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396 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
_______ is NOT mere transportation of facts from one location to another, NOT merely flipping for information, NOT catchword/phrase used to get attention
RESEARCH
_____ is learning about unobserved phenomena by studying and interpreting relevant data on observed phenomena
research - a studious inquiry, a critical examination and exhaustive investigation/experimentation
Research powers the world by discovering new information and resolving old problems ; true or false?
true
What is the purpose of research?
to gain and or verify information
Research is the _____ of all professions including dietetics; it supports practice and offers new directions, allows objective measurement of complex environments and tangible evaluation of the outcomes of procedures and treatments, and associations can be observed, hypotheses tested, programs compared, and protocols evaluated.
backbone
What 4 things can research procedures be used to do?
1. document practices
2. monitor activities
3. assure quality
4. assess cost effectiveness of a program
_____ relates the effectiveness of reaching a program's goals to the monetary value of the resources going into a program
cost effectiveness
_______ can be used to determine which of two methods of intervention produces a desired outcome for less cost .
cost-effective analysis

ex: to determine which of two methods of intervention (individual dietary counseling or group nutrition education classes) produces a desired outcome for less cost
The strength of a discipline, whether in health sciences or management, is associated closely with its ________. Strong research support is related to a strong profession
research base
________ is the integration and application of principles derived from the science of nutrition, biochemistry physiology, food management behavioral and social sciences to achieve and maintain people's health
dietetics
______ believes that research is the foundation of the profession providing the basis for practice, education, and policy
Academy of nutrition and dietetics
True or false: Dietitians are assuming an increasingly major role in research both as leaders and as collaborators; Research has impact on all areas of dietetics; dietetic and nutrition education are guided and updated of research findings
TRUE
An example of ____________ is The evidence-based practice related research continues to drive the future of dietetic professionals
research in Nutrition and Dietetics
_______ is the conscientious use of current best evidence in making decisions about the care of individual patients or the delivery of health services
evidence -based health care
Consumers make food choices based on___?
specific brand and various foods
_____tells the food manufacturer that the quality of the product is preferred over similar products in the marketplace.
Consumer Endorsement
______is accomplished using both sensory (subjective) and objective tests
food evaluation
Does NOT use human senses
Objective Evaluation
In sensory evaluations, trained or untrained panelists evaluate food samples for
quality and acceptability
Evaluation of food quality based on sensory characteristics and personal preference as perceived by the five senses is known as
sensory evaluations
____are performed by food scientist under a controlled environment – planning, preparation, testing, and documentation.
in house testing
The purposes of in house testing:
1.To develop product formulations that will be successful in the marketplace.

2.Another reason for conducting In-house Testing is to provide guidance for product improvement.

3.To measure the acceptability of a product by staff or selected individuals, but this can not be extrapolated to the general public
1.Informal groups of about of 4 – 12
2.Typical consumers who fit the specific demographic characteristics of interest to a food product/company.
This describes______
focus groups
Focus group testing provides _____?
valuable sensory information related to potential consumers’ acceptance of a specific product
A Test conducted in an open market to assess if a product to be released into the general market will be purchased, discontinue; or modified prior to massive production/marketing
market testing
Food industries rely primary on ____?
sensory evaluations for consumers acceptability and willingness to purchase a new food product
A carefully selected panel evaluate food products using a scoring system based on various characteristics that can be judge using the senses.
Sensory Evaluation
What are the 5 sensory senses?
Sight
Odor
Taste
Touch (feel)
Hearing
the sense of smell involves the detection and perception of chemicals floating in the air.
olfaction
Individuals trained in taste perception can distinguish as
many as ______ odors
10,000 odors
is the body's system of smell; capable of detecting odors
olfactory system
are important cue to the acceptability of food before it enters the mouth
odors (smell)
are volatile Molecules, capable of evaporating like a gas into the air
odors
As the volatile chemical molecules enter the nose, they then :
dissolve in mucous within a membrane (the olfactory epithelium).
Volatile compounds can be brought into contact with the oral receptors by :
1. Sniffing a food or its headspace
2. Swallowing the food (which creates a partial vacuum that draws the volatiles into the nose from [he oral cavity)
3. Deliberately exhaling sharply after swallowing the food.
Exhaling vigorously through the nose immediately after swallowing is particularly important in detecting ______
aftertaste.
is the aromatic message of flavor impression that lingers in the mouth after the food is gone
Aftertaste
If aftertaste is a concern in a product, it should be included on the scorecard as a____?
separate attribute for evaluation
2 classifications of the olfactory system are?
1. 6 groupings: Spicy, flowery, fruity, resinous, burnt, & foul
2. 4 groupings: Fragrant (sweet), acid (sour), burnt, caprylic (goaty)
Regardless of the classifications, most odors are detected at _______
a very low concentrations.
The ability to distinguish between various odors diminishes over the time of exposure to the smells - called ______
adaptation
Lack of ability to smell is ______
Anosomia
Decreased ability to smell is _____
Hyposmia
"hallucinated smell", often unpleasant in nature is_____
Phantosmia
Things smell differently than they should is______
Dysosmia
Additional information is contributed by the olfactory receptors when food is in the mouth is known as
flavor
sensory message resulting from a blend of taste and smell when food is in the mouth
flavor
Gustatory receptors, located on the_____, they specialize in detecting tastes.
tongue
Approximately 10,000 taste buds are found in the _____ of the tongue; and these are the means by the taste of foods are perceived
papillae
The are group of gustatory receptors; tight dusters of gustatory and supportive cells encircling a pore, usually in the upper surface of the tongue; organs capable of detecting sweet, sour. salt, and/or bitter.
taste buds
Are rough protuberances bulges or in the surface of the tongue, some of which contain taste buds
papillae
Mushroom-like protuberances, often containing taste buds and located on the sides and tip of the tongue
Fungiform Papillae
These are large protuberances always containing taste buds and distinguish easily because they form a "V" near the back of the tongue.
