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86 Cards in this Set
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Psychomotor disturbance such as mutism, rigidity, and motoric immobility is characteristic of:
a. Catatonic Schizophrenia b. Paranoid Schizophrenia c. Disorganized Schizophrenia d. Residual type Schizophrenia |
A
Mutism, rigidity, and motoric immobility are characteristics of catatonia. Residual type includes individuals who have had at least one schizophrenic episode and continue to display negative signs of the illness (flat affect, alogia, avolition). |
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In order to diagnose a Brief Psychotic Disorder, symptoms should not last
a. more than one day b. more than one week c. more than one month d. more than six months |
C
To diagnose Brief Psychotic Disorder, one would expect at least one psychotic symptom, a very sudden onset, and a duration of several hours to one month - but not to exceed one month. |
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In terms of neurological factors, ADHD has been linked to abnormalities in the
a. prefrontal cortex b. temporal cortex c. prestriate cortex d. striate cortex |
A
ADHD has been linked to abnormalities in the prefrontal cortex based on research that has shown diminished glucose metabolism and decreased blood flow in the prefrontal regions and pathways connecting these regions to the caudate nucleus. |
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A diagnosis of Bipolar I Disorder, Most Recent Episode Manic, requires that the patient:
a. is currently or most recently in the course of a manic episode. b. is currently or most recently in the course of a manic or mixed episode and has a history of depressive episodes. c. is currently or most recently in a manic episode and has a history of at least mildly depressed mood. d. is currently or most recently in an episode characterized by rapid alternation between manic and depressive episodes. |
A
The diagnosis of Bipolar, Most Recent Episode Manic, is assigned to individuals who currently or recently have experienced a manic episode, with a history of at least one of either Depressive Episodes, Manic Episodes, or Mixed Episodes. In other words, a history of depressive episodes may be present but is not necessary for the diagnosis. |
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A 10-year-old boy has no friends, yells at and annoys his parents, blames others for things he has done, and loses his temper and swears frequently. The most likely diagnosis for this boy would be
a. oppositional defiant disorder b. conduct disorder c. attention deficit disorder d. pervasive developmental disorder |
A
The child in this question is hostile and negative, but there is no evidence that he engages in the serious antisocial behavior that occurs in conduct disorder. |
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According to Salvador Minuchin, which of the following is most likely to be present in a family in which a teenage daughter is suffering from anorexia nervosa?
a. Adaptive responses to environmental input into the family system. b. Open expression of heated conflict. c. Over-protectiveness and limited individual autonomy. d. Rigid boundaries between family members. |
C
Minuchin believes that psychosomatic families (i.e., those families where asthma, diabetes, or anorexia results in hospitalization of a child) are more likely to be characterized by enmeshed, or diffuse, highly permeable boundaries. Family members have less autonomy and would be more protective of each other. |
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Certain obsessive and compulsive behaviors have been successfully treated with a behavioral approach. The most success has come from treatment which entailed:
a. systematic desensitization only. b. systematic desensitization with mild aversion. c. mild aversion combined with positive reinforcement. d. deliberate exposure with response prevention. |
D
Research suggests the best behavioral treatment for obsessive-compulsive disorder is deliberate exposure with response prevention - especially for the compulsive aspect of the disorder. |
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A research psychologist following the principle of informed consent informs subjects that due to the sensitive nature of the study, he wants them to participate only if they feel they can remain in the study to its completion. He asks that, by the end of the first experimental session, they commit themselves to continuing to completion. This practice, according to current standards of research practice, is
a. ethical b. unethical c. questionable, but not unethical d. not covered in the Ethical Principles |
B
According to the Ethical Standards, researchers are required to permit subjects to withdraw from a study at anytime. Moreover, the research must inform the subjects of their right to withdraw at anytime at the outset of the study. |
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If you, as an independent psychologist, learn during the
first interview that the client is currently receiving services from another professional, your most ethical response would be a. consult with the other professional before scheduling any further appointments b. inform the client that you cannot offer your services without first informing the other professional c. recognize that, as the consumer, this client has the right to use professional services in whatever way he or she pleases. d. discuss the issues raised with the client so as to minimize any confusion. |
D
