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396 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
_______ is NOT mere transportation of facts from one location to another, NOT merely flipping for information, NOT catchword/phrase used to get attention
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RESEARCH
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_____ is learning about unobserved phenomena by studying and interpreting relevant data on observed phenomena
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research - a studious inquiry, a critical examination and exhaustive investigation/experimentation
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Research powers the world by discovering new information and resolving old problems ; true or false?
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true
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What is the purpose of research?
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to gain and or verify information
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Research is the _____ of all professions including dietetics; it supports practice and offers new directions, allows objective measurement of complex environments and tangible evaluation of the outcomes of procedures and treatments, and associations can be observed, hypotheses tested, programs compared, and protocols evaluated.
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backbone
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What 4 things can research procedures be used to do?
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1. document practices
2. monitor activities 3. assure quality 4. assess cost effectiveness of a program |
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_____ relates the effectiveness of reaching a program's goals to the monetary value of the resources going into a program
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cost effectiveness
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_______ can be used to determine which of two methods of intervention produces a desired outcome for less cost .
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cost-effective analysis
ex: to determine which of two methods of intervention (individual dietary counseling or group nutrition education classes) produces a desired outcome for less cost |
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The strength of a discipline, whether in health sciences or management, is associated closely with its ________. Strong research support is related to a strong profession
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research base
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________ is the integration and application of principles derived from the science of nutrition, biochemistry physiology, food management behavioral and social sciences to achieve and maintain people's health
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dietetics
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______ believes that research is the foundation of the profession providing the basis for practice, education, and policy
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Academy of nutrition and dietetics
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True or false: Dietitians are assuming an increasingly major role in research both as leaders and as collaborators; Research has impact on all areas of dietetics; dietetic and nutrition education are guided and updated of research findings
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TRUE
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An example of ____________ is The evidence-based practice related research continues to drive the future of dietetic professionals
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research in Nutrition and Dietetics
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_______ is the conscientious use of current best evidence in making decisions about the care of individual patients or the delivery of health services
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evidence -based health care
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Consumers make food choices based on___?
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specific brand and various foods
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_____tells the food manufacturer that the quality of the product is preferred over similar products in the marketplace.
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Consumer Endorsement
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______is accomplished using both sensory (subjective) and objective tests
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food evaluation
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Does NOT use human senses
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Objective Evaluation
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In sensory evaluations, trained or untrained panelists evaluate food samples for
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quality and acceptability
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Evaluation of food quality based on sensory characteristics and personal preference as perceived by the five senses is known as
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sensory evaluations
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____are performed by food scientist under a controlled environment – planning, preparation, testing, and documentation.
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in house testing
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The purposes of in house testing:
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1.To develop product formulations that will be successful in the marketplace.
2.Another reason for conducting In-house Testing is to provide guidance for product improvement. 3.To measure the acceptability of a product by staff or selected individuals, but this can not be extrapolated to the general public |
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1.Informal groups of about of 4 – 12
2.Typical consumers who fit the specific demographic characteristics of interest to a food product/company. This describes______ |
focus groups
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Focus group testing provides _____?
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valuable sensory information related to potential consumers’ acceptance of a specific product
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A Test conducted in an open market to assess if a product to be released into the general market will be purchased, discontinue; or modified prior to massive production/marketing
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market testing
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Food industries rely primary on ____?
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sensory evaluations for consumers acceptability and willingness to purchase a new food product
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A carefully selected panel evaluate food products using a scoring system based on various characteristics that can be judge using the senses.
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Sensory Evaluation
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What are the 5 sensory senses?
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Sight
Odor Taste Touch (feel) Hearing |
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the sense of smell involves the detection and perception of chemicals floating in the air.
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olfaction
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Individuals trained in taste perception can distinguish as
many as ______ odors |
10,000 odors
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is the body's system of smell; capable of detecting odors
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olfactory system
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are important cue to the acceptability of food before it enters the mouth
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odors (smell)
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are volatile Molecules, capable of evaporating like a gas into the air
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odors
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As the volatile chemical molecules enter the nose, they then :
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dissolve in mucous within a membrane (the olfactory epithelium).
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Volatile compounds can be brought into contact with the oral receptors by :
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1. Sniffing a food or its headspace
2. Swallowing the food (which creates a partial vacuum that draws the volatiles into the nose from [he oral cavity) 3. Deliberately exhaling sharply after swallowing the food. |
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Exhaling vigorously through the nose immediately after swallowing is particularly important in detecting ______
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aftertaste.
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is the aromatic message of flavor impression that lingers in the mouth after the food is gone
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Aftertaste
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If aftertaste is a concern in a product, it should be included on the scorecard as a____?
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separate attribute for evaluation
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2 classifications of the olfactory system are?
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1. 6 groupings: Spicy, flowery, fruity, resinous, burnt, & foul
2. 4 groupings: Fragrant (sweet), acid (sour), burnt, caprylic (goaty) |
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Regardless of the classifications, most odors are detected at _______
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a very low concentrations.
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The ability to distinguish between various odors diminishes over the time of exposure to the smells - called ______
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adaptation
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Lack of ability to smell is ______
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Anosomia
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Decreased ability to smell is _____
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Hyposmia
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"hallucinated smell", often unpleasant in nature is_____
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Phantosmia
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Things smell differently than they should is______
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Dysosmia
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Additional information is contributed by the olfactory receptors when food is in the mouth is known as
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flavor
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sensory message resulting from a blend of taste and smell when food is in the mouth
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flavor
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Gustatory receptors, located on the_____, they specialize in detecting tastes.
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tongue
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Approximately 10,000 taste buds are found in the _____ of the tongue; and these are the means by the taste of foods are perceived
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papillae
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The are group of gustatory receptors; tight dusters of gustatory and supportive cells encircling a pore, usually in the upper surface of the tongue; organs capable of detecting sweet, sour. salt, and/or bitter.
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taste buds
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Are rough protuberances bulges or in the surface of the tongue, some of which contain taste buds
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papillae
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Mushroom-like protuberances, often containing taste buds and located on the sides and tip of the tongue
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Fungiform Papillae
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These are large protuberances always containing taste buds and distinguish easily because they form a "V" near the back of the tongue.
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The Circumvallate Papillae
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_____imparted by compounds such as caffeine (tea, coffee, theobromine (chocolate) & etc
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bitter taste
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_____comes from ionized salts such as NaCl or other salts found naturally in some foods
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salty taste
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Taste resulting from acid
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sourness
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Flavor is determined by a combined action of the_____, _______, and ______.