The Circumvallate Papillae
_____imparted by compounds such as caffeine (tea, coffee, theobromine (chocolate) & etc
bitter taste
_____comes from ionized salts such as NaCl or other salts found naturally in some foods
salty taste
Taste resulting from acid
sourness
Flavor is determined by a combined action of the_____, _______, and ______.
taste buds, the olfactory receptors, and the mouth cavity of the diner
taste buds, the olfactory receptors, and the mouth cavity of the diner together are known as the ___
trigeminal cavity.
Sensation of cooling (e.g. menthol, mint) or hot (e.g. cinnamon or clove) in back of our throats is not part of ‘taste’ but a response to stimulus in the _________
trigeminal nerve
Trigeminal nerve is the ___th cranial nerve
5
There are two basic types of sensation:
touch/position and pain/temperature
Responsible for sensation in the face
The fifth nerve is primarily a sensory nerve, but it also has certain motor functions (biting, chewing, and swallowing)
Trigeminal Nerve
_______is perceived as a savory taste
umami
a puckery taste sensation in the mouth created tannins and various polyphenols compounds
astringent
Compounds such as _________ and related compounds can serve as flavor enhancers and are sometimes added to savory product formulation.
Monosodium glutamate (MSG)
_______are compounds that seem to improve food flavor without contributing a specific identifiable taste
Flavor enhancers
____ enhances the flavor of other compounds without adding its own unique flavor.
Flavor potentiator
The interactions of various flavoring compounds can react synergistically with Flavor Potentiator to provide a flavor experience greater than that of one compound alone such as:
Monosodium glutamate (MSG)
______block the taste sites - preventing the normal taste response to a particular taste
Flavor Inhibitors
effectively inhibits flavor and synergistically promote sweetness
Monoammonium glycerrhizinate (a derivative of licorice)
Compounds such as ________ create feelings of coolness and heat in the mouth
inosine 5’-monophosphate
____contributes a fell of cool in the mouth, as well as some sugar alcohols or polyols
menthol, or peppermint
_____Includes Capsaicin and related compounds are responsible for the fiery quality of chili and other peppers
Capsainoids
_______in mustard and horseradish contribute pungency and cause flavor excitement.
Glucosinolates (sulfur-containing compounds)
Factors affecting taste:
1. Age
2. Temperature of food
3. genetic variations among individuials
4.variety in available food
5. smoking
_______ taste perceptions are more intense because of the additional taste buds in their cheeks and the hard and soft palates.
infants and children
As we age, the number of functioning taste buds decrease significantly as a result of _______?
atrophy
The elderly have only about_______ as many functioning taste buds as they had in early adulthood.
half
To perceive the basic tastes, the compounds imparting these tastes need to be in an ______.
aqueous solution.
_____ is perceived at the tip of the tongue
Sweetness/saltiness
_______ is detected most readily on the sides of the tongue
Sourness
_________ is detected at the back of the tongue
Bitterness
___________ is the concentration of a solution at which taste can be noted , various between individuals,
taste threshold
The lowest limit of detection of the presence of a stimulus or the level at which taste is correctly identified
taste threshold
__________Represents a concentration at which the taste of a compound is not detectable but its presence can influence other taste perceptions
taste sub-threshold level
The first cues a person receives about a food – this includes: Shapes, colors, consistency, serving size, and the presence of any outward defect
sight/visual receptors
Sensory Attributes of food include:
aroma
appearance
flavor
texture
The appearance of a food is evaluated on the basis of several subcategories - most important is ____
color
_______is measured objectively, sensory evaluation of this is important for product acceptability and it is one of the attributes included on sensory evaluation scorecards
color
Foods are evaluated on the basis of the desirable surface features – a characteristic contributing to the appearance, as well as ______
interior color
Interior color or other attributes are judged accurately by _______
cutting a clean slice from top to bottom using a sharp knife
___________of foods is usually considered important, particularly if the food is served hot or warm.
The odor or aroma
Aroma volatility is related to the _______
temperature of the food.
_____can be evaluated by sniffing a food or its headspace
Aroma
When aroma is a factor in sensory testing, this characteristic should be evaluated at _______
the temperature the food is served or eaten
____represents the composite assessment of taste and the blend of odor in the mouth
flavor
______ foods tend to mask subtle taste and odor evaluation.
Hot (spicy)
The best temperature at which most food flavor is at the optimum is________
20ºC to 30ºC (68ºF to 86ºF)
It involves the sense of touch, whether it operates inside the mouth or through the fingers and conveys consistency, astringency, and temperature
texture
_______, which is somewhat dependent on texture, is judged by how easily the food gives way to the pressure of the teeth.
Tenderness
_____perception occurs when food is chewed or beverages are swallowed
Texture
__________is only slightly different from tenderness, and is expressed in terms of brittleness, chewiness, viscosity, thickness, thinness, and elasticity (rubbery, gummy).
consistency
________which causes puckering of the mouth, is possibly due to the drawing out of proteins naturally found in the mouth's saliva and mucous membranes
astringency
This is the textural qualities of a food perceived in the mouth
mouthfeel
Tenderness can be evaluated in some foods by reporting the ___________
“number of chew”
________Are a group of sensory taste panel selected from people who happen to be available at a test site and are willing to participate.
May range from 200 – 500 people
consumer panel
These are people with no former training regarding taste testing, including the use of the scorecard and evaluation of the various product characteristics.
untrained panel
______is the The Sensory panel has had limited training experience with regards to product taste testing (requires between 8 – 25 judges)
semi-trained panel
________ is the Sensory panel who have been given thorough trained regarding the use of the scorecards and evaluation of the various characteristics of food.
