. CORRECT - Traditional Hisp and hisp Am fams, the parent-child relnship (esp mother-son and father-son) is stronger than husb-wife and other relnships listed.
1.78 A partial seizure is characterized by:
a. focal onset in 1 hemispherer of brain w/ or w/out LOC
b. focal onset in 1 hemi of brain w/out LOC
c. focal onset in 1 hemi of brain w/ LOC
d. simult. onset in both hemis of brain w/out LOC
1.78 epileptic seizures are either partial or generalized
a. CORRECT - partial seizures begin in 1 hemis and affect movement and sensations beg on one side of body. Simple partial seizures do not affect consciousness while complex partial seizures do alter consciousness.
1.79 For ____ of indivs with PD who are depressed, the depn preceded onset of motor and other phys. symptoms:
a. less than 1%
b. about 20%
c. about 50%
d. at least 75%
1.79 According to Nat'l Park. Foundation, about 40% of Pts w/ PD depressed. Sometimes endogenous (due to disease process), in others reaction to dx and symptoms.
b. 20% is cited by NPF and indicates that sometimes depn related to PD, not just reaction.
1.83 Most studies have found +ve linear relnship b/w age and job satisfn. However, some studies (e.g., Zeitz, 1990) suggest that, for some gps of workers, there may be nonlinear relnship. E.g., among non-supervisory employees, some evid that:
a. job satis gradually decs from 20s thru midlife but thereafter incs
b. job satis incs until mid-life and thereafter decs
c. job satis peaks in early wk years, decs during middle-age, and incs again in later yrs
d. job satis is stable thru midlife but thereafter decs sharply
1.83 Research not entirely consis w/ regard to age and job satis (although best generalization is that +ve relnship b/w age and satis).
c. CORRECT - Some group diffs - employees who do not achieve supervisory levels experience decline in job satis during middle age.
1.86 A recent DCD study (1999) found that pretern singleton births inc'd slightly in US from 1989 to 1996. In addn, study found inc in preterm births during this period was greatest for:
a. non-Hispanic whites
b. non-Hispanic blacks
c. Hispanics
d. American Indians/Alaskan Natives
1.86 CDC found 3% inc in preterm singleton births 1989 to 1996
a CORRECTrate among non-hisp whites inc'd 8% during this period, while rates dec'd for members of ethnic/racial diverse gps.
b. Incorrect - rate dec's for non-hisp blacks 9.9% from 1989 to 1996
c. Incorrect - rate dec'd for hisps 3.6%
d. Incorrect - rate dec'd for Am Indians/Alaskan Natives 2.8%
1.94 Cross's (1995) model of black identity dvpt incls 4 stages, the last of which is:
a. autonomy
b. internalization
c. incorporation
d. integrative awareness
1.94 Current version of Cross model: pre-encounter, encounter, immersion/emersion, and internalization.
b. CORRECT - final stage internalization is characterized by devpt of "inner security" as identity conflicts are resolved and inc'ing biculturalism/multiculturalism
1.95 Which of following systems has/have been linked to social phobias:
a. serotonergic only
b. serotonergic and dopaminergic
c. cholinergic only
d. cholinergic and glutaminergic
1.95 Several NT abnormalities linked to anx'y disorders, but 5-HT and DA most closely assoced with Social Phobia
b. CORRECT - Social phobia - DA and 5-HT pathways
1.106 Overlearning produces accurate retention over longer periods of time than learning that stops as soon as material is mastered. Overlearning is most useful:
a. when it is spaced and material to be learned is specific and concrete
b. when it is massed and material to be learned is specific and concrete
c. when it is spaced and material to be learned is an abstract principle or concept
d. when it is massed and material to be learned is an abstract principle or concept
1.106 Overlearning refers to practicing or rehearsing beyond 1st time info is errorlessly reproduced.
a. CORRECT - any kind of practice best when spaced (distributed) rather than massed and overlearning most effective for concrete material (e.g., for memorizing grammatical rules or dates).
1.108 When applying Lewin's field theory to study of human beh, a psyc would most likely:
a. collect data needed to accurately describe the "average" person
b. conduct well-controlled case study
c. apply scientific principles to study of beh in orgal settings
d. act as a participant observer
1.108 Lewin's field theory predicts that beh is fn of person and environment in immed. present.
b. CORRECT - Lewin advocated focusing on indiv case. Not inted in lge-scale studies or identifying "average" or "typical" case, but factos that contribute to indiv diffs.
1.113 When wking with "split-brain" pt, you wd notice that he/she has the most difficy with regard to which of following?:
a. reflexive fns
b. exec fns
c. memory fns
d. sensory fns
d. CORRECT - primary fn of corpus callosum is transfer sensory (and some motor) info from one hemisphere to other. When corpus callosum severed, msgs from R brain cannot be transf to L brain and vice versa, and this deficit most apparent in tasks involving sensory input.
1.128 Dementia resulting from LT alcoholism:
a. affects visuospatial abilities more than verbal
b. affects verbal abilities more than visuospatial
c. affects visuospatial and verbal abilities to same deg
d. affects either verbal or visuospatial abilities, deping on location of brain damage
1.128 LT heavy alcohol consumption produces cog imp, which may not be reversible to some deg once indiv stops drinking.
a. CORRECT - studies - alcoholism assoced with decrements in perf on measures of visuospatial skills w/ little or no decrement on verbal skills.
1.129 A self-controlled sys of learning strats and skills is what dvps during cogn dvpt. This view is consis w/:
a. theory of Piaget
b. Theory of Vygotsky
c. Theories of Piaget and Vygotsky
d. neither the theory of P or V
1.129 P and V differ in importan ways, basic view of cog dvpt similar.
c. CORRECT - P, V, and those adopting info-proc perspective all based on assumption that cog dvpt entails inc'ing internalization and control of strategies and operations.
1.130 When working with a Mex-Am fam, which of following would be least approp?
a. occasionally complimenting fam members on their +ve qualities.
b. using metaphors and humor to elicit disclosures
c. relying on inner (vs. outer) externalizations of fam probs.
d. adopting a low-context commun. style.
a. Incorrect - consis. w/ Mexican culture
b. Incorrect - When wking with Mex-Am, this approach would be preferalbe to direct requests for disclosure
c. Incorrect - Fallon distings b/w inner and outer externalizaions, and argues that internal are more consis with Mex world view. Inner recognize taht it may be necess to adapt to and coexist with a problem, while outer reflect view that probs can be defeated.
d. CORRECT - Hall distinguished between high- and low-context cultures. Mainstream white culture is low-context, while many minorities (mex, Af-Am) are high-context. High-context cultures place greater emphasis on non-verbal forms of commun, and rely on meanings shared by members of the group.
1.134 In operant conditioning, the "contrast effect" is best explained by which of the following?
a. burnout
b. aversion
c. frustration
d. procrastination
1.134 Contrast effect - when 2 behs have been reinforced and reinforcemt for one of the behs is withheld. As result, indiv's perf of other (still reinforced) beh temp incs.
c. CORRECT - notion of frustration used as explanation for contrast effect, and some research to support.
1.139 A delusion of the erotomanic type is illus by which of following:
a. woman convinced that her pastor at church is madly in love w/ her even tho he has told her he's not
b. woman believes that every man she comes into contact w/ wants to have sexual relations w/ her
c. a man is preoccupied w/ sexual fantasies about co-worker who has shown no int in him
d. a man is concerned about reaching orgasm far too quickly even tho his wife repeatedly reassures him he doesn't have this prob
1.139 Delusion of erotomanic type involves false belief that another person, usu higher status, is in love with indiv.
a. CORRECT - this is closest.
1.141 When wking with clients with sev depn, Beck is most likely to begin therapy with:
a. hypnosis
b. pharmacotherapy
c. cognitive restructuring exercises
d. behavioral tasks
d. CORRECT - Beck notes therapy may begin somewhat diffly for indivs with sev vs mild to mod depn. Sev depn, may be necess to start with beh techniques designed to inc client's overall activity level (e.g., graded task assignments). Mild to mod, cog techniques are introduced during initial sessions.
1.145 Recent research on medical illness in children suggests that, in terms of communication, the best strat for parents is to:
a. give child minimal info about illness
b. give child info about illness but make sure consis with dvptal level
c. give child info consis with dvptal level but only in resp to qns that indicate child's readiness to learn about the condition
d. have objective medical pro give child info
a. Incorrect - was philosophy until recent years
b. CORRECT - current thinking - best to give child info about illness as long as info consistent with what they are capable of understanding and accompanied by reassurance and support.
c. Incorrect - children may not ask qns, so this is not best.
d. Incorrect - better for children to hear from supportive fam members.
1.151 A client taking Parnate (an MAOI) should be warned against eating all of the following except:
a. yogurt
b. soy sauce
c. cottage cheese
d. over-ripe avocados
c. CORRECT - cheese should gen be avoided, aged and ripe cheeses are the prob. Cottage and cream cheese usu acceptable.
1.157 According to APA's General Guidelines, a "user" of clin and counseling psyc services includes:
a. direct users of services only ("patients" and "clients")
b. direct users and 3rd party purchasers of such services
c. direct users, 3rd party purchasers, and sanctioners (people who have legit concern related to provision of psyc services)
d. direct users, 3rd party purchasers, sanctioners, and public/private facilities and orgs receiving psyc services.
d. CORRECT - APA General Guidelines - "user" includes direct users, 3rd party purchasers, sanctioners, and public/priv facilities and orgs rec'ing psyc services.
1.158 Wechsler viewed intelligence as:
a. general mental ability
b. composite of interrelated abilities
c. general term for relatively unrelated abilities
d. consisting of crystallized abilities, fluid/analytic abilities, and STM
a. Incorrect - general mental ability - Stanford-Binet Intell scale
b. CORRECT - WAIS consists of several perf and verbal subtests. Inclusion of these subtests reflects Wechsler view of intellig as a global capacity consisting of several inter-related fns.
c. Incorrect - Wechsler viewed abilities as interrelated, and the high correlations among scores on WAIS subtests supports this view.
d. Incorrect - These categs comprise 2nd level of hierarchical model of cog abilities that is basis of 4th edition of Stanford-Binet
1.160 When making judgments about personalities of others, you are more likely to give greatest weight to which of following:
a. person's undesirable attitudes
b. person's desirable attitudes
c. person's undesirable behaviors
d. person's desirable behaviors
a. Incorrect - although unfav or socially undesirable info tends to carry more weight than +ve info, our judgments are more likely to be deted by overt behs than attitudes.
c. CORRECT - our judgments re characteristics of others are most likely to be based on unfav info and on overt behs.
1.163 Esting more rules in an org would most likely:
a. inc intergrp conflict
b. dec intergrp conflict
c. temp inc intergrp conflict
d. temp dec intergrp conflict
1.163 Esting rules in attempt to settle conflict is called encapsulating conflict. Encapsulation deals with symptoms of conflict, but not underlying causes.
d. CORRECT - Encapsulation may temp suppress conflict but not end it. If conflict decs after rules in org inc, one would expect dec to be temp. Strategies most effective for reducing conflict incl locating common enemy, setting up negotiations b/w powerful subgroups, and determining superordinate goal.
1.169 In treating a couple in which the husband has phys. abused his wife and it has been clearly deted that the abuse can be classified as instrumtal (vs. expressive), the best initial approach is:
a. ensure husband and wife are phys. separated and provide them with sep. therapy.
b. have husband and wife sign "no violence contract" and provide them with sep therapy.
c. have husband and wife sign "no violence contract" and provide them with conjoint therapy
d. provide combined indiv and group therapy for both husb. and wife.
1.169 Key to qn is noting that abuse is instrumental rather than expressive and knowing that therapists often recommend conjoint tx only in latter case.
a. CORRECT - in instrumental abuse (which is brutal, dangerous, and committed w/ little provocation), woman's phys. safety is at stake, and best course of action is to make sure husb and wife are phys. seped and provided w/ sep therapy.
c. Incorrect - This is usu tx of choice in cases of expressive abuse, in which abuse is more reled to emotional life of couple and occurs w/in context of escalating conflict.
1.172 A number of factors affect needs related to personal space. Which of following is not predictive of a need for personal space:
a. male (vs. female) gender
b. small (vs. large) room
c. discussion of embarrassing (vs. non-embarrassing) topics
d. expectation that the interaction will be of short (vs. long) duration
1.172 Personal space req'mts are affected by both personal and contextual factors.
d. CORRECT - this is oppos of what is true. Ppl expecting to be interacting over a long period of time usu maintain greater interpersonal distance than those expecting to interact for short period.
1.176 In an enmeshed fam in which an overcontrolling father constantly nage and yells at his 18 and 15 yr old sons, a structural fam therapist most likely to do which of following:
a. manipulate family's mood by nagging even more and yelling even louder
b. help father understand that nagging and yelling elicit oppositional behavior from the boys
c. construct genogram of father's family
d. create therapeutic double-bind by telling father to set aside an hour a day during which he will nag and yell at his sons
1.176 Minuchin's structural approach to family therapy regards dysfnal families as either "enmeshed" or "disengaged." In an enmeshed fam, boundaries b/w fam members and subsystems are too diffuse so that fam members are overly dependent and close; in disengaged fam, boundaries are overly rigid so that fam members are too isolated from one another.
a. CORRECT - Minuchin's struct. fam therapy can be characterized as "manipulative, unyielding, and crisis provoking". Uses techniques to restructure family's transactional patterns incl marking boundaries, escalating stress, utilizing symptoms and manipulating mood. When using latter technique, therapist might imitate, in an exaggerated way, the fam's style in order to pt out their dysfunctional patterns.
b. Incorrect - on criticism of Minuchin's approach is that it does not emphasize fostering insight and understanding
c. Incorrect - The genogram was dvped by Bowen and is used primarily by fam systems (Bowenian) therapists in order to clarify a fam's multigenerational relnship systems.
d. Incorrect - therapeutic double-bind was an outgrowth of research on the pathological double-bind conducted by Don Jackson and his colleagues and is used primarily by communications family therapists.
