Study your flashcards anywhere!

Download the official Cram app for free >

  • Shuffle
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Alphabetize
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Front First
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Both Sides
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Read
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
Reading...
Front

How to study your flashcards.

Right/Left arrow keys: Navigate between flashcards.right arrow keyleft arrow key

Up/Down arrow keys: Flip the card between the front and back.down keyup key

H key: Show hint (3rd side).h key

A key: Read text to speech.a key

image

Play button

image

Play button

image

Progress

1/320

Click to flip

320 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
DSM's multiaxial assessment system provides an opportunity for the clinician to record information about all of the following, except

a. a general medical condition that may influence the course of treatment for the mental disorder

b. etiology of the mental disorders diagnosed.

c. the individual's highest level functioning at discharge

d. the psychosocial problems impinging on the individual
B. etiology of the mental disorders diagnosed
DSMIV TR suggests that Axis II is useful because

a. it allows the clinician to record personality traits, and most individuals with an Axis I disorder also have maladaptive personality traits that require a co-diagnosis of a Personality Disorder.

b. unlike Axis I disorders, Axis II disorders do not normally cause impairment in functioning

c. it helps ensure that the clinician will not overlook the possibility that a patient may have Mental Retardation or a Personality Disorder

d. it allows the clinician to estimate treatment outcome with more certainty
c. it helps ensure that the clinician will not overlook the possibility that a patient may have Mental Retardation or a Personality Disorder
Which of the following is true of moderately retarded individuals?

a. They can be trained to do semiskilled work under supervision.

b. They can reach an 8th grade level of school achievement.

c. They represent 3-4% of the mentally retarded population.

d. They require constant supervision throughout their lives.
a. They can be trained to do semiskilled work under supervision.
Which of the following would be most likely to lead you to rule out a Learning Disorder in a child who seems to meet the criteria for this diagnosis?

a. he has a vision deficit

b. He has mild Mental Retardation

c. He has had substandard educational experiences for several years.

d. His academic achievement is low.
c. He has had substandard educational experiences for several years.
Which of the following statements is most true about reading disabilities?

a. Individuals with reading diabilities may continue to have difficulties in adulthood

b. Reading disabilities are the result of subtle deficits in hearing.

Individuals with reading disabilities have poor vocabularies.

The disorder is distressing for individuals but it does not usually impair their functioning.
a. Individuals with reading disabilities may continue to have difficulties in adulthood.
Which of the following is not true about Autism?

a. Most people with Autism do not speak and, when they do, their speech is usually abnormal.

b. Some signs of the disorder must be present before age three.

c. The majority of persons with Autism are mentally retarded.

d. Compared to children with Autism, older Autistics are more socially withdrawn.
d. Compared to children with Autism, older Autistics are more socially withdrawn - the opposite is true.
A child who speaks normally, but exhibits grossly impaired social interaction and restricted patterns of behavior, interests, and activities would probably receive which diagnosis?

a. Atypical Autism

b. Autistic Disorder

C. Asperger's Disorder

d. Rett's Disorder
c. Asperger's Disorder
Which of the following is the most important aspect of treatment for a child suffering from school phobia?

a. Using techniques of play therapy to explore the underlying cause of the problem.

b. using a combination of behavior therapy and family therapy

c. getting the child back to school as soon as possible.

d. assessing the parents to determine if they are suffering from psychopathology.
c. getting the child back to school as soon as possible.
A 10 yo who often disrupts others, fidgets or runs about even when his parents and teachers ask him to sit quietly, talks and moves constantly, and has great difficulty waiting patiently for his turn when playing games with his friends would be most likely to receive which of the following dx?

a. Oppositional Defiant Disorder

b. ADHD, predominantly Hyperactive=Impulsive Ty[e

c. ADHD, predominantly Inattentive Type

d. Conduct Disorder
b. ADHD, Predominantly Hyperactive-Impulsive Type.
A patient with Huntington's Chorea presents with significant personality changes. Of the following, which would provide the most conclusive evidence that the patient has a Mental Disorder Due to a General Medical Condition?

a. The personality change occurred just after the patient was dx with Huntington's Chorea.

b. The personality disturbance and the disease are related through a physiological mechanism.

c. The nature and duration of the patient's personality disturbance do not meet the threshold for a Personality Disorder dx.
b. B. Marked by mental sx that are due to the direct physiological consequences of a medical condition.
A patient presents with signs of mania following the use of cocaine. Which of the following facts about the case would most incline you toward a diagnosis of Cocaine-Induced Mood Disorder?

a. The patient's symptoms are typical of those that occur in the course of Cocaine Intoxication.

b. The patient has a hx of multiple hospitalizations due to Bipolar I Disorder.

c. The patient has used only a small amount of cocaine.

d. The patient's manic symptoms are severe enough to require him to be hospitalized for his own protection.
d. The patient's manic symptoms are severe enough to require him to be hospitalized for his own protection. A substance-induced Mood Disorder would only be dx if the mood symptoms were significant enough to warrant independent clinical attention.... best answer available.
All of the following are true about Mental Disorders Due to a General Medical Condition, except

a. They are diagnosed whenever a person's mental symptoms are connected in some way to a physical factor

b. they sometimes can emerge years after the onset of the medical condition.

c. they may involve a variety of different types of symptoms, including sexual dysfunctions, sleep disorders, and anxiety disorder.

d. when they are diagnosed, the name of the medical condition is recorded on both Axis I and Axis III.
a. they are diagnosed whenever a person's mental symptoms are connected in some way to a physical factor.... NOT TRUE
Which of the following circumstances is always present in Delirium, Dementia, or an Amnestic Disorder?

a. The cause is an underlying medical condition.

b. There is significant impairment in memory.

c. The specific underlying cause is known.

d. The symptoms represent a significant decline from a previous level of functioning.
d. The symptoms represent a significant decline from a previous level of functioning.
When Dementia or an Amnestic Disorder is due to the effects of a substance

a. the person is currently intoxicated with the substance

b. the person is currently experiencing the effects of intoxication or Withdrawal

c. the symptoms are due to the persisting effects of substance use

d. the person usually has no hx of substance abuse
c. the symptoms are due to the persisting effects of substance use
An elderly woman complains of a sudden development of memory and cognitive problems. She appears to be confused, apathetic, and restless. A CT scan shows no remarkable physical impairments and it has been determined that the woman uses no substances or medications and that there has been no exposure to a toxin. What is a likely diagnosis?

a. pseudodementia
b. vascular dementia
c. delirium
d. Alzheimer's Disease
a. pseudodementia
Which of the following would it be the most important to attend to in differentiating Alzheimer's Disease from Vascular Dementia?

a. age of onset

b. patient's response to external stimuli

c. clinical course of the illness

d. neurologic symptoms
c. clinical course of the illness
An elderly retired professor displays a significantly below average IQ score, impaired memory, and no awareness of his impariment. He presents as conscious and alert. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

a. Alzheimer's Disease

b. Delirium

c. pseudodementia

d. brain damage
a. Alzheimer's Disease
Bill G. experiments with barbiturates. he starts with small doses. Over time, he has to take larger and larger doses in order to experience the desired effect. Bill is experiencing

a. tolerance

b. addiction

c. withdrawal

d. dependence
a. tolerance
Jane smokes marijuana every weekend. She also smokes occasionally during the week, in response to a particular stressful event. Based on this information, we know that Jane, in terms of DSMIV-TR diagnostic classification, is suffering from

a. substance abuse

b. substance dependence

c. Cannabis-induced psychotic Disorder
d. none of the above.
d. none of the above - just because someone regularly uses a substance does not mean that there is a maladaptive pattern of use leading to significant impairment or distress
According to Marlatt and Gordon, an initial relapse in recovering alcoholic is most likely to lead to further relapses if the person

a. attributes the relapse to internal and stable cuses

b. attributes the relapse to external and unstable causes

c. continues to associate with a lot of people who are addicts

d. is socially isolated
a. attributes the relapse to internal and stable causes
A person with a long history of chronic alcohol use stops drinking, and experiences a disturbance of consciousness, hallucinations, agitation, and autonmic arousal. This is most likely

a. delirium tremens

b. alcohol withdrawal

c. alcohol-induced persisting dementia

d. korsakoff's syndrome
b. alcohol withdrawal
Caffeine intoxication is associated with all of the following, except

a. diuresis

b. normal functioning in spite of physiological and behavioral symptoms

c. a sense of having boundless energy

d. significant distress for the person who is intoxicated
b. normal functioning in spite of physiological and bx symptoms
A 23yo man is brought to therapy by his mother. His mother says that he has been acting strange for 4 months, and that for the past six weeks, he has claimed that the television is broadcasting thoughts to him. On the basis of this information, your provisional diagnosis would be

a. schizophreniform disorder

b. delusional disorder

c. schizophrenia

d. brief psychotic disorder
a. schizophreniform disorder
What is the difference between loose associations and circumstantiality?

a. in loose associations, the individual is able to stay focused on one theme.

In circumstantiality, the individual eventually gets back to the point.

c. Loose associations, unlike circumstantiality, are not a sign of a psychotic break from reality.

d. In circumstantiality, the person is very vague and does not say much.
b. In circumstantiality, the individual eventually gets back to the point.
A 42 yo patient tells you that he is worried that his wife is having an affair. It is apparent that he should not have any doubts with regards to his wife's commitment, since she does not work and remains home with their children. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a. delusional disorder, persecutory type

b. Schizophrenia, Paranoid Type

c. Delusional Disorder, Jealous Type

d. Schizophrenia, Undifferentiated Type
c. Delusional Disorder, Jealous Type
You evaluate a patient in a psychiatric hospital who has a hx of mood disturbances and psychotic symptoms. Which of the following pieces of information would most help you to make the differential diagnosis between Schizoaffective Disorder and Mood Disorder with Psychotic Features?

a. The patient has both delusions and hallucinations.

b. The patient appears to be a grave suicide risk.

The diagnostic criteria for Schizophrenia are not met.

d. His mood disturbances have not been noticeable for the past three weeks.
d. His mood disturbances have not been noticeable for the past three weeks.
A better prognosis for Schizophrenia is generally associated with

a. acute onset

b. male gender

c. early onset

d. no precipitating event
a. acute onset - late onset, female gender, good premorbid adjustment, presence of a precipitating event, a short duration of active-phase symptoms, no family hx and a family hx of a Mood disorder.
A client is referred to you by his work supervisor because his work has been deteriorating. In the initial interview, he reports feelings of extreme worthlessness and hopelessness. He also reports trouble eating and sleeping. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a. Major Depressive Disorder

b. Dysthymic Disorder

c. Cyclothymic Disorder

d. Major Depressive Disorder with Psychotic Features.
a. Major Depressive Disorder
A diagnosis of Bipolar I Disorder, Most Recent Episode Manic, requires

a. presence of manic episodes for at least two years

b. current or most recent manic episode and no past major depressive episode

c. current or most recent manic episode, with a hx of at least one major depressive, manic, or mixed episodes.

d. mood disturbance not severe enough to cause marked impairment in occupational functioning.
c. current or most recent manic episode, with a hx of at least one major depressive, manic, or mixed episodes.
Beck viewed depression as the result of

a. a biochemical reaction to neurotransmitters

b. automatic thoughts

c. sad affect

d. a genetic predisposition
b. automatic thoughts
The presence of which of the following allows you to differentiate Bipolar II Disorder from Cyclothymic Disorder?

a. a major depressive episode

b. hypomanic symptoms

c. manic symptoms

d. a mixed episode
a. a major depressive episode
The presence of which of the following allows you to differentiate Bipolar I Disorder from Bipolar II Disorder?

a. a duration of under two years allows you to rule out Bipolar II disorder

b. the pesence of one or more periods when the criteria are met for a major depressive episode

c. the presence of one or more hypomanic episodes

d. the presence of one or more manic or mixed episodes
d. the presence of one or more manic or mixed episodes - a person with Bipolar I Disorder, has had one or more manic or mixed episodes, but a person with Bipolar II disorder has never had a manic or mixed episode. Bipolar II Disorder involves one or more major depressive episodes and at least one hypomanic episode.
DSM iv TR describes three types of phobic disorder. The phobic disorder characterized by fear of developing panic-like symptoms, such as dizziness or diarrhea, is known as

a. agoraphobia without hx of panic disorder

b. Acrophobia

c. Social Phobia

d. Claustrophobia
A. Agoraphobia Without History of Panic Disorder
A teenage girl is in a serious train accident with her family and, two months afterwards, is anxious, has bad dreams, and is fearful every time she gets in a car. Her diagnosis will most likely be

a. Posttraumatic Stress Disorder

b. Generalized Anxiety Disorder

c. Panic Disorder with Agoraphobia

d. Acute Stress Disorder
a. Posttraumatic Stress Disorder
A 38yo man is admitted to an emergency room after complaining of a sudden onset of chest pains. After it is determined that he is not having a heart attack, he is ordered to stay in bed. Instead, he paces around the hospital, feeling intensely anxious and unable to stay still. Based on this information, the most likely diagnosis would be

a. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder

b. Panic Disorder without Agoraphobia

c. Agoraphobia

d. PTSD
b. Panic Disorder without Agoraphobia
A repeated, senseless, and intrusive thought, which a person knows is illogical but experiences no control over is called a(n):

a. phobia

b. delusion
c. compulsion
d. obsession
d. obsession
______________ panic attacks are most characteristic of Specific Phobia and Social Phobia

a. Unexpected

b. Multiple

c. Situationally bound

d. Situationally predisposed
c. Situationally bound
One of the negative associated features of Somatization Disorder is

a. paranoia

b. anxiety

c. panic disorder

d. addition to analgesics
b. anxiety
Since her parents began talking about getting a divorce, a 15yo girl has experienced anesthesia (loss of skin sensation) on her left side. Whenever the topic of divorce is raised in family discussions, the girls symptoms worsen. The symptoms do not appear to be under the girl's voluntary control, but a physical examination revealed no physiological cause for them. Based on this information, it appears that the girl is suffering from which of the following disorders?