Requires between 3 – 10 judges
trained panel
_________issue guidelines for the physical requirements of a lab designed for sensory evaluation of food.
The American Society of Testing and Material
Samples should be labeled with random ____ codes to avoid bias
3-digit
________means that if 2 samples are served, half of the subjects receive one sample first and the other half receive the other sample first
Counterbalanced order
Sensory tests can be broadly divided into 2 categories including:
1. analytical tests
2. affective tests
__________ is up-to-date information from relevant, valid research about the effects of different forms of health care, the potential for harm from exposure to particular agents, the accuracy of diagnostic tests and the predictive power of prognostic factors
current best evidence
_________ is an approach to decision-making in which clinician uses the best evidence available, in consultation with the patient, to decide upon the option which suits that patient best
evidence based clinical practice
_____ is the conscientious, explicit and judicious use of current best evidence in making decisions about the care of individual patients
evidence based medicine
the practice of _________ mean integrating individual clinical expertise with the best available external clinical evidence form systematic research
evidence based medicine
What are the organizations using evidence based research? (4)
1. state and federal government agencies
2. professional associations
3. purchasers of health care
4. regulatory organizations
ADA evidence analysis library, cochrane database of systemic review , US Dept of health and human services, agency for healthcare and research and quality , and national guideline clearing house Wed sites are known as ?
valuable evidence based health related research sites
according to AND ___________________ is the use of systematically review scientific evidence in making food and nutrition practice decisions by integrating best available evidence with professional expertise and client values to improve outcomes.
evidence based dietetics
Why is evidence based research important to dietetic professionals?
it is a major core competency in all practice settings and specialties
______ contains the best available evidence, the results of peer reviewed scientific studies (when possible), and if science is lacking, it uses expert opinion and experience
ADA evidence Analysis library - evidence based research
Who as access to AND's EAL?
everyone can access the list of topics and questions, but the links to the questions/conclusion and supporting evidence (search plans and results, evidence summaries, overview tables, etc) are only accessible by EAL subscribers and AND members
Who is involved in guideline development?
workgroups (practitioners and researchers)
What are the 5 steps used in developing the AND EAL?
1. formulate the questions
2. analyze each article
3. assess study quality of information
4. synthesize evidence from all studies
5. assess strength of evidence from all studies (Assign grade)
_____ step : the workgroup specifies a question in a defined area of practice; or state a tentitive conclusion or recommendation that is being considered - include the patient type and special needs of the target population involved, the alternatives under consideration, and the outcomes of interest
step 1: formulate the question
____ step: work groups conduct a systematic search of the literature to find evidence related to the question, gather studies and reports, and classify them by type of evidence

classess differentiate primary reports of new data according to study design, and distinguish them from reports that are a systematic review and syntheiss of primary rreports

Classes used by AND are A,B,C, D, M, R, and X
step 2: gather and classify evidence reports
____ step: review each report for relevance to the question and critique for scientific validity ; abstract key information from the research article and report it on the online worksheet; answer the questions in the quality criteria checklist and assign a code to indicate the quality of the study; ADA uses positive, negative, neutral or not assessed
Step 3: critically appraise each report
____ step: combine findings from all reports into a narritive evidence summary and/ or an overview table that summaries the relavent information from each article work sheet and allows for comparisons across articles
step 4: summarize evidence in a narrative form and an overview table
____ step: Arrive at a concise conclusion statement (the answer to the question) , take into account the synthesis of all relevant studies and reports, their class and their quality ratings ; grade is assign to indicate overall strength or weakness of evidence informing the conclusion statement
step 5: develop a conclusion statement and Grade the strength of evidence supporting the conculsion

AND uses grades I, II, and III for strong fair and weak; Grade IV designates expert opinion only and Grade V indicates not assignable (bc there is no evidence that directly supports or refutes the question )
___________ is when each topic is annually researched and changes are based on quantity and qulity of new informaiton by specific work groups ; if revision is unwarrented the new research is recorded dated and saved until the next review;
evidence ananlysis library revision
EAL guidelines under go "complete revision" every ______
3-5 years
What are 3 other helath care evidence analysis ?
1. cochraine data base of systemic reviews
2. us dept of health and human services, agency for healthcare research and quality
3. national guideline clearing house web sites
Descriptive and Discriminatory Tests are categorized as affective testing of analytical?
Analytical testing
Hedonic/Preference Testing is affective or analytical?
affective
Test used to detect differences
difference/discriminatory test
(used to “quantify” differences)
Descriptive Tests
test (rating to pleasure)
Hedonic Test
test in which selecting the preferred sample is used
Preference Tests
Used to evaluate the acceptability of a new product at the early stage of product development
single sample test
Form of Paired Comparison Tests – Test to detect the differences between two samples
difference test
requesting panelist to taste two samples and respond if the samples are identical or different
simple test
Types of difference tests
Paired comparison
Duo-trio
Triangle
Ranking order tests
A test where A control sample marked “R” is presented to the judge; followed by 2 samples (control and experimental samples).
Judges are then asked to identify which product is the closest or similar to “R”
duo-trio test
A test where Three samples are presented to a judge simultaneously

The judges is asked to identify the odd sample out of the 3 samples

33.3% chance of being right.
Triangle test
___is valuable when several samples need to be evaluated for single attribute.


In this test, the samples are ranked in the order of intensity
rank-order test
A test used to find the minimal detectable level of a substance
dilution
Descriptive Test include ______ and __________ profiles
Flavor Profile
Texture Profile
These panel are thoroughly trained to analyze flavor in extremely great detail
A Descriptive Flavor Analysis Panel (DFAP)
______is used as a means of maintaining exact flavor quality over a long production periods so that one year's product will have same flavor as the subsequent years
profiling
The simplest affective tests is the _________
Paired Preference Tests
A test where Two samples are presented, but instead of selecting the sample with the greater amount of a characteristic, the tester expresses a preference for one of two samples
paired preference test
______is commonly used to measure the degree of pleasure experienced with samples, 9 pt scale
Hedonic rating scales
A scorecard that contains simple drawings of a face, with expression altered slightly from one picture to the next .
hedonic "smiley" scale
All scorecards should contain what information?
date and the name (code #) of the judge
____refers to the degree of excellence of all characteristics of a food product that are significant and make food acceptable
food quality
Evaluations of food quality that rely on numbers generated by laboratory instruments, which are used to quantify the physical and chemical differences in foods.
objective testing
The 2 major types of objective evaluation tests are
physical
chemical
________measure certain observable aspects of food such as size, shape, weight, volume, density, moisture, texture, and viscosity
physical tests
Many are based on the work of the Association of Official Analytical Chemistry (AOAC), including those for determining various nutrients and non-nutritive substances in foods
chemical tests
Peroxide Value and Iodine number are examples of
objective testing
Volume of firm foods can be measured using:
Displacement methods (Seed Displacement)
Index to Volume
This is a method for estimating the volume a solid product such as baked goods
Samples are prepared by weighing comparable amounts of dough or batter of each product to be baked for the test.