1.180 The process that acts to correct a family (or other system) in trouble and thereby restore it to its previous state of equilibrium is referred to as:
a. -ve feedback
b. +ve feedback
c. feedback loop
d. paradox
1.180 From family systems perspective, feedback refers to return or provisin of info to the sys about the conseqs of an event or action. In the situation described in the qn, the feedback is acting to maintain the system's status quo.
a. CORRECT - negative feedback acts to maintain a sys's current level of functioning or homeostasis.
b. Incorrect - Positive feedback produces change in sys.
c. Incorrect - Although this is not wrong, not best answer since feedback loops are both +ve and -ve.
1.186 Because of its potally damaging effects on therapy outcome, an important issue in therapy is premature termination. Studies examining client and therapist factors related to therapy dropout have indicated all of the following except:
a. a client's SES is correlated w/ length of stay in tx.
b. the greater the therapist's experience, the lower the premature dropout rate
c. there is no relnship b/w client's gender and probab. of premature termination
d. a client with high initial anxiety more likely to drop out of therapy prematurely
1.186 Although most research on therapy outcome has yielded inconclusive results, a few factors have been consis. linked to premature termination.
d. CORRECT - Oppos is true. Clients with high levels of anxiety are most likely to stay in therapy.
1.188 A "culture-fair" predictor would most likely be considered fair if:
a. members of the non-mainstream group consis. score lower on the predictor and lower on the criterion than members of the mainstream group
b. members of the non-mainstream group consis. score lower on the predictor but higher on the criterion than members of the mainstream group
c. members of the non-mainstream group consis. score higher on the predictor and lower on the criterion than members of the mainstream group
d. members of the non-mainstream group consis. score lower on the predictor but the same on the criterion as the criterion group
a. CORRECT - predictor seems to be accurately predicting criterion scores. Unfortunately, one group generally does not perform as well on criterion as the other group. In other words, the discrimination in this case appears to be fair.
b. Incorrect - Test is not accurately predicting criterion scores for either group, and to the disadv of non-mainstream group.
c. Incorrect - The test is also not accurately predicting criterion scores for either group, but this time to disadv of mainstream group.
d. Incorrect - Another situation where predr is underestimating the perf of non-mainstream group.
1.189 Dr. Baron is only licensed psyc in a small mental health clinic. Other pros working at the clinic incl director, who is a psychiatrist, and 2 social workers. Dr. Baron has just accepted a job at another clinic in a neighboring town. With regard to his client files, Dr. Baron would be best advised to:
a. leave the files w/ the director
b. take the files w/ him
c. ask the clients what they would like done w/ the files
d. destroy the files
1.189 1992 Ethics code requires psychologists to make sure that confidentiality of their records is protected in event of their withdrawal from a position.
a. CORRECT - Of responses given, this one makes most sense, esp. since director is mental health pro
b. Incorrect - This might cause inconvenience to clients and may be inconsis w/ clinic's policy.
c. Incorrect - Not best way to ensure client confidentiality. Your responsibility to ensure security of client records.
1.191 Which of the following indivs is at highest risk for suicide attempt:
a. 50 yr old woman who has prev attempted suicide by taking bottle of aspiring and who says she is feeling hopeless about her life
b. 62 yr old man who has long hx of alcoholism and has recently rec'd a dx of cirrhosis but continues drinking
c. 42 year old man who calls suicide hotling saying he feels lonely and that he's been thinking about killing himself for past week
d. 35 year old woman who has been dxed with Sz and has trouble remembering to take her meds.
1.191 The one who is expressing desire to die is probably at highest risk.
a. Incorrect - Although woman at risk, her prev attempt involved rel non-lethal means.
c. CORRECT - expressed desire to kill himself
1.193 An alcohol abuser is offered choice of jail or inpt alcohol tx prog after being found guilty of driving while intoxicated. In this sitn, as a clinician working at the tx ctr where the man will be rec'ing tx, you shd keep in mind that an informed consent is not necessary because:
a. tx has been court-ordered
b. man has given up his right to confidentiality by committing a crime
c. man has given up his right to confidentiality by choosing the tx prog instead of jail
d. the man has already given written consent to the court
1.193 This question implies informed consent is NOT needed when it is.
d. CORRECT - usual procedure is for indiv to give written permission for the tx ctr to prov. court with info.
1.195 A 68 year old man exhibits forgetfulness, disorientation, confusion, and difficulties in concentrating. Cog tests reveal STM and LTM deficits although the pattern of memory loss is inconsistent. A CT scan reveals no abnormalities. The best dx is:
a. pseudodementia
b. pseudodepression
c. AD
d. Vascular dementia
1.195 Man's symptoms are suggestive of depn. However, no evid of direct physiol. cause for memory loss.
a. CORRECT - symptoms of pseudodementia are similar to AD and other dementias. However, pseudodementia, memory loss tends to be isolated, fluctuating, and contradictory, and there would be no evidence of brain abnormality on CT.
b. Incorrect - Pseudodepn describes physiol-induced lethargy, apathy, and withdrawal. There is no evidence of direct physiol. etiology in this situation.
c. Incorrect - AD is form of dementia that is assoced with brain deterioration that would be apparent in CT.
d. Incorrect - Vascular dementia would not be assoced with -ve CT.
1.197 A psyc who is a prof at a large state uni has been teaching intro psyc for the past 15 yrs. He has not changed the course syllabus for 10 yrs, and some of his students are concerned that his class is "outdated." With regard to APA's Ethics code, the prof's beh:
a. is ethical because it is up to him to decide what material to present in the class
b. reps a violation of the principle of competence
c. reps a violation of principle of responsibility
d. reps a violation of the principle of integrity
b. CORRECT - In APA's ethical guidelines, this action is covered under competence. In para 1.05 of new ethics code, it is stated that psychologists who engage in teaching "maintain a reasonable level of awareness of current scientific and prof info in their fields of learning..."
1.199 Random selection of sample from population is assumption of:
a. parametric tests only
b. nonparametric tests only
c. both para and nonpara tests
d. neither para nor nonpara tests
1.199 Inferential stats (both para and nonpara) are based on probability theory and indicate the likelihood (probability) that an obtained value could have occurred by chance alone.
c. CORRECT - in order to det if obted results are due to random (chance) factors, vs. effects of IV, the sample must be unbiased representation of the population. The best way to obtain an unbiased sample is through random selection of the sample from the population.
2.1 Presence of which of the following sxs suggests that approp dx is Alc withdrawal as opposed to Cocaine withdrawal?:
a. insomnia
b. dysphoria
c. seizures
d. psychomotor agitation
2.1 Alc and Cocaine w/drawal share several characteristics, there are some diffs.
a. Incorrect - Insomnia is sx of both
b. Incorrect - Dysphoria is sx of both (though may take form of anxiety in Alc w/drawal and depn in Coke w/drawal)
c. CORRECT - in severe cases, Alc w/drawal may incl grand mal seizures
d. Incorrect - psychomotor agit is common in both
2.2 In fam therapy, adoles daughter complains that she doesn't think she can change and she feels that doing what therapist has requested is ptless. Therapist responds by saying, "Well, in that case, I think you shouldn't even try." Therapist's response is e.g. of:
a. reactance
b. restraining
c. positioning
d. prescription
2.2 In situation described, therapist using paradoxical technique.
a. Incorrect - REactance is not paradox technique, but refers to tendency to do oppos. of what asked to do, esp. when they feel their personal freedom is being threatened.
b. CORRECT - telling a client not to change is restraining
c. Incorrect - Positioning involves exaggerating severity of the symptom
d. Incorrect - Prescription involves instructing client to engage in target beh, usu in exaggerated form (e.g., "nag your spouse at least 3 hrs each night")
2.3 According to Patterson and colleagues, aggression in children is linked to use of coercive discipline by parents. In turn, parents' use of coercive discipline is dirly related to:
a. parents' misinterpn of child's intentions when he/she misbehaves
b. parents' persy characteristics and child's temperament
c. nature of attachment b/w child and parent
d. effectiveness of discipline in stopping child's misbehavior
2.3 Patterson's theory regarding coercive fam interactions takes into a/c reciprocal influences of parent and child.
b. CORRECT - Patterson views coercive discipline as being more likely in presence of stressful life events, certain persy characteristics in the parents, and temperamentally difficult child.
2.6 REsearch on mnemonic devices suggests that they are:
a. superior to rote rehearsal in terms of both short- and long-term retention
b. superior to rote rehearsal and elaboration in terms of both short- and long-term retention
c. superior to rote rehearsal in terms of short- but not long-term retention
d. superior to rote rehearsal and elaboration in terms of short- but not long-term retention
2.6 Elaboration (making info to be learned meaningful) is best way to retain info.
c. CORRECT - Surprisingly, research has found mnemonics better than rote rehearsal only in ST effects. After period of time (1 week in some studies), initial advs of mnemonics usually no longer apparent.
2.7 In assessment of cog abilities with stdized test, you would "test the limits":
a. before admin the test
b. before admin each subtest
c. after administering the test
d. whenever it seems approp to do so
2.7 TEsting limits was early method used to obtain additional qualitative info about examinee's abilities.
c. CORRECT - TEsting limits done after entire test admined under stdized conditions. Used to obt addnal info about examinee and may involve, for example, providing cues or extra time.
2.11 Adol brought to therapy by mother who says girl recently become "another person." Says d used to be easy-going and easy to get along with and was well-liked at school by peers and teachers. However, now her d is constantly irritable, smoking and drinking, and has started having trouble at school. When therapist interviews girl, he learns that she is engaging in high-risk sexual behavior, but girl feels nothing bad can ever happen to her. Based on these sxs, best dx is:
b. Conduct DO
c. Bipolar I DO
d. Bipolar II DO
2.11 The description of girl's sxs implies recent onset.
a. Incorrect - Although some of girl's sxs are consis with ADHD in adol, a dx of this DO reqs onset of sxs prior to age 7
b. Incorrect - Girl's drinking and sex behs suggest possibility of Conduct DO. However, dx reqs more pervasive pattern of antisocial beh.
c. CORRECT - Sudden change in beh and nature of sxs are most suggestive of manic episode.
d. Incorrect - Bipolar II DO characterized by combo of Major Depression and hypomania.
2.15 Research cfing heterogeneous to homogeneous work groups has found that hetero groups:
a. are more creative and better at d-making
b. are more creative but less productive overall
c. make better decisions but are less productive overall
d. are more creative but worse at d-making
2.15 Inconsistency in research, but most suggest that gps are more effective when members hetero re gender, persy, experience, skills, etc than homog.
a. CORRECT - most research on gp hetero focused on effects on creativity and decision making. These studies mostly found +ve effect of hetero on these 2 measures of perf.
2.17 When using Halstead Reitan an examinee's perf on 7 measures (e.g., Category Test, Seashore Rhythm Test, and Finger Oscillation Test) is used to derive a(n):
a. Impairment Index, which can be used to det if examinee has brain damage
b. Impairment Index, which can be used to det if examinee is suffering from functional DO
c. Pathology Profile, which allows examiner to compare examinee's score profile to those of ppl w/ and w/out brain damage
d. Pathology Profile, which helps examiner det appropr DSM-IV dx
2.17 Halstead-REitan contains no. of subtests designed to eval presence of brain damage.
a. CORRECT - Impairment Index is derived by adding number of measures on which the examinee scored in abn range (i.e., obted scores suggesting brain damage) and dividing the total by no. of measures. Higher the number, the more likely the indiv has brain damage.
2.20 Conduct DO frequently co-occurs w/ ADHD. Which of following is not true about children with both disorders?
a. They have higher rates of social maladjustment than children with ADHD only.
b. They have more extensive cog difficulties and poorer school achievement than children with ADHD only.
c. They have poorer long-term outcomes and a higher risk of adult psychopathology than children with ADHD only
d. They often have less favorable response to stimulant medication than children with ADHD only
2.20 Research has shown that overall, poorer long-term outcomes are assoced with dual dx.
b. CORRECT - Contrary to expected, children with dx of "pure" ADHD tend to have more cog and acad probs than dual dx.
2.21 From perspective of RET:
a. irrational beliefs are acquired primarily through social learning processes
b. irrational beliefs are acquired largely thru the process of selective reinforcement
c. ppl are biologically prone to acquisition of irrational beliefs
d. people adopt irrational beliefs as result of early traumatic events that are still unresolved
c. CORRECT - Ellis believed that majority of beh has biol basis. With regard to irrational thoughts, he proposed they are attributable to natural tendencies toward, e.g., moodiness, negativism, and excitement-seeking.
2.22 Work by Perry and Busey (1977) suggests that highly aggressive children:
a. were exposed prenatally to high levels of androgens
b. are less sensitive to phys discomfort than less aggressive children
c. exhibited a disoriented/disengaged attachment pattern as young children
d. show little remorse after hurting another child
2.22 Perry and Busey (1977) recog role of parenting practices in dvpt of agg in children. However, much of their research has looked at cog characteristics of agg children.
d. CORRECT - Research by P and B found that highly agg children tend to show little regret or remorse following agg acts.