a. Hypochondriasis

b. Malingering

c. Somatization Disorder

d. Conversion Disorder
d. Conversion Disorder
In which of the following conditions is there a clear secondary gain?

a. Malingering

b. Factitious Disorder

c. Body Dysmorphic Disorder

d. Somatization Disorder
a. Malingering
Which of the following is likely to be true about an individuals with Hypochondriasis?

a. They are incapable of considering the possibility that they may be wrong about the meaning of their symptoms.

b. They will refuse to see a physician.

c. They deliberately produce symptoms in order to become a medical patient.

d. They continue to believe that they have a serious illness even after a physician reasures them that they are okay.
d. They continue to believe that they have a serious illness even after a physician reasures them that they are okay.
A client reports that he is unsure of himself, unsuccessful at his job, and unstable in his personal relationships. The most likely diagnosis would be

a. Histrionic Personality Disorder

b. Narcissistic Personality Disorder

c. Borderline Personality Disorder.

d. Dependent Personality Disorder
c. Borderline Personality Disorder
In which of the following Personality Disorders would emotional expressiveness not be present?

a. Schizoid

b. Histrionic

c. Borderline

d. Narcissistic
a. Schizoid
The following is the distinguishing feature in Narcissistic Personality Disorder:

a. grandiosity

b. attention-seeking behavioe

c. compulsiveness

d. withdrawal
a. grandiosity
Reaction formation is most related to which of the following Personality Disorder?

a. Borderline

b. Obsessive-Compulsive

c. Antisocial

d. Histrionic
b. Obsessive-Compulsive
Which of the following symptoms would be most useful in distinguishing between Schizoid and Schizotypal Personality Disorder?

a. restricted range of emotional expression

b. oddities of behavior and appearance

c. having no friends

d. delusions and hallucinations
b. Oddities of behavior and appearance
Individuals with Avoidant Personality disorder

a. prefer to be alone

b. desire relationships but are extremely socially inhibited

c. assume that others want to harm them

d. often avoid others because they feel superior
b. desire relationships but are extremely socially inhibited.
A 31 yo male states that lately, he has not been able to achieve an erection with his wife, although he has had few if any problems in the past. He does regularly have nocturnal and early morning erections and has occasionally been able to achieve an erection through masturbation. Based on this info, you can tentatively diagnose this young man's disorder as

a. Primary impotence

b. Secondardy impotence

c. a sexual problem due to a medical condition or substance usage

d. Hypoactive Sexual Desire Disorder
B. Secondary impotence - secondary means that the impotence occurs after a period of normal functioning.
Coitus that is difficult and/or painful, especially in women, is referred to as

a. Dyspareunia

b. Dysmenorrhea

c. Vaginismus

d. Endometriosis
A. Dyspareunia refers to pain with intercourse
A client was found wandering on the streets without any recollection of his past, a sense of who he is, and where he lives. His diagnosis would be

a. dissociative identity disorder

b. depersonalization disordder

c. dissociative fugue

d. Dissociative Amnesia
D. Dissociative Amnesia (Dissociative Fugue - adopted a new identity or traveled away from home)
According to Minuchin, a family with a member who is suffering from Anorexia Nervosa is likely to be characterized by

a. rigid boundaries, in which family members hardly ever speak to each other

b. over-control of and a lack of autonomy and power for the anorectic

c. disorganization, chaos, and confusion

d. verbal, and sometimes physical and sexual, abuse
b. Over-control of and a lack of autonomy and power for the anorectic
Which of the following represents a clear difference between Anorexia and Bulimia?

a. A person with Anorexia does not ever binge or purge

b. A person with Anorexia is less likely to deny her problem because it is obvious

c. A person with Bulimia may not lose weight

d. All persons with Bulimia regularly purge to prevent weight gain
c. A person with Bulimia may not lose weight
Which of the following would most likely be used in the tx of obesity?

a. biofeedback and cognitive restructuring

b. self-monitoring and stimulus control
c. psychoanalytic exploration and thought stopping
d. aversive therapy and deliberate exposure with response prevention
b. self-monitoring and stimulus control
A psychotherapist treating someone who has recently undergone a moderately stressful experience would most likely see which of the following as a primary goal of tx?

a. increasing the client's actual control over the situation

b. increasing the client's eprceived control over the situation

c. helping the client access a support system

d. letting time pass until the patient gets over it
b. increasing perceived control over the situation
Which of the following is true of the relationship between Type A bx and heart attacks?

a. All Type A bx and personality traits are assoc with an icnreased risk of a heart attack.

b. Certain aspects of Type A bx, such as job involvement, increase the risk of heart attacks.

c. Certain Type A personality traits, such as anger and hostility, are associated with an increased risk for a heart attack.

d. There is no relationship between Type A bx or personality traits and the risk for heart attacks.
c. Certain Type A personality traits, such as anger and hostility, are associated with an increased risk for a heart attack.
Selye's general adaptation syndrome involves the stages of

a. alarm, resistance, exhausion.

b. anger, reactance, suphoria

c. alarm, reactance, exhaustion

d. anger, resistance, exhaustion
a. alarm, resistance, exhausion
Which of the following types of seizures is characterized by focal onset?

a. tonic-clonic seizures

b. grand mal seizures

c. petit mal seizures

d. complex-partial seizures
d. complex-partial seizures Complex-partial seizures are localized and, by the way, the most common. Tonic-clonic or grand mal seizures (which are synonymous) and petit mal seizures do not have focal onset. This is one criteria for categorizing between the different types of seizures.
If Schizophrenic signs are evidenced for less than six months and a medical condition and substance use are ruled out, the most appropriate diagnosis would be

a. Schizophreniform Disorder
b. Schizoaffective Disorder
c. Schizotypal Personality Disorder
d. Schizoid Personality Disorder
A. Schizophreniform Disorder
As defined by DSM, in which of the following disorders are symptoms under the conscious control of the individual?

a. Somatization Disorder
b. Hypochondriasis
c. Conversion Disorder
d. Factitious Disorder
d. Factitious Disorder
A 4yo has just been diagnosed as suffering from Autistic Disorder. This child is most likely not exhibiting which of the following symptoms?

a. head-banging
b. moderate Mental Retardation
c. echolalia
d. auditory hallucinations
d. auditory hallucinations
As described by DSM, a diagnosis of Bipolar I Disoder, Most Recent Episode Mixed requires that

a. the client is currently or most recently experiencing a mixed episode, and has never had a major depressive, manic, or hypomanic episode.

b. the client is currently experiencing or most recently experiencing a manic episode and has a hx of at least one major depressive episode
c. the clint is rapidly alternating between manic and major depressive episodes.
d. the client is currently or most recently experiencing a mixed episode and has a hx of at least one major depressive, manic, or mixed episode.
d. the client is currently or most recently experiencing a mixed episode and has a hx of at least one major depressive, manic, or mixed episode.
According to DSM, in childhood, Attention-Deficit/Hyperactiviy Disorder is

a. up to nine times more common in boys than girls

b. ttwice as common in boys than girls

c. about equally common in girls and boys

d. up to three times more common in girls than boys
a. up to 9 x more common in boys than girls.
A child who seemed normal until age two, but then began to regress in multiple areas of functioning would probably receive which diagnosis?

a. Childhood Disintegrative Disorder

b. Autistic Disorder

c. Severe mental Retardation

d. asperger's Disorder
A. Childhood disintegrative disorder
Which of the following types of Schizophrenia is characterized primarily by the presence of persecutory or grandiose delusions (often associated with hallucinations), a hostile and aggressive attitude, and behavior consistent with the delusions?

a. Schizophrenia, Catatonic type

b. Acute Schizophrenic Episode

c. Schizophrenia, Disorganized type

d. Schizophrenia, Paranoid Type
d. Schizophrenia, Paranoid type
Which of the following disorders ismost likely to result in lead poisoning?

a. Bulimia Nervosa

b. Rumination Disorder

c. Pica

d. Alcohol Dependence
c. Pica
A ten yo boy displays the following symptoms: persistent truancy, smoking at school, disobedience, general irritability, and vandalism of school property. Based on these symptoms, the best diagnosis is

a. Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder

b. Antisocial Personality Disorder

c. Child or Adolescent Antisocial Behavior

d. Conduct Disorder
d. Conduct Disorder
Which of the following is required for a diagnosis of Substance Dependence?

a. multiple unsuccessful efforts to quit using the substance

b. time lost from work due to substance use

c. a maladaptive pattern of use that is distressing or impairs functioning

d. marked tolerance and withdrawal symptoms
c. a maladaptive pattern of use that is distressing or impairs functioning
A schizophrenic client presents with the following symptoms: incoherence, inappropriate giggling, and repeated reference to the idea that "the aliens will be taking over the country." The diagnosis in this case would likely be

a. Schizophrenia, disorganized Type

b. Schizophrenia, Paranoid type

c. Schizophrenia, Catatonic Type

Schizophrenia, Undifferentiated Type
d. Schizophrenia, Undifferentiated Type
A 25yo woman comes to your office and tells you that she is very worried about a small mole on her leg. She seems quite convinced that she has cancer, since this illness runs in her family. Her symptoms are evidence of

a. Hypochondriasis

b. Body Dysmorphic disorder

c. Delusional Disorder, Somatic type

d. Conversion Disorder
a. Hypochondriasis
A 30yo gay client, who "came out" six months ago, is distressed because his lover broke up with him two months ago. he tells you that he has been nervous and depressed, and that he is having trouble getting along with coworkers and falling asleep at night. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a. Sexual Disorder, NOS

b. Adjustment disorder with Mixed Anxiety and Depression

c. Phase of Life Problem

d. Major Depressive Disorder
b. Adjustment Disorder with Mixed Anxiety and Depression
Which of the following is not associated with a good prognosis in cases of Schizophrenia?

a. abrupt onset

b. onset at a young age

c. associated mood disturbance

d. precipitating events
b. onset at a young age
A treatment designed specifically for Premature Ejaculation is

a. The squeeze technique

b. sensate focusing

c. directed masturbation

d. imagery
a. the squeeze technique
Which of the following orders (from least decline to most decline) best represents the changes in WAIS subtest score that can be expected to occur with age:

a. information, object assembly, arithmetic

b. coding, picture completion, comprehension

c. information, vocabulary, object assembly\

d. object assembly, vocabulary, information
c. information, vocabulary, object assembly
When using the technique known as empirical criterion-keying, which of the following is of most interest:

a. the degree to which items intercorrelate with each other

b. the degree to which item score correlate with the total score

c. the extent to which items distinguish between specified target group

d. the extent to which common elements account for interrelated sets of scores
c. the extent to which items distinguish between specified target groups
The results of a longitudinal study designed to assess the relationship between age and intelligence is most likely to find that:

a. general IQ begins to decline in the early 20s.

b. crystallized intelligence shows more decrements than fluid intelligence beginning in early adulthood

c. measures of reasoning and word fluency begin to show declines in scores sooner than measures of verbal meaning and number

d. declines in reasoning, word fluency, verbal meaning, and number usually begin between the ages of 30 and 40.
c. measures of reasoning and word fluency begin to show declines in scores sooner than measures of verbal meaning and number
The ____ is best described as the gateway to memory because of its involvement in the storage of new information:

a. hippocampus

b. hypothalamus

c. thalamus

d. R>A>S>
a. hippocampus
16. A sociopath would be most likely to learn from punishment if the punishment were

a. electric shock
b. loss of money
c. social disapproval
d. loss of a valued friendship
b. loss of money
17. A lack of which of the following neurotransmitters has been implicated in depression?

a. dopamine and serotonin
b. epinephrine and serotonin
c. norepinephrine and epinephrine
d. norepinephrine and serotonin
d. norepinephrine and serotonin
18. an individual who has suffered from a psychologically stressful event comes to your office. Which of the following pieces of info would allow u to rule out Posttraumatic Stress Disorder?

a. The sstressor took place six months ago, but the man is just beginning to experience symptoms
b. The stressor was a break-up with his girlfriend
c. The man is having recurrent nightmares about the stessor
d. Th man says that he has felt "numb" since the stressful event took place.
b. The stressor was a breakup with his girlfriend
19. Which of the following is not required for a dx of Mantal Retardation?
a. onset prior to age 18
b. deficits in adaptive functioning
c. IQ 70 or below
d. organic etiology
d. organic etiology
20. The specific etiology of ADHD is not known, but recent research suggests that, in most cases, ______ is/are responsible.

a. genetics
b. family factors
d. environmental factors
d. an underlying bio cause
d. an underlying bio cause
21. Which of the following is a true statement about the Substance-Induced Disorders?