When a client is already being served by another mental health professional, the psychologist must consider relevant issues and the potential client's welfare. |
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The Ethics Committee will review complaints from a. the general public only
b. both APA members and non-members c. APA members only d. licensed professionals in the mental health profession |
B
The Ethics Committee is responsible for adjudicating ethical complaints against members. Its primary concern is protecting the public against harmful acts by psychologists. Complaints can be made by APA members and non-members. |
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According to the General Guidelines for Psychological Services, doctoral level psychologists wishing to qualify themselves for a change in specialty
a. may be considered competent in the new area if they take an internship or acquire experience in a relevant practicum setting. b. must meet the same requirements with respect to subject matter and professional skills that apply to doctoral training in the new specialty c. should obtain appropriate professional supervision in their new service specialty. d. should receive a new Ph.D. in that specialty. |
B
Though a second Ph.D. is not necessary, complete training (including relevant course work and practicum or internship experience) in the new speciality area is required. |
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The Ethics Committee can act "sua sponte" less than one year after it is discovered that any of the following has become final except:
a. a misdemeanor conviction. b. a felony conviction. c. a finding of malpractice. d. de-licensure. |
A
The Ethics Committee will not act on anonymous complaints, but will act "sua sponte" (on its own) without a complaint, less than one year after it is discovered that any of the following has become final: a felony conviction, a finding of malpractice, expulsion or suspension from a state association for unethical conduct or delicensure by a state board. |
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The Preamble and General Principles are
a. enforceable rules for conduct b. guidelines for the public c. applicable to both the psychologist's personal and professional life. d. aspirational goals. |
D
The Preamble and General Principles are aspirational goals to guide psychologists toward the highest ideals of psychology. |
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According to the Ethical Principles, bartering as a method of payment for psychological services is
a. ethical if no exploitation is involved and it is not clinically contraindicated b. ethical if the therapist barters for goods of known value, as opposed to services c. unethical under any circumstances d. ethical only at the beginning of treatment |
A
Choice A is a direct quote from the APA's Ethical Standards. |
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For 9 months now, your long term client has made no significant progress in therapy, even after you've revised the treatment goals several times. You should probably
a. gently state your perception of the situation and encourage the client's response b. seek supervision c. interpret your formulation for the present resistance d. seek an appropriate referral for the client. |
D
According to APA Ethical Standards, psychologists terminate professional relationships when it becomes reasonable clear that the patient or client no longer needs the service, is not benefitting, or is being harmed by continuing service. |
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The purpose of the state licensing board is to a. protect the public
b. set minimum standards of practice. c. oversee the profession. d. educate the public. |
A
The primary purpose of state licensing boards is to protect the public. |
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The General Principle of Competence in APA's Ethical Principles of Psychologists and Code of Conduct includes discussion of
a. a psychologists recognizing the boundaries of his expertise b. promoting integrity c. consulting with colleagues in order avoid unethical conduct d. a psychologist seeking to contribute to the welfare of those with whom they interact professionally. |
A
The Principle of Competence includes recognizing the boundaries of one's expertise. |
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The private conduct of a psychologist
a. is his/her private business b. is also subject to the Ethics Code c. is private, except when it reduces the public's trust d. is only of concern if the psychologist has a private practice. |
C
General Principle C states that a psychologist's personal conduct is a private matter EXCEPT as it may compromise his/her professional responsibilities or reduce the public's trust in psychologists. |
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A father brings his son to a psychologist to be evaluated as recommended by the boy's school. In the course of the evaluation, the psychologist discovers that the father is not the custodial parent. The psychologist should
a. continue with the evaluation, but refuse to release the results until a written consent is obtained from the custodial parent. b. stop the evaluation until a written consent is obtained from the custodial parent c. continue with the evaluation, but mail the results to the custodial parent only d. obtain consent from the father and send the report to the school |
The non-custodial parent has no rights (or limited ones) in dealing with psychologists. Therefore, it is most appropriate not to deal with the father at this time, and wait until you obtain permission from the custodial parent before proceeding with the evaluation.