2.23 Androgens and estrogens are secreted by the:
a. gonads only
b. gonads and adrenal glands
c. gonads and pit. glands
d. gonads and pineal gland
2.23 Gonads are primary source of sex hormones, but also released by another endocrine gland.
b. CORRECT - Adrenal glands do produce small amts of androgens and estrogens.
c. Incorrect - Pit. gland releases gonadotrophic hormones which, in turn, cause gonads to release androgens or estrogens
d. Incorrect - Functions of pineal gland are not entirely known, but it may secrete melatonin as well as hormones that eventually affect gonads. However, it does not directly release sex hormones.
2.29 Split-brain Pt would be able to do which of following?:
a. say word "spoon" after projected to left visual field
b. repeat series of letters that have been whispered in left ear
c. identify odor presented to right nostril
d. identify spoon with left hand after image of spoon is projected to left visual field.
2.29 Most people - language is left hemisphere, and most fns are controlled contralaterally (exception is olfaction).
d. CORRECT - image presented to left vis field will be processed in right hemisphere which controls left hand. Therefore, split brain pt will be able to perform this task.
2.32 Research suggests that which of following would be least useful for the tx of alcoholism?
a. social-skills training
b. stress mgmt training
c. antidepressant meds
d. anxiolytic meds
2.32 Research is inconsistent. However, recent review by Roth and Fonagy conclude that suffic. research conducted to draw generalizations.
a. Incorrect - Social-skills training is classified as tx that has good evidence for its effectiveness.
b. Incorrect - Stress mgmt also effective.
c. Research suggests antideps are promising, but not yet proven effectiveness
d. CORRECT - Research not found anxiolytics to be effective.
2.33 In discussing a depressed client, a therapist says the client's probs are due to fact she did not experience normal grief following death of her mother. He says that the focus of tx will be on helping client go thru grieving process and restore her ints and friendships so that she can overcome her loss. Apparently, this therapist is practitioner of:
a. RET
b. Interpersonal therapy
c. obj relns therapy
d. reality therapy
b. CORRECT - IPT defines 4 key prob areas presented by deped pts: grief, interpers role disputes, role transition, and interpersonal deficits. These are primary targets.
1.39 Kohlberg argued that there is monotonic relnship b/w moral judgment and moral action and proposed that, as one moves from lower to higher stage of moral dvpt:
a. range of possible moral actions becomes narrower and indiv assumes greater respy for relating his/her judgmts to actions
b. range of possible moral actions becomes broader and indiv assumes greater respy for relating his/her judgmts to actions
c. range of possible moral actions remains the same but indiv assumes greater respy for relating his/her judgmts to actions
d. range of possible moral actions becomes narrower but indiv's sense of respy for relating his/her judgmts to actions remains about the same
1.39 Although Kohlberg believed that there is a +ve relnship b/w moral judgmt and moral action, he proposed that the relnship is much stronger at higher levels of moral dvpt.
a. CORRECT - The stronger relnship b/w judgment and action at higher stages is attributable to 2 factos: 1st, the fact that the range of actions suggested by one's judgment narrows; 2nd, the indiv experiences an incing sense of responsibility to act.
1.40 Which of following would help confirm dx of AD while ruling out dx of Dementia due to head trauma?
a. anterograde and retrograde amnesia appear at about same time
b. anterograde amnesia appears first; after period of time, retrograde amnesia appears
c. retrograde amnesia appears first and gradually worsens; after period of time, anterograde amnesia appears
d. anterograde and retrograde amnesia appear at about same time but retrograde amnesia begins with impairments in recent memory and then progresses to impairments in remote memory
1.40 In Dementia due to Head Trauma, memory loss is usu not progressive, and it involves both anterograde and retrograde amnesia.
b. CORRECT - AD is progressive degenerative DO that begs w/ anterograde amnesia (the inability to form new mems). The anterograde amnesia gradually worsens, and eventually, indiv also exhibits retrograde amnesia.
1.42 A pt with which of following Personality DOs is most likely to exhibit sxs that could be erroneously interpreted as signs of deptn?
a. Avoidant PD
b. Obsessive-Compulsive PD
c. Dependent PD
d. Narcissistic PD
a. Incorrect - Avoidant PD is more similar to Panic Disorder with Agoraphobia than Maj Depn
b. Incorrect - Sxs of Obsessive-Compulsive PD do not overlap with the typical sxs of depn.
c. CORRECT - DSM-IV notest that a mood disorder must be considered before assigning the dx of Dependent PD due to the similarity of several sxs (e.g., pessimism, self-doubt, and sense of worthlessness)
d. Incorrect - DSM-IV notes that Narcissistic PD shares characteristics w/ mania and hypomania
1.43 When working with Japanese client in therapy, during 1st session, you decide that your primary goals are to normalize the client's probs and instill a sense of hope. According to Sue and Zane (1987), these goals are:
a. examples of "giving"
b. ways of esting ascribed credibility
c. ways of fostering "amae"
d. expressions of cultural knowledge
1.43 Sue and Zane argue that therapy outcome for minorities is enhanced by 2 factors - credibility and giving.
a. CORRECT - Gift giving is important ritual in interpersonal relns in Asian cultures, but Sue and Zane feel that, in therapy, it is useful for other minorities as well, esp. for reducing premature termination from tx. In therapy, giving can take several forms, including normalization of client's probs and instillation of hope.
1.44 Which of following is most true about pregnancy prevention progs for adolescents?
a. They are most effective when they are school-based and they contribute to reduced pregnancy by reducing sexual activity
b. They are most effective when they are school-based and they contribute to reduced pregnancy by increasing contraceptive use
c. They are most effective when they are community-based and they contribute to reduced pregnancy by reducing sexual activity
d. They are most effective when they are community-based and they contribute to reduced pregnancy by increasing contraceptive use
1.44 Research on progs for reducing teen pregnancy is inconsis but, overall, appears that community-based progs are more effective than school-based.
a. Incorrect - Pregnancy programs seem to have less impact on sex activity than contraceptive use.
d. CORRECT - Prevention progs have been found most effective when they focus on contraceptive use, and consequently, their impact on pregnancy rates is apparently due to inc'd use of contraceptives rather than reduced sex activity.
2.46 According to the interference hypothesis, normal aging is assoc. w/ diminishing ability to screen out irrelev distractions. Assuming that this hypothesis is true, this has greatest implications for which aspect of attn?
a. divided
b. sustained
c. selective
d. episodic
2.46 REsearch on interference theory suggests that inability to tune out distractions underlies age-related defs in attn.
c. CORRECT - Although inability to screen out irrelev distractions wd probably interfere w/ most kinds of cog tasks, interf. theory has been used specifically to explain age-related defs in selective attn, which is ability to focus on one stimulus in presence of distractions.
2.47 In group therapy, members establish "taking turns" pattern in which each group session is devoted, sequentially to each group member. In response to this sitn, Yalom recommends:
a. mass group interpretation
b. here-and-now activation
c. paradoxical prescription
d. reframing
2.47 This is e.g. of antitherapeutic group norms.
a. CORRECT - Yalom considers turn-taking as obstacle to group therapy (e.g., because it may force some members to self-disclose prematurely) and recommends that it be dealt w/ through use of mass group interpn. This involves discussing the prob and its potal for negative effects on group members and group process.
b. Incorrect - Here-and-now activation is technique advocated by Yalom, but not relevant here. It is useful when group member focusing on past events in his/her life.
c. Incorrect - Paradoxical prescription not advocated by Yalom for this sitn.
d. Incorrect - Reframing not advocated here.
2.57 Undernutrition during prenatal period and early infancy:
a. affects both size and structure of brain's cells
b. primarily affects peripheral (vs. central) nervous sys
c. incs body's susceptibility to dz, esp. during childhood
d. impairs later cog fng, but little impact on social or emotional dvpt
2.57 Early malnutrition affects brain dvpt, esp. when it occurs while brain dvping most rapidly.
a. CORRECT - Although there is some inconsistency in the research regarding effect of malnutrition on the no. of cells, it does appear that cell size and structure are adversely affected (e.g., there is reduced dvptal of dendritic and axonal processes and synaptic structures). Cog, social, and emotional behs have all been found to be affected by malnutrition during the prenatal period and early infancy.
2.59 According to DSM-IV for approx 30 to 40% of indivs with MR seen in clinical settings, no clear cause can be IDed. For those indivs for whome etiology is known, heredity is responsible in ____ of cases:
a. less than 1%
b. about 5%
c. about 20%
d. more than 50%
2.59 Over 500 genetic dzs have been assoced with MR.
b. CORRECT - despite large no. of genetic conditions that have been linked w/ MR, only about 5% of cases are due to hereditary factors. Included in this category are metabolic probs that are inherited thru autosomal recessive mechanisms.
2.60 Jung's theory differs from Freud's in all of following ways except:
a. Jung's perspective reflects a more optimistic view of human nature
b. Jung promoted a more active interchange b/w analyst and pt
c. Jung conceptualized psyche as continuing to evolve throughout the lifespan
d. June replaced concept of ego w/ concepts of self and ideal-self
2.60 For Jung, basic elemts of psyche are the conscious (which includes the ego) and the unconscious (which incls personal and collective unconscious).
a. Incorrect - This is true about Jung. He described ppl as being more creative and goal-directed than Freud.
b. Incorrect - This is Jung.
c. Incorrect - Jung placed great emphasis on changes that occur during adulthood, esp. in midlife.
d. CORRECT - The ego is important part of Jung, and although he did make use of "self", he considered self to be archetype for ego.
2.64 Psychoanalyst Adolph Stern provided 1st orged clinical description of borderline pt. Of the 10 basic characteristics STern delineated, which of following did he consider most primary:
a. inhibited aggresssion
b. fixation
c. emotional dysregulation
d. narcissism
2.64 STern described borderline as 10 characteristics.
d. CORRECT - Stern considered borderling pt's difficulties to be 2ndary to narcissism and viewed narcissism as arising from a serious disturbance in the early mother-child relnship. (other psychoanalytic theorists IDed other factors as primary. Kernberg - emphasizes role of excessive aggression. DSM-IV - major features are instability and impulsivity.
2.65 Rehm's self-control therapy begins with self-monitoring, which involves maintaining a daily log of:
a. positive activities
b. automatic thoughts
c. distressful thoughts
d. antecedent events
2.65 One of the assumptions of Rehm's approach is that depressed indivs pay more attn to -ve events than +ve ones.
a. CORRECT - to alter depressed pt's focus, therapy begs w/ task that helps pt shift his/her attn to +ve events.
b. Incorrect - Daily log of auto thoughts is Beck's cog therapy.
2.67 Parasuicide (i.e, attempted, but not completed), is least assoced with:
a. middle to upper SES
b. female gender
c. younger age (under 30)
d. divorce
a. CORRECT - stats indicate that suicide attempts are more likely among lower social classes.
b. Incorrect - Females more likely to attempt suicide, males to complete it.
c. Incorrect - Younger age is associated with inc'd risk for attempt
d. Incorrect - Divorce, sepn, widowhood all linked w/ inc'd risk for suicide attempt.
2.72 A correlation between X and Y of .60 reps _____ as much shared variability as a correlation of .30
a. twice
b. three times
c. 4 times
d. 6 times
2.72 To det how much variability is shared b/w 2 variables, their correlation coefficient is squared.
c. CORRECT - a correlation of .60 indicates 36% shared variability, while correlation of .30 indics 9% shared variability: 36% is 4 times larger than 9%
2.85 Increasing age is LEAST likely to have which of the following effects on a man's sexual response cycle:
a. the time to achieve an erection will increase
b. complete penile erection may not occur until just prior to orgasm
c. the resolution hase and refractory period will both increase
d. all of the above
2.85 A no. of predictable changes in sexual response cycle accompany aging.
a. Incorrect - This is characteristic change. Unfortunately, this change, if unexpected, is often misinterpreted as a sign of impotence.
b. Incorrect - this is characteristic change.
c. CORRECT - Although refractory period does begin to inc in the 30s or 40s (and may last for several hrs by age 60), the resolution phase actually decreases, with loss of erection following orgasm being quite rapid.
2.87 From perspective of Gestalt therapy, an optimal "contact boundary" is semipermeable and coterminous w/ the actual self. Introjection is one type of boundary disturbance which occurs when:
a. the contact boundary is located far in the environment
b. the contact boundary is located deep within the self
c. the contact boundary is turned back against the self
d. the contact boundary is extremely rigid
2.87 Introjection occus when one incorporates aspects of other into oneself.
a. Incorrect - this is projection
b. CORRECT - the boundary is located inside one, thereby allowing others to be incorporated into the self
c. Incorrect - this is retroflection
d. Incorrect - this is deflection
2.96 Research investigating the effects of maternal employment on cog dvpt in children has revealed that such employment:
a. has beneficial effects for middle-class girls and boys only
b. has beneficial effects for middle-class boys only
c. has statistically insignificant adverse effects on children from all social classes
d. has no substantial effects
2.96 Generally, research has not found consis relnship b/w maternal employment, SES, and achievement behs of children.
d. CORRECT - Although some studies found that middle-class families, sons of working mothers have lower GPAs than sons of non-working mothers, these effects tends to be small and possibly transitory. Therefore, best conclusion is that maternal employment does not have signif positive or negative effects on cog dvpt or acad. achievement of children.