Seed displacement
_______convenient machine used in measuring volume of baked products.
volumeter
This is a direct means of comparing volume by measuring the circumference of a cross section of the product
index to volume
An engineering tool designed to measure distance as its pointer traced around a pattern.
planimeter
The concentration of matter is measured by the amount of mass per unit volume
density
This test compares the weight of a substance with the weight of an equal volume of water.
A ratio of the density of a food (or other substance) to that of water.
Specific gravity
The juiciness of raw meats, poultry, and fish can be measured using a __________
succulometer
_______is based on the ability of a product to absorb moisture of liquid during a controlled period of time.
wettability
______can be used to determine the moisture content of food products.
oven drying
A quick and fast way to determine moisture content of food by water titration.
Karl Fischer Titration
Device for measuring the force required to shear a sample of meat or other food with measurable tensile strength
Warnmer-Bratzler
An objective testing method that measures compressibility, extrusion, and shear of food samples
shear press
_______measures the firmness or compressibility of porous baked products.
compress meter
________is suitable for measuring the texture of gel and many baked products
penetrometer
____tests the comparative tenderness of gels.
% sag
____Measures the tenderness of fairly crisp foods such crisp cookies and crackers.
shortometer
A multipurpose instrument capable of measuring different aspect of texture including compressibility of bread and the force required to break cookies or to shear a piece of meat.
Universal Testing Machine (Instron)
Measures and depicts gluten development during the mixing of batters and doughs.
Farinograph
It is a simulation device that measures physical textural properties of foods -- such as hardness, cohesiveness, and crushability.
texturometer
Measures comparative tenderness of meat and other foods by stimulating chewing action of the jaw (Mimics jaw actions).
Masticometer
_________is the study of flow of matter (viscosity) and the deformations that result from flow.
rheology
________is the resistance of a fluid to flowing freely, caused by the friction of its molecules against a surface.
viscosity
Liquids can be classified into 2 groups:
newtonian
non-newtonian
_____have viscosity that are independent of the shear rate – e. g. water wine, sugar syrups
newtonian liquids
meaning that the consistency or viscosity depends on the amount of shear stress applied.
Non-newtonian
_____refers to the ability of a gel to become more fluid with increased shear and then regain its previous viscosity quickly after shear rate is decreased as seen in chocolate.
Thixotropic
Simple device for measuring spreading or flow of semisolid foods.
It involves filling a reservoir with the sample to be tested
Bostwick Consistometer
____is another piece of objective equipment for measuring consistency.
Used to determine the viscosity of starch pastes at controlled, selective temperature.
Amylograph
____________test measures the flow of a viscous liquid or semisolid foods by determining the spread of a measured amount of sample in a specified length of time at 90º intervals on the template of concentric rings.
line-spread
________is an objective testing device for measuring viscosity of liquids that flow, measures on the basis of rotational resistance or capillary action
viscometer
_______is a sophisticated instrument that may be used to measure viscosity under control temperature and when the sample is subjected to shearing forces of different magnitude.
Brookfield Viscometer
________is a special viscometer similar to pipette used to test the viscosity of pectin-containing juices to determine the amount of added pectin needed for gelling fruit juices to make jams and jellies.
jelmeter
_______group that established a system of measuring color, degree of saturation, and brightness
CIE: is the Commission Internationale de L’Eclairage
______identifies colors on the basis of hues, value, and chroma, using numerical scale
Munsell System
_____is also used in measuring color under the CIE system (saves time
Spectrophotometer
This objective test machine is capable of measuring color differences between samples by utilizing the CIE or Munsell color system.
color-difference meter
________is another valuable tool to depict information about cell texture.
photographs
The most acceptable methods used in food analysis are those published by the _______
Association of Official Analytical Chemists (AOAC, 2002).
______is used to determines the ionization potential of a solution.
pH
_______are used to determine the sugar concentration of a solution.
refractometers
________is a hydrometer scale designed to indicate the percentage concentration of sugar in sugar solution.
brix scale
_______is used in analyzing the sodium content of foods.
Flame photometry
______ is analyzed using electronic nose
Aroma
________can be conducted using Gas-liquid chromatograph (GLC) and High-pressure liquid chromatograph (HPLC).
flavor analysis
Association of Official Analytical Chemists (AOAC) specifies the acceptable method for _________-
proximate analysis
_____ included in whole wheat flour but more often removed and used in animal or poultry feed; of the nutrients in whole wheat ____ in addaddition to indigestible cellulose material contains niacin, pyridozine, pantothenic acid, riboflavin and protein
the bran
____ is the source of white flour; of the nutrients in the whole kernel the ____ contains protein, pantothenic acid, riboflavin, niacin, and thiamine
the endosperm
the embryo or sprouting known as ______ is usually separated because it contains fats which limits the keeping quality of flours; available separately as human food, but usually added to animal or poultry feed ; of the nutrients in whole wheat, it contains thiamine, riboflavin, pyridoxine, protein, pantothenic acid and niacin
the germ
______ refers to the fine particles of wheat (or other grains) produced from milling
flour; when flour is made out of grain other than wheat flour, the name of the grain always precede the word "flour"
The production of wheat flour involves grinding and refining cereal grains by a process called milling which includes ____ and _____
tempering and grinding
____ involves steam treatment, a prelude to grinding ; a means of facilitating removal of bran layers
tempering
_____ brakes up the kernel intro moderately small pieces
grinding
_____ is made from wheat with much of the bran and shorts of the endosperm
Whole wheat

Shorts are the layer just inside the outer brain layer
White wheat is refined further by ______
extraction
_____ refers to the removal of bran and shorts during milling of wheat
extraction
________ is accomplished by sifting or air classifications, allowing the bran to be directed out of the system for subsequent processing and packaging as bran or shorts
extraction
after extraction the remaining endosperm and germ are passed through reducing rollers; a process which __________________ and _______________
press the germ into flakes
and
break endosperm into very fine particles
germ and endoserperm are separated by _____
sifting
____ promotes the removal of the germ which could promote rancidity
sifting
a variety of flour could be made by ______ and ______
milling and removing the bran and shorts
The character of the flours is altered by the amount of the _____ and _____
total flour and protein content
What is the order from highest percent content to lowest of pastry (soft) , cake (soft) , gluten, whole wheat (hard) , all-purpose, Durrum wheat (hard), bread (hard)?