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taste buds, the olfactory receptors, and the mouth cavity of the diner
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taste buds, the olfactory receptors, and the mouth cavity of the diner together are known as the ___
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trigeminal cavity.
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Sensation of cooling (e.g. menthol, mint) or hot (e.g. cinnamon or clove) in back of our throats is not part of ‘taste’ but a response to stimulus in the _________
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trigeminal nerve
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Trigeminal nerve is the ___th cranial nerve
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5
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There are two basic types of sensation:
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touch/position and pain/temperature
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Responsible for sensation in the face
The fifth nerve is primarily a sensory nerve, but it also has certain motor functions (biting, chewing, and swallowing) |
Trigeminal Nerve
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_______is perceived as a savory taste
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umami
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a puckery taste sensation in the mouth created tannins and various polyphenols compounds
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astringent
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Compounds such as _________ and related compounds can serve as flavor enhancers and are sometimes added to savory product formulation.
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Monosodium glutamate (MSG)
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_______are compounds that seem to improve food flavor without contributing a specific identifiable taste
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Flavor enhancers
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____ enhances the flavor of other compounds without adding its own unique flavor.
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Flavor potentiator
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The interactions of various flavoring compounds can react synergistically with Flavor Potentiator to provide a flavor experience greater than that of one compound alone such as:
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Monosodium glutamate (MSG)
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______block the taste sites - preventing the normal taste response to a particular taste
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Flavor Inhibitors
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effectively inhibits flavor and synergistically promote sweetness
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Monoammonium glycerrhizinate (a derivative of licorice)
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Compounds such as ________ create feelings of coolness and heat in the mouth
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inosine 5’-monophosphate
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____contributes a fell of cool in the mouth, as well as some sugar alcohols or polyols
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menthol, or peppermint
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_____Includes Capsaicin and related compounds are responsible for the fiery quality of chili and other peppers
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Capsainoids
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_______in mustard and horseradish contribute pungency and cause flavor excitement.
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Glucosinolates (sulfur-containing compounds)
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Factors affecting taste:
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1. Age
2. Temperature of food 3. genetic variations among individuials 4.variety in available food 5. smoking |
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_______ taste perceptions are more intense because of the additional taste buds in their cheeks and the hard and soft palates.
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infants and children
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As we age, the number of functioning taste buds decrease significantly as a result of _______?
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atrophy
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The elderly have only about_______ as many functioning taste buds as they had in early adulthood.
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half
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To perceive the basic tastes, the compounds imparting these tastes need to be in an ______.
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aqueous solution.
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_____ is perceived at the tip of the tongue
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Sweetness/saltiness
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_______ is detected most readily on the sides of the tongue
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Sourness
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_________ is detected at the back of the tongue
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Bitterness
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___________ is the concentration of a solution at which taste can be noted , various between individuals,
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taste threshold
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The lowest limit of detection of the presence of a stimulus or the level at which taste is correctly identified
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taste threshold
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__________Represents a concentration at which the taste of a compound is not detectable but its presence can influence other taste perceptions
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taste sub-threshold level
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The first cues a person receives about a food – this includes: Shapes, colors, consistency, serving size, and the presence of any outward defect
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sight/visual receptors
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Sensory Attributes of food include:
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aroma
appearance flavor texture |
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The appearance of a food is evaluated on the basis of several subcategories - most important is ____
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color
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_______is measured objectively, sensory evaluation of this is important for product acceptability and it is one of the attributes included on sensory evaluation scorecards
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color
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Foods are evaluated on the basis of the desirable surface features – a characteristic contributing to the appearance, as well as ______
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interior color
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Interior color or other attributes are judged accurately by _______
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cutting a clean slice from top to bottom using a sharp knife
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___________of foods is usually considered important, particularly if the food is served hot or warm.
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The odor or aroma
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Aroma volatility is related to the _______
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temperature of the food.
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_____can be evaluated by sniffing a food or its headspace
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Aroma
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When aroma is a factor in sensory testing, this characteristic should be evaluated at _______
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the temperature the food is served or eaten
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____represents the composite assessment of taste and the blend of odor in the mouth
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flavor
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______ foods tend to mask subtle taste and odor evaluation.
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Hot (spicy)
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The best temperature at which most food flavor is at the optimum is________
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20ºC to 30ºC (68ºF to 86ºF)
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It involves the sense of touch, whether it operates inside the mouth or through the fingers and conveys consistency, astringency, and temperature
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texture
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_______, which is somewhat dependent on texture, is judged by how easily the food gives way to the pressure of the teeth.
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Tenderness
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_____perception occurs when food is chewed or beverages are swallowed
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Texture
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__________is only slightly different from tenderness, and is expressed in terms of brittleness, chewiness, viscosity, thickness, thinness, and elasticity (rubbery, gummy).
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consistency
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________which causes puckering of the mouth, is possibly due to the drawing out of proteins naturally found in the mouth's saliva and mucous membranes
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astringency
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This is the textural qualities of a food perceived in the mouth
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mouthfeel
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Tenderness can be evaluated in some foods by reporting the ___________
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“number of chew”
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________Are a group of sensory taste panel selected from people who happen to be available at a test site and are willing to participate.
May range from 200 – 500 people |
consumer panel
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These are people with no former training regarding taste testing, including the use of the scorecard and evaluation of the various product characteristics.
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untrained panel
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______is the The Sensory panel has had limited training experience with regards to product taste testing (requires between 8 – 25 judges)
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semi-trained panel
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________ is the Sensory panel who have been given thorough trained regarding the use of the scorecards and evaluation of the various characteristics of food.
Requires between 3 – 10 judges |
trained panel
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_________issue guidelines for the physical requirements of a lab designed for sensory evaluation of food.
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The American Society of Testing and Material
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Samples should be labeled with random ____ codes to avoid bias
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3-digit
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________means that if 2 samples are served, half of the subjects receive one sample first and the other half receive the other sample first
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Counterbalanced order
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Sensory tests can be broadly divided into 2 categories including:
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1. analytical tests
2. affective tests |
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__________ is up-to-date information from relevant, valid research about the effects of different forms of health care, the potential for harm from exposure to particular agents, the accuracy of diagnostic tests and the predictive power of prognostic factors
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current best evidence
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_________ is an approach to decision-making in which clinician uses the best evidence available, in consultation with the patient, to decide upon the option which suits that patient best
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evidence based clinical practice
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_____ is the conscientious, explicit and judicious use of current best evidence in making decisions about the care of individual patients
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evidence based medicine
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the practice of _________ mean integrating individual clinical expertise with the best available external clinical evidence form systematic research
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evidence based medicine
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What are the organizations using evidence based research? (4)
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1. state and federal government agencies
2. professional associations 3. purchasers of health care 4. regulatory organizations |
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ADA evidence analysis library, cochrane database of systemic review , US Dept of health and human services, agency for healthcare and research and quality , and national guideline clearing house Wed sites are known as ?