a. They develop only during the course of intoxication
b. they can only develop during the course of intoxication or withdrawal
c. by definition, they develop after the person is no longer experiencing intoxication or withdrawal
d. some persist long after the substance has been eliminated from the body
d. some persist long after the substance has been eliminated from the body
22. In individuals suffering from depression,

a. the environment has a greater impace on symptoms during the early stages of the disorder
b. the environment has a greater impace on symptoms during the later stages of the disorder
c. the environment has an equal impact thgoughtout the entire course of the disorder
a. the environ has a greater impact on symptoms during the early stages of the disorder.
23. Schizophrenia is associated with all of the following except,

a. enlarged ventricles
b. abnormal blood flow to the frontal lobes
c. deceased levels of dopamine
d. increased levels of dopamine
c. According to the dopamine hypothesis, Schozophrenia is assoc with excessive levels of the neurotransmitter dopamine.
1. Which of the following is most illustrative of Thorndike's Law of Effect?
a. A child who is forced to take piano is not as good a player as a child who wishes to learn the piano.

b. A child who receives money for playing the piano plays it more often than a child who does not receive money.
c. A child who plays piano in his den prefers to pplay there rather than anywhere else.
d. A child who receives money for playing the piano learns to enjoy watching tv, since he usu has the tv on at the same time.
B. The law of Effect holds that responses closely followed by satisfaction tend to be repeated. Thus, choice B illustrates this law - a child who receives satisfaction (e.g., money) for playing the piano is more likely to continue playing it than a child who does not receive any satisfaction. Choice A examplifies the Law of Readiness, choice C exemplifies the law of Exercise; and choice D exemplifies the Law of Spread of Effect
2. The person considered to be the "father of mod behaviorism" is

a. Pavlov
b. Freud
c. Skinner
d. Watson
D. Watson introduced the term "behaviorism" in a 1912 lecture and is thus considered the "father of modern behaviorism."
3. In which of the following situations is transfer of training least likely to occur?

a. A student who has studied algebra takes a class in geometry.
b. A student who has studied French takes a class in German
c. A student who has studied algebra takes a class in French
d. A worker who has been trained to assemple a small machine is assigned to assemble large machines
c. A student who has studied algebra takes a class in French.
A conditioned stimulus (CS) is paired with an unconditioned stimulus (US) so that the CS elicits a target response. The CS is then paired with a neutral stimulus so that the neutral stimulus will elicit the target reponse. when paired with the neutral stimulus, the CS is acting as

a. a conditioned stimulus
b. an unconditioned stimulus
c. a pseudo-conditioned response
d. a discriminative stimulus
B. In this circumstance, the CS, as a result of its pairing with a US, already elicits the target response, and as a result it is no longer a "neutral stimulus." thus, when the CS is paired with what is a neutral stimulus, the CS functions as a US, and the neutral stimulus functions as the CS.
2. The process in the last question can best be described by the term ______, and the response to the neutral stimulus is likely to be ______ the response to the CS.

a. sensory preconditioning; of the same intensity as
b. sensory precnditioning; weaker than
c. higher-order conditioning; of the same intensity as
d. higher-order conditioing; weaker than
D. Higher-order conditioning occurs when a stimulus that had been a CS functions as a US, that is, when the CS is paired with a neutral stimulus until the neutral stimulus also comes to elicit the conditioned response. Responses conditioned in this manner tend to be weaker than those elicited by the original CS.
3. Pavlov found that animals exhibited "experimental neurosis" when
a. they were required to make difficult discriminations between stimuli
b. they wer eno longer reinfored for performing a conditioned response
c. the behaviors were accidentally reinforced
d. conditioning trials entailed the application of aversive stimuli
A. In one of Pavlov's studies, dogs were conditioned to salivate to a picture of a circle but not to a picture of an ellipse. When presnted with increasingly circular ellipses, the dogs exhibited a variety of unusual behaviors (wriggling, violent barking) that Pavlov viewed as analogues of human neurosis. Refered to as experimental neurosis.
4. Generally, classical conditioning is most effective when

a. the CS and the US are presented at about the same time.
b. the CS is presented and terminates before the US is presented
c. the CS precedes and overlaps the US
d. the US precedes the CS
C. Delayed conditioning, in which the CS precedes and overlaps the US, is generally most effective. The optimal interval between the CS and the US is usually around 0.5 seconds. Choice A describes simultaneous conditioning; choice B describes trace conditioning; and hcoice D describes backward conditioning.
5. The phenomenon of "spontaneous recorvery" suggests that an extinguished respone

a. is forgotten rather than suppressed
b. is suppressed rather than forgotten
c. can be re-learned, but not with same strength as when it was originally conditioned
d. can neve be re-learned
b. After a conditioned response has been extinguished, it may, after a period of time, re-appear in the presence of the original conditioned stimulus. This phenomenon, known as "spontaneous recovery," suggests that extinction results in the suppression or inhibition - rather than the forgetting - of the conditioned response.
1. In both imposive therapy and flooding,

a. the person is gradually exposed to a feared object
b. the person is immediately exposed to a feared object
c. a maladaptive resonse is extinguished
d. exposure takes place through the imagination
c. of the choices listed, c is the one that is most clearly true - both implosive therapy and flooding involve exposure of a person to a feared stimulus (CS) without negative consequences (i.e., without the US) until the fear or anxiety (CR) is extinguished. They both rely on classical extinction. Both B and D are true of implosive therapy, but only of some variations of flooding.
2. In aversive conditioning with an alcoholic, it is best to apply the aversive stimulus

a. immediately after the person drinks
b. immediately before the person drinks
c. well before the person drinks
d. some time after the person drinks
A. In the aversive conditioning of alcoholism, drinking is the CS and the aversive stimulus is the US, and for optimal effectiveness in classical conditioning, the CS should precede and overlap the US. Thus, it is best if the aversize stimulus is admiistered immediately after the alchoholic drinks.
3. In the aversive counterconditioning of a fetish, the tetish object is the

a. conditioned stimulus
b. unconditioned stimulus
c. conditioned response
d. unconditioned response
A. Aversive conditioning of a fetish involves pairing an aversive stimulus with the fetish object, until the object also comes to elicit the response of aversion. The fetish object is the conditioned stimulus, since it comes to evoke aversion through conditioning (i.e., pairings). The aversive stimulus is the unconditioned stimulus, since it elicits aversion naturaly, without conditioning.
4. Research suggests that when systematic desensitization is used to treat Agoraphobia with a successful outcome, the principle underlying success is likely

a. aversive contiioning
b. classical conditioning
c. counterconditioning
d. exposure to the feared stimulus
D. Systematic desensitization was developed on the basis of the counterconditioning paradigm, which involves pairing of a maladaptive response (e.g., anxiety) with an incompatible adaptive response (e.g., relazation). However, research suggests that exposure to the feared stimulus without adverse consequences (i.e., extinction), not counterconditioning, is the principle that primarily underlies successful treatment.
The primary purpose of sensate focus is to

a. increase sexual pleasure
b. increase marital closeness
c. reduce performance anxiety
d. reduce aversion to sexual stimuli
5. C. The purpose of sensate focus is to reduce anxiety (including performance anxiety) assoc with sexual bx or stimuli. The purpose of the technique which is based on the principle of counterconditioning, is to pair the anxiety with the incompatible responses of pleasure and relaxation, so that the anxiety is eliminated.
1. A bx will be most resistant to extinction if it is reinforced on a

a. fixed interval schedule
b. fixed ratio schedule
c. variable ratio schedule
d. continuous schedule
C. variable ratio schedule, in which reinforcement occurs after a variable number of responses, produces behaviors with the greatest resistance to extinction. Gambling exemplifies a variable ratio schedule, since reinforcement occurs after a variable number of betting responses.
2. A bx learned through avoidance conditioning would be eliminated through
a. classical extinction
b. response generalization
c. negative reinforcement
d. punishment
A. Avoidance conditioning involves a combination of classical conditioning (a stimulus is avoided due to its pairing with an aversive stimulus) and operant conditioing (avoidance is negatively reinforced in that it results in the termination of fear or anxiety). To extinguish an avoidance response, one must expose the subject to the feared stimulus (CS) without the original aversive stimulus (US) being present. This is classical extinction, and is what is done in therapies such as flooding, which were discussed previously.
3. Which of the following is an example of negative reinforcement?
a. A child is no longer grounded after he starts doing better at school.
b. a child is given money ea time he cleans his room
c. a child is allowed to watch tv after he completes his homework
d. a child is sent to his room after hitting his sister.
A. In negative reinforcement, a stimulus is removed following a behavior in order to increase the operant strength of that behavior. This is what is occurring in choice A - restrictions are being removed in order to increase the child's good performance in school.
4. The procedure of putting together components of behaviors to establish a more complex behavior is known as

a. shaping
b. fading
c. thinning
d. chaining
D. Chaining involves the linking together of simple behaviors in order to establish a more complex behavior. In chaining, each behavior serves as both reinforcement for the previous behavior and a discriminatie stimulus (a cue that reinforcement will occur) for the next behavior chaining is the operant conditioning paradigm's explanation for the acquisition of complex behaviors.
A group of new sales people is hired by a company. although they are told they will receive a 10% commission, in reality they will be paid, on the average, after every fifth sale. This is an example of a

a. fixed ratio schedule
b. variable radio schedule
c. fixed interval schedule
d. variable interval schedule
b. The sales people are being reinforced, on the average, after every fifth sale; e.g., they are being reinforced after a variable number of responses (e.g., maybe once after 7 sales, then once after 3, then once after 5, etc., with the average being 5). If the words "on the average" were deleted from the question, the answer would be A.
6. Punishment will work best in suppressing behavior if it is applied
a. intermittently.
b. immediately and with great intensity
c. immediately, but at first with low intensity, and then with greater intensity.
d. before the behavior occurs.
B. Punishment is most effective in suppressing a behavior if it immediately follows the onset of a behavior, and is intense and continual.
A mother is concerned about her son's increasing number of tantrums. The therapist advises the mother to set a clock to ring every five minues. when it rings and the son has not had a tantrum during the five minute period, the mother is advised to praise the son. This is an example of

a. response cost
b. differential reinforcement for other behaviors
c. time-out
d. the Premack Principle
b. Differential reinforcement for other behaviors involves reinforcing all other behaviors except the one that is targeted for elimination. This is what is happening here - the child is being reinforced for not throwing tantrums.
Your son doesn't like broccoli. You tell him he has to eat broccoli before going out to play. This is an example of

a. response cost
b. shaping
c. The Premack Principle
d. child abuse
C. The Premack Principle involves reinforcing a low-probability behavior with a high-probability behavior. This is what is happening here - the child's broccoli eating (low-probability behavior) is being reinforced with the privilege of being allowed to play (high-probability behavior).
3. Which of the following best illustrates the technique of response cost?

a. An autistic child who eats with his hands must repeatedly practice usng a fork and knife properly.

b. A distuptive child at a nursery school is ignored by teachers for a 5-minutes period of time.
c. A child who keeps his room messy has his allowance cut off.
d. An incompetent government raises taxes on the poor and the middle-class.
e. C. The technique of response cost involves removal of a specific reward in order to decrease a behavior. This is what is happening in choice C. Choice A is an example of overcorrection; choice B exemplifies time-out; and choice D exemplifies the principle of harsh reality.
According to social learning theory
a. people receive clues about how to behave from others.
b. people will imitate others who hold high ranking positions
c. reinforcement has nothing to do with learning or behavior
d. the opportunity to engage in a behavior can serve as reinforcement for that behavior
a. Choice A best expresses the general idea behind social learnign theory. Modeling, or the tendency to imitate others accounts for most complex forms of learning. B - not quite right - although research suggests that high status models are more likely to be imitated, the theory does not say that they will be imitated in all cases. Also, though the theory posits that reinforcement is not necessary for learning, it does not, unlike choice C suggest that reinforcement has nothing to do with learning. Reinforcement influences which models are attended to and which learned behviors are displayed. Finally, D is almost but not quite right. The successful performance of a behavior, rather than the opportunity to engage in it, can serve as reinforcement.
2. According to Tolman's theory of latent learning, learning take place

a. only when performance produces a reward
b. only when learning produces a reward
c. only when the organism is motivated to obtain a reward
d. with or without reward.
D. According to Tolman's notion of latent learning, learning occurs through the acquisition of cognitive maps - with or without reinforcement. however, for the learning to be displayed, reinforcement is usually necessary.
3. Kohler is associated with
a. insight learning
b. place learning
c. learning how to learn
d. modeling
A. Kohler's experiments demonstrated a form of sudden learning, which he believed was due to an internal cognitive restructuring of the environment. Kohler termed this process "insight learning."
4. social learning theory suggests that the best way to cure a child of a dog phobia

a. do play therapy with the child with toy dogs and people
b. have the child observe a same-age model playing with a dog
c. show the child pictures of dogs
d. have the child elax and imagine scenes of dogs.
B. According to social learning theory, learning can occur through the imitation of a model, and models who are perceived as similar to the learniner are more likely to be imitated than models who are perceived as dissimilar. Thus, the theory would suggest that tx of a dog-phobic child should involve having the child observe a similar model intteracting positively with a dog.
1. In an approach-avoidance conflict, an organism is likely to