gluten
whole wheat
durrum wheat
bread
all-purpose
pastry
cake
As _____ increases, so does the hardness of the flour
protein
flour made using only a small portion of the total stream is _____ or _____
extra short or fancy patent flour
_____ is flour made using only a small portion of the total stream of flour (extra short or fancy patent flour)
cake flour
______ is wheat flour high in starch and low in protein, produced using the very fine particles of flour from the center of the endosperm
short-patent flour
_____ is wheat flour made from 95-100% of flour stream ; high in protein content (bread flour)
long patent flour
Different type of wheat flours are available and their compositions are defined by what 3 things?
1. variety of wheat
2. part of the wheat grain used
3. selection of flour streams and the blending
__________ is made form the entire wheat kernel including the bran, germ and endosperm ; it is high in fat, fiber, and protein - if the flour has been bleached, it must be labeled as such; less shelf life because of rancidity (fat component of germ may be hydrolyzed and become rancid) ; must be refrigerated during storage
whole wheat flour (known as graham flour)
_______ is multipurpose flour made from hard wheat or a mixture of hard and soft wheat ; contains about 10.5 percent protein; used in making cookies, pastries, and quick breads
all-purpose flour
____ made from hard wheat long patent flour; protein level of about 11.8%
bread flour
_____ made from wheat , short, and medium patent flour; protein level 9.7% ; tailored specifically for making tender product
pastry flour
______ is considered a semi mix or short cut to baking because of its formulation - both leavening and salt are added, used in making quick breads, not used for pastry ad other unleavened products or for yeast breads in which yeast is used as leavener
self rising flour
_______ is produced by passing wheat flour through moist air, causing it to agglomerate (stick together) ; the agglomerated flour can then be dried to produce small pellets (sand like granules) that neither pack nor contain fine dust of flour particles ; easily blends with water and does not require sifting ; the use is limited becasue it does not does not develop gluten readily - particularly breads
instant flour
____ flour is a specialty wheat flour made by adding vital wheat gluten to increase the protein level to about 41 % ; used occasionally in commercial breads in which a very high protein content is desired
gluten flour
______ is dried crude gluten (concentrated protein from wheat) added to flour to bring the protein level up to about 41% ; bread made with this is chewy, tough, but very palatable
vital wheat gluten
freshly milled flour has yellow color, contributed by ______________ ; unsuitable for baking
carotenoid pigment
Wheat flour is modified by _____ and ______
bleaching and aging
______ is exposure of freshly milled flour to air for several weeks; the pigment is ____, resulting in flour with the desirbale white color
bleaching
______ could be hastened by treating freshly milled flour with a small amount of chemical agent
bleaching
______ is a food additive that is approved by the FDA for bleaching the xanthophylls in refined flours; it does not have any adverse affect on baking
benzoyl peroxide
_____________ is a chemical process used to alter the physical behavior of flour protein by modifiying some of the sulfhydryl groups to disulfide linkages; agents include:

chlorine, acetone peroxide and azodicarbonamid
aging (maturing)
_____ alters the ability of the flour proteins to stretch and dough made with chemically ____ flour exhibit reduced extensibility
aging
What is the effect of refinement on nutrients?
loss of nutrients leads to enrichment and fortification
The federal government now requires the enrichement of wheat with what ?
Thiami, Riboflavin, niacin, folic acid, and iron
____ are present in limited amount in wheat flour; primarily in the germ and they are variable
lipids
the highest level of ______ in whole wheat are lecitin , glycolipids, and cephalins
lipids ; moisture is approximately 12% mositure by weight
______ in wheat flour is composed of start is the most abundant component of flours (approx 80% of total wt) and exist primarly in the endosperm; amylopectin to amylose ratio is 3:1
CHO
_____ contains hundreds of glucose units in highly branched chains , Each new molecule needs a special protein for the attachment of the first glucose
glycogen molecule
____ is a small proportion of wheat proteins in flour including B-amylase attacks 1,4 - alpha- glucosidic linkages
enzymes
______ becomes denatured at a temperature above 50 ' C
b- amylase
______ is halted at the point of the branch chain in amylopectin where it encounters a 1,6, - alpha- glucosidic linakge; it creates smaller amylyopectin type compounds called limited dextrins
B-amylase
_____ may be added to improve dough handling properties for use in commerical baking
fungal a-amylase
During storage, free fatty acids are formed due to the action of ______ - breaking lipid to glyceride + free fatty acid
lipases
____ contains hundreds of glucose molecules in eitehr occasionally brached chains (amylopectin) or unbranced chains
starch molecules
_____ causes the development of oxidative rancidity in whole wheat flours and whole grains during storage; this enzyme catalyses the formation of peroxides in unsaturated fatty acids
lipoxidase
_____ is present in samll amounts compared to starch in flour ; the small amount plays a key role in the structure of baked products
protein
The two proteins present in flour include?
soluble proteins (albumins and globulins) and gluten (glutenin and gliadin)
What are the dough forming proteins?