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valuable evidence based health related research sites
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according to AND ___________________ is the use of systematically review scientific evidence in making food and nutrition practice decisions by integrating best available evidence with professional expertise and client values to improve outcomes.
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evidence based dietetics
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Why is evidence based research important to dietetic professionals?
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it is a major core competency in all practice settings and specialties
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______ contains the best available evidence, the results of peer reviewed scientific studies (when possible), and if science is lacking, it uses expert opinion and experience
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ADA evidence Analysis library - evidence based research
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Who as access to AND's EAL?
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everyone can access the list of topics and questions, but the links to the questions/conclusion and supporting evidence (search plans and results, evidence summaries, overview tables, etc) are only accessible by EAL subscribers and AND members
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Who is involved in guideline development?
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workgroups (practitioners and researchers)
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What are the 5 steps used in developing the AND EAL?
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1. formulate the questions
2. analyze each article 3. assess study quality of information 4. synthesize evidence from all studies 5. assess strength of evidence from all studies (Assign grade) |
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_____ step : the workgroup specifies a question in a defined area of practice; or state a tentitive conclusion or recommendation that is being considered - include the patient type and special needs of the target population involved, the alternatives under consideration, and the outcomes of interest
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step 1: formulate the question
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____ step: work groups conduct a systematic search of the literature to find evidence related to the question, gather studies and reports, and classify them by type of evidence
classess differentiate primary reports of new data according to study design, and distinguish them from reports that are a systematic review and syntheiss of primary rreports Classes used by AND are A,B,C, D, M, R, and X |
step 2: gather and classify evidence reports
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____ step: review each report for relevance to the question and critique for scientific validity ; abstract key information from the research article and report it on the online worksheet; answer the questions in the quality criteria checklist and assign a code to indicate the quality of the study; ADA uses positive, negative, neutral or not assessed
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Step 3: critically appraise each report
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____ step: combine findings from all reports into a narritive evidence summary and/ or an overview table that summaries the relavent information from each article work sheet and allows for comparisons across articles
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step 4: summarize evidence in a narrative form and an overview table
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____ step: Arrive at a concise conclusion statement (the answer to the question) , take into account the synthesis of all relevant studies and reports, their class and their quality ratings ; grade is assign to indicate overall strength or weakness of evidence informing the conclusion statement
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step 5: develop a conclusion statement and Grade the strength of evidence supporting the conculsion
AND uses grades I, II, and III for strong fair and weak; Grade IV designates expert opinion only and Grade V indicates not assignable (bc there is no evidence that directly supports or refutes the question ) |
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___________ is when each topic is annually researched and changes are based on quantity and qulity of new informaiton by specific work groups ; if revision is unwarrented the new research is recorded dated and saved until the next review;
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evidence ananlysis library revision
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EAL guidelines under go "complete revision" every ______
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3-5 years
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What are 3 other helath care evidence analysis ?
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1. cochraine data base of systemic reviews
2. us dept of health and human services, agency for healthcare research and quality 3. national guideline clearing house web sites |
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Descriptive and Discriminatory Tests are categorized as affective testing of analytical?
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Analytical testing
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Hedonic/Preference Testing is affective or analytical?
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affective
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Test used to detect differences
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difference/discriminatory test
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(used to “quantify” differences)
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Descriptive Tests
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test (rating to pleasure)
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Hedonic Test
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test in which selecting the preferred sample is used
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Preference Tests
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Used to evaluate the acceptability of a new product at the early stage of product development
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single sample test
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Form of Paired Comparison Tests – Test to detect the differences between two samples
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difference test
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requesting panelist to taste two samples and respond if the samples are identical or different
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simple test
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Types of difference tests
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Paired comparison
Duo-trio Triangle Ranking order tests |
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A test where A control sample marked “R” is presented to the judge; followed by 2 samples (control and experimental samples).
Judges are then asked to identify which product is the closest or similar to “R” |
duo-trio test
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A test where Three samples are presented to a judge simultaneously
The judges is asked to identify the odd sample out of the 3 samples 33.3% chance of being right. |
Triangle test
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___is valuable when several samples need to be evaluated for single attribute.
In this test, the samples are ranked in the order of intensity |
rank-order test
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A test used to find the minimal detectable level of a substance
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dilution
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Descriptive Test include ______ and __________ profiles
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Flavor Profile
Texture Profile |
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These panel are thoroughly trained to analyze flavor in extremely great detail
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A Descriptive Flavor Analysis Panel (DFAP)
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______is used as a means of maintaining exact flavor quality over a long production periods so that one year's product will have same flavor as the subsequent years
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profiling
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The simplest affective tests is the _________
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Paired Preference Tests
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A test where Two samples are presented, but instead of selecting the sample with the greater amount of a characteristic, the tester expresses a preference for one of two samples
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paired preference test
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______is commonly used to measure the degree of pleasure experienced with samples, 9 pt scale
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Hedonic rating scales
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A scorecard that contains simple drawings of a face, with expression altered slightly from one picture to the next .
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hedonic "smiley" scale
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All scorecards should contain what information?
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date and the name (code #) of the judge
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____refers to the degree of excellence of all characteristics of a food product that are significant and make food acceptable
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food quality
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Evaluations of food quality that rely on numbers generated by laboratory instruments, which are used to quantify the physical and chemical differences in foods.
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objective testing
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The 2 major types of objective evaluation tests are
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physical
chemical |
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________measure certain observable aspects of food such as size, shape, weight, volume, density, moisture, texture, and viscosity
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physical tests
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Many are based on the work of the Association of Official Analytical Chemistry (AOAC), including those for determining various nutrients and non-nutritive substances in foods
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chemical tests
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Peroxide Value and Iodine number are examples of
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objective testing
|
|
Volume of firm foods can be measured using:
|
Displacement methods (Seed Displacement)
Index to Volume |
|
This is a method for estimating the volume a solid product such as baked goods
Samples are prepared by weighing comparable amounts of dough or batter of each product to be baked for the test. |
Seed displacement
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_______convenient machine used in measuring volume of baked products.