a. distance itself from the goal
b. attempt to attain the goal, despite any negative consequences
c. attempt to find an equilibrium point between approaching and avoiding the goal
d. attempt to find an equilibrium point tht is very close to the goal, since the approach gradient is much stronger than the avoidance gradient.
c. in an approach-avoidance conflict, a situation (or goal) has both attractive and unattractive elements. To resolve such a conflict, an organism willtry to reach an equilibrium point between approaching and avoiding that goal. For ex, a rat who is shocked ea time it eats a morsel of food will approach the food, then back away from it, until it finds an dquilibrium distance. Choice D is wrong because the avoidance drive (gradient) is stronger than the approach drive.
The relationship between arousal and performance takes the shape of a(n)

a. straight line with a positive slope
b. straight line with a negative slope
c. U
d. inverted U
d. The relationship between arousal and performance is curvilinear. This means that moderate levels of arousal tend to be associated with the best performance, while extremely high and low levels of arousal tend to be associated with the worst performance. If drawn on a graph, this relationship would look like an inverted "U."
3. Which of the following is the best example of metacognition?
a. A student in a philosophy class is able to make insightful statements bout the nature of knowledge
b. A psychologist is able to apply his knowledge about human nature to understand his patient's cognitie processes
c. a student in a math class uses a rhyming strategy to help solve equations
d. A teacher of a math class grades a student in an algebra class lower because he doesn't show his work on an exam.
C. Metacognition refers to a person's awareness about his or her own cognitive state and processes. One example of metacognition is the use of strategies for increasing the efficiency of learning, such as is described by choice C.
4. Behavioral assessment diffres from trad psychological assmt in that

a. bx assessment relies on an A-B-C model
b. the focus of bx assessment is on specific behaviors rather than underlying traits
c. behavioral assessment is more systematic and time-consuming
d. traditional psychological assessment results in a higher level of yearly income for clinical psychologist
B. Both A and B (and maybe D) are correct, but B is the better answer. Traditional psychological assessment attempts to measure underlying traits (narcissism, paranoia, depression), while behavioral assmt focuses on specific, observable behavior. Choice A, while true, does not address the essential difference between behavioral and traditional assessment.
5. In a study of recall, subjects are asked to remember all the nonsense syllables from a list they studied four hours earlier. The subjects who would most likely display the best recall are those who, during the four hours between studying the list and the recell test,

a. slept
b. engaged in a monotonous task
c. engaged in an interesting task
d. were administered a mild electric shock
A Research shows that subjects who sleep after they learn new information display better recall of that information than subjects who stay awake. This is because sleeping reduces the opportunity for other information to interfere with the learned information.
a. Thorndike's three principal laws were

a. effect, exercise, readiness
b. closure, exercise, readiness
c. reinforcement, readiness, closure
d. effect, congiguity, closure
A. These are Thorndike's three principal laws. The Law of Effect holds that repsonses accompanied by satisfaction will tend to be repeated, while those accompanied by discomfort will not be repeated. The Law of Exercise is that responses occurring often enough in the presence of a particular stimulus will become more likely to be repeated in the presence of that stimulus. And finally, the Law of Readiness holds that one must be ready to perform an act before performing it could be satisfying. Thorndike was an early learning theorist and had a geat influence on subjsequent theorists, esp Skinner.
1. As a communications theoriest and therapist, Haley deals with the concepts of the double-bind, setting coalitions, and what else?

a. family blueprint
b. paradoxical interventions
c. I-messages
d. prejudicial scapegoating
B. Jay Haley, a communications theorist who assoc with strategic family therapy, is well known for paradoxical interventions, which involve instructing the patient to engage in the symptomatic bx
2. According to psychoanalytic theory, the ego defense mechanisms function to

a. keep uncceptable impulses from eaching consciousness
b. ensure socially appropriate bx
c. signal the emergence of anxiety
d. reduce conflict between the ego and the superego.
2. A. The function of the ego defense mechanisms is to keep unacceptable impulses from reaching consciousness. Anxiety results when the defense mechanisms break down and fail to control "psychic excitation," or the entry of unconsious impulses into consciousness
3. A recent latino immigrant to the US would prob have the msot difficulty adjusting to a psychotherapist who displays

a. an eclectic orientation
b. a focus on individualism
c. an informal personal style
d. a focus on the client's level of acculturation
B.
Which of the following is least descriptive of the hypnotic state? It involves

a. induction of a "trance state," which, in its deepest form, may be associated with induced visual or auditory experiences
b. a heightened state of concentration and increased receptivity to the suggestions of another person
d. a loss of control over one's actions from oneself to the hypnotherapst
d. an ability to recall memories that are not available to the conscious mind during the nonhypnotic state
C. In contrast to choice C, people under hypnosis typically report that they never feel as though they are not in control. Choice B is true of the so called "hypnotic trance," and choice D describes one of the common uses of hypnosis, helping people receall repressed memories.
5. Which of the following is the strongest indicator of suicide risk?
a. depression
b. family hx of suicide
c. hopelessness
d. alcoholism
C.
6. From the perspective of Gestalt theraoy, the term "introjection" refers to

a. adopting the values and bx of others without fully assimilating them
b. directing unacceptable anger and aggression inward
c. being oriented toward self rather than oriented toward others
d. attributing one's own unacceptable beliefs and impulses to others
a.Introjectio is a boundary disturbance that involves assimilating info, beliefs, and values without really understanding them.
7. Which of the following clinical tests was developed on the basis of empirical criterion keying?
a. Rorschach
b. 16PF
c. WAIS-III
d. MMPI-2
D. MMPI-2
8. A feminist therapist would

a. focus on innate, biological diff between men and women.
b. believe that there are no inherent diff in power between a psyhcotherapist and a client
c. focus on social and political factors that underlie a woman's so-called psychopathology
d. argue that only highly trained professionals are capable of understanding and treating female clients in psychotherapy
C
9. Which of the following statements regarding client-therapist ethnic matching is most consistent with the overall body of research on the issue?

a. clients who rec therapy from racially and ethnically similar therapists are likely to show greater progress...
b. Client-therapist ethnic similarity has not been demonstrated to have any significant effect on therapy outcome
c. The race of the client and therapist are variables that interact with a number of client and therapist variable in exerting their effect on therapy outcome.
d. Client-therapist ethnic similarity has been shown to have an impact on therapy outcome for only African-American clients
C
10. Which of the following terms is not associated with Minuchin's structural family therapy?
a. enmeshment
b. disengagement
c. boundaries
d. congruence
D - refers to the genuineness of and consistency between a therapist words and behaviors.
11. A therapist who focuses on a client's basic needs for power, aaffiliation, and fun is likely a
a. reality therapist
b. Gestalt therapist
c. transctional analyst
d. person-centered therapist
A. Reality therapy, psychological probs are due to an inability to responsibly and adequately meet one's basic needs. These include survival, belonging, power, fun, and freedom.
12. According to psychoanalytic theory, a patient with an obsessive-compulsive neurosis is likely to strongly rely on which of the following sets of defenses?
a. reaction formation, isolation of affect, and undoing
b. projection, displacement, and denial
c. somatization, introjection, and reaction formation
d. isolation, denial, and repression
A. Reaction formation involves dealing with unacceptable impulses by substituting their opposite; the obsessive-compulsive is often overly rigid in matters of morality and ethics. Isolation of affect involves separation of thoughts from the feelings associated with them; the obsessive-compulsive, while able to describe affectively charged events, prefers to avoid discussing feelings about them. And, undoing involves behaviors designed to symbolically negate unacceptable thoughts or actions; Obsessive Compulsive Disorder often involves ritualistic compulsions in response to obsessions.
13. Unconscious mental processing is called primary process thinking. This primary process functions according to the
a. pleasure principle
b. reality principle
c. free association principle
d. transference between client and therapist
A. Freud described primary process thinking as governed by the id and functioning according to the pleasure principle. Conscious mental process is governed by the conscious part of the ego and is termed secondary process thinking. Free assoc was Freud's technique of having client's report all their thoughts without any censuring.
14. Jung believed that people turn from an extroverted process to an itroverted one
a. in early adolescence
b. toward the end of life
c. around age 40
d. depending on the social situation
C. Carl Jung described extroversion as the disposition to find pleasure in external things. Introversion reflected a turning inward of the libido. He believed that we turned from the extroversion of youth to the introversion of adulthood around the midpoint of life, or somewhere around age 40.
15. Adler termed the concept the "masculine protest" to refer to
a. a child's awareness that he is not female
b. the pre-feminist movement
c. Neo-Freudians
d. inferiority complexes
D. The masculine protest came from Adler's idea that every child experiences feelings of interiority which supply the motivation to grow, dominate, and be supportive.
16. Harry Stack Sullivan believed that neurotic bx is often causes by

a. syntaxic modes
b. prototaxic modes
c. parataxic distortions
d. neo-Freudians
C. parataxic distortions - dealing with current acquaintances as if they were significant persons from their early life - caused neuroticism. He also described cognitive experiences, including the syntaxic mode (a), which involves symbols with shared meaning, and the prototaxic mode 9b) which involves discrete unconnected momentary states.
17. Existential psychotherapy focuses on

a. the individual and his community
b. the individual and the ultimate concerns of existence
c. the existence of our species
d. congruence
B. Existential psychotherapy holds that personality is an outgrowth of the struggle between the individual and the ultimate concerns of existence, such as death, isolation, meaninglessness, and that we are ultimately responsible for our own lives.
18. Fritz Perl's Gestalt therapy and theory of personality emphasizes
a. style of life
b. boundary disturbances
c. an understanding of maladaptive interactions
d. psychoanalysis
B. Perl's theory viewed it as consistency of the self and the self-image. A person's interactions with the environment determine which part of the personality exerts the most control. A "boundary disturbance" such as introjection, deflection, confluence, results in a person who is less controlled by the self and more controlled by the self-image. Response A is assoc with Adler, C with Eric Berne and D with Freud.
19. A feminist therapist would often have as a primary goal for her clients
a. an understanding of sexism
b. reducing crossed transactions
c. empowerment
d. group therapy
C. The emphasis of feminist therapy is to show clients alternative social roles and options. One of these primary goals is empowerment.
20. The primary difference between object relations family therapy and most systems based models is

a. the development of a supportive therapeutic environment
b. active listening
c. communication is needed for effective family change
d. insight is a core requirement for family change
D. A core tenet of object relations family therapy is that insight is a core requirement for family change.
Existential psychotherapy focues on
a. the individ and his community
b. the individual and the ultimate concerns of existence
c. the existence of the species
d. congruence
b.
Fritz Perl's Gestalt therapy and theory of personality emphasizes
a. style of life
b. boundary disturances
c. an understanding of maladaptive interactions
d. psychoanalysis
B.A "boundary disturbance" such as introjection, deflection, confluence, results in a person who is less controlled by the self and more controlled by the self-image. Response A is assoc with Adler, C with Eric Berne and D with Freud
The primary diff between object relations family therapy, and most systems based models is
a. the develop of a supportive therapeutic environment
b. active listening
c. communication is needed for effective family change
d. insight is a core requirement for family change
`d.problems in corrent relationships between family members can be interpreted in terms of transferences resulting from the early mother-child relationship
22. The MMPI-2, the most widely used clinical personality test contains the following clinical scales:

a. Schizophreniform, Gender identity, narcissism, Social Extroversion
b. Bipolar, Personality Disorder, Axis I, Axis II
c. Hypochondrias, Hysteria, paranoia, hypomania
d. Location, Determinants, Content Populars
C.
most of the variance in treatment outcome is accounted for by
a. the working alliance
b. the specific treatment intervention
c. the fee
d. the initial impression
A - found to be more important than the specific treatment intervention
25. Remoralization, remediation, and rehabilitation are descriptions of

a. crisis intervention
b. therapy phase outcomes
c. stages in alcohol treatment
d. stages of life
B. therapy phas outcomes - Howard's research that found a relationship between the number of therapy sessions and therapy outcome, and indicated that outcome could b described in terms of three phases. Remoralization encompasses the first few sessions. The second phase (remediation) provides symptomatic relief and requires about 16 sessions. Rehabilitation is the third phas and involves a gradual improvement in various aspects of functioning.
26. Emic-etic distinction in the study of a culture includes the etic approach of looking at cultures from the outside using universally accepted means of investigation; and the emic approach which involves
a. analyzing a culture from the researcher's perspective
b. comparing it to other cultures
c. studying a culture from the inside and seeing it as its own members do
d. ego-manic idiosyncratic consultation
C - Emic approach involves studying the culture from the inside, and trying to see it as its own members do.
A culturally-encapsulated therapist
a. is aware of his/her own cultural biases
b. defines the world in terms of her own cultural beliefs
c. notices and works with cultural variations among clients
d. is able to work effectively with members of different cultural groups
B. A culturally encapsulated therapist defines the world in terms of her own cultural beliefs, according to Wrenn
28. Which age range has seen the greatest increase in suicide rates in recent years?
a. under 15
b. between 15 and 24
c. between 40 and 55
d. between 65 and 80
B.
29. You develop a program for pre-school children who are at risk for learning disabilities. This is an example of
a. primary prevention
b. secondary prevention
c. tertiary prevention
d. advocacy consultation
A. Primary prevention is administered before the onset of a problem an dis designed to prevent its development. Educational programs for high-risk children are an example of primary prevention
When they seek psychotherapy, many physically abused women report that they do not want to leave their husbands. A common reason for this is that

b. the woman and her husband are in a "honeymoon" stage in which the husband apologizes and promises to change
d. the woman has a self-defeating personality disorder
b.
The difference between preoperational and concrete operational thought is that
a. the preoperational child is able to intuit, whereas the concrete operational child is not.
b. the conrete operational child has mastered conservation of the object, whereas the preoperational child has not.
B/In the preoperational stage, the child is unable to conserve, or recognize that a change in the appearance of an object does not mean that the object's fundamental properties have changed. Conservation develops in a predictable, sequential manner throughout the concrete operational phase.
32. A 3yo child sees a squirrel "fly" from one tree to another and classifies it as a bird. After getting a closer look at the squirrel, he sees that it can only "fly" short distances and that it has fur on it instead of feathers. he then reclassifies it as a "flying animal other than a bird." According to Piaget, the child has engaged in what two processes, respectively?