2.97 Research investigating outcome following TBI suggests that within 12 to 18 mths following the trauma ____ of total recovery of fns dirly related to activity of brain can usu be expected:
a. 20 to 30%
b. 40 to 50%
c. 60 to 75%
d. 80 to 95%
2.97 Although there is great deal of indiv variation in recovery from head injury, most research indicates that greatest recovery occurs during 1st year.
d. CORRECT - about 80 to 95% of total recovery occurs during first 12 to 18 mths following injury.
2.98 Which of the following is least likely to be one of a child's first words:
a. ball
b. give
c. cold
d. doggy
2.98 A child's first words are most likely to be social or functional expressions such as hi, bye-bye or thanks; names for objects that are permanent, familiar, and usually movable, such as dad or blanket; and action words such as push or fall.
a. Incorrect - "Ball" is object that is permanent, familiar, and movable
b. Incorrect - "Give" is action word
c. CORRECT - Words reping sensations or feelings such as "cold" are likely to appear later in linguistic dvpt of a child than action words, nominal words, or social or functional words.
d. Incorrect - "Doggy" is word that reps permanent, familiar, and movable object.
2.107 An advocate of a Japanese mgmt philosophy is most likely to adovcate which of the following:
a. encouraging employees to try out more than one job w/in the company
b. encouraging each employee to come up w/ ways for incing opportunities for indiv responsibility and autonomy
c. closely supervising employees
d. rapidly promoting employees who demonstrate superiority
a. CORRECT - Japanese approach involves lifetime commitment to employee, and consequently, encourages slow career dvpt, which may involve "trying out" several jobs.
b. Incorrect - oppos of Japanese
c. Incorrect - not Japanese
d. Incorrect - traditional American
2.114 In vivo flooding has been found to be an effective tx for Agoraphobia. Studies investigating effects of in vivo flooding for this DO suggest that:
a. frequent, brief exposures are more effective than less frequent, longer exposures to the feared stimuli
b. people with high arousability are more responsive to in vivo txs than people with low arousability
c. high anxiety provocation is not key factor in effectiveness of in vivo flooding
d. counterconditioning is a necessary component of in vivo flooding as a tx for agoraphobia
2.114 Invivo exposure to feared stimuli has been found to be most effective tx for Agoraphobia. The goal of in vivo exposure is to extinguish the classically-conditioned response by exposing the person to the CS w/o the US
a. Incorrect - oppos of what has been found
b. Incorrect - Arousability has been linked to effects of systematic desensitization, not in vivo flooding. Systematic desensitization is usu more successful for indivs low in arousability than for those high in arousability
c. CORRECT - there is evidence that high anxiety arousal is NOT necessary for successful tx with in vivo flooding
d. Incorrect - Counterconditioning is not component of in vivo flooding
2.115 The target of an orgal dvpt (OD) intervention depends on nature of probs. However, most share in common an overarching concern with:
a. structure
b. function
c. task and technology
d. human/social relationships
2.115 OD is broad approach to orgal change that is socially-oriented and views org as open system.
d. CORRECT - French and Bell (1984), OD is "long range effort to improve an org's prob-solving and renewal processes, partic through a more effective and collaborative dx and mgmt of orgal culture" w/ special emphasis on formal work teams". Although OD interventions do address diff aspects of the org, in the end, primary targets are ppl and their relnships.
2.116 The presence of which of the following sxs would suggest dx of Conduct DO rather than Oppositional defiant DO:
a. frequent lying and running away from home
b. low frustration tolerance and temper outbursts
c. drug use
d. onset of sxs after age 11
2.116 Conduct DO involves "persis pattern of conduct in which basic rights of others and major age-approp societal norms or rules are violated."
a. CORRECT - lying and runnning away are characteristic of Conduct DO. Behs assoced with ODD are less sev and incl negativism, defiance and hostility.
b. Incorrect - Low tolerance for frustration and temper outbursts are characteristic of both DOs.
c. Incorrect - Drug use is characteristic of Conduct DO and precocious use of alcohol, tobacco, or other drugs is assoced feature of ODD.
d. Incorrect - Onset of both DOs is typically prepubertal
2.121 In which of following sitns would an exception to requirement for an informed consent to tx not be an issue:
a. medical or psychological emergency
b. incompetency
c. client waiver
d. court-ordered tx
2.121 In most sitns, a psyc will want to get informed consent before providing psyc services.
a. Incorrect - in some emergency sitns, it is not feasible or necessary to get informed consent (e.g., when client is having psychotic epis and must be hospitalized immed for his/her own protection).
b. Incorrect - Competence to understand info about procedure and its poss conseqs is condition for truly informed consent. When indiv is not competent, his/her assent (rather than consent) shd be obted.
c. Incorrect - A client can, of course, waive his/her right to informed consent (but should be warned of conseqs of doing so).
d. CORRECT - the need for an informed consent is not waived when tx is court-ordered (e.g., when it is a condition of probation or parole).
2.123 The College Entrance Examination Board has conducted several well-controlled studies to assess effects of commercial coaching courses on SAT perf. Results of these studies have generally found that coaching:
a. has no effect on SAT perf.
b. has a slight (but insignificant) positive effect on SAT perf
c. has a signif +ve effect on SAT perf of lower-achieving students only
d. has signif +ve effect on SAT perf of students at all levels of achievement.
2.123 Select conservative response.
b. CORRECT - results of CEEB's research indics that intensive drill on SAT-like items "is unlikely to produce appreciably greater gains than occur when students are retested w/ the SAT after a yr of regular high school instruction." In other words, there are gains, but not signif.
2.127 During your 1st session w/ a 38 yr old man, he tells you that he is homosexual and that he found out, several weeks ago, that his partner of 6 years is having an affair and is planning on moving out. The man says he is very nervous and anxious, that he wishes he wasn't homosexual, and that he lays in bed at night obsessing about his partner. His anxiety has affected his work: He is having trouble concentrating, is not getting along well with his co-workers, and has "called in sick" several times in the past 2 weeks. BAsed on these sxs, best dx is:
a. Adjustment DO w/ Anxious Mood
b. Bereavement
c. Ego-Dystonic Homosexuality
2.127 The man's sxs are reaction to major life stress.
a. CORRECT - man's sxs interfere w/ his job perf.
b. Incorrect - Bereavement (which is DSM listed as "other condtion that may be focus of clin attn") is only dxed when person is reacting to death of a loved one.
c. Incorrect - Ego-Dystonic Homosexuality no longer dxic category. Also, man does not seem overly distressed about homosexuality.
d. Incorrect - PTSD is dxed when indiv exhibits certain key sxs following exper. or witnessing trauma that involves actual or threatened death, serious injury, or threat to pers. integrity. Stressors like break-up not sev. enough.
2.132 1st and 2nd grade children who have been IDed as being at risk for acad. underachievement are provided w/ special after-school progr. This is e.g. of:
a. primary prevention
b. secondary prevention
c. tertiary prevention
d. crisis intervention
2.132 Interventions aimed at IDed indivs that have as their goal reduction of severity and/or prevalence of DO categorized as 2ndary preventions.
a. Incorrect - Primary aimed at populations rather than specific indivs IDed as at risk
b. CORRECT - Since school prog for IDed indivs, this is 2ndary
c. Incorrect - Tertiary - more rehab in nature
2.136 You have just started seeing a couple in conjoint therapy and believe that the husband is phys. abusing his wife. Most likely you will:
a. wait for the husb. or wife to bring up issue of abuse
b. say that you wt to see wife in indiv therapy
c. ask the couple how they deal with conflict and disagreement
d. ask the couple to sign a "no violence" contract
2.136 Research - only 1 in 10 cases of spouse abuse reported, and that, in therapy, few couples "present themselves to therapist with abuse as presenting prob"
a. Incorrect - The issue of abuse must be IDed and dealt w/ early in tx to ensure stopped. Thus, not approp in conjoint or any other type of therapy.
b. Incorrect - Altho some conjoint therapists do see husb and wives indiv, esp. during initial sessions, conjoing therapy usu involves seeing both parties (not just wife).
c. CORRECT - because directly confronting couples about abuse may elicit denial, a more indirect approach is preferred. Mack "not accusatory and does not immed. focus on abuse, but provides opening for therapist shd data gathered pt in direction of abuse"
d. Incorrect - Next step after abuse revealed. First goal is to stop abuse, and a "no violence" contract has been found helpful for this.
2.138 A feminist therapist is least likely to view which of the following as an important aspect or goal of therapy:
a. identifying the sociopolitical and interpers. forces that underlie the woman's "psychopathology"
b. reconstructing the therapeutic process so that the traditional pattern of dependence is not recreated in the therapeutic relationship
c. using the therapeutic relnship as an opportunity to model approp behavior
d. IDing and integrating the masculine and feminine aspects of the woman's persy
2.138 Smith and Siegel - maj goal of feminist therapy is empowerment.
a. Incorrect - Smith and Siegel ID this as 1st stage in fem therapy. Females need to understnd that the "personal is political"
b. Incorrect - Fem therapists regard relnship b/w therapist and client as relnship b/w equals and use it as model of equality to help female clients overcome barriers created by traditional roles and relnships.
c. Incorrect - As noted, fem therapists view therap. relnship as opport. to model egalitarianism in interpers. relnships. e.g., fem therapists self-disclose in order to "foster a sense of communality of experience shared by women rather than to assert superiority"
d. CORRECT - fem therapy would likely avoid labels of persy as "masculine" or "feminine"
2.139 W/drawal from which of the following substances is least likely to involve hallucinations:
a. a sedative
b. an anxiolytic
c. cocaine
d. alcohol
a. Incorrect - Sedative w/drawal can result in delirium (incl hallucinations)
b. Incorrect - W/drawal from anxiolytic can result in halluc.
c. CORRECT - hallucinations are assoc. with Cocaine intoxication but not w/drawal.
d. Incorrect - W/drawal from alc can result in delirium tremens, which often incl halluc.
2.149 Research suggests that, in comparison to popular children, less popular children tend to be all of the following except:
a. less intelligent
b. less physically attractive
c. less friendly and sociable
d. less cooperative
2.149 Research - characteristics that are valued in culture are most assoced with popularity during childhood.
c. CORRECT - Unpopular ch not necess. less friendly or sociable than pop children.
2.151 If you are most concerned about reliability of an Ach test you will be admin to HS freshmen, which one of the following kinds of tests would you be least likely to use:
a. fill-in-the-blank
b. four-alternative multiple-choice
c. true-false
d. essay
2.151 A test's reliability is affected by a no. of factors incl. likelihood that test items can be answered correctly by chance alone (i.e., by guessing). The greater the likelihood that person can guess correct answer, the lower the reliaby
c. CORRECT - true-false items are most likely to be answered correctly by chance alone. Lowest reliaby coeff.
2.153 To be consis. w/ the Federal Educational Rights and Privacy Act (aka the Buckley Amendment), a school psychologist must keep in mind that:
a. it is necessary to obtain the signed consent of a student's parents before releasing any info from the student's file to officials of another school where the student is planning to enroll
b. student records, incl identifying info, must be released to designated federal and state educational authorities if needed in connection w/ the eval of federally-sponsored educational progs
c. parents have the right not only to inspect and review their children's school records, but also to challenge the contents of records
d. all of the above
2.153 Shd be familiar with provisions of Buckley Amendment
a. Incorrect - Written consent NOT needed, as long as parents have been notified of transfer of records to new school
b. Incorrect - Although records must be supplied in this sitn, identifying info must be removed from the records
c. CORRECT - this is req'mt of Buckley Amendment and the one that is most frequently asked about on the exam
2.154 A 12-year old who has received a dx of ODD is least likely to be exhibiting which of the following sxs:
a. swearing
b. low frustration tolerance
c. alcohol use
d. lying and cheating in games
d. CORRECT - lying and cheating are more indicative of Conduct DO. Although children with ODD may lie and cheat, their behs are more likely to incl those listed in other responses.
2.161 You conduct a study to compare effects of tx type and tx duration on cig smoking. Following admin of txs to Ss for the approp. length of time, you det the average no. of cigs smoked each day by Ss in each group and obt the following data:
#1 #2 #3
2 wks 10 10 15
4 wks 6 12 9
8 wks 3 6 3
Based on above info, you can conclude that there are:
a. main effects of tx type and duration only
b. main effects of tx type and duration and interaction effects
c. main effects of tx type only
d. interaction effects only
2.161 Main effects estimated by comparing marginal means, while interaction effects are estimated by looking at cell means.
b. CORRECT - marginal means for tx type are 6.3, 9.3, and 9, suggesting that the 3 txs have diff effects, while marginal means for tx duration are 11.6, 9, and 4, suggesting that tx effectiveness also affected by tx length. In other words, there are main effects for both IVs. Cell means suggest an interaction: If tx duration only 2 weeks, txs #1 and #2 are equally superior (both produce lower rates of smoking); if tx 4 weeks, tx #1 is best; but if tx 8 weeks, txs #1 and #3 equally effective.
2.167 Shortly after a school psyc. begins working for a small rural school district, she finds that there are a no. of children in a class for retarded children who are emotionally disturbed but who appear to have an average or above average level of intell. The county has no class for emotionally disturbed children. The psyc. should:
a. report the sitn immed. to the psychology ethics committee in her state
b. report the sitn immed. to the teacher's stds and practices commission in her state
c. threaten to quit if the children are not placed in a regular classroom
d. eval each student and recommend an approp. action regardless of avail. options
2.167 Most conservative action is often most approp.
a. Incorrect - At first glance, reporting may seem approp. However, psych. ethics committee does not respond to complaints about unethical activities of teachers and schools.
b. Incorrect - No indication that the inappropriateness of sitn is responsibility of partic. teacher.
c. A psyc. should always try to correct sitn b4 quitting.
d. CORRECT - Psyc's first intervention should be to assess each child and make approp recommendations. If approp. actions are not taken by the school, the psyc will then want to consider other interventions (e.g., talking to school board, consulting with ethics committee).