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volumeter
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This is a direct means of comparing volume by measuring the circumference of a cross section of the product
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index to volume
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An engineering tool designed to measure distance as its pointer traced around a pattern.
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planimeter
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The concentration of matter is measured by the amount of mass per unit volume
|
density
|
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This test compares the weight of a substance with the weight of an equal volume of water.
A ratio of the density of a food (or other substance) to that of water. |
Specific gravity
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The juiciness of raw meats, poultry, and fish can be measured using a __________
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succulometer
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_______is based on the ability of a product to absorb moisture of liquid during a controlled period of time.
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wettability
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______can be used to determine the moisture content of food products.
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oven drying
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A quick and fast way to determine moisture content of food by water titration.
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Karl Fischer Titration
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Device for measuring the force required to shear a sample of meat or other food with measurable tensile strength
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Warnmer-Bratzler
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An objective testing method that measures compressibility, extrusion, and shear of food samples
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shear press
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_______measures the firmness or compressibility of porous baked products.
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compress meter
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________is suitable for measuring the texture of gel and many baked products
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penetrometer
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____tests the comparative tenderness of gels.
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% sag
|
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____Measures the tenderness of fairly crisp foods such crisp cookies and crackers.
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shortometer
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A multipurpose instrument capable of measuring different aspect of texture including compressibility of bread and the force required to break cookies or to shear a piece of meat.
|
Universal Testing Machine (Instron)
|
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Measures and depicts gluten development during the mixing of batters and doughs.
|
Farinograph
|
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It is a simulation device that measures physical textural properties of foods -- such as hardness, cohesiveness, and crushability.
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texturometer
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Measures comparative tenderness of meat and other foods by stimulating chewing action of the jaw (Mimics jaw actions).
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Masticometer
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_________is the study of flow of matter (viscosity) and the deformations that result from flow.
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rheology
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________is the resistance of a fluid to flowing freely, caused by the friction of its molecules against a surface.
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viscosity
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Liquids can be classified into 2 groups:
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newtonian
non-newtonian |
|
_____have viscosity that are independent of the shear rate – e. g. water wine, sugar syrups
|
newtonian liquids
|
|
meaning that the consistency or viscosity depends on the amount of shear stress applied.
|
Non-newtonian
|
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_____refers to the ability of a gel to become more fluid with increased shear and then regain its previous viscosity quickly after shear rate is decreased as seen in chocolate.
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Thixotropic
|
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Simple device for measuring spreading or flow of semisolid foods.
It involves filling a reservoir with the sample to be tested |
Bostwick Consistometer
|
|
____is another piece of objective equipment for measuring consistency.
Used to determine the viscosity of starch pastes at controlled, selective temperature. |
Amylograph
|
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____________test measures the flow of a viscous liquid or semisolid foods by determining the spread of a measured amount of sample in a specified length of time at 90º intervals on the template of concentric rings.
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line-spread
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________is an objective testing device for measuring viscosity of liquids that flow, measures on the basis of rotational resistance or capillary action
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viscometer
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_______is a sophisticated instrument that may be used to measure viscosity under control temperature and when the sample is subjected to shearing forces of different magnitude.
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Brookfield Viscometer
|
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________is a special viscometer similar to pipette used to test the viscosity of pectin-containing juices to determine the amount of added pectin needed for gelling fruit juices to make jams and jellies.
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jelmeter
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_______group that established a system of measuring color, degree of saturation, and brightness
|
CIE: is the Commission Internationale de L’Eclairage
|
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______identifies colors on the basis of hues, value, and chroma, using numerical scale
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Munsell System
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_____is also used in measuring color under the CIE system (saves time
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Spectrophotometer
|
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This objective test machine is capable of measuring color differences between samples by utilizing the CIE or Munsell color system.
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color-difference meter
|
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________is another valuable tool to depict information about cell texture.
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photographs
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The most acceptable methods used in food analysis are those published by the _______
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Association of Official Analytical Chemists (AOAC, 2002).
|
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______is used to determines the ionization potential of a solution.
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pH
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_______are used to determine the sugar concentration of a solution.
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refractometers
|
|
________is a hydrometer scale designed to indicate the percentage concentration of sugar in sugar solution.
|
brix scale
|
|
_______is used in analyzing the sodium content of foods.
|
Flame photometry
|
|
______ is analyzed using electronic nose
|
Aroma
|
|
________can be conducted using Gas-liquid chromatograph (GLC) and High-pressure liquid chromatograph (HPLC).
|
flavor analysis
|
|
Association of Official Analytical Chemists (AOAC) specifies the acceptable method for _________-
|
proximate analysis
|
|
_____ included in whole wheat flour but more often removed and used in animal or poultry feed; of the nutrients in whole wheat ____ in addaddition to indigestible cellulose material contains niacin, pyridozine, pantothenic acid, riboflavin and protein
|
the bran
|
|
____ is the source of white flour; of the nutrients in the whole kernel the ____ contains protein, pantothenic acid, riboflavin, niacin, and thiamine
|
the endosperm
|
|
the embryo or sprouting known as ______ is usually separated because it contains fats which limits the keeping quality of flours; available separately as human food, but usually added to animal or poultry feed ; of the nutrients in whole wheat, it contains thiamine, riboflavin, pyridoxine, protein, pantothenic acid and niacin
|
the germ
|
|
______ refers to the fine particles of wheat (or other grains) produced from milling
|
flour; when flour is made out of grain other than wheat flour, the name of the grain always precede the word "flour"
|
|
The production of wheat flour involves grinding and refining cereal grains by a process called milling which includes ____ and _____
|
tempering and grinding
|
|
____ involves steam treatment, a prelude to grinding ; a means of facilitating removal of bran layers
|
tempering
|
|
_____ brakes up the kernel intro moderately small pieces
|
grinding
|
|
_____ is made from wheat with much of the bran and shorts of the endosperm
|
Whole wheat
Shorts are the layer just inside the outer brain layer |
|
White wheat is refined further by ______
|
extraction
|
|
_____ refers to the removal of bran and shorts during milling of wheat
|
extraction
|
|
________ is accomplished by sifting or air classifications, allowing the bran to be directed out of the system for subsequent processing and packaging as bran or shorts
|
extraction
|
|
after extraction the remaining endosperm and germ are passed through reducing rollers; a process which __________________ and _______________
|
press the germ into flakes
and break endosperm into very fine particles |
|
germ and endoserperm are separated by _____
|
sifting
|
|
____ promotes the removal of the germ which could promote rancidity
|
sifting
|
|
a variety of flour could be made by ______ and ______
|
milling and removing the bran and shorts
|
|
The character of the flours is altered by the amount of the _____ and _____
|
total flour and protein content
|
|
What is the order from highest percent content to lowest of pastry (soft) , cake (soft) , gluten, whole wheat (hard) , all-purpose, Durrum wheat (hard), bread (hard)?