a. assimilation, accomodation
b. accomodation, assimilation
c. assimilation, perceptual reorganization
d. accomodation, perceptual reorganization
a. assimilation, accomodation
According to Erikson, the psychosocial conflict experienced by adolescents is

a. autonomy vs. shame
b. ego identity vs. role confusion
c. intimacy vs. isolation
d. rebellion vs. conformity
ego identity vs. role confusion
Kohlberg's theory of moral development suggests all of the following except the
a. necessity of progressing through stages of moral development in a set sequence
b. importaance of the development of cognitive skills as a basis for changes in the quality of one's moral judgment
c. direction of development as moving from a more hedonistic stance to a reliance on specific principles of conscience
d. necessity of progressing through the stages as opposed to remaining fixed at an early stage of development
D. Many individuals never progress to the final stage of development and remain fixed at an earlier stage.
a BEHAVIOR THAT DOES not develop unless certain environmental events are present during a limited period of time illustrates the notion of

a. sensitive periods
b. critical periods
c. canalization
d. maturation
a. sensitive periods
Phenotype refers to
a. genetically-determined characteristics
b. environmentally-determined characteristics
c. observable and measurable characteristics
d. characteristics with an unknown origin
C. The term phenotype refers to characteristics that are observable and measurable and that often reflect a combination of genetic and environmental influences
As defined by Vygotsky, the zone of priximal development
a. refers to the people and resources in the learner's immediate environment
b. refers to the child's biologically-determined range of reactions
c. is the gap between what a child can do and what s/he wants to do
d. is the gap between what a child can currently do alone and what s/he can do with assistance.
D. Vgotsky believed that teaching is most effective when it takes place within the child's zone of priximal development, which is the gap between what a child can currently do alone and what the child can do with assistance from an adult or more competent peer.
Stranger anxiety is most intense when an infant is
a. 6 to 7 months of age
b. 10-11 months of age
c. 17-18 months of age
d. 22-24 months of age.
C. Stranger anxiety is first evident when the infant is between 8 and 10 months of age. The intensity of stranger anxiety is at its maximum when the infant is about 18 months of age.
Deliquent adolescents are most likely to have parents who are
a. authoritarian
b. authoritative
c. permissive
d. uninvolved
d. uninvolved parents (e.g., weak supervision, hostility or indifference) have been linked to delinquency in adolescence
The goodness-of-fit model developed by Thomas and Chess proposes that healthy development requires a match between

a.temperament and environment
b.thoughts, feelings, and actions
c. attachment and parents' responsivity
d. cognitive abilities and environmental demands
A. temperament and environment. Knowing that Thomas and Chess are most assoc with research on temperament would have helped
41. Which of the following aspects of memory shows the most decline with age?
A. SENSORY MEMORY
B. PRIMARY MEMORY
C. SECONDARY MEMORY
D. IMPLCIT MEMORY
C. Recent long-term (secondary) memory is most adversely affected by normal aging
42. PATTERSON AND HIS COLLEAGUES WOULD MOST LIKELY AGREE THAT HIGHLY AGGRESSIVE CHILDREN
A. ARE BORN THAT WAY
C. EXHIBIT A HIGH INCIDENCE OF COGNITIVE DISTORTIONS
C. HAVE UNFULFILLED NEEDS
D. HAVE HIGHLY AGGRESSIVE PARENTS
D. Patterson focused on the family factors that contribute to aggressiveness in children, and found that the development of aggression was due largely to imitation of the parent's aggressive behaviors and the parent's reinforcement of the child's aggressiveness
43. Anxiety about death is greatest among individuals aged
a. 20-30
b. 30-40
c. 40-5
d. 50-60
C. midlife
A school psych is int in studying the interrelationships between a child's home and school environments. From the perspective of Brofenbrenner's ecoological model, the psych is int in the

a. mesosystem
b. exosystem
c. macrosystem
d. endosystem
The mesosystem refers to the interconnections between diff aspects of the microsystem - the connection between the family and the school
A 15 yo girl gets her hair cut and feels that the hairdresser trimmed her bangs much too short. She tells her mo that she doesn't want to return to school until her hair grows because she is sure everyone will make fun of her until then. This is an example of
a. identity moratorium
b. adolescent centration
c. personal fable
d. imaginary audience
d. imaginary audience
Zajonc's "confluence model" would support the finding that
a. first-born children tend to have greater intellectual ability than later-born
b. later-born children tend to have greater intelletual ability than early -born
a. first-born - bullshit!
The first words infants express are usually
a. Ninja turtles
b. action words
c. verbs
c. verbs
d. nouns
d. nouns
Which of the following provides the best predictor of teenage delinquency?
a. low SES
b. single-parent households
c. low self-esteem
d. poor supervision and erratic discipline
d. poor supervision and erratic discipline
During the first few days following birth, smiling by an infant is associated with
a. human voices
b. REM sleep
c. human smiling
d. wet diapers
b. REM sleep
Whci of the following is least characteristic of infants who were explosed to cocaine in utero?

a. crawl, stand, and walk early
b. low birthweight
c. very irritable
d. insensitive to visual, auditory, and tactile stimulation
d. insensitive to visual, auditory and tactile stimulation
Organic brain disease would be suggested on the WAIS if, on the subtests (compared to the subject's mean),
a. information and vocabulary scores were low
b. digit span and digit symbol-coding scores were very low
b. digit span and digit symbol-coding was low
For a group of 50 gifted children, scores on the WISC as compared to the Stanford-Binet would tend to be
a. lower
b. the same
c. higher
d. unpredictably hgher or lower
a. lower
Administering only the verbal subtests of the WISC as a means of assessing intelligence would be most appropriate for

a. a child from a rural community
b. a recent immigrant
c. a child from an affluent suburban community
d. a high school dropout
c. a child from an affluent suburban community
Autism is seen in about
a. 5 cases out of 100
b. 2-5 cases out of 1,000
c. 3 cases out of 500
d. 2-5 cases out of 10,000
d. 2-5 cases out of 10,000
All of the following are learning disorders except:
a. Disorder of Written Expression
b. Asperger's Disorder
c. Reading Disorder
d. Mathematics Disorder
B. Asperger's Disorder
Which of the following symptoms is the most telling sign that a person who drinks heavily should receive a DSM-IV diagnosis of Substance Dependence?
a. morning drinking
b. three arrests for drunk driving
c. tolerance and withdrawal
d. drinking more than a half bottle of liquor a day
c. tolerance and withdrawal
U r seeing a clinet, a 38yo man, for the first time. Based on his symptoms, u determine that he shold receive a diagnosis of Panic Disorder. Finding out which of the following would most likely lead you to change your opinion?
a. He injected heroin that day
b. he smoked a pack of cigs that day
c. He drank 15 cups of coffee that day
c. he drank 15 cups of coffee that day
Which type of Schizophrenia would you diagnosise in a patient who displayed inappropriate affect, incoherene, and fragmented, non-systematized delusions?
a. disorganized
b. residual
c. pranoid
d. catatonic
a. disorganized
In making a differential diagnosis between Schizoaffective Disorder and Bipolar I Disorder, most Recent Episode Manic, what info would lead you to diagnose the former over the latter?
a. the patient exp a full-blown manic Episode
b. the patient's psychotic symptoms have lasted for less than two weeks
c. the patient has not responded to antipsychotic med
d. the patient has had a three week episode of psychotic symptoms that occurred in the absence of manic symptoms
d. the patient has had a three week episode of psychotic symptoms that occurred in the absence of manic symptoms
In order for a diagnosis of Mental Retardation to be made all of the following must be met except:
a. significantly subaverage intellectual functioning
b. deficits in at least two areas of adaptive functioning
c. onset before age 18
d. IQ score below 50, as measured by a test of intellectual functioning
d. IQ score below 50 - an IQ score of 70 or less, concurrent deficits in at least two areas of adaptive functioning and onset before age 18
Scores on which of the following WAIS subtests would show the least reduction as a result of brain injury?
a. Block Design
b. Similarities
c. Comprehension
d. information
d. Information
You are hired by a sheltered workshop program to do assessments of moderately to severely retarded adults. To obtain the most reliable and valid estimates of functioning with these client, you would use the
a. Vineland Social Maturity Inventory
B. WAIS
c. Peabody Picture Vocabulary Test
d. California Test of Mental maturity
A. Vineland Social Maturity Inventory
A clinician uses scatter analysis of the WAIS to diagnose individuals suffering from organic brain damage. The clinician should be aware that this method is likely to yield

