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126 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
1. Which of the following is not true about Malignant Melanoma?
a. It is the most common malignancy of melanocytes
b. It is the deadliest form of skin cancer
c. Most common cancer in women ages 30-45
d. Itching is a common early symptom
e. All of the above statements are true of malignant melanoma
C- ages 25-29
2. Which of the following signs of Malignant Melanoma is false?
a. There will be an increase in size of lesion greater than 6mm
b. The lesion will show a change in color, usually blue/black
c. Itching is a common early symptom
d. Bleeding, ulceration and tenderness is an early symptom
D- late symptom
3. Moh’s technique is more beneficial for which kind of carcinoma?
a. Basal Cell
b. Squamous Cell
c. Malignant Melanoma
A
4. Aldara (prescription drug) is most used for the treatment of ______ cell carcinoma?
a. Basal
b. Squamous
A
5. Wide local excision with histological confirmation of the margins is the primary treatment for _________ cell carcinoma?
a. Basal
b. Squamous
B
6. Palpation of the lymph nodes needs to be done as part of the treatment for Basal Cell Carcinoma?
a. True
b. False
B- SQUAMOUS CELL
7. All suspected lesions must be biopsied?
a. True
b. False
A
8. The perfect biopsy is one that excises the lesion into the _________ layer of the skin?
a. Epidermal
b. Dermal
c. Subcutaneous
d. Basal
C
9. Sentinel Node biopsy should be done in patients in which the confirmation has already be made.
a. True
b. False
A
10. Chemotherapy using Dacarbazine can be used before the melanoma metastasizes?
a. True
b. False
B- USED ONCE IT ALREADY METASTISIZED
11. Which of the following statements about freckles is false?
a. They are benign brown molecule lesions
b. Appear in childhood and occur as an autosomal dominant trait
c. Confined to the face, arms, upper trunk and legs
d. They increase with exposure to the sun, and fade away during the winter months
C – face, arms and upper trunk only
12. Which of the following statements about freckles is false?
a. Sharply defined as papules of 1-2mm with a uniform coloration
b. Show an increased melanin within the basal layer keratinocyte
c. Lesions are asymptomatic
d. They (freckles) will usually fade on their own and require no treatment
12. A-Macule
13. Which of the following statements about Malasma is false?
a. It is a patchy macular hyper-pigmentation of the face
b. More commonly seen in darker pigmented women
c. Will fade with the use of oral contraceptives
d. It may take months or years for the normal skin color to return
e. Use a sunscreen with at least SPF 30
13. C-discontinuance
14. Which of the following statements about Seborrheric Keratosis is false?
a. Benign neoplasm of epidermal cells that clinically appear as a scaling, pasted on papule or plaque
b. Appears in middle aged with few lesions noted in most elderly patients
c. These lesions grow slowly
d. Most commonly appear on the palms and soles of the feet
14. D- appear on the face, ncek, trunk and extremities
15. A shaved biopsy is diagnostic of Seborrheic Keratosis?
a. True
b. False
15. A-excisional is also diagnostic
16. Seborrheic Keratosis is ________ demarcated and composed of small benign squamous cells?
a. Poorly
b. Well
B
17. What is most helpful when distinguishing a nodule from a cyst?
a. Color
b. Boarder
c. Consistency
C
18. A ________ is usually pliable?
a. Nodule
b. Macule
c. Cyst
C
Match the following:

a. Keliod
b. Hemiangioma
c. Kaposi’s Sarcoma
d. Lipoma
e. Inclusion Cyst
f. Dermatofibroma
g. Xanthoma
h. Neurofibroma

19. Benign tumor that is made up of blood vessels located in the dermal tissue
B
Match the following:

a. Keliod
b. Hemiangioma
c. Kaposi’s Sarcoma
d. Lipoma
e. Inclusion Cyst
f. Dermatofibroma
g. Xanthoma
h. Neurofibroma

20. A proliferation of collagen tissue after trauma to the skin
A
Match the following:

a. Keliod
b. Hemiangioma
c. Kaposi’s Sarcoma
d. Lipoma
e. Inclusion Cyst
f. Dermatofibroma
g. Xanthoma
h. Neurofibroma