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A consulting psychologist prints testimonials from
former clients in a brochure advertising her services to corporations. According to the latest revisions of the Ethical Principles, this is: a. ethical and legal b. unethical and illegal c. unethical, unless the testimonials were not solicited. d. unethical, but not illegal |
C
Ethical standards prohibit solicitation of testimonials from current clients or persons who are "vulnerable to undue influence" which likely applies to former clients. So use of testimonials would not be ethical unless they were unsolicited. |
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A marriage, family, and child counselor is about to receive a PhD in clinical psychology and meets his own state's requirements for taking the psychology licensing exam. His business card includes information about his hours, his phone number, and the words "PhD Candidate". Which of the following is always true about the situation? He is
a. engaging in unethical conduct, because the term "PhD Candidate" could be misleading b. in violation of ethical and legal standards c. engaging in unethical conduct, because such a person should not be distributing business cards. d. not engaging in unethical conduct, because all of the information on the business card is truthful. |
A
Psychologist are not permitted to make public statements that are false, fraudulent, or misleading. Even if a statement is true, it can be misleading. |
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The phrase "holder of privilege"
a. is a legal term signifying that the client (or legal guardian thereof) in a psychotherapeutic relationship has the right, though not absolute, to protect his privacy. b. means that both the therapist and client jointly decide on what information discussed during therapy will be divulged in a court of law. c. is intended to protect the therapy client by restricting information about the therapeutic relationship that can be divulged in a court of law to whatever the therapist feels is in the client's best interest. d. has exactly the same meaning as "confidentiality" as it applies to the psychotherapeutic relationship. |
A
The term "privilege" refers to a person's right to prevent confidential information from being revealed in a legal proceeding. An adult client is the holder of privilege; this means it is the client's prerogative to claim or waive the privilege. |
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A clinical psychologist announces his services by advertising his name, degree, fee, and APA membership in a boxed section of a local newspaper. According to recent changes in APAs Ethical Principles, this action is:
a. permissible b. illegal c. unethical d. unprofessional and illegal |
A
There is nothing in this ad that appears to be false, fraudulent, misleading, deceptive, or unethical in any way. |
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As a clinical psychologist in private practice, you have been asked aby a single father to perform a standardized test battery and to forward the report to the local school psychologist. You do so, noting the child's unusual responses and suggesting hypotheses that need further follow-up. The father now demands a copy of the report. You should:
a. send him a summary of the report that explains the findings in clearly stated language. b. tell the father that you have performed your agreed obligation and owe him nothing further. c. offer to discuss the reasons why it would be inappropriate for him to have access to the results. d. refer him to the school psychologist who will have integrated your report with additional information of his own. |
A
APA guidelines require that assessment results be provided to the person assessed or legally authorized persons in language that is "reasonably understandable". |
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You are seeing a teenager in therapy. The guidance counselor from the teenager's school calls you requesting advice on how to deal with a recent incident at school in which your client was involved. Your best course of action is to:
a. politely inform the counselor you cannot discuss any client until written permission from the client and the client's parents have been obtained. b. ask the counselor to describe the incident at school, and then offer some general suggestions for dealing with the problem. c. provide some very limited information about your client, only in the areas specifically relevant to the school incident, to help the counselor help your client. d. offer to come over to the school as soon as possible to talk over the incident with your client and pertinent school personnel. |
A
Permission from the client's parents would be required before you could speak to the school counselor. |
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Assume you are in private practice seeing a client whose fees to you are reimbursed by an insurance company. The insurance company contacts you for information about the client and the client has signed a release of confidentiality. Your most appropriate action is to:
a. give the insurance company whatever information it is seeking since you have a signed release. b. withhold all information because even though the client signed a release, he had to sign it in order to receive reimbursement, and his signature under those circumstances is not binding. c. carefully inquire what information the insurance company is seeking and for what purpose and give it only what is necessary. d. explain to the insurance company that you can supply it with only the diagnosis and treatment data. |
C
In communications with third parties, psychologists include only information that is "germane to the purpose for which the communication is made". You would limit the information released to that which is relevant to the purpose at hand. |
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You receive a subpoena to bring your records regarding a patient to the local courthouse, so that copies can be made for later use as evidence in the patient's pending trial for car theft. The patient has entered a plea of not guilty by reason of insanity, but does not want you to release his records for use as evidence in the court proceeding. Legally, you would be required to
a. withhold the records based on the patient's legal right to confidentiality. b. produce the records unless the patient chooses to change his plea to eliminate the issue of his mental status c. provide the records only after deleting material that you do not deem pertinent to the trial d. refuse to provide the records, citing the principles of the APA Ethical Principles of Psychologists |
B
Whenever a person raises his/her mental status or mental condition as an issue in a legal matter, privilege is waived and the client cannot deny the court access to psychotherapy records or the therapist's testimony. |
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You and your husband have recently divorced and you notice yourself "taking the wife's side" when you do couple's counseling. You should:
a. seek supervision b. enroll in a treatment center c. see only the female part of the marital dyad for now d. terminate your practice until you can deal with your personal problem |
A
Psychologists have an obligation to be alert to signs of, and to obtain assistance for their personal problems at an early stage, in order to prevent significantly impaired performance." |
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You have a client who is a famous artist. Rather than
pay for her sessions, she would like to give you one of her paintings. She knows the commercial selling value and thus you could determine the fee appropriately. You should: a. agree to this since there is an agreed upon market value b. keep to your already established fee c. agree to this, but only buy the painting through her dealer. d. refuse; her art is modern and you are more of a traditionalist |
B
The fact that your client wants to "give" you a painting may hint at clinically relevant material to be explored. Until you can be sure that the exchange would not be clinically contraindicated, it is best to err on the side of caution. |
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In regard to psychotherapist-patient sex, which of the following statements is true?