|
gluten
whole wheat durrum wheat bread all-purpose pastry cake |
|
As _____ increases, so does the hardness of the flour
|
protein
|
|
flour made using only a small portion of the total stream is _____ or _____
|
extra short or fancy patent flour
|
|
_____ is flour made using only a small portion of the total stream of flour (extra short or fancy patent flour)
|
cake flour
|
|
______ is wheat flour high in starch and low in protein, produced using the very fine particles of flour from the center of the endosperm
|
short-patent flour
|
|
_____ is wheat flour made from 95-100% of flour stream ; high in protein content (bread flour)
|
long patent flour
|
|
Different type of wheat flours are available and their compositions are defined by what 3 things?
|
1. variety of wheat
2. part of the wheat grain used 3. selection of flour streams and the blending |
|
__________ is made form the entire wheat kernel including the bran, germ and endosperm ; it is high in fat, fiber, and protein - if the flour has been bleached, it must be labeled as such; less shelf life because of rancidity (fat component of germ may be hydrolyzed and become rancid) ; must be refrigerated during storage
|
whole wheat flour (known as graham flour)
|
|
_______ is multipurpose flour made from hard wheat or a mixture of hard and soft wheat ; contains about 10.5 percent protein; used in making cookies, pastries, and quick breads
|
all-purpose flour
|
|
____ made from hard wheat long patent flour; protein level of about 11.8%
|
bread flour
|
|
_____ made from wheat , short, and medium patent flour; protein level 9.7% ; tailored specifically for making tender product
|
pastry flour
|
|
______ is considered a semi mix or short cut to baking because of its formulation - both leavening and salt are added, used in making quick breads, not used for pastry ad other unleavened products or for yeast breads in which yeast is used as leavener
|
self rising flour
|
|
_______ is produced by passing wheat flour through moist air, causing it to agglomerate (stick together) ; the agglomerated flour can then be dried to produce small pellets (sand like granules) that neither pack nor contain fine dust of flour particles ; easily blends with water and does not require sifting ; the use is limited becasue it does not does not develop gluten readily - particularly breads
|
instant flour
|
|
____ flour is a specialty wheat flour made by adding vital wheat gluten to increase the protein level to about 41 % ; used occasionally in commercial breads in which a very high protein content is desired
|
gluten flour
|
|
______ is dried crude gluten (concentrated protein from wheat) added to flour to bring the protein level up to about 41% ; bread made with this is chewy, tough, but very palatable
|
vital wheat gluten
|
|
freshly milled flour has yellow color, contributed by ______________ ; unsuitable for baking
|
carotenoid pigment
|
|
Wheat flour is modified by _____ and ______
|
bleaching and aging
|
|
______ is exposure of freshly milled flour to air for several weeks; the pigment is ____, resulting in flour with the desirbale white color
|
bleaching
|
|
______ could be hastened by treating freshly milled flour with a small amount of chemical agent
|
bleaching
|
|
______ is a food additive that is approved by the FDA for bleaching the xanthophylls in refined flours; it does not have any adverse affect on baking
|
benzoyl peroxide
|
|
_____________ is a chemical process used to alter the physical behavior of flour protein by modifiying some of the sulfhydryl groups to disulfide linkages; agents include:
chlorine, acetone peroxide and azodicarbonamid |
aging (maturing)
|
|
_____ alters the ability of the flour proteins to stretch and dough made with chemically ____ flour exhibit reduced extensibility
|
aging
|
|
What is the effect of refinement on nutrients?
|
loss of nutrients leads to enrichment and fortification
|
|
The federal government now requires the enrichement of wheat with what ?
|
Thiami, Riboflavin, niacin, folic acid, and iron
|
|
____ are present in limited amount in wheat flour; primarily in the germ and they are variable
|
lipids
|
|
the highest level of ______ in whole wheat are lecitin , glycolipids, and cephalins
|
lipids ; moisture is approximately 12% mositure by weight
|
|
______ in wheat flour is composed of start is the most abundant component of flours (approx 80% of total wt) and exist primarly in the endosperm; amylopectin to amylose ratio is 3:1
|
CHO
|
|
_____ contains hundreds of glucose units in highly branched chains , Each new molecule needs a special protein for the attachment of the first glucose
|
glycogen molecule
|
|
____ is a small proportion of wheat proteins in flour including B-amylase attacks 1,4 - alpha- glucosidic linkages
|
enzymes
|
|
______ becomes denatured at a temperature above 50 ' C
|
b- amylase
|
|
______ is halted at the point of the branch chain in amylopectin where it encounters a 1,6, - alpha- glucosidic linakge; it creates smaller amylyopectin type compounds called limited dextrins
|
B-amylase
|
|
_____ may be added to improve dough handling properties for use in commerical baking
|
fungal a-amylase
|
|
During storage, free fatty acids are formed due to the action of ______ - breaking lipid to glyceride + free fatty acid
|
lipases
|
|
____ contains hundreds of glucose molecules in eitehr occasionally brached chains (amylopectin) or unbranced chains
|
starch molecules
|
|
_____ causes the development of oxidative rancidity in whole wheat flours and whole grains during storage; this enzyme catalyses the formation of peroxides in unsaturated fatty acids
|
lipoxidase
|
|
_____ is present in samll amounts compared to starch in flour ; the small amount plays a key role in the structure of baked products
|
protein
|
|
The two proteins present in flour include?
|
soluble proteins (albumins and globulins) and gluten (glutenin and gliadin)
|
|
What are the dough forming proteins?
|
gliadin and glutenin
|
|
_______ the protein portion of wheat flour with the elastic characteristics necessary for the structure of most baked products
|
gluten
|
|
_____ protein complex is formed when fliadin and flutenin moistened with water and manipulated by stirring beating or kneading
|
gluten
|
|
gluten develops more _____ when hard wheat such as bread flour is manipulated and it can be manipulated longer without breaking the gluten strand
|
slowly
|
|
flour made of ______ develop gluten rapidly but the protein breaks more quickly
|
soft wheat
|
|
______ is to work the dough into an elastic mass by psuhing stretching and folding
|
knead
|
|
gluten develops with manipulation and the rate of development depends on some factors including ?