2.171 A beh therapist working w/ a child who bites her nails sets a timer so that it rings every 5 mins. For every 5 min period during which the child doesn't bite her nails, she is given a token. This tx is an e.g. of:
a. D.R.O.
b. response cost
c. overcorrection
d. Premack Principle
2.171 This child is being reinforced for every 5 min period during which she engages in behs other than nailbiting
b. Incorrect - response cost involves removing reinforcer following beh in order to dec beh
c. Incorrect - Overcorrection is usu. classified as type of punishment
d. Incorrect - Premack - high freqy beh used to reinforce low freq beh.
2.179 Investigations into the relnship b/w client race or ethnicity and premature termination from therapy have shown that:
a. matching minority clients and therapists in terms of race/ethnicity substantially reduces premature dropout rates
b. premature dropout rates among minority clients are, in fact, due to the confounding effects of SES rather than to race or ethnicity
c. minority clients do have higher premature dropout rates, which seem attributable to negative attitudes toward the therapist and/or perception of therapy as nonbeneficial
d. premature dropout rates among minority clients is largely a myth
2.179 Literature on ethnicity and race and premature dropout rates not consis.
a. Incorrect - Although there are some studies that have found this true, overall, conclusion is that client matching in terms of race and ethnicity does not have signif. impact.
b. Incorrect - evidence that premature dropout rates are higher for minority clients regardless of SES
c. CORRECT - This conclusion was reached by Acosta (1981) whose own investigation confirmed previous research.
d. Incorrect - This is not true. Premature dropout rates are higher among racial and ethnic minorities.
2.181 You are wking as an indus. psyc. and are hired as a consultant by the owner of a medium-sized company who says she is having probs w/ employee productivity. As an advocate of "goal-setting theory," you are most likely to tell the owner that, to maximize the productivity of her wkers, she should:
a. let the workers set their own goals
b. let the workers set their own goals when the task is simple and structured, but assign goals when task is complex and unstructured
c. assign the workers moderate goals that are within the capabilities of the least proficient workers
d. assign the workers relatively difficult goals and give them feedback tou their attainment of those goals
2.181 Participation in goal-setting is not crucial - acceptance of goals is more important.
a. Incorrect - Although participation in goal-setting not harmful, it has not been found to inc productivity more than assigned goals as long as the assigned goals are accepted by workers.
b. Incorrect - not finding
c. Incorrect - Diffic goals produce greater productivity than mod. goals.
d. CORRECT - studies found that rel diffic. goals PLUS feedback about progress toward goals produces greatest productivity.
2.182 A test dvper designs an arithmetic Ach test to be used with Junior HS students. When assessing the test's reliability, the test dvper is likely to get an overestimate of its reliability if:
a. the test contains items that are primarily of a moderate difficulty level
b. the examinees in the sample are more heterogeneous in terms of arithmetic achievement than the examinees the test was designed for
c. the test is a speeded test and the test dvper uses the alternate forms method to assess its reliability
d. all of the above
a. Incorrect - TEsts consisting primarily of mod diffic. items do tend to produce higher reliab. coeffs than tests consisting primarily of easy or diffic items. However, assuming that this is final version of test that will be admined to examinees, the reliab. coeff. will be an accur. estimate of the test's reliab. coeff.
b. CORRECT - the greater the variability of scores, the higher reliab coeff. With heterogeneous sample, there will be wide variability of scores, and high reliab coeff. This coeff will, however, be an overestim. if variability of scores is lower for the examinees for whom test was designed.
c. Incorrect - Alternate forms is approp method for assessing reliab. of speeded test and would not produce overestimate of test's reliability.
2.189 "Privilege" refers to a client's legal right to have confid. communications protected from disclosure. The sitns that legally allow waiver of privilage vary from state to state. However, generally, which of following is true about privilege:
1. Priv. is waived when info is requested at a proceeding initiated by client in a criminal action to det his/her sanity
2. Privilege is waived when therapist suspects that a minor (e.g., client or child of client) has been victim of child abuse
3. Priv. is waived when therapist has reasonable suspicion to believe that client is danger to another person.
a. 3 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1, 2, and 3
d. none of the above
c. CORRECT - all 3 sitns described in qn would result in priv. being waived.
3.1 No. of investigators have looked at impact of expressed emotion on relapse rates for indivs w/ Sz. Studies cfing indivs from Mexican American and Anglo American families have found that:
a. family warmth and criticism are not predictive of relapse for Mexican American parents but are predictive for Anglo American pts.
b. a lack of family warmth is more predictive of relapse for Mexican American pts, while criticism by fam members is more predictive for Anglo American pts.
c. criticism by family members is more predictive of relapse for Mexican American pts, while a lack of family warmth is more predictive of relapse for Anglo American pts.
d. family warmth and criticism are about equally predictive of relapse for Mexican American and Anglo American pts
3.1 The impact of cult. background on relnship b/w fam EE and relapse among pts with Sz has been addressed by several investigators including S. R. Lopez et al.
b. CORRECT - Research by Lopez et al. confirmed taht culture mediates the role b/w EE and relapse. Specifically, among Mexican American pts, low warmth inc'd risk for relapse, while, among Anglo Americans, a high level of criticism was more accur. predr.
3.5 A person with transcortical aphasia will:
a. be able to commun. verbally but will have defs in comprehension
b. have intact comprehension but exhibit a no. of grammatical errors and labored speech
c. have signif. difficulties in both producing and comprehending speech
d. exhibit minor peculiarities in speech and a total lack of verbal comprehension
3.5 Transcortical aphasia results when the major speech areas in the L (dominant) hemisphere become isolated from other cortical areas due to loss of blood supply.
c. CORRECT - person with transcortical aphasia is unable to verbally describe what he or she sees or desires and also has defs in language comrpehension. However, person may be able to generate automatic-like responses (e.g., singing) and be able to repeat stms made by others. when damage is ltd to certain areas of brain, indiv may exhibit a more ltd type of transcortical aphasia, i.e., transcortical motor aphasia (intact comprehension w/ diffics in producing speech) or transcortical sensory aphasia (diffics in comprehension only)
3.6 The most likely side effects of propanolol (Inderal) are:
a. bradycardia and depression
b. tachycardia and mania
c. tachycardia and tremor
d. bradycardia and hypersomnia
3.6 Propanolol is beta-blocker - used to treat several med. conditions incl HTN and irreg heart beat. They have also been found useful for reducting phys. sxs of anxiety.
a. CORRECT - side effects often transient, incl bradycardia, depression (as manifested by insomnia, lassitude and fatigue), nausea, and vomiting and light-headedness.
3.8 Solitary (non-social) play:
a. is predom. form of play for children b/w 1 and 3 yrs of age
b. is useful as an indicatory of cog dvpt during preschool years
c. may be indicative of dvptal delays if it constitutes a signif. portion of the child's play after age 3
d. is not necessarily less mature than group play, and in some circs, may be assoced w/ a high level of competence
3.8 Research on children's play suggests that it's the quality, not quantity, of solitary play that
d. CORRECT - studies generally shown that nonsocial play is not necessarily more immature than group play. In fact, because it often consists of goal-directed or educational activities or activities involving large-motor movement, it is often assoced w/ high levels of competence.
3.9 Research investigating the social-cognitive characteristics of aggressive children has found all of the following to be true except:
a. agg ch are more likely than their peers to base their interpn of social interns on cues that occurred at the outset of the intern
b. agg ch are more likely than their peers to erroneously attribute hostile intent to the actions of other children
c. agg children have access to a fewer no. of behal responses to social sitns than their peers do
d. agg ch expect less +ve outcomes than their peers for perfing competent or prosocial behs
3.9 A no. of social info processing defs have been linked to aggressiveness in children and adolescents.
a. CORRECT - this is oppos. of true. Aggressive youngsters often focus on cues at end of social intern (a recency effect)
b. Incorrect - Although a few studies have not found consis. diff b/w agg and nonagg ch w/ regard to this factor, majority of studies have found that agg ch are more likely to interpret the behs of peers as intentionally hostile, esp. when those behs are ambiguous.
c. Incorrect - Agg ch not only have access to fewer potal responses but the responses they access are typically more aggressive and less prosocial in nature.
d. Incorrect - This is true. In addn, in some sitns, agg ch are more likely than peers to believe that agg beh will have +ve outcomes.
3.16 Which of the following is most useful for explaining the phenomenon known as the "serial position effect":
a. the levels of processing model of memory
b. the multi-store (3-box) model of memory
c. the distinction b/w implicit and explicit memory
d. the concept of overlearning
3.16 Serial position effect refers to finding that ppl who are asked to recall a list of words immed. after remembering them tend to recall words at beg and end better than middle.
a. Incorrect - Levels of proc model predicts that memory is maximized when info is encoded semantically
b. CORRECT - most widely-accepted explanation for serial position effect is that words in beg of list have been transferred to LTM, while those at end are still in STM. Therefore, multi-store model, which proposes 3 distinct memory systems - sensory register, STM and LTM is most useful here.
3.22 A therapy client states that she believes she may have been sexually-abused as a child but has no explicit memories of the abuse. She asks her therapist - who often uses hypnosis in his practice - to hypnotize her as a means of retrieving those memories. The psychologist is familiar with the stmt recently issued by the APA's Working Group on Investigation of Memories of Child Abuse. Consequently, the psyc will:
a. agree to hypnotize the woma but be careful not to ask leading questions
b. agree to hypnotize the woman and then attempt to corroborate any memories of abuse the woman recalls while under hypnosis
c. advise the woman that hypnosis is not an approp proced. for retrieving memories because it is likely to produce false recollections of abuse
d. refer the woman to another psychologist who uses hypnosis but is unfamiliar with the woman's suspicions so that the procedure will be more objective
3.22 Use of hypnosis for purpose of recalling repressed memories is addressed in document titled "Final conclusions of the APA Working Group on Investigation of Memories in Childhood Abuse"
c. CORRECT - this reponse most consis with conclusions in the document and w/ research showing that hypnosis tends to elicit false memories.
3.28 To det the deg of assoc. b/w pregnancy status (pregnant or not) and the no. of items selected on a stres event checklist, you would use which of the following:
a. Pearson r
b. Spearman rho
c. biserial
d. point biserial
3.28 In this sitn, you are correlating a variable reping a true dichotomy w/ a variable reping a continuous scale of measurement (no. of stress events)
a. Incorrect - Pearson r is approp. when both vars continuous
b. Incorrect - Spearman rho is approp. when both vars are ranks
c. Incorrect - Biserial corr. coeff. is used when 1 var is artificial dichotomy (a continous var that has been artificially or arbitrarily dichotomized) and other var is continuous.
d. CORRECT - Point biserial corr. coeff. is appropr. when 1 var is a true dichotomy and other continous.
3.30 Which of the following indivs is at greatest risk for completed suicide:
a. a 64-year-old married man
b. a 52-year-old divorced man
c. a 76-year-old widowed woman
d. a 48-year-old single woman
3.30 To choose correct answer, need to know that there is strong relnship b/w completed suicide, gender, and marital status.
b. CORRECT - although older men are at greater risk than younger men for suicide, the risk is also highly related to marital status with divorced and widowed men being at highest risk.
3.37 Damage to the hippocampus will have the greatest impact on
a. sensory memory
b. spatial memory
c. primary memory
d. working memory
3.37 Hippocampus implicated in several aspects of memory.
b. CORRECT -hippo involved in memory consolidation, explicit memory and spatial memory.
3.38 In an adult, damage to the medial temporal area is least likely to have an adverse effect on:
a. STM
b. autobiographical memory
c. semantic memory
d. spatial memory
3.38 Medial temporal region includes parts of temporal lobe, hippocampus, and amygdala.
a. CORRECT - STM not linked to medial temporal region but assoced w/ prefrontal cortex.
b. Incorrect - Autobiographical memory is part of declarative memory and believed to be mediated by medial temporal area of the brain
c. Incorrect - Semantic memory is other component of declarative memory and believed to be mediated by medial temporal structures.
d. Incorrect - Spatial memory is mediated by the hippocampus, which is part of medial temporal area
3.39 Studies investigating relnship b/w an infant's basic temperament at 6 mths of age and later aggressiveness indic that:
a. "easy" children w/ authoritarian parents are most likely to exhibit high levels of aggressiveness at age 3
b. "difficult" children w/ laissez-faire parents are most likely to exhibit high levels of aggressiveness at age 3
c. "difficult" children w/ authoritarian parents are most likely to exhibit high levels of aggressiveness at age 3
d. there is little or no relnship b/w temperament at 6 mths and level of aggressiveness at age 3
3.39 Research has consis. found relnship b/w early temperament, parenting style, and later beh, esp. w/ regard to certain temperament traits.
c. CORRECT - the studies confirmed that children with diffic. temperament have worse outcomes than those with easy temperament esp. when parents respond to their child by forbidding certain activities, threatening punishment, using phys. restraint, i.e., when parents adopt an authoritarian parenting style.