a. Although sex with a current patient is prohibited, sex with a former patient is ethical. b. Sex with a former patient is ethical, so long as at least two years has passed since the termination of the therapeutic relationship c. Sex with a former patient may be acceptable so long as B above is true and the therapist can demonstrate, in light of all relevant factors, that the patient has not been harmed or exploited. d. Sex with a current or former patient is unethical regardless of the circumstances. |
C
Even after the two year interval, psychologists cannot have sex with a former client except in very rare instances when the psychologist can demonstrate, in light of all relevant factors, that there has been no exploitation. |
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In most states, the legal criteria used in determining whether or not a person can be involuntarily hospitalized focuses on:
a. whether or not the person has a mental disorder b. the person's ability to regulate his or her own life c. whether it is in the person's best interests to stay in the hospital d. danger to self or others |
D
According to federal court rulings, a state cannot involuntarily confine an individual merely because he or she is suffering from a mental illness. Instead the mental illness must pose a danger to self or others. |
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Job analysis refers to the process of
a. determining the specific skills and behaviors that are required for doing a given job effectively b. determining the job aptitudes of incumbents that distinguish successful from unsuccessful people c. screening job applicants for a given job based upon the results of a job-related assessment measure. d. presenting the job equities and inequities to the job applicants. |
A
A job analysis describes, in specific terms, the precise nature of the component tasks performed by workers on a particular job. As part of the process, the analysis will identify the skills, knowledge, and experience needed to perform the job satisfactorily. |
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According to Herzberg's two-factor theory of job satisfaction,
a. hygiene factors are more related to worker dissatisfaction than to worker satisfaction b. motivators and hygiene factors vary from occupation to occupation, with blue collar workers being more influenced by hygiene factors than by motivators c. motivators include job security and job pay d. motivators include working conditions and recognition |
A
Herzberg's two-factor theory divides factors influencing job satisfaction and dissatisfaction into two types: hygiene and motivators. Hygiene factors (i.e., lower level needs including pay, safety, and benefits) produce dissatisfaction when they are not present, but have no effect on satisfaction when they are present. Motivators (i.e., meaningful work) produce satisfaction when present, but have no effect on dissatisfaction when absent. |
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In the selection of employees, a company uses a particular test that has moderate predictive validity. The company hires applicants scoring above the mean on the test, but this cutoff score has resulted in an unacceptably high percentage of "false positives" (i.e., employees who are expected to succeed, but don't). A useful strategy to obtain a higher proportion of "true positives" using the same test would be
a. raise the cutoff score b. lower the cutoff score c. change the criterion measure d. increase the number of applicants |
A
Raising the predictor cutoff score is a useful way of reducing the proportion of false positives. The people who succeed on the more stringent measure are more likely to succeed on the job. |
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Research carried out by McClelland and Atkinson suggests that people who are high in need for achievement (nAch) prefer tasks of
a. moderate difficulty with performance feedback b. high difficulty without performance feedback c. low difficulty without performance feedback d. high difficulty with performance feedback |
A
People with a high need for achievement prefer tasks of moderate difficulty (tasks that are too difficult may frustrate them, tasks to easy may not provide a sense of accomplishment). |
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A mechanical reasoning test has been shown to have very high (.8) validity for male and lower (.4) validity for female applicants for a position as a drill press operator. If the company hs to ensure that the same proportion of individuals from each gender who are hired will be successful on the job, the company will have (assuming legality is not an issue)
a. require a higher cutoff score for female applicants b. give all women compensatory training c. reasses the criterion measure d. use a test of verbal aptitude for women |
A
If a predictor has only a moderate correlation with job performance, it will not be accurate at predicting one's status on the criterion (i.e., job performance). In such a case, choosing only those who score extremely high on the predictor will increase the chance that scores on the criterion (i.e., job performance) will be adequate. |
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An industrial corporation has developed five new rules in an effort to increase worker safety. Probably the most effective method for transmission of the rules would be to a. include the rules with the workers paychecks
b. prepare the workers for an important announcement, then post the rules on numerous bulletin boards c. have the foreman pass out the rules and discuss them at a regularly scheduled meeting d. use the "grapevine" to arouse interest and speculation; then have supervisors announce the rules one week later. |
C
Safety experts generally agree that training is the single most effective technique for bringing about safe work behaviors. A discussion of the rules at a regularly scheduled meeting is the best way to ensure that all the workers will be aware of and understand those rules. |
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An industrial corporation has developed five new rules in an effort to increase worker safety. Probably the most effective method for transmission of the rules would be to a. include the rules with the workers paychecks
b. prepare the workers for an important announcement, then post the rules on numerous bulletin boards c. have the foreman pass out the rules and discuss them at a regularly scheduled meeting d. use the "grapevine" to arouse interest and speculation; then have supervisors announce the rules one week later. |