21. A focal collection of lipid-laden histiocytes in the dermis/tendon
G
Match the following:

a. Keliod
b. Hemiangioma
c. Kaposi’s Sarcoma
d. Lipoma
e. Inclusion Cyst
f. Dermatofibroma
g. Xanthoma
h. Neurofibroma

22. Malignant tumor derived from endothelial cells
C
Match the following:

a. Keliod
b. Hemiangioma
c. Kaposi’s Sarcoma
d. Lipoma
e. Inclusion Cyst
f. Dermatofibroma
g. Xanthoma
h. Neurofibroma

23. A focal proliferation of neural tissue within the dermis
H
Match the following:

a. Keliod
b. Hemiangioma
c. Kaposi’s Sarcoma
d. Lipoma
e. Inclusion Cyst
f. Dermatofibroma
g. Xanthoma
h. Neurofibroma

24. Benign tumor of subcutaneous fat
D
Match the following:

a. Keliod
b. Hemiangioma
c. Kaposi’s Sarcoma
d. Lipoma
e. Inclusion Cyst
f. Dermatofibroma
g. Xanthoma
h. Neurofibroma

25. Focal dermal fibrosis with overlying epidermal thickening and hyper-pigmentation
F
Match the following:

a. Keliod
b. Hemiangioma
c. Kaposi’s Sarcoma
d. Lipoma
e. Inclusion Cyst
f. Dermatofibroma
g. Xanthoma
h. Neurofibroma