|
the type of flour, temperature, and added substances (such as fat, sugar and the ratio of liquid)
|
|
______ is an objective testing equipment that measures the resistance of stirring rods moving through a batter or dough and records the result graphically ; it measures and depicts gluten development during mixing of batters and dough
|
farinograph - gluten testing
|
|
_______ increases the rate of gluten development; as the ____ of the dough increases, the rate of hydration of the protein is acccelerated, resulting in a change rate of gluten development
|
temperature
|
|
____ retards gluten development; because of its hygrospoic nature, it tends to compete for water with protein, reducing the rate of hydration and slow the rate of gluten development
|
sugar
|
|
_____ inhibits gluten development by coating the surface of gluten thereby preventing hydration ; as a lubricant it reduces the ability of gluten strands to stick together, preventing the network of gluten formation
|
fat
|
|
the ______ the ratio of flour to liquid the greater the promotion of gluten development (ex Muffin recipe)
|
higher ratio
ex: ratio 1:1 prevents gluten formation |
|
Flours can be milled from any cereal grains including rye, triticale, rice, corn, oats, potato, quinoa , and soy; true or false
|
true
|
|
Flour other than wheat flour are often referred to as ______
|
composite flour
|
|
_____ proteins lack the ability to develop the necessary plasticity and elasticity needed to produce the texture desired in baked products ; lack the ability to develop gluten as seen in wheat gluten
|
composite flour
|
|
_____ closely resembles wheat flour, the proteins include glutenin and gliadin but cannot be manipulated into gluten complex with sufficient elasticity to produce light textured baked products; this bread is very heavy; formula of a ratio of 1:4 wheat to ___ flour is desirbale to create a more porous lighter bread
|
rye
|
|
_______ is obtaied from a hybrid produced by corssing wheat and rye; has some of the characteristics of wheat and rye; nutrition merit is high protein and higher lysine content compared to wheat flour; not suiteable for baking because of poor textural acceptability ; as potention for satisfactory use when combined with wheat flour or use with dough conditioners
|
triticale flour
|
|
_____ it is a naturally gluten free flour and could be added to wheat flour for making baked products ; baked products from this flour are important to people who have an allergy to gluten
|
rice flour
|
|
_____ similar to rice flour; supplement with wheat flour in making corn bread
|
corn flour
|
|
_____ are tuber, not a grain, but can be used to produce flour, flakes or granules ; cooked ____ have been dried and ground to yield this flour
|
potato flour
|
|
_____ in potato flour increases loaf volume- this is why liquid from cooked potatoes is used in homemade breads
|
starch
|
|
however, _____ does not form gluten, therefore sufficient amount of wheat flour must be added to potato flour when used in baking
|
potatoes
|
|
________ is higher in protein than other flowers because its source, is a legume
|
soy flour
|
|
______ is high in lysine which allows it to complement wheat flour proteins (wheat flower is low in lysine but higher in methinonine)
|
soy flour
|
|
____ provides both protein and starch to strengthen the structure of baked products when used in combination with wheat flour; low gluten capacity therefore lacks the cohesive and elastic qualities of gluten
|
soy flour
|
|
soy flour provides both _____ and _____ to strengthen the structure of baked products when used in combination with wheat flour ; they are added to many baked products at levels of 3 and 6% (higher levels exhibit distinctive flavor of soybeans) ; when used, increase liquid level (add liquid at weight for weight basis) the proofing time is long when soy flour is partially substituted for wheat flour in a bread recipe
|
soy flour
|
|
______ is the basic structural component of most batter and dough products (gliadin + glutenin + liquid = gluten) ; formation of gluten allows expansion of cells and provides structural rigidity to baked goods
|
wheat flour
|
|
______ gelatinizes in water, contributing to the change from fluid batter/dough to the firm and rigid like structure of baked foods; CHO serves as food for yeast during fermentaiton ; CHO participates in the browning of the crust (maillard reaction)
|
Flour Starch
|
|
Liquid is required in flour mixtures to ________ and _______ the starch
|
hydrate and gelatinize
|
|
_____ serves as solvent for the dry ingredients, activates the yeast, serves as source steam during baking and for leavening - allowing baking powder/soda to react and produce carbon dioxide gas
|
liquid
|
|
_____ in liquid form hydrate flour protein to form gluten and other solid ingreidents
|
water
|
|
What foods are used as sources of liquid in baked products?
|
water, milk, fruit juices, coffee molasses, eggs and other liquid
|
|
____ is usually recommended over water in baking because it improves the overall quality of the baked product; in addition to contributing water, milk adds flavor and nturients and contains certain compounds that help produce a velvety texture, a creamy white crumb , and a browner crust. ** as a reducing sugar, the lactose in milk participates in the maillard reaction
|
milk
|
|
______ is never used in hydrating yeast because the fat content of ____ could have adverse effect on yeast growth
|
milk
|
|
_______ lowers the pH of batters and doughs; may alter the flavor and modify the solubility of the gluten protein
|
fruit juices
|
|
________ may result in a very moist baked item with low volume
|
excess liquid
|
|
________ may produce a dry baked product that is low in volume and stales quickly
|
too little liquid
|
|
Why are eggs added to some flour mixtures?
|
1. contribute liquid to a dough or batter during mixing and in baking
2. enhance structural integrity - coagulation of egg protein contributes to the structural integrity of the finished product and reduces tenderness 3. egg yolks serve as emulsifyting agent - lecithin , a phospholipid 4. increases nutritional content by supplying protein and vitamins |
|
_______ contributes to leavening - incorporating air ,which create small cell that expand during baking
|
eggs
|
|
eggs contribute to ____ and ____ as well
|
color -light color baked products
and flavor |
|
What function do fat perform in baked goods?
|
tenderness, color, flavor, texture, volume, emulsification, delay of staling
|
|
_______ interferes with gluten development (shortening power) creating a more tender crumb and products
|
fat tenderness
|
|
butter, margarine and colored shortening add color to baked goods
|
true
|
|
_____ carry multitudes and add a variety of flavor to food products
|
fats
|
|
______ create a smooth mouth-feel associated with moistness in baked goods, flakiness of the pastry
|
fat
|
|
_________: shortenings with added mono- and di-glycerdies favor the development of fine texture in cakes because of the emulsifying action of these two agents
|
emulsifier
|
|
_____ delyas stalling in final baked product
|
fat
|
|
What does sugar contribute to baked goods?