C
Safety experts generally agree that training is the single most effective technique for bringing about safe work behaviors. A discussion of the rules at a regularly scheduled meeting is the best way to ensure that all the workers will be aware of and understand those rules. |
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As a junior college counselor, your first choice of a vocational interest test to administer to a very bright 20-year old woman would be
a. Strong Interest Inventory b. General Aptitude Test Battery c. Kuder Occupational Interest Survey d. Kuder Vocational Preference Record |
A
The Strong Interest Inventory is the appropriate interest inventory to administer to individuals interested in business and professional occupations. |
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Tests of psychomotor abilities for job selection procedures
a. have not been reliably constructed b. can be easily substituted for each other because of a common factor c. are useful as predictors in a wide range of jobs and environments d. must be very specific to the jobs being selected for. |
D
When using a psychomotor test to predict job performance, one must ensure that the abilities assessed by the test are the exact abilities required to perform the job. |
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For personnel hiring programs, a test with low validity (e.g., 30) is considered adequate as long as
a. selection ratios are high b. selection ratios are low c. reliability figures are high d. drop-out ratios are low |
B
Utility of a job selection test refers to the benefit an organization accrues from using the test as compared to not using the test. A low selection ratio (i.e., ratio of job openings to job applicants) is one factor that increases the utility of a job selection measure. A low selection ratio then can compensate for a low validity coefficient and the test may still be considered adequate. |
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For effective administration of a six scientist laboratory that is oriented toward new product development, which of the following types of communication networks (structures) should the administrator prefer?
a. centralized b. decentralized c. moderately centralized d. moderately decentralized |
B
Decentralized communication networks, or those in which communication does not flow through only one person, are more effective than centralized networks for accomplishing complex tasks in an organization. |
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The quality and quantity of work produced by a group tends to be lowest with which of the following styles of leadership?
a. democratic b. autocratic c. employee-centered d. laissez-faire |
D
Under laissez-faire leadership, subordinates make their own decisions with little or now guidance from the leader. Under this type of leadership, satisfaction and productivity are lower than under autocratic or democratic leadership. |
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Interest inventories are least useful in predicting a. job performance
b. job choice c. job satisfaction d. job persistence |
A
Interest inventories have moderate validity for predicting variables related to job satisfaction and job choice. They have little to no validity in predicting job performance or job success. |
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Research on applicability of Maslow's hierarchy theory to the workplace suggests that
a. the theory seems to apply very well to industrial settings b. the theory seems to apply well only for lower level workers. c. the theory seems to apply well only at higher levels of the hierarchy d. the theory does not apply very well to workplace settings |
D
Overall, research suggests that Maslow's hierarchy of needs does not apply all that well to the workplace. For instance, research has refuted Maslow's notion that needs lose motivating value after they have been fulfilled. |
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Which of the following is not true of the force-choice (FC) method of employee evaluation?
a. FC inventories are very costly to develop b. FC inventories may increase dissatisfaction among raters because the prevent raters from deciding for themselves who is a "good" employee and who is a "bad" one c. As compared to other methods of worker evaluation, FC method has low validity d. FC decreases the probability that criterion contamination will occur. |
C
Contrary to choice C, FC is a relatively valid method of evaluation since it prevents raters from injecting their own biases into the process. The other choices are true. |
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Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scales include ______ as items.
a. critical incidents b. negative job behaviors, but not positive ones c. positive job behaviors, but not negative ones d. Likert scale type questions |
A
On BARS, each item is a series of critical incidents with each incident tied to a a numerical point on a scale. |
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One advantage of biodata as a selection tool is that it is particularily useful for:
a. predicting job satisfaction b. predicting job interest c. predicting job turnover d. predicting job nepotism |
C
Biodata is particularly useful in predicting job turnover. |
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Which of the following would be an example of vestibule training?
a. interest inventory testing b. giving someone a training manual c. in-basket, out-basket d. having new employees attend a series of informative lectures |
C
Vestibule training involves training in a physical replication of simulation of the actual work environment and conditions. |
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Fiedler's Contingency Theory or LPC proposes
a. that a leader's effectiveness is determined by a combination of the leader's style and the characteristics of the situation. b. subordinate's motivation is maximized when they perceive that the leader is helping them achieve their goals. c. leaders are described in terms of task and relationship orientation. d. a distinction between transformational and transactional leaders. |
A
Fiedler believed a leader's effectiveness could be determined by his style and the situation in which he found himself. |
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Which of the following is not one of Holland's personality types?