26. Originates from the upper portion of the hair follicle and is found in the mid and lower dermal layers Q
e
27. Which of the following statements about inclusion cysts is false?
a. They are common lesions
b. Occur at any age
c. They are usually symptomatic
d. They grow slowly
e. Rupture may produce a foul smell
f. Lesions are usually flesh colored and dome shaped
g. They feel firm but not hard
h. Range from 0.5-5.0 cm
i. Found everywhere on the body-head and trunk most common
C-ASYMPTOMATIC
28. Diagnosis of inclusion cyst is made via biopsy?
a. True
b. False
B- MADE CLINICALLY
29. Which of the following statements about Hemiangioma is false?
a. Typically found in adolescents
b. Range in color from red-blue-the color difference is arised from how deep the lesion is and how much tissue resides above it
c. Most common soft tissue tumor of infancy
d. More common in Caucasian females
e. Usually asymptomatic
f. Therapeutic intervention can include glucocorticosteroids, pulsed-dye laser or excisional surgery
A- INFANCY
30. Which of the following statements about dermatofibroma is true?
a. Appears as a flesh colored lesion…usually a macule
b. Most often seen in the elderly
c. Usually symptomatic
d. Most commonly seen on the head and trunk
e. If you pinch the lesion you will see a “dimpling Sign”
f. Usually 2cm in size and slightly elevated
E
A- LIGHT TAN TO DARK AND TYPICALLY A PAPULE
b. Seen in young adults
c. Asymptomatic
d. Thighs and Legs
e. TRUE
f. 5mm
31. Dermatofibroma diagnosis is usually made _____________?
a. Clinically
b. Via Biopsy
B
32. Dermatofibrosarcomas are a ______ grade malignant fibrous tumor that will grow _______ and they _________ metastasize?
a. High; Fast; Usually
b. High; Slow; Rarely
c. Low; Fast; Usually
d. Low; Slow; Rarely
D
33. Which of the following statements about keloids is true?
a. Can occur at any age but tend to occur after 30
b. Equally common between African Americans and Caucasians
c. Common sites are chest, head, neck and earlobes
d. Soft, flesh colored, and tender
e. Can grow up to 10cm
C
a. Occur before 30
b. Higher amongst African Americans
c. TRUE
d. Firm, red and tender
e. Grow up to 20cm
34. A biopsy is diagnostic for keloids?
a. True
b. False
34. B-makes it worse
35. The treatment of choice for keloids is?
a. Surgical Removal
b. Pulsed-Dye laser
c. Intra-lesional injection of a corticosteroid
d. It will go away on its own
C
36. Which of the following is false regarding lipomas?
a. It is a rubbery nodule that is slightly elevated above the skin, but is palpable deep in the skin
b. It is idiopathic
c. Asymptomatic
d. Seen in midlife
e. Grow slowly
f. Flesh colored
g. Fixed in nature
h. Range from 1-10cm
i. Most common in the neck and upper extremities
G- MOVES FREELY
Lipoma lesions have no complications associated with them?
a. True
b. False
A
38. Which of the following statements about Neurofibroma is true?
a. Inherited disorder of the skin and autonomic nervous system
b. Autosomal dominant disorder and 90% of the cases arise from a new mutation
c. Affects males more commonly
d. Type 2 is the most common type
e. Also known as von Reckinghausen disease
38. E
a. Central Nervous System
b. 50%
c. Males/Females affected equally
d. Type 1
e. TRUE
39. Neurofibromas are characterized by café-au-lait spots?
a. True
b. False
A
40. Histiologically, neurofibromas are _______ circumscribed, _____________ small nerve fibers and spindle cells with a wavy nuclei in the dermis
a. Well; Capsulated
b. Well; Unencapsulated
c. Poorly; Capsulated
d. Poorly; Unencapsulated
B
41. Neurofibromas may show dumbbell shaped thoracic IVF’s on the X-ray?
a. True
b. False
B- CERVICAL
42. Which condition may require genetic counseling to prevent the chances of passing it on their offspring?
a. Lipoma
b. Xanthoma
c. Neurofibroma
d. Hemianginoma
C
43. Which of the following statements about Xanthoma’s are true?
a. Common skin lesions usually seen in middle aged adults
b. They appear tan-dark brown in color
c. Secondary to Nephrotic Syndrome
43. C
a. Elderly
b. Yellow-plaque
c. TRUE
44. Pt will typically have an decreased cholesterol and triglyceride levels
a. True
b. False
B- ELEVATED
45. Patients with high ___________ may have more Xanthoma in their tendons; while patients with high ____________ may show the eruptive form of Xanthoma.
a. Triglycerides; Cholesterol
b. Cholesterol; Triglycerides
B
46. Which of the following statements about Kaposi’s Sarcoma is false?
a. Manifested by multiple vascular tumor that usually occur first in the skin and will look like purple macules, plaques or nodules
b. Sporadic in occurrence and rapidly progresses
c. Seen predominately in the 50-70 year age bracket
d. Endemic in South Africa, and up to 50% of all childhood soft tissue tumors
e. Epidemic with AIDS and is 50x more common in homosexual males
f. Diagnosis made by biopsy
g. Average survival is 8-13 years
E-20X
47. Kaposi’s Sarcoma is associated with the ________ herpes virus?
a. Alpha
b. Beta
c. Delta
d. Gamma
D
48. Dermatitis and eczema are used interchangeably?
a. True
b. False
A
49. Which type of dermatitis has a less amount of spongiosis and is referred to as a “juicy papule?”
a. Acute
b. Sub-acute
c. Chronic
B
50. Which type of dermatitis results in a thickened epidermis, which is called lichenification; only a small amount of spongiosis is present?
a. Acute
b. Sub-acute
c. Chronic
C
51. Which type of dermatitis has a marked amount of spongiosis and can result in vesiculation?
a. Acute
b. Sub-acute
c. Chronic
A
52. The difference between dermatitis and contact dermatitis is that dermatitis has indistinct boarders?
a. True
b. False
A
Match the following:

a. Seborrheic Dermatitis
b. Atopic Dermatitis
c. Essential Dermatitis
d. Contact Dermatitis

53. Hypersensitivity reaction caused by skin contact with allergen
D
Match the following:

a. Seborrheic Dermatitis
b. Atopic Dermatitis
c. Essential Dermatitis
d. Contact Dermatitis

54. Eczematous eruption that is distressingly pruritic, recurrent, and symmetric
B
Match the following:

a. Seborrheic Dermatitis
b. Atopic Dermatitis
c. Essential Dermatitis
d. Contact Dermatitis