a. too many false positives
b. too many false negatives
c. too many true negatives
d. too many true positives
a. too many false positives
Individuals with brain damage tend to show particular patterns of scores on the WAIS subtests. However, some non-brain damaged individuals also show the same, or similar, patterns. For instance, brain damaged individuals tend to score significantly higher on the Verbal subtests than on the Performaance subtests, but so do anxious and highly educated individuals. Thus, the use of the WAIS to diagnose brain damage is likely to result in too many false positives, i.e., individuals who come up positive for brain damage whe they really don't have it.
Research suggests that the most significant contributors to reading disabilities originating in childhood are
a. visual processing deficiencies
b. auditory processing deficiencies
c. phonological processing deficiencies
d. syntactic knolwedge deficincies
c. phonological processing deficiencies
In Schizophrenia, the prognosis is most favorable when
a. the patient has little or no assoc mood disturbances
b. the patient is in ongoing psychotherapy
c. the disorder has an onset in early life
d. the patient's family is engaged in coping-skills therapy
d. the patient's family is engaged in coping-skills therapy
The best behavioral technique for a Specific Phobia would be
a. reciprocal inhibition
b. flooding
c. modeling
d. aversion
b. flooding
A symptom often noted in severe abusers of amphetamines is
a. visual hallucinations
b. amotivational syndrome
c. increased appetite
d. paranoid ideation
d. paranoid ideation
The main disadvantage of abrupt termination of barbiturate addiction is the
a. management of the resultant depression and agitation
b. REM rebound phenomenon
c. probability of seizures leading to death
d. general physical distress that disposes the patient to resume his or her drug habit
c. prob of seizures leading to death
during an initial interview with a patient, the patient reports symptoms including loss of appetite, sleep difficulty, and spells of sadness and weeping, It would be important to promptly assess
a. for use of alcohol
b. for suicide potential
c. sexual behavior
b. suicide potential
Anaclitic depression would most often occur in
a. an ilderly person who recently moved to a senior citizens home
b. a middle-aged man who has been laid off
c. a teenaged girl leaving hom for college
d. an infant whose mother is hospitalized for a lengthy period of time
d. an infant whose mother is hospitalized for a lengthy period of time.
In dealing with a highly delusional paranoid patient, the most inappropriate strategy would be to
a. attempt to dispel the delusions through tenacious logical argumentation
b. gently guide the discussion away from the delusional ideas raised by the patient
c. explore the delusions without expressing personal belief or disbelief
d. reflect the patient's feelings without being interpretative
a. attempt to dispel the delusions through tenacious logical argumentation.
73. The onset of delirium is
a. slow and unremitting
b. slow, but patchy in effect
c. relatively rapid with a duration of several months
d. relatively rapid with a duration of one month or less
d. relatively rapid with a duration of one month or less
An elderly psychologist displays a significantly below average IQ score, impaired memory, and no awareness of his impairment. He presents as conscious and alert. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
a. Alzheimer's Disease
b. Delirium
c. Pseudodementia
Post-traumatic exam disorder
a. Alzheimer's Disease
Research on smokers who are trying to quit have found that
a. cognitive restructuring is the most effective tx
b. flooding is the most effective tx
c. most people quit on their own
d. relaxation training
c. most people quit on their own
Psychomotor disturbance such as mutism, rigidity, motoric immobility is characteristic of
a. catatonic schizophrenia
b. paranoid schizophrenia
c. disorg schizo
d. resideual type schizo
a. catatonic
In order to diagnose a Brief Psychotic Disorder, symptoms should not last
a. more than one day
b. more than one week
c. more than one month
d. more than six months
c. more than one month
In terms of neutological factors, ADHD has been linked to abnormalities in the
a. prefrontal cortex
b. temporal cortex
c. prestriate cortex
d. striate cortex
a. prefrontal cortex
A dx of Bipolar I Disorder, most Recent Episode Manic requires that the patient
a. is currently or most recently in the course of a manic episode
b. is currently or most recently in the course of a manic or mixed episode and has a hx of depressive episodes
c. is currently or most recently in a manic episode and has a hx of at least mildly deprssed mood
d. is currently or most recently in an episode characterized by rapid alternation between manic and depressive episodes
a. is currently or most recently in the course of a manic episode
A 10yo boy has no friends, yells at and annoys his parents, blames others for things he has done, and loses his temper and swears frequently. The most likely diagnosis for this boy would be
a. oppositional defiant disorder
b. conduct disorder
c. attention deficit disorder
d. pervasive developmental disorder
a. oppositional defiant disorder
According to Salvador Minuchin, which of the following is most likely to be present in a family in which a teenage daughter is suffering from anorexia nervosa?
a. adaptive responses to environmental input into the family system
b. open expression of heated conflict
c. over-protectiveness and limited individual autonomy
d. rigid boundaries between family members
c. over-protectiveness and limited individual autonomy
82. Certain obsessive or compulsive behaviors ahve been successfully treated with a behavioral appropach. The most success has come from tx which entailed
a. systematic desensitization only
b. systematic desensitization combined with mild aversion
c. mild aversion combined with positive reinforcement
d. deliberate exposure with response prevention
D. deliberate exposure with response prevention - especially for the compulsive aspect of obsessive-compulsive disorder This technique involves exposing the person to the stimulus or stimuli that evoke compulsions and preventing the person from engaging in the behavior. For example, a compulsive handwasher might be exposed to a bathroom and blocked from washing his or her hands.
If you as an independent psychologist, learn during the first interview that the client is curr receiving services from another professional, your most ethical response would be to
a. consult with the other professional before scheduling any further appointments
b. inform the client that you cannot offer your services without first informing the other professional
c. recognize that, as the consumer, this client has the right to use professional services in whatever way she pleases
d. discuss the issues raised with the client so as to minimize any confusion
d. discuss the issues raised with the client so as to minimize any confusion
The Ethics Committee will review complaints from
a. the general public only
b. both APA members and non-members
c. APA members only
d. licensed professionals in the mental health profession
B. both APA members and non-members
According to the General Guidelines for Psychological Services, doctoral level psychologists wishing to qualify themselves for a change in specialty
a. may be considered competent in the new area if they take an intership or acquire experience in a relevant practicum setting
b. must meet the same requirements with rspect to subject matter and prof skills that apply to doctoral training in the new specialty
c. should obtain appropriate prof supervision in their nw service specialty
B. must meet the same requirements with rspect to subject matter and professional skills that apply to doctoral training in the new specialty
The Ethics Committee can act "sua sponte" less than one year after it is discovered that any of the following has become final except:
a. a misdemeanor conviction
b. a felony conviction
c. a finding of malpractice
d. de-licensure
A. The Ethics Committee will not act on anonymous complaints, but will act "sua sponte" (on its own) without a complaint, less than one year after it is discovered that any of the following has become final: a felony conviction, a finding of malpractice, expulsion or suspension from a state assoc for unethical conduct or de-licensure by a state board.
The Preamble and General Principles are
a. enforceable rules for conduct
b. guidelines for the public
c. applicable to both the psychologist's personal and professional life
d. aspirational goals
d. aspirational goals
According to the Ethical Principles, bartering as a method of payment for psychological services is
a. ethical if no exploitation is involved and it is not clinically contraindicated
b. ethical if the therapist barters for good of known value, as opposed to services
c. unethical under any circumstances
a. ethical if no exploitation is involved and it is not clinically contraindicated
For nine months now, your long-term client has made no significant progress in therapy, even after you've revised the tx goals several times. You should probably
a. gently state your perception of the situation and encourage the client's response
b. seek supervision
c. interpret your formulation for the present resistance
d. seek an appropriate referral for the client
d. seek an appropriate referral for the client
The purpose of state licensing boards is to
a. protect teh public
b. set minimum standards of practice
c. oversee the profession
d. educate the public
a. protect the public
The General Principle of Competence in APA's Ethical Principles of Psychologist and Code of Conduct includes a discussion of
a. a psychologist recog the boundaries of his expertise
b. promoting integrity
c. consulting with colleagues in order to avoid unethical conduct
d. a psychologist seeking to contribute to the welfare of those with whom they interact professionally
A. Principle A (Competence) includes recognizing the boundaries of one's expertise. Response B is about Principle B (Integrity); response C concerns Principle C (Professional and Scientific Responsibility_; and response D is about Principle E (Concern for others' Welfare).
The private conduct of a psychologist
a. is her private business
b. is also subject to the Ethics Code
c. is private, except when it reduces the public's trust
d. is only of concern if the psychologist has a private practice
c. is private, except when it reduces the public's trust
A conculting psychologist prints testimonials from former clients in a brochure adversiting her services to corporations. According to the latest revision of the Ethical Principles, this is
a. ethical and legal
b. unethical and illegal
c. unethical, unless the testimonials were not solicited
d. unethical, but legal
c. unethical, unless the testimonials were not solicited
A father brings his son to a psychologist to be evaluated as recommended by the boy's school. In the course of the evaluation, the psychologist finds out that the father is not the custodial parent. The psychologist should
a. cont with the eval, but refuse to release the results until a written consent is obtained from the custodial parent
b. stop the eval until a written consent is obtained from the custodial parent
c. continue with the eval, but mail the results to the custodial parent only
d. obtain consent from the father and send the report to the school
B. not until you have the custodial parent's consent
A marriage, family, and child couselor is about to rec a Ph.D. in clin psych and meets her own state's requirement for taking the psych licensing exam. His bus card inc info about the hours he's available and the words "Ph.D. candidate.
. engaging in unethical conduct, because the term Ph.D. candidate could be misleading
The phrase "holder of the privilege"
a. is a legal term signifying that the client (or legal guardian thereof ) in a psychotherapeutic relationship has the right, though not abolute to protect his privacy.
b. means that both the therapist and client must jointly decide on what info discussed during therapy will be divulged in a court of law
c. is intended to protect the therapy client by restricting info about the therapeutic relationship that can be divulged in a court of law to whatever the therapist feels is in the client's best interests
d. has exactly the same meaning as "confidentiality" as it applies to the psychotherapeutic relationship.
a. is a legal term signifying that the client in a psychotherapeutic relationship hs the right, though not absolute, to protect his privacy.
A clinical psych announces her serv by advertising her na, degree, fee, and APA membership in a boxed section in a local newspaper. According to recent changes in APA's Ethical Principles, this action is
a. permissible
b. illegal
d. unethical
d. unprof an dillegal
a. permissible
You receive a subpoena to bring your records regarding a patient to the local courthouse, so that copies can be made for later use as evidence in the patient's pending trial for car theft. The patient has entered a plea of not guilty by reason of insanity, but does not want you to release his records for use as evidence in the court proceeding. Legally, you would be required to
a. withhold the records based on the patient's legal right to confidentiality
b. produce the records unless the patient chooses to change his plea to eliminate the issue of his mental status
c. provide the records only after deleting material that you do not deem pertinent to the trial
d. refuse to provide the records, citing the principles of the APA Ethical Principles of Psychologists
b. it is the law in all states that, whenever a person raises her own mental condition as an issue in a legal matter, privilege is waived and the client cannot deny the court access to psychotherapy records or the therapist's testimony.
Job analysis refers to the process of
a. determining the specific skills and behaviors that are required for doing a given job effectively
b. determining the job aptitudes of incumbents that distinguish successful from unsuccessful people
c. screening job applicants for a given job based upon the results of a job-related assessment measure
d. presenting the job equities and inequities to the job applicants
a. determining the specific skills and behaviors that are required for doing a given job effectively
According to herzberg's two-factor theory of job satisfaction,
a. hygiene factors are more related to worker dissatisfaction than to worker satisfaction
b. motivators and hygiene factors vary from occupation to occupation, with blue-collar workers being more influenced by hygiene factors than by motivators
c. motivators include job security and job pay
d. motivators include working conditions and recognition
A. Hygiene factors (or leower level needs, such as pay, safety, and benefits), produce dissatisfaction when they are not present, but have no effect on satisfaction when they are present. More related to dissatisfaction than to satisfaction. Motivators, such as meaningful work, produce stisfaction when they are present, but have no effect on dissatisfaction when they are absent.
In the selection of employees, a co uses a part test that has mod predictive validity. The company hires applicants scoring above the mean on the test, but this cutoff score has resulted in an unacceptable high percentage of "false positives" (employees who are expected to succeed, but do not). A useful strategy to obtain a higher proportion of "true positives" using the same test would be to
a. raise the cutoff score
b. lower the cutoff score
c. change the criterion measure
d. increase the number of applicants
a. raise the cutoff score
Research carried out by McClelland and Atkinson suggests that people who are high in need for achievement prefer ttasks of
a. moderate diff with performance feedback
b. high diff without performance feedback
low diff without performance feedback
d. high diff with performance feedback
a. mod diff with performance feedback
A mechanical reasoning test has been shown to have a very high (.8) validity for male and lower (.4) validity for female applicants for a drill-press operator job. If the company has to ensure that the same proportion of individuals from each gender who are hired will be successful on the job, the company will have to (assuming legality is not an issue)
a. require a higher cutoff score for female applicants
b. give all women compensatory training
c. reassess the criterion measure
d. use a test of verbal aptitude for women
a. require a higher cutoff score for female applicants
As a junior college counselor, your first choice of a vocational interest test to administer to a very bright 20-year old woman would be the
a. strong interest inventory
b. general apt test battery
c. kuder occupational interest survey
d. kuder vocational preference record
a. strong interest inventory - the kuder is used for individuals with a wider array of interests and the kuder vocational pref record assesses interests in ten broad areas rather in specific occupations
Tests of psychomotor abilities for job selection procedures
a. have not been reliably constructed
b. can be easily substituted for each other bec of a common factor
c. are useful as predictors in a wide range of jobs and environments
d. must be very specific to the jobs being selected
d. must be very specific to the jobs being selected for
For personnel hiring programs, a test with low validity (e.g., .30) is considered adequate as long as
a. selction ratios are high
b. selection ratios are low
c. reliability figures are high
d. dropout ratios are low
B. A low selection ratio (ratio of job openings to job applicants) is one factor that increases the utility of a job selection measure. If the selection ratio is low, this can compensate to some degree for a low validity coefficient and the test might still be considered adequate.
For effective administration of a six-scientist laboratory that is oriented toward new product development, which of the following types of communication networks (structures) should the administrator prefer?
a. centralized
b. decentralized
c. mod centralized
d. mod decentralized
B. Decentralized communication networks, or those in which communication does not flow through only one person, are more effective than centralized networks for accomplishiing complex tasks in an organization.
The quality and quantity of work produced by a group tends to be lowest with which of the following styles of leadership?
a. democratic
b. autocratic
c. employee-centered
d. laissez-faire
d. laissez-faire
Interest inventories are least useful for predicting
a. job performance
b. job choice
c. job satisfaction
d. job persistence
a. job performance
Rsearch on the applicability of Maslow's hierarchy theory to the workplace suggests that
a. the theory seems to apply very well to industrial settings
b. the theory seems to apply well only for lower level workers
c. the theory seems to apply well only at hither levels of the hierarchy
d. the theory does not apply very well to workplace settings
d. the theory does not apply very well to workplace settings
Which of the following is not true of the forced-choice method of employee evaluation?
a. Forced-choice inventories are very costly to develop
b. Forced-choice inventories may increase dissatisfaction among raters because they prevent raters from deciding for themselves who is a "good" employee or bad one
c. As compared to other methods of worker eveluation, the forced-choice method has low validity
d.. the forced-choice method decreases the probability that criterion contamination will occur
c. as compared to other methods of worker eval, the forced-choice method has low validity
Behavioral Anchored Rating Scales include ____ as items.
a. critical incidents
b. negative job behaviors, but not positive ones
c. positive job bx but not neg ones
d. licert scale type questions
a. critical incidents - a critical incident is a specific work behavior that has been shown to lead to good, adequate, or poor job performance. A three point BARS might consist of items that look something like this - 3-always comes to work on time or early; 2-occasional tardiness, but not enough to significantly interfere wit hperformance; and 1-is late to work more days than not.
One advantage of biodata as a selection tool is that it is particularly useful for
a. predicting job satisfaction
b. predicting job interest
c. predicting job turnover
d. predicting job nepotism
c. predicting job turnover
Which of the following would be an example of vestibule training?
a. interest inventory testing
b. giving someone a training manual
c. in basket-out basket
d. having new employees attend a series of informative lectures.
c. in basket - out basket
Fiedler's Contigency Theory or LPC proposes
a. that a leader's effectiveness is determined by a combination of the leader's style and the characteristics of the situation.
b. subordinate's motivation is maximized when they perceive that the leader is helping them achieve their goals
c. leaders are described in terms of task and relationship orientation
d. a distinction between transformational and trasactional leaders
a. that a leader's effectiveness is determined by a combination of the leader's style and the characteristics of the situation
Which of the following is not one of Holland's personality types?
a. Artistic
b. Investigative
c. Scientific
d. REalistic
c. Scientific
Super's theory of career development is based on the assumption tha
a. career development can be described in terms of a predictable sequence of tages