3.40 Longitudinal research has shown that the "Big Five" persy traits remain relatively stable from midlife until later adulthood. However, when indivs reach their 80s and 90s, status on 3 of the 5 traits often shifts. Specifically:
a. agreeableness, sociability, and acceptance of change all increase
b. agreeableness and sociability increase, while acceptance of change decreases
c. acceptance of change increases, while agreeableness and sociability decrease
d. agreeableness and acceptance of change increase, while sociability decreases
3.40 Longitud. and cross-sectional studies suggest that Big Five persy traits are rel. stable until late adulthood.
D. CORRECT - this is finding of Field and Milsap.
3.41 One factor that limits the cog abilities of preoperational children is the inability to simultaneously consider several aspects of a sitn at once. This inability is referred to as:
a. irreversibility
b. centration
c. transduction
d. decentration
3.41 Piaget - preoperational child is unable to conserve due to limitations in cog ability.
a. Incorrect - Irreversibility is one of the cog ltations of preoperational stage but refers to inability to understand that an operation can be reversed.
b. CORRECT - Centration refers to focusing on only one aspect of a sitn while neglecting others. It is believed to be one of the primary reasons why preoperational children cannot conserve.
c. Incorrect - Transductive reasoning is also preoperational. However, refers to tendency to see causal relnship b/w events that occur in sequence when none exists.
d. Incorrect - Decentration is one of the abilities that emerge in concrete operational stage and allow child to conserve
3.42 From perspective of Holland's approach to career choice and career counseling, a highly diff'ated person:
a. resembles 1 persy type and no other type
b. has obted a persy profile that is unusual or unique
c. has scored highly on 2 persy types that are on oppos. sides of the persy/occupational hexagon
d. has vocational aspirations that belong in diverse RIASEC categories
3.42 Holland's theory distings b/w 6 persy and occup. types (RIASEC)
a. CORRECT - according to Holland, a person is highly diff'ated when he/she obts a high score on only one persy dimension. He also believed that a persy-occupational match is most accurate for predicting outcomes for those who are highly diff'ated.
3.43 As defined by Donald Super, "career maturity":
a. is achieved by most ppl by the time they reach their late 20s or early 30s
b. is not fully achieved until mid-life or later
c. refers to indiv's mastery of tasks at each dvptal stage
d. refers to the deg of match b/w the indiv's "self-concept" and current occupational aspirations
3.43 Super's life space/life span theory incls a stage theory that encompasses, the entire lifespan. 5 stages are growth, exploration, establishment, maintenance, and disengagement.
c. CORRECT - each stage involves a set of dvptal tasks, and mastery of those tasks reps career maturity. Career maturity preps the indiv to fulfill the life roles characteristic of the stage the person is in as well as for the tasks of the subseq. stage.
3.44 An IO psyc will most likely apply the concept of "identical elements" orig. proposed by Thorndike and Woodworth (1901) to which of the following:
a. job redesign
b. employee selection
c. criterion dvpt
d. employee training
3.44 Thorndike and Woodworth - transfer of training is maximized when there are identical elemts in the learning and perf. settings.
d. CORRECT - Thorndike and Woodworth theory supported importance of providing identical elements for transfer of training
3.47 A wking mother who has been reassured by her husb. and friends many times that she is a "great mother", states that she is a "terrible mother" after she forgets to wash her daughter's baseball uniform the night before an important game. Aaron Beck would consider the mother's conclusion to be an example of which of the following:
a. personalization
b. arbitrary inference
c. selective abstraction
d. dichotomous thinking
3.47 All of the responses are Beck's cog distortions.
a. Incorrect - Personalization occurs when a person attributes external events to him/herself w/out evidence supporting such a causal connection
b. CORRECT - Arbitrary inference involves drawing a specific conclusion w/out supporting evidence of in the face of contradictory evidence.
c. Incorrect - Selective abstraction occurs when person interprets a sitn on basis of single detail taken out of context (e.g., a jealous husb. thinks his wife is having an affair w/ neighbor when he sees her pat the neighbor on the back).
d. Incorrect - Dichot. thinking involves categorizing an experience in terms of 1 of 2 extremes (e.g., If I do this, everything will be perfect; if I don't, everything will be terrible).
3.49 Lab and dorm studies have sonsis. shown that males and females react diffly to crowding. Specifically, lab studies suggest that crowding is more detrimental for males, and dorm studies indicate that:
a. this gender diff is even more pronounced in real-life settings
b. males utilize less effective coping strategies than females in crowded sitns
c. females utilize less effective coping strategies than males in crowded sitns
d. the gender diff occurs but is less pronounced in real-life sitns
c. CORRECT - Aiello et al report that women in their study exhibited more signs of psychological distress in crowded dorm rooms than men did, apparently because women rely on less effective coping mechanisms, i.e., men tend to leave while women inc their levels of interaction.
3.50 Studies investigating the impact of sexually-explicit movies have found all of the following to be true except:
a. men who view X-rated films tend to rate their own sexual partner as more attractive
b. men who view X-rated films that depict a man sexually overpowering a woman report being a little more likely to rape if they were assured they would get away with it
c. after viewing X-rated films, men tend to recommend more lenient prison sentences for a convicted rapist
d. after viewing X-rated films, men are more likely to view a woman's friendliness as sexual in nature
3.50 Research has consis. shown that exposure to sexually-explicit material - esp. material that depicts violence against or domination over women - has -ve impact on males.
a. CORRECT - this is oppos. of what has been found, i.e., viewers tend to rate their partners as less attractive.
3.51 Raven Colored Progressive Matrices would be useful for:
a. assessing the intelligence of a 9-year-old non-English speaking child
b. assessing the intelligence of an 18-year-old who has a learning disability
c. assessing the memory of a 74-year-old with early signs of dementia
d. assessing the intelligence of a 45-year-old who has Broca's aphasia
3.51 Ravens is a 36-item test of intellig. that uses figural test stimuli presented in a 6-option M/C format
a. CORRECT - because it is non-verbal test, RAvens is considered appropr for non-English speaking indivs as well as indivs w/ speech deficits. The test is designed for children ages 5 through 11 years.
3.52 Which of the following approaches was used to derive the "Big Five" persy factors:
a. cognitive
b. psychodynamic
c. lexical
d. content validity
3.52 The Big Five persy traits - i.e., conscientiousness, extroversion/introversion, openness to experience, emotional stability, and agreeableness - were orig IDed through factor analyses of persy traits that are included in the dictionary.
c. CORRECT - lexical approach is atheoretical and based on assumption that all socially-relevant persy traits have been incorped into language. Advocates of this approach note that it is objective since it does not rely on any single theory of persy.
3.60 Which of the following is a therapeutic approach that explicitly addresses an indiv's commitment and readiness to change:
a. solution-oriented therapy
b. motivational interviewing
c. reality therapy
d. self-control therapy
b. CORRECT - Motivational inteviewing defined by Miller and Rollinick as an approach designed to help clients build commitment and readiness to change.
3.61 Recent research cfing persy characteristics and psychiatric sxs of women reporting repressed vs. continous memories of childhood sexual abuse has found that:
a. the 2 groups of women do not differ signifly in terms of persy characteristics of psychiatric sxs
b. women reporting repressed memories differ from those w/ continuous memories in terms of dissociation but not w/ regard to other characteristics or sxs
c. women reporting continuous memories exhibit more sxs of PTSD than those reporting repressed memories but the 2 groups do not differ w/ regard to other characteristics or sxs
d. the 2 groups of women show signif. diffs w/ regard to both persy characteristics and psychiatric sxs
d. CORRECT - Recently addressed by McNally found that women with repressed memories scored higher on measures of absorption and dissociation and reported more sxs of depn and PTSD than women with continous memories of childhood abuse. (Women with continuous memories did not differ signif. from nonabused women on these measures).
3.62 An emphasis on contact, awareness, and experimentation is central to which of the following:
a. Gestalt therapy
b. solution-focused therapy
c. Adlerian therapy
d. rational-emotive therapy
a. CORRECT - Contact, conscious awareness, and experimentation are key targets in Gestalt therapy. Contact refers to being in touch w/ what is happening in the here-and-now; awareness refers to focused attn in sitns req'ing it; and exptation is the act of trying s-th new in order to inc understanding.
3.63 ADHD has been most consis. linked to:
a. reduced blood flow to the frontal lobes
b. inc'd blood flow to the BG
c. higher-than-normal levels of DA in frontal lobes
d. lower-than-normal levels of DA in parietal-occipital region
3.63 Areas of the frontal lobe have been linked to hyperactivity, distractibility, and impulsivity in both humans and non-human animals.
a. CORRECT - reduced blood flow to frontal lobes (hypofrontality) is one of the brain abnormalities that has been most consis. linked to ADHD. In addn, Ritalin has been found to inc blood flow to this area.
c. Incorrect - ADHD has been linked to DA depletion
3.64 Damage to which of following areas of brain most likely to cause defs in prospective memory:
a. prefrontal region
b. occipito-temporal region
c. corpus callosum
d. parietal association cortex
3.64 Prospective memory refers to ability to remember to perform an intended action at a partic. pt of time in the future, e.g., to give your colleague a ph msg the next time you see her.
a. CORRECT - Prospective memory has been linked to prefrontal lobes, and it has been hypothesized that exec. cog funs are involved in this aspect of memory.
b. Incorrect - Although some evid. that medial temporal region may be involved in prospective memory, the occipito-temporal area has not been.
3.65 Research cfing impact of unilateral brain damage on emotion has shown that damage to right hemisphere is most often assoced w/ 3 behal patterns - indifference, verbal disinhibition, and:
a. denial of paralysis or other sxs resulting from the brain damage
b. depressed mood and irritability
c. pathological laughing and crying
d. transitory visual and/or auditory hallucinations
3.65 Specific roles of L and R hemispheres in emotion still not understood. However, consis. evidence that damage to R or L hemisphere produces predictable pattern of sxs.
a. CORRECT - in terms of emotions, damage to R (nondom) hemisphere linked to indifference and apathy, denial of one's disabilities, and verbal disinhibition (which often incls tendency to joke in sarcastic or childish manner, esp. about one's disabilities).
b. Incorrect - Depressed mood, mood fluctuations, anxiety, and irritability are sxs of L frontal lobe damage.
c. Incorrect - Pathological laughing and crying usu. caused by bilateral hemispheric lesions.
d. Incorrect - Visual and/or auditory hallucinations not sxs that occur in conjunction w/ R hemisphere damage that produces indifference and verbal disinhibition.
3.73 A therapy client says "I feel useless and incompetent and, therefore, I must be a worthless person." From the perspective of cog therapy, this is an e.g. of:
a. all-or-none thinking
b. overgeneralization
c. magnification
d. emotional reasoning
3.73 Client is using emotions as evidence for way things really are.
a. Incorrect - All-or-nothing thinking is tendency to eval perf. or pers. qualities in terms of extremist, black and white categories.
b. Incorrect - Overgeneralization refers to arbitrarily drawing conclusion that a single -ve event will happen over and over.
c. Incorrect - Magnification occurs when person sees s-th as being far more signif. than it really is.
d. CORRECT - The logic underlying emotional reasoning is "I feel, therefore I am".
3.74 Before conducting a court-ordered eval of a minor, you should:
a. obtain an informed consent from the minor
b. obt IC from minor's legal guardian
c. discuss purpose of eval w/ minor
d. make sure minor's legal guardian is present during the eval
3.74 A court-ordered eval precludes need for IC, even when person to be evaled is a minor.
c. CORRECT - most consis. w/ provisions of the Specialty Guidelines for Forensic Psychologists, which states that the subject of an eval must be informed of the eval procedures and purpose.
3.75 Which of the following would a mged care org consider most useful for reducing its risk for legal liability:
a. capitation
b. behavioral health "carve outs"
c. credentialing of providers
d. utilization review
a. Incorrect - Capitation refers to contracting for a set of services on the basis of a predeted fee. It reduces org's costs but does not protect from legal liability
b. Incorrect - Behavioral Health "Carve outs" involve contracting behal health care services that are sep from the services provided for other health care. Not assoced with risk mgmt.
c. CORRECT - credentialing providers helps ensure that providers are competent to provide services and thereby reduces risk for legal liability
d. Incorrect - Util. review is another cost containment technique and may involve denying payment for services that are not deemed necessary by the mged health care org.
3.78 A dx of Reactive Attachment DO cannot be assigned w/out the presence of which of the following:
a. evidence of pathogenic care
b. dvptally inapprop. social relatedness that began prior to age 2
c. excessively inhibited, hypervigilant, or ambivalent responses
d. one or more dvptal delays
3.78 Reactive Attachment DO characterized by "markedly disturbed and dvptally inapprop. social relatedness in most contexts"
a. CORRECT - must be evid. of pathogenic care resp. for indiv's sxs
b. Incorrect - dx reqs sxs being prior to age 5 (not age 2)
c. Incorrect - describes Inhibited Type and not req'd for Disinhibited Type
d. Incorrect - Common assoc. sx but not req'mt for dx of RAD
3.81 A researcher inted in Chodorow's obj. relns approach to fem theory wd most likely conduct a study to:
a. assess impact of birth order on women's persy in adulthood
b. compare the stability ot self-esteem in girls and boys from age 10 to age 18
c. assess impact of father absence in early childhood on women's early romantic/sexual relnships
d. eval the impact of maternal absence in infancy on women's social relns in early adulthood
3.81 Chodorow reformulates tradal OR theory by proposing that women (who continue to be primary caregivers of young children) interact w/ male and female children diffly, which contribs to gender diffs in persy and social relatedness.
d. CORRECT - of studies listed, only one addresses impact of early mother-daughter relnship on daughter's future social relns (which is focus of Chodorow)
3.85 Research by Jerome Kagan has shown that the diff b/w high- and low-reactive infants is:
a. attributable to nutritional diffs during prenatal dvpt
b. due, in part, to genetic factors
c. due largely to early infant-parent interactions
d. not predictive of future behavior
3.85 Kagan argues that temperament is heavily influenced by genetics, esp. aspect of temperament referred to as "reactivity."
b. CORRECT - Kagan found that approx. 15 to 20% children born into secure homes have inherited tendency to be highly reactive - i.e., to be unusually aroused and disturbed by new, unexpected events. In contrast, about 35% of children exhibit oppos. reaction and are relaxed and rarely cry when exposed to new events. Support for biol. contribution to this diff provided by studies indicing corresponding levels of SNS arousal to new events and research comparing monozygotic and dizygotic twins. Kagan also found that early levels of reactivity predictive of later beh.