gliadin and glutenin
_______ the protein portion of wheat flour with the elastic characteristics necessary for the structure of most baked products
gluten
_____ protein complex is formed when fliadin and flutenin moistened with water and manipulated by stirring beating or kneading
gluten
gluten develops more _____ when hard wheat such as bread flour is manipulated and it can be manipulated longer without breaking the gluten strand
slowly
flour made of ______ develop gluten rapidly but the protein breaks more quickly
soft wheat
______ is to work the dough into an elastic mass by psuhing stretching and folding
knead
gluten develops with manipulation and the rate of development depends on some factors including ?
the type of flour, temperature, and added substances (such as fat, sugar and the ratio of liquid)
______ is an objective testing equipment that measures the resistance of stirring rods moving through a batter or dough and records the result graphically ; it measures and depicts gluten development during mixing of batters and dough
farinograph - gluten testing
_______ increases the rate of gluten development; as the ____ of the dough increases, the rate of hydration of the protein is acccelerated, resulting in a change rate of gluten development
temperature
____ retards gluten development; because of its hygrospoic nature, it tends to compete for water with protein, reducing the rate of hydration and slow the rate of gluten development
sugar
_____ inhibits gluten development by coating the surface of gluten thereby preventing hydration ; as a lubricant it reduces the ability of gluten strands to stick together, preventing the network of gluten formation
fat
the ______ the ratio of flour to liquid the greater the promotion of gluten development (ex Muffin recipe)
higher ratio

ex: ratio 1:1 prevents gluten formation
Flours can be milled from any cereal grains including rye, triticale, rice, corn, oats, potato, quinoa , and soy; true or false
true
Flour other than wheat flour are often referred to as ______
composite flour
_____ proteins lack the ability to develop the necessary plasticity and elasticity needed to produce the texture desired in baked products ; lack the ability to develop gluten as seen in wheat gluten
composite flour
_____ closely resembles wheat flour, the proteins include glutenin and gliadin but cannot be manipulated into gluten complex with sufficient elasticity to produce light textured baked products; this bread is very heavy; formula of a ratio of 1:4 wheat to ___ flour is desirbale to create a more porous lighter bread
rye
_______ is obtaied from a hybrid produced by corssing wheat and rye; has some of the characteristics of wheat and rye; nutrition merit is high protein and higher lysine content compared to wheat flour; not suiteable for baking because of poor textural acceptability ; as potention for satisfactory use when combined with wheat flour or use with dough conditioners
triticale flour
_____ it is a naturally gluten free flour and could be added to wheat flour for making baked products ; baked products from this flour are important to people who have an allergy to gluten
rice flour
_____ similar to rice flour; supplement with wheat flour in making corn bread
corn flour
_____ are tuber, not a grain, but can be used to produce flour, flakes or granules ; cooked ____ have been dried and ground to yield this flour
potato flour
_____ in potato flour increases loaf volume- this is why liquid from cooked potatoes is used in homemade breads
starch
however, _____ does not form gluten, therefore sufficient amount of wheat flour must be added to potato flour when used in baking
potatoes
________ is higher in protein than other flowers because its source, is a legume
soy flour
______ is high in lysine which allows it to complement wheat flour proteins (wheat flower is low in lysine but higher in methinonine)
soy flour
____ provides both protein and starch to strengthen the structure of baked products when used in combination with wheat flour; low gluten capacity therefore lacks the cohesive and elastic qualities of gluten
soy flour
soy flour provides both _____ and _____ to strengthen the structure of baked products when used in combination with wheat flour ; they are added to many baked products at levels of 3 and 6% (higher levels exhibit distinctive flavor of soybeans) ; when used, increase liquid level (add liquid at weight for weight basis) the proofing time is long when soy flour is partially substituted for wheat flour in a bread recipe
soy flour
______ is the basic structural component of most batter and dough products (gliadin + glutenin + liquid = gluten) ; formation of gluten allows expansion of cells and provides structural rigidity to baked goods
wheat flour
______ gelatinizes in water, contributing to the change from fluid batter/dough to the firm and rigid like structure of baked foods; CHO serves as food for yeast during fermentaiton ; CHO participates in the browning of the crust (maillard reaction)
Flour Starch
Liquid is required in flour mixtures to ________ and _______ the starch
hydrate and gelatinize
_____ serves as solvent for the dry ingredients, activates the yeast, serves as source steam during baking and for leavening - allowing baking powder/soda to react and produce carbon dioxide gas
liquid
_____ in liquid form hydrate flour protein to form gluten and other solid ingreidents
water
What foods are used as sources of liquid in baked products?
water, milk, fruit juices, coffee molasses, eggs and other liquid
____ is usually recommended over water in baking because it improves the overall quality of the baked product; in addition to contributing water, milk adds flavor and nturients and contains certain compounds that help produce a velvety texture, a creamy white crumb , and a browner crust. ** as a reducing sugar, the lactose in milk participates in the maillard reaction
milk
______ is never used in hydrating yeast because the fat content of ____ could have adverse effect on yeast growth
milk
_______ lowers the pH of batters and doughs; may alter the flavor and modify the solubility of the gluten protein
fruit juices
________ may result in a very moist baked item with low volume
excess liquid
________ may produce a dry baked product that is low in volume and stales quickly
too little liquid
Why are eggs added to some flour mixtures?