a. Artistic b. Investigative c. Scientific d. Realistic |
C
Holland's 6 personality types include:realistic, investigative, artistic, social, enterprising, and conventional (RIASEC). |
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Super's theory of career development is based on the assumption that
a. career development can be described in terms of a predictable sequence of stages. b. personality variables and occupational environments are of interest c. vocational choice is linked to children's experience with their parents d. there is a hierarchy of needs that impacts our vocational choice |
Super discussed a series of stages in career development.
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Adverse impact, a selection procedure that produces a
substantially different rate of selection for different groups that are defined on the basis of gender, race, age, etc., can be determined mathematically using the a. 30% rule b. 60% rule c. 80% rule d. 90% rule |
C
Adverse impact is determined mathematically using the 30% rule. Adverse impact occurs when the selection rate for a minority group is less than 80% of the selection rate of the majority group. |
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Chin and Benne divide planned change in organizations into three types:
a. autocratic, consultative, group decision b. instrumental, supportive, participative c. empirical-rational, normative-reeducative, power-coercive d. decision making, career path, responsibility |
C
Chin and Benn's three types of organizational change are: empirical-rational (people are rational if given pertinent information they will act in their self interest), normative-reeducative (social norms underlie patterns of behavior), and power-coercive (strategies involving the use of rewards) |
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You are hired by a large corporation with many branch offices and are asked to develop a program to help employees in all branches quit smoking. As a psychologist familiar with the literature in this area, you are most likely to
a. institute a competition between branches and meet with employees regularly to help them develop and monitor stepwise treatment plans b. reimburse employees for tx at a smoking reduction clinic c. provide employees with information about the negative effects of smoking d. have the personnel manager inform employees that salaries will be reduced for those who do not quit smoking |
A
Choice A includes many empirically supported components: competition (increased motivation), clinical intervention, and extended contact. Contest with specific incentives have generally been found to be more effective than other methods designed to induce employees to reach specific goals. |
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To identify "critical incidents" you would
a. have employees identify what they like most about their work b. have supervisors identify work-related behaviors that are associated with outstanding and inferior performance c. have supervisors identify "critical points" in each worker's tenure on the job d. have personnel managers identify what characteristics of job applicants they consider in making their hiring decisions. |
B
Ask supervisors to observe employees and identify specific behaviors associated with particularly effective and ineffective job performance. |
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Which of the following schedules of reinforcement produces a fairly even rate of performance during acquisition and would also be fairly resistant to extinction?
a. rewarding every 5th response b. rewarding a response every 5-minutes c. rewarding responses randomly d. rewarding every response |
C
A variable ratio schedule produces behavior that is more resistant to extinction. |
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One of the distinguishing marks of latent learning is that a. it never affects the organism's overt behavior patterns
b. it occurs only in man, being dependent on language c. behavioral consequences appear only at a later time d. it depends on secondary, rather than primary, reinforcement |
C
Edward Tolman, rats allowed to roam maze, but they did not display the ability to solve the maze until food was placed at the end of the path. Learning was latent in that it did not immediately manifest in behavior until there was incentive to do so. |
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If a well designed and properly executed experiment found that 30-min of exercise made it more difficult to memorize an 8-line poem afterwards, then it could be said that the effects of exercise on memorization demonstrates a. retroactive inhibition
b. negative chaining c. proactive inhibition d. unintended forgetting |
C
Proactive inhibition occurs when memory for stimuli (the 8 line poem) is interferred with by a previous task or activity. |
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Regarding the process of modeling and observational learning, which statement is true?
a. introducing a positive incentive has little or no effect upon the probability that an observed behavior will be performed b. Models who are consumers of reinforcement are imitated more often by children than models who dispense reinforcement c. Regardless of whether or not a model is punished immediately after he performs a given behavior, the behavior is just as likely to be imitated. d. It is possible for learning to occur without reinforcement or behavioral practice. |
D
According to social learning theory, it is possible to learn a behavior simply by watching a model perform it. |
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The distinction between punishment and negative reinforcement is:
a. with punishment, a stimulus presented following a response decreases the response's frequency, while negative reinforcement involves removing a stimuls to decrease the response frequency. b. with punishment, a stimulus is presented following a response to decrease the response's frequency, while negative reinforcemet involves removing a stimulus to increase the response's freq. c. both involve removing a stimulus following a response, which decreases the freq of the responses. d. both involve presenting a stimulus following a response, which decreases the frequency of the response. |
B
Neg Reinf = removing a stimulus (usually aversive) following a behavior in order to increase future freq of the behavior Punishment = adding a stimulus (usually aversive) following a response to decrease the future freq |
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Satiation, as practiced by behavior therapists, is most similar to which of the following techniques practiced by family therapists?