3.86 A drive for order that involves the testing of patterns and structures against the real world is referred to as:
a. elaboration
b. deductin
c. equilibration
d. accommodation
a. Incorrect - Elaboration refers to process of incing no. of associations b/w items of info, which enhances meaningfulness of info and assoc. w/ improvements in retention and retrieval.
b. Incorrect - Deduction refers to reasoning from general to specific
c. CORRECT - Piaget, equilibration involves combo of assimilation and accommodation and is motiv. by drive for balance or order.
d. Incorrect - Accomm. is only one aspect of equilibration
3.87 In their 3 year study of 100 fourth, sixth and eighth graders in 4 states and the District of Columbia, Sadker and Sadker (1994) looked at teacher interactions w/ male and female students. They found that:
a. while boys are much more likely to call out answers in class, teachers call on boys and girls at about equal rates
b. while boys receive more negative attention, girls receive more positive attn from their teachers
c. girls experience sexual harrassment from their teachers more often than boys do
d. white males and females get more attn from their teachers than males and females from minority groups do
3.87 Although teachers in S and S's study reported txing boys and girls similarly, observations of their classrooms indiced often not the case.
a. Incorrect - Boys not only call out in class more often than girls, but are also more likely to be called upon by teachers
b. Incorrect - Boys receive more +ve and -ve attn from teachers
d. Incorrect - White and minority boys get more attn from teachers than White and minority girls.
3.89 Abraham Maslow derived his need hierarchy theory from:
a. his experiences as a clinical psychologist
b. empirical research in organizations
c. a review of the literature
d. psychodynamic theory
3.89 During work as clin. psyc. Maslow noticed ppl motivated by diff needs.
a. CORRECT - Maslow derived his theory about need hierarchy and self-actualization from observations of therapy clients, work with college students, and study of ppl he believed to be highly productive.
3.90 The lack of a relnship b/w a student's confidence about her ability to succeed on a task and her actual success on the task reflects probs related to:
a. means-end analysis
b. equilibration
c. resolution
d. calibration
a. Incorrect - Means-end analysis is prob-solving technique that involves IDing goals, the current sitn, and what is needed to achieve the goals.
b. Incorrect - Equilibration is process of using both assim and accomm to gain understanding of new info or new event
c. Resolution (also known as "confidence discrimination") refers to ability to discriminate b/w what one knows and what one doesn't know
d. CORRECT - The term "calibration" (or "confidence calibration") is used in the cognition lit. to describe deg of similarity b/w a person's level of confidence about being successful on a task and actual success or accuracy of the person on the task.
3.91 In his research, a cog psyc. uses paired-associate and serial learning tasks. Apparently this psyc is inted in:
a. verbal learning
b. selective attn
c. procedural memory
d. iconic memory
3.91 A paired assoc. task reqs indiv to respond w/ one member of a pair when presented with other. A serial learning task reqs indiv to learn and recall a list of words in a partic. order.
3.92 Which of the following best describes Abramson, Metalsky, and Alloy's (1989) theory of "hopelessness depression":
a. hopelessness is the predom. sx of hopelessness depn
b. hopelessness contribs to hopelessness depn to the extent that it fosters stable, global attributions for -ve events
c. hopelessness is a suffic. cause of hopelessness depn but is not included as one of its sxs
d. hopelessness is a "necessary but not sufficient" cause of hopelessness depn that incs the risk for the DO only when there is also a biol. predisposition for it.
3.92 Abramson describes hopelessness as a "proximal sufficient cause" of hopelessness depn.
a. Incorrect - According to this theory, hopelessness is a cause but not sx of hopelessness depn.
b. Incorrect - Oppos. of theory, i.e., attribns are contributors to depn to deg that they foster feelings of hopelessness
c. CORRECT - Abramson et al. ID 9 core sxs of hopelessness depn - retarded initiation of voluntary responses, sad affect, suicidal behs, lack of energy, apathy, psychomotor retardation, sleep disturbance, diffy in concn, and mood-exacerbated -ve cognitions.
d. Incorrect - Abramson regard hopelessness to be a "suffic. cause"
3.94 For indivs with Autistic DO, a disturbance in the pragmatic use of language is manifested by:
a. an inability to integrate words with gestures
b. abnormalities in the pitch, intonation, and rhythm of speech
c. limited vocabulary, vocabulary errors, and diffy acq'ing new words
d. repetition of words and phrases regardless of meaning
3.94 Disturbances in pragmatic (social) use of lang. by indivs with Autistic DO addressed in DSM-IV-TR where noted that assessmt of this aspect of lang. use is partic. imp. for higher-fning indivs.
a. CORRECT - listed in DSM as one manifestation of disturbances in pragmatic use of lang. Other disturbances incl inability to understand humor, irony, and implied meaning.
b. Incorrect - Although these are characteristic of DO, not related to pragmatic use of lang.
c. Incorrect - Indivs with Autistic DO may exhibit these probs, but not e.g.s of disturbances in pragmatics
d. Also may be Autistic DO but not pragmatics.
3.95 Which of the following has been found to be most rapid and most effective for suppressing the sxs of tardive dyskinesia:
a. anticholinergic agents
b. lithium
c. SSRIs
d. benzodiazepines
a. Incorrect - Most studies found that anticholinergic agents do not reduce, or in some cases, worsen TD
b. Ltd research on lithium as tx for TD. Existing studies suggest reduces risk for dvping TD when taken in conjunction w/ neuroleptic but does not suppress sxs once they dvp.
c. Incorrect - SSRIs not found effective for suppressing sxs of TD
d. CORRECT - Benzos act as GABA agonists (i.e., they stimulate prodn of GABA) and found useful for reducing sxs of TD. Diazepam and clonazepam partic.
3.99 Which of the following techniques would be least useful for assessing the perceptual abilities of a 3- or 4-month-old infant:
a. sucking
b. heart rate
c. head turning
d. reaching
a. Incorrect - High-amplitude sucking often used to study infants' perceptual abilities and is esp. useful for infants aged 1 to 4 mths
b. Incorrect - HR is useful as measure of perception across wide range ages
c. CORRECT - head-turning considered appropr measure of perception for ch aged 5.5 to 12 mths age.
d. Incorrect - Reaching used as measure aged 12 weeks and older
3.100 The research has shown that, among children, categorization or distinction on the basis of which of the following dvps prior to 2 years of age:
a. age
b. age and gender
c. age and race
d. race
3.100 "Top 3" characteristics on which young children make distinctions are age, gender and race.
b. CORRECT - evid that infants make categorical distinctions b/w men and women and b/w adults and children before 1 year of age. However, children do not make distinctions on basis of race before they reach preschool.
3.101 With regard to the termination of prof. services, the Ethics Code reqs psycs to:
a. offer to help the client locate alternative services
b. take actions that protect the best ints of the client
c. provide predetermination counseling, suggest alternative services, and take other "reasonable steps"
d. take action that is consis. w/ the reason(s) for the termination
3.101 Standard 4.09(c) of Ethics code applies here advising certain steps be taken, regardless of reason for termination.
c. CORRECT - None of the responses given is wrong, but this one comes closest to actual language of Ethics Code and is best answer.
3.107 You have been seeing a couple in therapy for several mths. You rec. a call from SW who requests that you wk collaboratively w/ him in txing wife who has just started seeing him in indiv. therapy. Best course of action is to:
a. agree to collaborate with the social worker as long as the wife has signed a waiver
b. agree to collaborate with the social worker as long as the wife has signed a waiver and you take steps to maintain the husband's confidentiality
c. agree to collaborate with the social worker only after you have discussed the issue w/ the couple
d. refrain from collaborating with the SW
3.107 General rule when working with couple of family is that couple or family is to be considered the client.
d. CORRECT - may not be in best ints of husb. for you to consult w/ wife's therapist. For instance, husb. may feel coerced to cooperate in this sitn and agree that you can collaborate w/ SW. Although there may be exceptions to the general rule, the best course of action is to treat couple or fam as the client and refrain from providing services to only one member.
3.111 The presence of which of the following is more suggestive of a dx of Vascular Dementia than a dx of AD
a. illusions and halluc.
b. depn and anxy
c. visuospatial imps
d. hemiparesis and hemiplegia
3.111 Primary dxic indicator for Vascular Dementia is evidence of cerebrovascular dz.
a. Incorrect - Illusions and halluc. can occur with AD
b. Incorrect - common sxs of AD
c. Incorrect - Visuospatial imps are also part of AD
d. CORRECT - sxs of Vascular Dementia dep. on site(s) of damage but incl such "focal signs" as hemiparesis, hemiplegia, sensory loss, visual field defs, and dysphasia. Such signs are req'd for dx of Vascular Dementia, and their presence rules out AD.
3.112 A struct. fam therapist's interventions when wking w/ a triangulated fam will be designed to:
a. foster insight in order to est more approp. hierarchies and boundaries
b. create stress in order to unbalance the fam's homeostasis
c. dilute the tension b/w fam members in order to reduce triangulation
d. alter the fam's implicit and explicit rules in order to re-align boundaries
3.112 Struct. fam therapy concerned w/ restruct. fam.
b. CORRECT - before family's structure can be altered, its homeostatic state must be unbalanced so that fam members are more susceptible to change. Accomplished by interjecting stress into the fam.
3.117 You are asked by court to eval a 70-year-old woman to help det her competence. She is appar. disoriented and confused and has substantial memory loss. You have recently taken a wkend wkshop on use of new computerized assessmt technique for ppl w/ sxs like those exhibited by this woman, and you feel this method of assessmt wd be esp. valid in this sitn. Further, you had taken the wkshop specifically because you wt to expand your practice by being qualified to conduct competency-related evals for the court. Your best course of action would be to:
a. use the program to assess the woman
b. use the program to assess the woman but, when testifying in court, discuss the potal ltations of your conclusions
c. use the program to assess the woman but confirm your conclustions before testifying by consulting w/ dvper of the assessmt technique
d. refer the woman to s-one who is more familiar with this type of eval
3.117 Psychologists ordinarily add new skills and techniques. Special precautions must be taken when first applied.
a. Incorrect - Info in qn suggests you do not have suffic. experience w/ new technique to accept respy of using it to eval a woman for purpose of court decision regarding her competence.
b. Incorrect - Even though imp. to report poss. ltations of one's conclusions or recommendations, not adeq. in this sitn.
c. Incorrect - When using new technique, supervision is gd idea. However, because results of assessment will be used to make imp. decision about this woman, supervision would not be adeq.
d. CORRECT - Until you have experience with technique, it wd be best not to use it to eval woman for court proceeding.
3.119 In response to the growing no. of divorced parents in the US, research on the effects of divorce on children has inc'd in the last 2 decades. Which of the following has not been shown to be true by such research:
a. among school-aged children, following divorce, children do better if they live w/ the same-sex parent
b. following divorce, noncustodial mothers are more likely to maintain contact w/ their children than noncustodial fathers
c. in general, children from conflictual intact fams do not differ signifly in terms of behal probs from children from divorced fams
d. although cont'd contact w/ noncustodial father is assoced w/ better outcome for children, no contact is better than contact when parental relnship continues to be highly conflictual
3.119 A no. of longit. studies assess LT effects of divorce on adjustment of children.
a. Incorrect - This is finding of research
b. Incorrect - Although noncustodial fathers may maintain contact w/ their children immed. after divorce, often, their contact rapidly decs in freqy.
c. CORRECT - Over long-run, children better off if their parents divorce than if they stay in a highly conflictual relnship esp if, after the divorce, the children are living in a stable single-parent or stepparent family.
d. Incorrect - Although research indics that cont'd contact w/ a noncustodial father is beneficial, other studies have found that children benefit from contact w/ the noncustodial parent only when there is cooperation and low conflict b/w parents.
3.120 Transformational leaders:
a. appeal to the self-interest of their followers
b. help followers recognize that their goals are compatible w/ the org's goals
c. induce followers to transcend self-interest for the sake of the org
d. redefine the org's goals to better coincide w/ the self-interest of followers
3.120 Transformational leaders motiv. followers to accept and support orgal change that is in the best ints of the org.
a. Incorrect - More transactional
c. CORRECT - trans. leaders motiv. wkers to achieve transcendental goals that go beyond wker's immed. self-ints.