1. contribute liquid to a dough or batter during mixing and in baking
2. enhance structural integrity - coagulation of egg protein contributes to the structural integrity of the finished product and reduces tenderness
3. egg yolks serve as emulsifyting agent - lecithin , a phospholipid
4. increases nutritional content by supplying protein and vitamins
_______ contributes to leavening - incorporating air ,which create small cell that expand during baking
eggs
eggs contribute to ____ and ____ as well
color -light color baked products

and flavor
What function do fat perform in baked goods?
tenderness, color, flavor, texture, volume, emulsification, delay of staling
_______ interferes with gluten development (shortening power) creating a more tender crumb and products
fat tenderness
butter, margarine and colored shortening add color to baked goods
true
_____ carry multitudes and add a variety of flavor to food products
fats
______ create a smooth mouth-feel associated with moistness in baked goods, flakiness of the pastry
fat
_________: shortenings with added mono- and di-glycerdies favor the development of fine texture in cakes because of the emulsifying action of these two agents
emulsifier
_____ delyas stalling in final baked product
fat
What does sugar contribute to baked goods?
sweetness, color, tenderness, moistnress, volume, apperance, and kcal
________ brown of the crust as a result of caramelization and sugar-amine reaciton known as Maillard reaction
browning effect
________ : retarding gluten development during mixing
tenderizing agent
_______: hygroscopic, or water -retaining nature of sugar increases moistness and tenderness and also help delay stalling ; therefore improving shelf life of baked products
moistness
__________ allows gluten more time to stretch and increase volume ; helps delay stalling
sugar: raising gelatinization temperature
______ increases the volume by incorporating air into fat during creaming; contibutes to volume by providing food for the yeast
sugar contributes to volume
_______ is added to flour mixtures for flavoring, produces a firmer dough, improves volume, texture improvement, creates evenness of cell structure, prolongs shelf-life
salt
In the production of yeast breads ______ inhibits yeast growth
salt ; without salt, fermentation would be too rapid and result in a sticky difficult to handle dough
______ plays a large role in firming the dough by adjusting the solubility and swelling capacity of the gluten
salt
while salt is beneficial in baked goods, _______ can inhibit yeast activity, reduce the amount of carbon dioxide gas produced and decrease the volume of loaf
too much salt
________ contribute significantly to the textural properties of baked products by expanding the batter or dough during mixing and always during baking
leavening agents
although flour mixtures can rise with the physical help of air and steam, most of the leavening is accomplished by _______ produced from either biological or chemical sources
carbon dioxide gas
_______ may be physical, biological or chemical
leaveners
___ and ____ are physical leavening agents that help dough to rise
air and steam
_______ is a more effective leavening agent than air, because of its ability to increase volume exceedingly (1600 folds) as water is concerted to steam compared to air, which expands volume by 1/273 for each degree celsius of temperature increases; popover and cream puffs rely on _____ for this leavening
steam
_____ is a preferred leavening agent in foam cakes, espeically angel food cakes, egg white foams contribute a large volume of ___ to the batter ,which creates the velvety nature of the cake
air
_____ is trapped more effectively in batter containing solid fat compared to those with oil ; hydrogenated lard retains mroe air for leavening than does butter
air
Regardless of the type of fat used, ____________ is provided by steam than air
greater leavening
_________ a gas that provides very effective leavening in baked products - sources biological or chemical source
carbon dioxide
_____ is produced in breads in the process of fermentation
CO2
What are the two types of fermentaiton?
yeast and bacteria
______ contributes to the produciton of carob dioxide
yeast fermentaiton
_____ also contributes a desirable, slighlty sour flavor to certain baked products
bacteria
________ is a biological agent responsible for leavening ; is a microscopic unicellular fungi (such as saccharomyces cerevisiae) which reproduces rapidly under suitable conditions of food, warmth, and moisture.
yeast
______ is the strain of yeast commonly used as sources of CO2 in yeast leavened products
sacharomyces cerevaisiae
seveeral forms of yeast classified on the bassis of activity including _____, _____ , and _____
compressed, active dry, and quick rise active dry yeast
______ cakes contain cornstarch with a moisture level of about 72% moisture
saccharomyces cerevisiae
________ has a shelf-life of about 5 weeks and requires refrigeration
compressed yeast
compressed yeast needs to be _____________ before being added to a dough
dispersed in a small amount of warm water (32-38 'C) befo
Compressed yeast are conveinent to use but have limited market because of its short shelf life and needs for refrigeration
true
___________ is a granulated form of S. Cerevisiae ____ ; less moist (8% moisture content) and less susceptible to spoilage during storage ; when tightly sealed at room temperature , can be stored for 6 months or 2 years in a freezer (must be rehydrated - preferably at temperature range of 40-46'C
dry active yeast
for convenience , _______ sometimes is combiend with flour without rehydration
active dry yeast
strain of S. cerevisiase available as active dry yeast and capable of producing CO2 rapidly in doughs and can save nearly an hour in fermentation time. extremely sensitive to temperature and moisture
quick rise active dry yeast
after yeast has been combined with other ingredients, can must be taken to ensure that the yeast remains viable to ____________
Yeast hhandling: viable to produce CO2 necessary for proper leavening
With yeast handling; the _____ and ____ must be controlled carefully to produce a satisfactory yeast leavening
environment and temperature
Yeast multiply better at a temperature of _______
68"-81' F
______ is optimum at 77-82'F
fermentation ; can occur at refrigerator temperature of as high as 95'F
The rate of yeast fermentation increases rapidly with ________
temperature; very cold temperature makes it dormant and inactive. High temperature of greater than > 110 ' F kills the yeast
After mixing, the dough is left to rest to allow time for the S. cerevisiae to __________ and ________
metabolize glucose and release CO2
_____ released in the process of fermentation is entrapped in the gluten structure of the dough and the alcohol evaporate during baking
CO2
adding too much ___ or ____ pulls water osmotically from the cells and can dry them to death
salt or sugar
_____ is inverted (to glucose and fructose) and maltose from fermentation of the flour (starch to maltose by B-amylases) are converted to alcohol and CO2
sucrose
harmless _______ capable of generating CO2 are used as leavening agents in sourdough and salt rising breads
bacteria
under controlled ___, ___, and _____, these bacteria grow and act on sugar, breaking it down into CO2 and hydrogen