a. prescribing the symptom b. reframing c. doubling d. family sculpture |
A
Satiation involves having someone engage in the problem behavior until that behavior loses its reinforcing properties. Prescribing the symptom asks family members to engage in the problem behavior in order to weaken their resistance to treatment. |
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Scalloped responding occurs with which type of reinforcement schedule?
a. variable ratio b. variable interval c. fixed ratio d. fixed interval |
D
The scallop on fixed interval schedules refers to the low rate of responding seen right after delivery of the reinforcement and the escalation of responding near the time of the next reinforcement delivery. |
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A dog is repeatedly exposed to a light paired with food. Then, the dog is exposed to repeated pairings of that light with a tone. Eventually, presentation of the tone alone elicits salivation in the dog. This illustrates the process of:
a. stimulus generalization b. the method of successive approximations c. the Premack Principle d. higher-order conditioning |
D
In higher order conditioning, a stimulus that had previously been a CS is paired with another neutral stimulus (NS) until that NS also comes to elicit the conditioned response. |
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Which of the following techniques involves the lost opportunity for reinforcement?
a. response cost b. time-out c. overcorrection d. punishment |
B
The purspose of time-out is to deny the person access to an environment that offers the opportunity for reinforcement. |
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The technique of sensate focus is based on the behavioral principle of:
a. counterconditioning b. flooding c. extinction d. mutual pleasure-giving |
A
Counterconditioning involves pairing a response targetted for elimination with an incompatible, adaptive response, so that the former is eliminated. |
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A group of sales people is told that they will be paid on an irregular basis. In reality, they are paid after every 5th sale. This illustrates which type of reinforcement schedule? a. fixed interval
b. fixed ratio c. variable interval d. variable ratio |
B
Fixed ratio schedules reinforcement an organism after a set number of responses. |
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The paradigm of insight learning is associated with which of the following theorists?
a. Wolpe b. Meichenbaum c. Tolman d. Kohler |
D
Kohler's experiment: good outside a chimps cage, two short sticks inside cage, chimp has "aha" idea of fitting the two sticks together to reach food. |
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Which of the following statements is true of implosive therapy, but not true of flooding?
a. it involves exposing the patient to a feared stimulus b. it is at least partially based on the principles of classical extinction. c. It is based on the principle of repeated presentation of a conditioned stimulus outside the presence of an unconditioned stimulus resulting in elimination of the conditioned response. d. It is based, at least to some degree, on the principles of psychoanalytic theory |
D
Implosive therapy, but not flooding, involves exposure to the aspects of the feared stimulus that are believed to be related to unconscious conflicts. |
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Theoretically, in order for counterconditioning
treatment to be successful, which statement is true? a. The anxiety-provoking stimulus should be sufficiently strong to overcome the subject's reaction to the anxiety-neutralizing stimulus. b. The anxiety-neutralizing stimulus is usually presented immediately after the anxiety-evoking stimulus is presented c. The anxiety-evoking stimulus should be presented initially in attenuated forms, so that the stimulus value is less powerful than the anxiety-neutralizing stimulus d. Immediate in-vivo exposure to anxiety-evoking stimuli at the highest level of intensity is much more effective than graded exposure. |
C
Counterconditioning involves pairing a maladaptive response (usually anxiety) with an adaptive response (usually relaxation) that is incompatible with the maladaptive response. Important to expose the person gradually to the anxiety-evoking stimuli so that the anxiety will not overwhelm the emerging relaxation response. |
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Primary memory is equivalent to: a. secondary memory
b. long-term memory c. short-term memory d. autobiographical memory |
C
Primary memory is most often referred to as short-term memory (remembered less than a few minutes). |
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An event that increases a behavior in either a positive or negative fashion is a(n):
a. reinforcer b. punisher c. enforcer d. operant |
A
Reinforcers increase the probability of a behavior occurring again in the future. |
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An example of the Premack Principle is:
a. "Go to your room. That is an order." b. "Let me explain the rules." c. Physically guiding a child to pick up toys. d. "First, pick up your room, then you can go outside and play." |
D
Premack = using a high probability behavior to reinforce a low probability behavior. |
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Thinking about thinking" is the definition of: a. a cognitive map
b. feature integration c. selective attention d. metacognition |
D
Metacognition, thinking about thinking, refers to an individual's awareness about her own cognitive state and process. |
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Four groups of subjects study the same list of nonsense syllables. Afterwards, group 1 study a list of similar syllables. Group 2 studies a list of dissimilar syllables. Group 3 reads a novel. Group 4 goes to sleep. On a subsequent test of recall, subjects in which group are most likely to display the best memory.