|
sweetness, color, tenderness, moistnress, volume, apperance, and kcal
|
|
________ brown of the crust as a result of caramelization and sugar-amine reaciton known as Maillard reaction
|
browning effect
|
|
________ : retarding gluten development during mixing
|
tenderizing agent
|
|
_______: hygroscopic, or water -retaining nature of sugar increases moistness and tenderness and also help delay stalling ; therefore improving shelf life of baked products
|
moistness
|
|
__________ allows gluten more time to stretch and increase volume ; helps delay stalling
|
sugar: raising gelatinization temperature
|
|
______ increases the volume by incorporating air into fat during creaming; contibutes to volume by providing food for the yeast
|
sugar contributes to volume
|
|
_______ is added to flour mixtures for flavoring, produces a firmer dough, improves volume, texture improvement, creates evenness of cell structure, prolongs shelf-life
|
salt
|
|
In the production of yeast breads ______ inhibits yeast growth
|
salt ; without salt, fermentation would be too rapid and result in a sticky difficult to handle dough
|
|
______ plays a large role in firming the dough by adjusting the solubility and swelling capacity of the gluten
|
salt
|
|
while salt is beneficial in baked goods, _______ can inhibit yeast activity, reduce the amount of carbon dioxide gas produced and decrease the volume of loaf
|
too much salt
|
|
________ contribute significantly to the textural properties of baked products by expanding the batter or dough during mixing and always during baking
|
leavening agents
|
|
although flour mixtures can rise with the physical help of air and steam, most of the leavening is accomplished by _______ produced from either biological or chemical sources
|
carbon dioxide gas
|
|
_______ may be physical, biological or chemical
|
leaveners
|
|
___ and ____ are physical leavening agents that help dough to rise
|
air and steam
|
|
_______ is a more effective leavening agent than air, because of its ability to increase volume exceedingly (1600 folds) as water is concerted to steam compared to air, which expands volume by 1/273 for each degree celsius of temperature increases; popover and cream puffs rely on _____ for this leavening
|
steam
|
|
_____ is a preferred leavening agent in foam cakes, espeically angel food cakes, egg white foams contribute a large volume of ___ to the batter ,which creates the velvety nature of the cake
|
air
|
|
_____ is trapped more effectively in batter containing solid fat compared to those with oil ; hydrogenated lard retains mroe air for leavening than does butter
|
air
|
|
Regardless of the type of fat used, ____________ is provided by steam than air
|
greater leavening
|
|
_________ a gas that provides very effective leavening in baked products - sources biological or chemical source
|
carbon dioxide
|
|
_____ is produced in breads in the process of fermentation
|
CO2
|
|
What are the two types of fermentaiton?
|
yeast and bacteria
|
|
______ contributes to the produciton of carob dioxide
|
yeast fermentaiton
|
|
_____ also contributes a desirable, slighlty sour flavor to certain baked products
|
bacteria
|
|
________ is a biological agent responsible for leavening ; is a microscopic unicellular fungi (such as saccharomyces cerevisiae) which reproduces rapidly under suitable conditions of food, warmth, and moisture.
|
yeast
|
|
______ is the strain of yeast commonly used as sources of CO2 in yeast leavened products
|
sacharomyces cerevaisiae
|
|
seveeral forms of yeast classified on the bassis of activity including _____, _____ , and _____
|
compressed, active dry, and quick rise active dry yeast
|
|
______ cakes contain cornstarch with a moisture level of about 72% moisture
|
saccharomyces cerevisiae
|
|
________ has a shelf-life of about 5 weeks and requires refrigeration
|
compressed yeast
|
|
compressed yeast needs to be _____________ before being added to a dough
|
dispersed in a small amount of warm water (32-38 'C) befo
|
|
Compressed yeast are conveinent to use but have limited market because of its short shelf life and needs for refrigeration
|
true
|
|
___________ is a granulated form of S. Cerevisiae ____ ; less moist (8% moisture content) and less susceptible to spoilage during storage ; when tightly sealed at room temperature , can be stored for 6 months or 2 years in a freezer (must be rehydrated - preferably at temperature range of 40-46'C
|
dry active yeast
|
|
for convenience , _______ sometimes is combiend with flour without rehydration
|
active dry yeast
|
|
strain of S. cerevisiase available as active dry yeast and capable of producing CO2 rapidly in doughs and can save nearly an hour in fermentation time. extremely sensitive to temperature and moisture
|
quick rise active dry yeast
|
|
after yeast has been combined with other ingredients, can must be taken to ensure that the yeast remains viable to ____________
|
Yeast hhandling: viable to produce CO2 necessary for proper leavening
|
|
With yeast handling; the _____ and ____ must be controlled carefully to produce a satisfactory yeast leavening
|
environment and temperature
|
|
Yeast multiply better at a temperature of _______
|
68"-81' F
|
|
______ is optimum at 77-82'F
|
fermentation ; can occur at refrigerator temperature of as high as 95'F
|
|
The rate of yeast fermentation increases rapidly with ________
|
temperature; very cold temperature makes it dormant and inactive. High temperature of greater than > 110 ' F kills the yeast
|
|
After mixing, the dough is left to rest to allow time for the S. cerevisiae to __________ and ________
|
metabolize glucose and release CO2
|
|
_____ released in the process of fermentation is entrapped in the gluten structure of the dough and the alcohol evaporate during baking
|
CO2
|
|
adding too much ___ or ____ pulls water osmotically from the cells and can dry them to death
|
salt or sugar
|
|
_____ is inverted (to glucose and fructose) and maltose from fermentation of the flour (starch to maltose by B-amylases) are converted to alcohol and CO2
|
sucrose
|
|
harmless _______ capable of generating CO2 are used as leavening agents in sourdough and salt rising breads
|
bacteria
|
|
under controlled ___, ___, and _____, these bacteria grow and act on sugar, breaking it down into CO2 and hydrogen
|
temperature , conditions, and moisture
|
|
two other strains of yeast saccharomyces exigus and saccharomyces inusitatus produce CO2 in ________
|
acidic (sour) bread doughs - such as sourdough bread
|
|
Bacterial yeasts are active at or below the pH of _____ and function well in conjunction with the use of a lactobacillus sanfranciso
|
4.5
|
|
_________ produces lactic acid, which lowers the pH of the dough to a range at which S,. exigus and S.inusitatus can gereate CO2 effectively
|
L. sanfranciso
|
|
_______ starters contain a mixture of these microorganisms
|
sourdough
|
|
______ are culture of microorganisms usually bacterial and or yeasts used in the produciton of certain foods such as sourdough bread, cheese, and alcoholic beverages
|
starters
|
|
breads made using _________ have a pleasingly sour flavor and good volume because of CO2 generated by microorganisms ; undesirable microogranisms can produce off flavor and odor in uncontrolled cultures
|
sourdough starters
|
|
______ produce CO2, as a result of the inclusion of either seperate acids and alkali or baking powder; the effectiveness of gas production of any ingredients or compounds used as chemical leavener is influence by the total amount of gas generated and the speed at which gas is produced
|