3.121 The belief that job-related behs are reled to the congruence b/w basic persy and characteristics of the wk environment underlies:
a. Roe's field and levels theory
b. Holland's occupational themes
c. Alderfer's ERG theory
d. Super's stages of vocational dvpt
3.121 Holland's 6 occup. themes rep basic persy types.
a. Incorrect - Roe's theory focuses on relnship b/w childhood experience and occupational choice.
b. CORRECT - Holland proposed that job satisf., perf, and so on are dirly reled to deg of congruence b/w person's basic persy and nature of the environment. A conventional person, for instance, is happiest in a conventional environment.
c. Incorrect - ERG theory is theory of motivation that posits 3 basic needs (existence, relatedness, and growth)
d. Incorrect - Super's theory emphasizes role of self-concept in vocational dvpt and choice
3.127 A strategic fam therapist is wking w/ a fam in which the husb. and wife have avoided their own conflicts by focusing their attn on the probs of their 9 year old son. The therapist in this sitn is most likely to:
a. educate the parents about "triangulation"
b. obt a detailed fam hx from the husb. and wife to identify the pattern of interactions in their families of origin
c. give the husb. and wife a H/W assignmt designed to foster recognitiion of the conflicts that exist b/w them
d. have the fam members adopt the roles of each other and role-play a typical fam interaction
3.127 Strategic fam therapists use "strategies"
c. CORRECT - Therapist assigns task that will help them face their own conflicts.
3.129 The 1979 court opinion in the Larry P. v Riles case declared that IQ tests cd not be used to assess the intelligence of Black children because:
a. the tests included too many culturally-biased items
b. the average scores on the tests were substantially higher for White students than Black students
c. the tests correlated more strongly with acad. achievement for White students than Black students
d. use of the tests resulted in a disproportionately large no. of Black students being placed in EMR classes
a. Incorrect - Although Judge did concl that IQ tests contain biased items, the reason he prohibited their use was because of conseqs of use.
b. Incorrect - Not in itself prob.
c. Incorrect - Many studies actually show IQ tests do correl. with acad. ach. for W and B.
d. CORRECT - Judge Peckham concluded that std IQ tests shd not be used w/ B children because their use results in too many of these children being placed in "dead-end" (EMR) classes.
3.132 Research investigating effects of wk team composition on productivity and other outcomes suggests that heterogeneity in terms of experience, gender, persy, attitudes, and so on is assoced w/:
a. greater productivity and reduced turnover
b. greater productivity but increased turnover
c. greater productivity only
d. reduced productivity except on simple tasks
3.132 Research consis. found heterogeneity pref to homogeneity, esp. in LR and for creative and intellectual tasks.
b. CORRECT - While productivity is enhanced when group members are heterogeneous, there is some evidence that heterogeneity results in greater turnover.
3.134 Which of the following is LEAST characteristic of infants who were exposed to cocaine in utero:
a. they are abnormally insensitive to tactile, visual, and auditory stimulation
b. they are excessively irritable and unresponsive to attempts to comfort
c. they often crawl, stand, and walk early
d. they often have a low birthweight and small head circumference
3.134 Prenatal cocaine exposure is assoced w/ both phys. and behal probs in childhood.
a. CORRECT - oppos. of what is true. Early exposure to cocaine is assoced w/ oversensitivity to environmtal stimuli, even stimuli of low intensity.
b. Incorrect - Why children often exhibit disturbances in attachment.
c. Incorrect - Cocaine-exposed children often have unusual pattern of motor dvpt as the result of excessive muscle tone.
d. Incorrect - This is true about these children.
3.140 16 mths after last therapy session w/ the Weinberg fam, Dr. Ryan recs a ph call from Mrs. Weinberg who says she is divorcing Mr. Weinberg and wts Dr. Ryan to testify on her behalf in a custody battle. She esp. wts Dr. Ryan to testify about the relnship b/w Mr. and Mrs. Weinberg and their children. In this sitn, Dr. Ryan would be best advised to:
a. testify on Mrs. Weinberg's behalf only if he believes she is the more competent parent
b. testify only if he can re-eval Mrs. Weinberg since he hasn't seen her for 16 mths
c. testify on Mrs. Weinberg's behalf but inform the court of the poss. ltations of his eval
d. refuse to testify unless he obtains a waiver of confidentiality from Mr. Weinberg
3.140 Client confidentiality is primary ethical issue in this case. Dr. Ryan should not reveal info about Mr. Weinberg until obts signed consent.
d. CORRECT - would be violation of confid. to reveal info about Mr. Weinberg that was obted during course of fam therapy unless approp. consent is first obted from Mr. Weinberg.
3.147 For children with a LD, the most freq. co-dx is ADHD, w/ approx. ____% of LDed children also rec'ing the latter dx:
a. 5 to 10
b. 20 to 25
c. 50 to 55
d. 65 to 70
3.147 Children with LD often have co-dx of ADHD, Tourette's DO, and/or mood disorder.
b. CORRECT - according to DSM-IV, the most common co-dx is ADHD, with 20 to 25% of learning disordered children also receiving dx of ADHD.
3.149 A 7 year old child often says she doesn't wt to go to school because she is afraid some of the children in her class will be "mean" to her. She is also a perfectionist and seems overly concerned about her ability to perform well at school and in social sitns. She freqly says she has a headache or a stomachache. Based on these sxs, the best dx is:
a. Separation Anxiety (School Refusal)
b. Oppositional DO
c. GAD
d. Social Phobia
3.149 Child is displaying signs of what was once referred to as "Overanxious DO" (a childhood dx in DSM-III-R). In DSM-IV, children exhibiting generalized anxiety, like adults with this sx, rec a dx of GAD.
a. Incorrect - A dx of Sepn Anxy reqs evid. of excessive anxy concerning sepn from those to whom the child is attached. This evid. is not provided in the description given in this qn.
b. Incorrect - made up DO
c. CORRECT - GAD involves excessive worry or anxy about a no. of events or activities that the person finds difficult to control. Children w/ this DO are often perfectionistic, filled w/ self-doubt, and typically exhibit phys. signs of anxy (e.g., headaches, stomachaches)
d. Incorrect - Social Phobia is characterized by a marked and persis. fear of one or more social sitns, in which the person fears that he/she will act in a humiliating or embarrassing way. The child's fears in this case are broader than this; GAD is better dx.
3.153 According to Helms' White Identity Dvptal Model, the reintegration stage is characterized by:
a. a realization that whites have a responsibility for racism
b. adoption of a "culture-blind" perspective
c. embracing white identity while rejecting racist views of minorities
d. adopting a belief in white superiority and minority inferiority
3.153 Helms' model of White Identity Dvpt includes 6 statuses: contact, disintegration, reintegration, pseudo-independence, immersion-emersion, and autonomy.
a. Incorrect - Immersion-emersion and autonomy
b. Incorrect - any of the stages
c. Incorrect - Immersion-emersion
d. CORRECT - Disintegration phase, which is mked by consid. conflict, may be resolved by adopting traditional racist views, which characterizes the reintegration phase.
3.156 Several subcortical structures are involved in the mediation of emotion. Studies of decorticate animals suggest that the ____ is resp. for a violent rage response to even trivial stimuli:
a. hypothalamus
b. medulla
c. hippocampus
d. RAS
3.156 The limbic system (esp. the amygdala) is most assoc. w/ emotion, but other structs also play role.
a. CORRECT - the HT is good guess because involved in so many diff fns. The studies have shown that decorticate animals tend to respond to even minor stimuli w/ extreme rage as long as the HT is left intact.
b. Incorrect - Medulla involved in many vital fns incl breathing and HR
c. Incorrect - Hippo is part of limbic system, but involved more with memory than emotion
d. Incorrect - RAS mediates attn, arousal, and sleep-wake cycle
3.157 Which of the following wd be most useful when a test administrator wts to use test scores to det how much a person has learned during the course of a 6 week training program:
a. expectancy tables
b. stanine scores
c. percentile ranks
d. percentile scores
3.157 When goal of testing is to det amt of content an indiv has mastered, criterion-referenced (or content-referenced) scores are most useful.
a. Incorrect - Although expectancy table is method of criterion-referenced interpn, it is used when scores on one measure (the predr) are used to predict perf. on another measure (criterion)
b. Incorrect - Stanine scores are a norm-referenced score, which indic. an indiv's standing rel to other examinees
c. Incorrect - Percentile ranks are also norm-refed score
d. CORRECT - percentage score indics % of test content that the examinee has mastered. Assuming that the test content is a gd sample of what is taught in the training program, a % score would be useful in this sitn.
3.161 Which of the following would NOT be useful for deting whether it is more approp. to use a parametric or a nonparametric statistical test to analyze the data you collect in a research study:
a. knowing that the distribn of scores for the DV is -vely skewed
b. knowing that the scores to be analyzed have equal intervals b/w adjacent units and an absolute zero point
c. knowing that the Ss have not been randomly selected from the population
d. knowing that the purpose of the analysis is to det if an observed frequency distribn differs from an hypothesized distribn.
3.161 Use of both para and nonpara tests is based on assumption that sample has been randomly selected from population. Use of para tests also reqs that several other assumptions be met.
a. Incorrect - Suggests nonpara
b. Incorrect - Suggests para
c. CORRECT - violates assumption for both tests and so not useful for deting whether to use para or nonpara. Neither shd be used.
d. Incorrect - Indicates nonpara (chi-square test)
3.162 After a therapy group has been together for several mths, its members start criticizing the group leader for not disclosing any info about herself. Yalom, a well-known authority on group therapy, wd most likely recommend to the therapist that she:
a. explain to group members that self-disclosure on her part would be counterproductive
b. ask the members why they wt her to disclose info about herself
c. begin to self-disclose info about herself in a responsible manner
d. recognize that this is a normal stage in group therapy and ignore the criticisms
3.162 Yalom attribs tendency of therapists NOT to self-disclose to the traditional psychoanalytic belief that therapist must remain neutral ("opaque") in order to encourage dvpt of transference. Argues, however, other therapeutic factors may be important.
c. CORRECT - Yalom advocates some self-disclosure, pting out taht by self-disclosing, therapists act as role models and thereby facilitate interpersonal learning. He notes that self-disclosure must be well-time and made through a "filter of responsibility"
3.165 Which of the following is NOT characteristic of Piaget's preoperational stage of dvpt:
a. magical thinking
b. insight learning
c. finalism
d. decentration
3.165 Preoperational stage of dvpt spans period from ages 2 through 7.
a. Incorrect - Magical thinking - belief that one has magical powers, is result of egocentrism and precausal reasoning
b. Incorrect - Piaget believed that maj achivement of preop stage is insight learning (learning based on intuition)
c. Incorrect - Finalism is believe that every event has purpose and is characteristic of preop stage
d. CORRECT - in preop stage, children exhibit centration, or an inability to mentally hold 2 dims at same time. Decentration occurs in concrete op stage and contributes to ability to conserve.
3.168 From perspective of operant conditioning, which of the following techniques is most useful for combining component responses into a particular sequence:
a. stimulus generalization
b. response priming
c. shaping
d. chaining
a. Incorrect - In operant conditioning, stimulus generalization occurs when an organism responds w/ the target response to stimuli similar to the discrim. stimulus
b. Incorrect - Response priming refers to any procedure used to initiate the early steps in a sequence of responses. Although response priming can be used to initiate a behal chain, this is not best answer.
c. Incorrect - People often mix up shaping and chaining. However, in shaping, goal is end behavior; in chaining, whole string (chain) of behs is important.
d. CORRECT - chaining used to combine sequence of response in order to end up w/ a "behal chain". Chaining is considered by advocates of operant conditioning as the mechanism underlying the acquisition of at least some complex behaviors.
3.179 Use of the technique known as meta-analysis entails calculating an "effect size" which can be best defined as:
a. a statistically significant difference b/w exptal and control groups
b. a stdized mean difference b/w exptal and control groups
c. a zero-order correlation
d. a partial regn coeff.
3.179 Meta-analysis is used to describe a quantitative integration of research studies involving the calculation and aggregation of "effect size" estimates.
b. CORRECT - Although there are diff ways to calc an effect size, a commonly-used method involves subtracting the control group mean from the exptal group mean and dividing the result by either the control group std dev or the pooled within-group std dev. The result is a std score that indics the difference between the exptal and control groups in terms of SD units.
3.181 As defined by DSM-IV, "primary gain" is a goal of which of the following disorders:
a. Conversion DO
b. Factitious DO
c. Malingering
d. Hypochondriasis
3.181 As defined by DSM-IV, person achieves primary gain by keeping internal conflict or need out of awareness.
a. CORRECT - DSM-IV identifies 2 mechanisms that may be related to Conversion DO: primary gain and 2ndary gain. Primary gain is achieved through the symbolic expression of an underlying conflict in a phys. sx such as paralysis or blindness.
3.185 You go out for a drink w/ a psyc who is a co-worker of yours at a mental health clinic. After several beers, he accidentally lets it slip that he is currently having a sexual relnship w/ one of his clients. Your best course of action would be to:
a. discuss the matter with the clinic director asap
b. discuss the issue w/ the psyc. when he has not been drinking
c. make an appt w/ the client to discuss the issue w/ her
d. file a formal complaint against the psyc. with the Ethics Committee
3.185 Ethics code - any attempt at resolving a potal ethical violation by a psyc. must incl consideration of client's confidentiality.
a. Incorrect - Although this may be approp, note that it does not mention confidentiality.
b. CORRECT - most consis. with Ethics code and does not violate client's confidentiality.
c. Incorrect - Not approp since there is nothing in qn to imply that you already have therapeutic relnship with client.
3.191 The function of the state licensing boards is probably best described as:
a. ensuring that psychologists provide clients with effective services
b. ensuring that only competent psychologists become and remain licensed
c. setting entry-level qualifications for licensure and monitoring the conduct of licensed psychologists
d. defining the services that can be legitimately provided by licensed psychologists.
3.191 State licensing boards set minimum req'mts for licensure.
a. Incorrect - Although this may be desired outcome of licensing req'mts, it can't be assumed that licensure will result in provision of effective services.
c. CORRECT - most accurate description of fn of licensing boards.