temperature , conditions, and moisture
two other strains of yeast saccharomyces exigus and saccharomyces inusitatus produce CO2 in ________
acidic (sour) bread doughs - such as sourdough bread
Bacterial yeasts are active at or below the pH of _____ and function well in conjunction with the use of a lactobacillus sanfranciso
4.5
_________ produces lactic acid, which lowers the pH of the dough to a range at which S,. exigus and S.inusitatus can gereate CO2 effectively
L. sanfranciso
_______ starters contain a mixture of these microorganisms
sourdough
______ are culture of microorganisms usually bacterial and or yeasts used in the produciton of certain foods such as sourdough bread, cheese, and alcoholic beverages
starters
breads made using _________ have a pleasingly sour flavor and good volume because of CO2 generated by microorganisms ; undesirable microogranisms can produce off flavor and odor in uncontrolled cultures
sourdough starters
______ produce CO2, as a result of the inclusion of either seperate acids and alkali or baking powder; the effectiveness of gas production of any ingredients or compounds used as chemical leavener is influence by the total amount of gas generated and the speed at which gas is produced
chemical leavening agents
when __________ react , no more gas is produced after both original reactants disappear
chemical compounds
some _________ release gas rapidly and other release slowly
chemical leavening agents
________ release gas quickly (during mixing) and the gas escapes from the batter or dough ebfore the strucutre of the baked product is set
rapid reaction
soured dairy products such as cultured buttermilk, yogurt, sour milk, or cream combined with baking soda ( an alkaline ingreident) react and release CO2 as soon as the _________________
alkaline ingredient dissolves in the acidic substance; usually about half a teaspoon of baking soda in one cup of sour milk or cream produce enough leavening for a batter or dough containing 2 cups of flour
other acidic ingredients include _____, ___, ____ and _____ ; however, the acidity of these ingreidnets vary significantly making it difficult to be certain of the level of CO2 they will produce when combined with an alkaline ingreidnet
honey , molassess, fruit juices and cream of tartar
Additionally ______ releases quickly and may loss the CO2 produced before baking
acidic ingredients
acidic reacts with an alkaline ingredients to generate ________
carbon dioxide
____________ is the most widely used alkaline ingredient in food preparation
sodium of bicarbonate (baking soda)
__________ a white chemcial leavening powder consisting of sodium bicarbonate ; _______ reacts quickly and my loss some of its leavening potential if not handled quickly
bicarbonate of Soda
Adequate acid must be available to react with ________ for optimum product quality
baking soda (NaHCO3)
_______ to react with all the bicarbonate of soda results in an alkaline mixture
insufficient acid
if soda is in excess it is converted to ____________ by heat; it has a bitter soapy flavor, it is light in color as a baked product, it impacts a yellow heu, the cake volume is poor
washing soda (sodium cabronate (Na2CO3)
Rather than relying on natural acid ingreidnets, bakers use a powdered ___________
cream of tartar (tartaric acid)
Half a teaspoon of baking soda requires about ______ of cream of tartar for complete reaction between the 2 chemicals
1 1/4 tsp
____ is required for the chemical reaction between an acid and baking soda
water
To minimize the quick escape of CO2 during mixing use _____________
Muffin MEthod
What are the 3 essential steps of the muffin method
1. the baking soda should be added to the dry ingredients
2. the wet ingreidnets should be mixed togehter in aseperate bowl
3. combine them at the last possible moment before baking
________________ is a chemical leavener consisting of a mixture of baking soda and acids, or acid salts, separated by inert filler
baking powder
a ______ is either cornstarch or powdered calcium carbonate
filler
________ acts as a buffer between the active ingreidents, and prevent chemical reactions when exposed to the atmospheric moisture (absorb moisture )
fillers
______ as a filler diluets the active ingredients so that the correct amount of CO2 is generated by a measured amount of baking powder
cornstarch
________ require that the proportion of baking powder's constituents must be such that the powders will yield not less than 12 to 14% CO2 by weight ; and a minimum of 12% ; most commerical powders yield 14-17%
federal standards
There are 2 basic types of baking powder including ____ and ____
fast acting or simple acting baking powder; slow or double acting baking powder
________ include products such as cream of tartar (potassium acid tartrate and tartratic acid); soluble in cold water and reacts to produce CO2 as soon as it is moistened
fast or single acting baking powders
a flour made with ___________ should be handled quickly and efficiently and placed in the oven as soon as possible becasue it starts to produce CO2 as soon as water is added
fast/single acting baking powder
______ of single acting baking powder is recommended per 1 cup of flour
1 1/2 to 2 tsp
baking powder can be made at home using ____ and _____ for each 1 tsp of baking soda needed
1/2 tsp of cream of tartar and 1/2 tsp of baking soda
If baking powder is made in quantity to be stored, _____ should be added as diluents for each tsp of baking soda needed
1/4 of cornstarch
______ is the baking powder availble in the market for consumer use in double acting baking powder
double acting powder
_________ contains two chemicals including monocalcium phosphate hydrate component and sodium aluminum sulfate
double acting powders
How does double acting baking powder work?
the baking powder act twice - that is producing CO2 two different times when the powder is used in batter or dough
The first reaction of double acting powder occurs at _______ when it is moistened with liquid to help develop a light - textured product ; this inital reaction is attributed to monocalcium phosphate component
room temperature
in double acting baking powder , the acid is converted to a variety of _________ some of which react with each other ; the rate of release of this initial reaciton is very fast (60%) within the first 2 minutes of mixing ; the second major evoluntion of CO2 occurs when the batter is heated
phosphate salt
_______ is the second acid salt in double - actin (SAS phosphate baking powder) facilitating this reaction
Sodium aluminum sulfate
The second reaction (in the oven) ___________ is the second salt in double acting baking powder
sodium aluminum sulfate
IN the __________________, the sulfuric acid reacts with the baking soda that has not been neutralized by the monocalcium phosphate
second state of the reaction
What is the advantage of chemical leavening agents ?
creates a light , bubbly, viscous batter as well as providing additional leavening when the product is in the oven
What is the disadvantage of chemical leavening agents?
sodium sulfate component impart a bitter/ metallic aftertaste if excessive amounts of powder are used.

the usual amount of double - acting baking powder used is 1 1/2 tsp to 1 cup of flour