b. personality variables and occupational environments are of interest
c. vocational choice is linked to children's experience with their parents
d. there is a hierarchy of needs that impacts our vocational choice
a. career development can be described in terms of a predictable sequence of stages.
aDVERSE IMPACT, A SELECTION procedure that produces a substantilly different rate of selection for different groups that are defined on the basis of gender, race, age, etc., can be determined mathematically using the
a. 30% rule
b. 68% rule
c. 80% rule
d. 90% rule
c. 80% rule - adverse impact is occurring when the selection rate for a minority group is less than 80% of the selection rate for the majirity group. If 60% of male applicants are hired, at least 48% of female applicants must be hired.
Chin and Benne divide planned change in organizations into three types:
a. autocratic, consultative, group decision
b. instrumental, supportive, participative
c. empirical-rational, normative-reeducative, power-coercive
d. decision making, career path, responsibility
c. empirical-rational (people are basically rational and if they have the pertinent info, they will act in their self interest), normative-reeducative (social norms underlie patterns of behavior in organizations), power-coercive (strategies involving the use of rewards, punishments, and legitimate authority to coerce employees to comply with change
You are hired by a large corporation with many branch offices and are asked to develop a program to help employees in all branches quit smoking. As a psych familiar with the literature in this area, you are most likely to
a. institute a competition between branches and meet employees regularly to help them develop and monitor stepwise tx plans
b. reimburse employees for tx at a smoke reduction clinic
c. give employees info to read about the negative effects of smoking
d. tell the personnel manager to inform employees that their salaries willb e reduced if they do not quit.
a. institute a competition between branches and meet with employees reg to help them develop and monitor stepwise tx plans
Which of the following schedules of reinforcement produces a fairly even rate of performance during acquisition and would also be fairly resistant to extinction?
a. rewarding every fifth response
b. rewarding a response every five minutes
c. rewarding responses randomly
d. rewarding every response
c. rewarding responses randomly
One of the distinguishing marks of latent learning is that
a. it never affects the organism's overt bx patterns
b. it occurs only in man, being dependent on language
c. bx consequences appear only at a later time
d. it depends on secondary, rather than primary, reinforcement
c. behavioral consequences appear only at a later time
If a well-designed and properly executed experiment found that 30 minutes of exercise made it more difficult to memorize an eight-line poem afterwards, then it could be said that the effects of exercise on memorization demonstrates