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 |
D
Interference theory would suggest that individuals who sleep would forget fewer syllables than those who remain awake since there would be less retroactive interference or subsequent learning to interfere with the learning of the syllables. |
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Declarative memory is to procedural memory as: a. fact is to skill
b. short-term is to long-term memory c. implicit is to explicit memory d. echoic is to iconic |
A
Choice A correctly associates declaritive memory to facts and procedural memory to skills. In choice C, the terms are reversed. |
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After a tachistoscopic presentation of a number sequence, the person reports she is still able to "see" the image. This is an example of:
a. retroactive memory b. retroactive inhibition c. iconic memory d. short-term visual memory |
C
Iconic memory consists of an image in the visual receptors for a very short period of time. |
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Inability to convert short-term into long-term memory is associated with damage to the:
a. RAS b. hippocampus c. septum d. raphe nucleus |
B
The hippocampus is believed to be responsible for transferring information from short-term to long-term memory. |
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Following a stroke, a patient appears to understand spoken speech, but has great difficulty speaking or writing. He is especially troubled by prepositions and finds it difficult to order his words. He has probably sustained a lesion in the: a. frontal lobe
b. Broca's area c. Wernicke's area d. left parietal lobe |
B
Broca's area, located in the frontal cortex of the left hemisphere, is the area of the brain responsible for expressive speech. |
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Which of the following brain structures serves as a relay station for sensory information from all sensory modalities except olfaction?
a. hypothalamus b. corpus callosum c. thalamus d. hippocampus |
C
Sensory information (except smell) is sent to the thalamus and then projected to the cerebral cortex. Olfactory information is sent directly to the cortex. |
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In the depressed patient, which of the central nervous system neurotransmitters listed below is most likely to be at a below average level?
a. GABA b. acetylcholine c. endorphin d. serotonin |
D
Low levels of serotonin (as well as norepinephrine) have been associated with depression. Newer antidepressants (e.g., Zoloft, Prozac) exert their effects on brain serotonin levels. |
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Which of the following is true of the laws governing a nerve cell or neuron?
a. The intensity of the neuron's activity varies directly with the electrical activity inside the neuron. b. When a certain level of electrical activity is reached inside the neuron, a neuron fires at its maximum intensity. If the electrical activity is below that level, the neuron does not fire. c. When exposed to an intense stimulus, such as intense pain, an individual neuron will send out a stronger signal than when exposed to a weaker stimulus. d. Electrical activity inside a neuron has nothing to do with the neuron's behavior. |
B
Neuron's function on a "all or nothing" law. When electrical activity reaches a certain threshold (action potential) the neuron fires at maximum strength. Increasing the electrical charge above the AP does not increase the magnitude of the neuron's signal. |
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Which of the following is concerned chiefly with the preparation of smooth muscles and glands for emergency situations?
a. autonomic nervous system b. central nervous system c. sympathetic nervous system d. parasympathetic nervous system |
C
The autonomic nervous system consists of two branches: sympathetic and parasympathetic. Sympathetic mobilizes the body's resources for "fight or flight". Parasympathetic deactivates the organ systems activated in the fight of flight response. |
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The neurotransmitter most associated with voluntary muscle movements is:
a. norepinephrine b. serotonin c. acetylcholine d. dopamine |
C
Acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter involved in neural signals to voluntary muscles. |
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The ARAS (Ascending Reticular Activating System) produces its effects on motivation by:
a. channeling sensory input to the proper region of the cortex b. providing diffuse facilitation to the entire cortex c. inhibiting irrelevant input from the receptors d. providing generalized facilitation to all of the muscles |
B
The ARAS is involved in behavioral arousal. It screens input to the brain and provides diffuse stimulation to the entire cortex when important information must be processed. |
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If elderly patients are given chlorpromazine for an extended period of time, the most likely side effect would be: a. tardive dyskinesia
b. Parkinson's Disease c. Huntington's Chorea d. difficulties sleeping |
A
Tardive dyskinesia (involuntary rhythmic movements) is a side effect of neuroleptics (antipsychotic medications). Chlorpromazine (Thorazine) is a neuroleptic. |