chemical leavening agents
|
|
when __________ react , no more gas is produced after both original reactants disappear
|
chemical compounds
|
|
some _________ release gas rapidly and other release slowly
|
chemical leavening agents
|
|
________ release gas quickly (during mixing) and the gas escapes from the batter or dough ebfore the strucutre of the baked product is set
|
rapid reaction
|
|
soured dairy products such as cultured buttermilk, yogurt, sour milk, or cream combined with baking soda ( an alkaline ingreident) react and release CO2 as soon as the _________________
|
alkaline ingredient dissolves in the acidic substance; usually about half a teaspoon of baking soda in one cup of sour milk or cream produce enough leavening for a batter or dough containing 2 cups of flour
|
|
other acidic ingredients include _____, ___, ____ and _____ ; however, the acidity of these ingreidnets vary significantly making it difficult to be certain of the level of CO2 they will produce when combined with an alkaline ingreidnet
|
honey , molassess, fruit juices and cream of tartar
|
|
Additionally ______ releases quickly and may loss the CO2 produced before baking
|
acidic ingredients
|
|
acidic reacts with an alkaline ingredients to generate ________
|
carbon dioxide
|
|
____________ is the most widely used alkaline ingredient in food preparation
|
sodium of bicarbonate (baking soda)
|
|
__________ a white chemcial leavening powder consisting of sodium bicarbonate ; _______ reacts quickly and my loss some of its leavening potential if not handled quickly
|
bicarbonate of Soda
|
|
Adequate acid must be available to react with ________ for optimum product quality
|
baking soda (NaHCO3)
|
|
_______ to react with all the bicarbonate of soda results in an alkaline mixture
|
insufficient acid
|
|
if soda is in excess it is converted to ____________ by heat; it has a bitter soapy flavor, it is light in color as a baked product, it impacts a yellow heu, the cake volume is poor
|
washing soda (sodium cabronate (Na2CO3)
|
|
Rather than relying on natural acid ingreidnets, bakers use a powdered ___________
|
cream of tartar (tartaric acid)
|
|
Half a teaspoon of baking soda requires about ______ of cream of tartar for complete reaction between the 2 chemicals
|
1 1/4 tsp
|
|
____ is required for the chemical reaction between an acid and baking soda
|
water
|
|
To minimize the quick escape of CO2 during mixing use _____________
|
Muffin MEthod
|
|
What are the 3 essential steps of the muffin method
|
1. the baking soda should be added to the dry ingredients
2. the wet ingreidnets should be mixed togehter in aseperate bowl 3. combine them at the last possible moment before baking |
|
________________ is a chemical leavener consisting of a mixture of baking soda and acids, or acid salts, separated by inert filler
|
baking powder
|
|
a ______ is either cornstarch or powdered calcium carbonate
|
filler
|
|
________ acts as a buffer between the active ingreidents, and prevent chemical reactions when exposed to the atmospheric moisture (absorb moisture )
|
fillers
|
|
______ as a filler diluets the active ingredients so that the correct amount of CO2 is generated by a measured amount of baking powder
|
cornstarch
|
|
________ require that the proportion of baking powder's constituents must be such that the powders will yield not less than 12 to 14% CO2 by weight ; and a minimum of 12% ; most commerical powders yield 14-17%
|
federal standards
|
|
There are 2 basic types of baking powder including ____ and ____
|
fast acting or simple acting baking powder; slow or double acting baking powder
|
|
________ include products such as cream of tartar (potassium acid tartrate and tartratic acid); soluble in cold water and reacts to produce CO2 as soon as it is moistened
|
fast or single acting baking powders
|
|
a flour made with ___________ should be handled quickly and efficiently and placed in the oven as soon as possible becasue it starts to produce CO2 as soon as water is added
|
fast/single acting baking powder
|
|
______ of single acting baking powder is recommended per 1 cup of flour
|
1 1/2 to 2 tsp
|
|
baking powder can be made at home using ____ and _____ for each 1 tsp of baking soda needed
|
1/2 tsp of cream of tartar and 1/2 tsp of baking soda
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If baking powder is made in quantity to be stored, _____ should be added as diluents for each tsp of baking soda needed
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1/4 of cornstarch
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______ is the baking powder availble in the market for consumer use in double acting baking powder
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double acting powder
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_________ contains two chemicals including monocalcium phosphate hydrate component and sodium aluminum sulfate
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double acting powders
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How does double acting baking powder work?
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the baking powder act twice - that is producing CO2 two different times when the powder is used in batter or dough
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The first reaction of double acting powder occurs at _______ when it is moistened with liquid to help develop a light - textured product ; this inital reaction is attributed to monocalcium phosphate component
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room temperature
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in double acting baking powder , the acid is converted to a variety of _________ some of which react with each other ; the rate of release of this initial reaciton is very fast (60%) within the first 2 minutes of mixing ; the second major evoluntion of CO2 occurs when the batter is heated
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phosphate salt
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_______ is the second acid salt in double - actin (SAS phosphate baking powder) facilitating this reaction
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Sodium aluminum sulfate
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The second reaction (in the oven) ___________ is the second salt in double acting baking powder
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sodium aluminum sulfate
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IN the __________________, the sulfuric acid reacts with the baking soda that has not been neutralized by the monocalcium phosphate
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second state of the reaction
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What is the advantage of chemical leavening agents ?
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creates a light , bubbly, viscous batter as well as providing additional leavening when the product is in the oven
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What is the disadvantage of chemical leavening agents?
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sodium sulfate component impart a bitter/ metallic aftertaste if excessive amounts of powder are used.
the usual amount of double - acting baking powder used is 1 1/2 tsp to 1 cup of flour |