a. retroactive inhibition
b. negative chaining
c. proactive inhibition
d. unintended forgetting
c. proactive inhibition-occurs when memory for stimuli or information is interfered with by a previous task or activiey
Regarding the processof modeling and observational learning, which statement is true?
a. introducing a positive incentive has little or no effect upon the probability that an observed bx will be performed
b. models who are consumers of reinforcement are imitated more often by children than models who dispense reinforcement
c. regardless of whether or not a model is punished immed after he performa a given bx, the bx is just as likely to be imitated
d. it is poss for learning to occur without reinforcement or bx practice
d. it is poss for learning to occur without reinforcement of bx practice.
The distinction between punishment and negative reinforcement is
a. with punishment, a stimulus is presented following a response to decrease the response's frequency, while negative reinforcement involves removing a stimulus to decrease the response's frequency
b. with punishment, a stimulus is presented following a response to decrease the response's frequency, whil negative reinforcement involves removing a stimulus to increase the resonspone's frequency
c. both involve removing a stimulus following a response, which decreases the frequency of the response
b. with punishment, a stimulus is presented following a response to decrease the response's frequency, whil negative reinforcement involves removing a stimulus to increase the response's frequenyc.
Satiation, as practiced by bx therapists, is most similar to which of the following techniques practiced by familly systems therapists?
a. prescribing the symptom
b. reframing
c. doubling
d. family schulture
a. prescribing the symptom
A dog is epeatedly exposed to light paired with food. Then, the dog is exposed to repeated pairings of that light with a tone. Eventually, presentation of the tone alone elicits salivation in teh dog. This illustrates the process known as
a. stimulus generalization
b. the method of successive approx
the Premack Principle
d. higher order conditioning
d. higher order conditioning
Which of the following techniques involves a lost opportunity for reinforcement?
a. response cost
b. time-out
c. overcorrection
d. punishment
B. TIME-OUT
The technique of sensate focus is based on the behavioral principle of
a. counterconditioning
b. flooding
c. extinction
d. mutual pleasure-giving
a. counterconditioning - involves training a couple to relax and engage in sexual touching exercises, with no pressure to achieve arousal, erection, or orgasm. The idea is to pair the relaxation with performance anxiety, in ordder to eliminate the latter. "reciprocal inhibition" would also be a correct response as it posits the underlying psyciological mechansism of counterconditioning and sensate focus
Theoretically, in order for a counterconditioning treatment to be successful, which statement is true?
a. The anxiety-evoking stimulus should be sufficiently strong to overcome the subject's raction to the anxiety-neutralizing stimulus
b. the anxiety-neutralizing stimulus is usually presented immediately after the anxiety-evoking stimulus is presented
c. the anxiety-evoking stimulus should be presented initially in attenuated forms, so that the stimulus value is less powerful than the anxiety-neutralizing stimulus
d. immediate in-vivo exposure to anxiety-evoking stimuli at the highest level of intensity is much more effective than graded exposure
c. When counterconditioning is used, it is important to gradually expose the person to the anxiety-evoking stimuli. Otherwise, the anxiety will be so overwhelming that the person will not learn the necessary relaxation response
Primary memory is equivalent to
a. secondary memory
b. long-term memory
c. short-term memory
d. autobiographical memory
short-term memory
An event that increases a bx in either a positive or negative fashion is a(n)
a. reinforcer
b. punisher
c. enforcer
d. operant
a. reinforcer
An example of the Premack Principle is
a. go to your room, that's an order.
b. let me explain the rules
c. physically guiding your child to pick up her toys
d. if you clean up your room, you can go outside and play
d.
Thinking about thinking is the definition of
a. a cog map
b. feature integration theory
d. metacognition
d. metacognition
Four groups of subjects study the same list of nonsense syllables. Afterwards, subjects in group 1 study a list of similar syllables, subjects in group 2 study a list of dissimilar syllables, subjects in group 3 read a novel, and subjects in group 4 go to sleep. On a subsequent test of recall, subjects in which grp are most likely to display the best memory of the nonsense syllables?
group 4
Declarative memory is to procedural memory as
a. fact is to skill
b. short-term is to long-term memory
c. implicit memory is to explicit memory
d. choic is to iconimc
A. correctly associates declarative memory to facts and procedural memory to skills
After a tachistoscopic presentation of a number sequence, the person reports she is still able to "see" the image. This is an example of
a. retroactive memory
b. retroactive inhibition
c. iconic memory
d. short-term visual memory
c. iconic memory
Inability to convert short-term into long-term memory is associated with damage to the
a. RAS
b. hippocampus
c. septum
d. raphe nucleus
b. hippocampus
Following a stroke, a patient appears to understand spoken speech, but has great difficulty speaking or writing. He is especially troubled by prepositions and finds it difficult to order his words. He has probably sustained a lesion in the
a. frontal lobe
b. Broca's area
c. Wernicke's area
d. left parietal lobe
B. Broca's area
Which of the following brain structures serves as a relay station for sensory information from all sensory modalities except olfaction?
a. hypothalamus
b. corpus callosum
c. thalamus
d. hippocampus
c. thalamus
In the depressed patient, which of the cns neurotransmitters listed below is most likely to be at a below average level?
a. GABA
b. acetylcholine
c. endorphin
d. serotonin
d. sereotonin
Which of the following is true of the laws governing the behavior of a nerve cell, or neuron?
a. The intensity of a neuron's activity varies directly with the electrical activity inside the neuron
b. when a certain level of electrical activity inside a neuron is reached, a neuron fires at its maximum intensity; if the electrical activity is below tht level, the neuron doesn't fire at all.
C. When exposed to an intense stimulus, such as intense pain, an individual neuron will send out a stronger signal than when exposed to a weaker stimulus
b. When a certain level of electrical activity inside a neuron is reached, a neuron fires at its maximum intensity; if the electrical activity is below that level, the neuron doesn't fire at all
Which of the following is concerned chiEfly with the preparation of smooth muscles and glands for emergency situations? The
a. autonomic nervous system
b. cns
c. sympathetic nervous system
d. parasympathetic nervous system
c. sympathetic nervous system
The neurotransmitter most associated with voluntary muscle movement is
a. norephinephrine
b. serotonin
c. acetylcholine
d. dopamine
b. serotonin
The ARAS (Ascending Reticular Activating System) produces its effects on motivation by
a. channeling sensory input to the proper region of the cortex
c. providing diffuse facilitation to the entire cortex
c. inhibiting irrelevant input from the receptors
d. providing generalized facilitation to all of the muscles
a. channeling sensory input to the proper region of the cortex
If elderly patients are given chlorpromzzine for an extended period of time, the most likely side effect would be
a. tardive dyskinesia
b. Parkinson's Disease
c. Huntington's Chorea
d. difficulties sleeping
a. tardive dyskinesia
there are three classes of antidepressants: tricyclics, SSRI's, and MAOI's. The tricyclics include
a. floxetine, setraline, paroxetine
b. Prozac, Zoloft, Paxil
c. Nardil and Parnate
d. imipramine, clomipramine, amitriptyline
d. imipramine, clomiprzmine, amitriptyline
The most widely presceibed anti-anxiety drugs include the
a. SSIR's
b. tricyclics
c. benzodiazapines
d. barbiturates
c. benzodiazepines
The relationship between age and sleep is that
a. as we age, REM increases
b. as we age, total sleep time and REM decreases
c. as we age, REM decreases, while total sleep time increases
b. as we age, total sleep time and REM decreases
Long term potentiation is associated with
a. sleep
b. learning and memory
c. emotional expressiveness
d. hunger
b. leaning and memory - has been observed in hippocampal neurons and is believed to be responsible for structural changes in synapses that are related to the formation of memories
Which of the folowing statements regarding the use of biofeedback to treat headaches is true?
a. EMG Biofeedback would be more useful for tension than for migraine headaches
b. EMG Biofeedback would be more useful for migraine than for tension headaches
c. emg biofeedback is effective tx for both
d. emg biofeedback is ineffective tx for both
a. emg biofeedback would be more useful for tension than for migraine headaches
a 60yo linguish and muscian suffered heart failure resulting in a prolonged period of anoxia. Following this episode, he showed no interest in his work, became rather careless about his personal hygience, displayed a short attention span, seemed unconcerned about his impaired functioning, and genrally apepared rather childish. Which part of his brain was most likely affected?
a. cerebellus
b. temporal lobe
c. frontal cortex
d. hippocampus
c. frontal cortex
If a stimulus is presented to the left visual field only of a a "split-brain patient," the patient will be
a. unable to name the stimulus
b. able to name the stimulus
c. unable to later pick out the stimulus when it is hidden from vies
d. unable to experience any emotional response to the stimulus
A. When a stimulus is projected to the left visual field, visual information about that stimulus is transmitted to the right hemisphere.
A man is brought to an emergency room following an automobile accident. This memory dysfunction is called
a. retrograde amnesia
b. anterograde amnesia
c. agnosia
d. aphasiz
a. retrograde amnesia
Damage to Broca's area of the left hemisphere produces
a. apraxia
b. agnosia
c. aphasia
d. agraphia
c. aphasia - impairment in speech functions
Damage to Broca's area produces _____ aphasia.
expressive
______ has to do with the sense of touch
Agnosia
______ is related to movement,
apraxia
_______ is related to writing.
agraphia
Trauma to the temporal lobe is associated with
a. loss of coordination
b. visual blurring
c. apraxia
d. memory loss
d. memory loss
A person sustains severe head trauma that leads to retrograde and anterograde amnesia. Which memories are more likely to return first?
a. memories at the time of the event
b. memories immediately following the event
c. memories immediately preceding the event
d. memories that were stored well before the event
d. memories that were stored well before the event - the longer the time period for memories stored prior to the trauma, the less they are disrupted.
In the treatment of Schizophrenia, Haloperidol is
a. most effective for treating the positive symptoms
b. most effective for treating the negative symptoms
c. equally effeective for treating pos and neg symptoms
d. not effective for treating any symptoms
a. most effective for treating the positive symptoms
________ and _______ are used to assess regional cerebral blood flow.
a. CT; MRI
b. PET; fMRI
c. PET; CT
d. ABC; DEF
b. PET, fMRI
`What is one of the effects of estrogen replacement therapy?
a. inc mood swings
b. reduced libido
c. inc vaginal dryness
d. inc risk of osteoporosis
b. reduced libido
Which situation described below would appropriately be measured by a Pearson Product moment correlation coefficient?
a. the relationship between age and score on the nat psych exam
b. the relationship between gender and scores on the nat psych licensing exam
c. the relationship between gender and passing or failing the nat psych licensing exam
A. The Pearson r is used to assess the relationship between two variables that are measured with continuous (interval or ratio) data. Age and scores on an exam are examples of continuous data. By contrast, gender and pass/fail are examples of dichotomous data.
A significant finding for a one-way ANOVA indicates that the
a. population means were different
b. group mens were different
c. sample means were diff
d. within group variance was different
A - Statistical hypothesis tests such as the ANOVA are designed to test hypotheses based on poulation values. In the case of a one-way ANOVA, a significant finding indicates that an observed difference between two or more sample means very likely reflects a true difference in the population
A t-test can be used to perform a statistical analysis in which one of the following situations? To assess the effects of
a. several independent variables on one dependent variable
b. one independent variable on one dependent variable
c. one independent variable on several dependent variables
d. a 2 x 4 factorial design
b - one independent variable on one dependent variable - the independent variable must also have only two levels - e.g., tx /no tx study or a before and after study
The deviation from the mean divided by the standard deviation is a
a. percentile
b. standard score
c. variance
d. median
b. standard score
A distribution yields the following averages: mean = 20, median = 25, and mode = 30. The distribution is
a. symmetrical
b. pos skewed
c. neg skewed
d. leptokurtic
c. neg skewed - most scores are very high, but there are a few extreme low scores. In such a dist, the mea is lower than the median and the median is lower than the mode.
a QUASI-EXPERIMENT DIFFERS FROM A TRUE EXPERIMENT IN THAT THE LATTER ENTAILS
A. RANDOM ASSIGNMENT OF INDEPENDENT VARIABLES
B. RANDOM SELECTION OF SUBJECTS FROM THE POPULATION
C. RANDOM ASSIGNMENT OF SUBJECTS
D. NON-RANDOM ASSIGNMENT OF POPULATIONS
C. RANDOM AssIGNMENT OF SUBJECTS (to groups there are a variety of diff kinds of quasi-experiments, but none of them involves random assignment of subjects to groups
You obtained a score of 50 on a test that had a mean of 40 and a standard deviation of 10. You also obtained a scoreof 60 on a second test that had a mean of 45 and a standard deviation of 15. How did you do on these tests?
a. you did better on the first than on the second
b. you did better on the second than on the first
c. you did equally well
d. there is no valid way of comparing scores
c. First convert the scores to z-scores, which indicate how many standard deviation units a score falls above or below the mean. On the first test, the score is 10 points above the mean and the standard deviiation is 10, so the equivalent z-score is +1.0 (one standard deviation above the mean). On the second test, the score is 15 points above the mean and the standard deviation is 15, so the equivalent z-score is also +1.0.
The distribution of z-scores has the same ______ as the raw score distribution from which it is derived.
a. mean
b. standard deviation
c. shape
d. variance
c. shape
You conduct a research study where you compare reading comprehension scores of a class of students before they begin a remedial education course, after completion of the course, and again after one year. You would use a
a. factor analysis
b. chi-square
c. t-test for independent samples
d. one-way ANOVA for repeated measures
d. one way ANOVE - when you compare threee or more sets of scores - in this case, when you compare reading scores before and after, and a third time after one year. Moreover, a one-way ANOVA for repeated measures would be applied because the same subjects are being measured multiple times
In studies of obedience to authority in which subjects were instructed to apply aversive stimuli to people who they were told were experimental subjects, but were actually confederates, the condition under which the subjects applied the lest shock stimuli was when the
a. experimenter was present in the room with the subject
b. experiment was done in the psych lab of the university
c. experimenter gave instructions via a telephone, with an assistant relaying the instructions
c. experimenter gave instructions via a telephone
A psychologist is designing a token economy program to encourage students to complete their assignments. In line with Leon Festinger's cognitive dissonance theory, he would probably
a. offer maximal reward initiallly, then shift to a fixed-ratio schedule of reward
b. provide only the minimum level of reward needed to elicit assignment completion
c. emphasize the use of extrinsic rewards for students who are relatively more motivated
B. the theory of cog dissonance holds that when we have two conflicting cognitions, we experience a dissonant state, which motivate us to change our bx or modify one of our cognitions to reduce the conflict.The theory was applied to experiments in which subjects were given either $20 or $1 to write an essay that conflicted with their attitudes. Subjects in the $1 condition showed greater attitude change in the direction of the opinion expressed in their essay - presumably because the money could not justify their behavior and they, therefore, experienced dissonance that had to be reduced by chaning their original attitude. Therefore, if students are provided a minimum level of reward for completing their assigments, they will be more likely to adopt a positive attitude toward the assignment bec they will not be able to say to themselves that they completed it for the reward
The office of central intelligence hires you as a consultin gpsychologist to advise on ways ot inoculating the citizens of Peruasia against the evils of Micronesian influence. You suggest that they
a. drop leaflets over Peruasia strongly affirming that country's values
b. begin a campaign advertising the evils of Micronesia
c. launch a weak attack on Peruasian values
d. launch a strong attack on Peruasian values
C. McGuire's inoculation theory holds that by presenting a weak version of an argument and then refuting it, one can build up a listeners or target's resistance to stronger versions of that argument presented later on. One strategy to persuade someone of an argument is to present a weak version of the other side of the argument.
Based on group dynamics research, one good way to foster mutual acceptance among racial groups would be through
a. integration in housing and schools
b. activities that require intergroup cooperation
c. debunking of facial myths and stereotypes
d. an intensive campaign to promote the attitude of brotherly love
B. In Sherif's Robber's Cave Study, children in a summer camp were divided into two groups on an arbitrary basis and made to engage in competition with each other. This engendered intergoup hostility and dislike, which was found to be greatly reduced when a task requiring the two groups to cooperate was introduced.
The Zeigamik effect states that
a. tasks started by a subject, but completed by a partner, are recalled equally as well as those completed by the subject
b. complex tasks are recalled more accurately than simple tasks
c. a meaningful task is recalled more readily than an unmeaningful task
d. a person has greater recall for tasks that have been interrupted and left incomplete than for tasks that have been completed
D. The Zeigamik effect refers to the tendency to remember uncompleted tasks better than completed ones
A youngster develops the habit of cleaning his room every weekend. As his father notices this, he begins to give the boy a dollar reward for cleaning his room. The boy then becomes unwilling to clean his room unless he is paid for it. This paradoxcal result could be most readily explained by
a. behavioral learning theory
b. paradoxical intention
c. attribution theory
d. double-blind theory
C. The result can be explained by the "overjustification hypothesis," which is an outgrowth of attribution theory. Accordingly, when external motivation is offered for a task that a person is intrinsically interested in, the person's interest in the task decreases.
Social loafing would be demonstrated by which of the following:
a. you type a report more quickly when your coworker is in the room
b. the same report takes longer to complete when there is a group working on it rather than when each member works individually
c. the group working on the report decides to demand a raise or go on strike as soon as the report is finished
d. everyone calls in sick on the day you were all assigned to begin work on the report
B. Social loafing is the phenomenon of declining productivity when people are working together as a group Choice A is social facilitation; C is group polarization - tend to make more risky decisions than individually
A test developer is designing a test to select scholarship recipients from among the general population of high school seniors. He would probably prefer a test with an average item difficulty index of around
a. .50
b. .70
c. .90
d. .30
D. A test with an average item diff level of .30 (average question is answered correctly by 30% of examinees) is most difficult
Item analysis is a procedure used to evaluate the
a. factor structure of a test
b. reliabiiity of the test
c. intercorrelations of test items
d. difficulty and discriminability of test items
D. Item analysis involves a quantitative and/or qualitative study of potential test items to determine which items will be retained for the final version of the test. Two of the most commonly employed dimentions of item analysis are item difficulty and item discrimination (the ability of individual items to differentiate between two subgroups).
Among the following, which is the most important consideration for a test such as the psychology licensing exam?
a. content validity
b. concurrent validity
c. construct validity
d. predictive validity
A.
Among the following criteria, which one is least appropriate for evaluating the content validity of a standardized achievement test in English for high school students? The
a. correlation of test scores with college English marks
b. correspondence of topics on the test with the topics covered in several English textbooks
c. pooled judgment of a group of high school English teachers
d. correlation of test scores with grades in the high school English course
A. Criterion contamination occurs when a rater knows how a ratee did on a predictor test, and this knolwedge eaffects the rating.
Which of the following represents the range of possible values of the standard error of measurement?
a. 0 to 1
b. -1 to 1
c. 0 to the test's standard deviation
d. 1 to the test's standard deviation
c. 0 to the test's standard deviation -
When practical, the preferred method of calculating the reliability of a test is
a. alternate forms reliability
b. test-retest reliability
c. internal-consistency reliability
d. split-half reliability
a. alternate forms reliability - calculated by correlating two forms of the same test
Which of the following best illustrates the concept of "shrinkage"?
a. an extremely high score on a test shrinks upon retesting.
b. The mean score on a test shrinks when it is administered to the wrong normative group
c. A test that has been validated using one sample of test-takers shrinks upon revalidation
d. Certain parts of the body are known to shrink upon exposure to cold temps
c. A test that has been validated using one sample of test-takers shrinks upon revalidation
In general, a test item will be most useful for discriminating between high scorers and low scorers if
a. 70% of the students get the item right
b. 74% of the students get the item right
c. 50% of the students know the correct answer
d. 90% of the students know the correct answer
c. 50% of the students know the correct answer
If raters are checked for inter-rater agreement and trained to a high agreement criterion, what happens after the checks are done? Agreement
a. declines if the raters work together
b. declines if the raters work alone
c. is maintained
d. increases
b. declines if the raters work alone
The mother of an infant who exhibits the anxious/resistant pattern of attachment in the strange situation is most likely to act in which of the following ways when interacting with her infant?
a. physically abusive
b. inconsistent
c. permissive
d. over-controlling
b. inconsistent
Stranger anxiety is most intense when an infant is
a. 6 to 7 months of age
b. 10 to 11 months of age
c. 17 to 18 months of age
d. 22 to 24 months of age
c. 17 to 18 months of age
A child says that a person who breaks 10 toys by accident should be more severely punished than a person who breaks 3 toys on purpose. According to Piaget, this child is in which stage of moral development?
a. heteronomous
b. autonomous
c. preoperational
d. preconventional
A. children in the heteronomous stage of moral development base their judgments on the consequences of the act rather than on the actor's intentions
A child just entering Kohlberg's conventional leel will base his moral judgment of an act on
a. the physical punishments or rewards that may follow the act
b. social approval or disapproval for the act
c. the existing laws that govern the act
d. demoncratically-chosen laws applicable to the act
b. social approval or disapproval for the act
Conformity to peers peaks at
a. 16 to 18 years of age
b. 14 to 16 yrs of age
c. 12 to 14 yrs of age
d. 10 to 12 years of age
c. 12 to 14 years of age
6. An adult who reports having a great childhood and perfrect parents, but when asked, fails to give any examples to support those evaluations, is likely to have babies who are:
a. friendly to strangers when mother is present
b. confused and apprehensive
c. anxious in the presence of mother though ambivalent upon her return
d. uninterested in the environment -
d. Dismissing pattern of attachment - most often results in having children with an Avoidant Attachment pattern
Delinquent adolescents are most likely to have parents who are
a. authoritarian
b. authoritative
c. permissive
d. uninvolved
d. uninvolved
The most effective tx for an aggressive child would involve
a. allowing the child to vent
b. consistent physical punishment
c. helping him understand the pain suffered by his victims
d. insight-oriented therapy
c. helping him understand the pain suffered by his victims
According to Erikson, a 2yo child is faced with which of the following challenges of psychosocial development?
a. autonomy vs. shame
b. trust vs. mistrust
c. industry vs. inferiority
d. integrity vs. despair
a. autonomy vs. shame
The goodness of fit model developed by Thomas and Chess proposes that helthy development requires a match between
a. temperament and environment
b. thoughts, feelings, and actions
c. attachment and parents' responnsivity
d. cognitive abilities and environmental demands
a. temperament and environment - knowing that Thomas and Chess are most assoc with research on temperament would have helped
When asked about her career choice, an adolescent experiencing identity moratorium is most likely to say
a. my dad says i should be an engineer like him.
b. i haven't given it much thought
c. i don't know if i'll ever be able to decide what to do when i'm an adult
d. i've given that a lot of thought and i'm pretty sure i want to be a veterinarian.
c. i don't know if i'll ever be able to decide what to do when i'm an adult
Patterson and his colleagues would most likely agree that highly aggressive children
a. are born that way
b. exhibit a high incidence of cognitive distortions
c. have unfulfilled needs
d. have highly aggressive parents
d. have highly aggressive parents
All of the following statements regarding the results of research on the effects of parental divorce on children are true, except
a. preadolescent girls who show few problems immediately after the divorce may show maladjustment in adolescence
b. following a divorce, parental discipline often becomes more erratic and inconsistent
c. it is better for the children if parents remain in a highly conflictual marriage than if they get a divorce
d. the effects of a divorce can be mitigated if the parents conceal their conflict from their children
c. it is better for the children if parents remain in a highly conflictual marriage than if they get a divorce
In the 1970s the research suggested that, in a two-parent household, maternal employment can have negative effects on the cognitive performance of
a. children in low-income families
b. children in middle-ioncome families
c. boys in low-income families
d. boys in middle-income families
d. boys in middle-income families
Research investigating the effects of having a gay or lesbian parent has found that
a. children of gay and lesbian parents often differ developmentally in significant ways from children of heterosexual parents
b. children of gay parents whos no negative consequences, but children of lesbian parents ocmmonly display maladjusmtne
d. children of gay and lesbian parents do not show significant developmental diff from children of heterosexual parents
d.