55. Idiopathic in nature, but is diagnosed solely by exclusion of other forms of dermatitis
C
Match the following:

a. Seborrheic Dermatitis
b. Atopic Dermatitis
c. Essential Dermatitis
d. Contact Dermatitis

56. Common chronic inflammatory papulosquamous disease
A
57. Which of the following about Essential Dermatitis is true?
a. Vesicular rash usually appears in the chronic phase
b. Lichenification rashes usually appear in the acute phase
c. Corticosteroids are often used for treatment
d. Caused by contact with a known allergen
57. C
a. Acute
b. Chronic
c. TRUE
d. Idiopathic
58. Which statement about contact dermatitis is false?
a. It is an example of an eczematous dermatitis
b. You need to have an initial exposure to the offending item with a resulting sensitization
c. Poison Ivy or sumac, the skin reaction can be a bullae with linear distribution
d. Legs, and feet are the most common sites
e. All of the above are true statements
58. D- hands, forearms, and face are most common
59. Which of the following types of dermatitis begins early in life with known periods of remission and exacerbation?
a. Seborrheic
b. Atopic
c. Essential
d. Contact
B
60. Which of the following about Atopic Dermatitis is false?
a. Most commonly seen in children
b. Sometimes chronic and reoccurring, although most will grow out of it
c. Facial and flexor involvement in infants
d. 70% of pt’s have a history of hay fever asthma, or dermatitis
C- EXTENSOR
61. Which of the following have lesions that are also frequently colonized with Staph Aureus?
a. Seborrheic Dermatitis
b. Atopic Dermatitis
c. Essential Dermatitis
d. Contact Dermatitis
B
62. Which of the following 2 statements about Seborrheic Dermatitis are false?
a. Pityrosporium Yeast is thought to be the cause
b. Most commonly seen on the scalp, eyebrows, and face
c. Associated to diseases such as Parkinson’s and AIDS
d. Transparent macules that are moist, yellowish and greasy
e. Scaling in red coalescing red patches
f. Biopsy is necessary for diagnosis
62. D (papules)& F (KOH stain for fungal culture)
63. Immunologic factors are more involved in the chronic stages of Urticaria than in the acute stages?
a. True
b. False
B
64. Penicillin is typically the most common cause of acute hives?
a. True
b. False
A
65. Lesions of Uriticaria are usually ____________ and edematous?
a. Pitted
b. Non-pitted
B
66. A common, chronic inflammatory papulosquamous disease of unknown etiology due to abnormal T-lymphocyte function is the definition of which of the following?
a. Sebhorric Dermatitis
b. Acute Dermatitis
c. Essential Dermatitis
d. Atopic Dermatitis
e. Psoriasis
E
67. Which of the following statements about Psoriasis is true?
a. More common in Asians compared to Caucasians
b. Typically seen in the elderly, average age of 65
c. Patients taking Beta-blockers are at a higher risk for developing psoriasis
d. Poorly demarcated, red papules with plaque scaling
e. Scales are silvery in color and don’t bleed if removed
f. More commonly seen on the flexor surfaces
g. Women are affected more
67. C
a. Caucasians
b. Adults avg 35 years old
c. TRUE
d. Well demarcated
e. Will bleed
f. Extensor surfaces
g. Men and women affected equally
Match the following categories of Psoriasis treatments:

a. Systemic therapy
b. Phototherapy
c. Topical Therapy

68. Uses the application of UV light
B
Match the following categories of Psoriasis treatments:

a. Systemic therapy
b. Phototherapy
c. Topical Therapy

69. Clobetasol or Calcipotriene
C
Match the following categories of Psoriasis treatments:

a. Systemic therapy
b. Phototherapy
c. Topical Therapy

70. Methotrexate or Cyclosporin
A
71. Which of the following about Herpes Simplex is false?
a. Incubation period of about 1 week
b. Prodrome 1-2 days prior before outbreak
c. Outbreak last about 10 days
d. Grouped vesicles on an erythematous base is a pathagnomonic finding
e. KOH culture is used for confirmation
f. Prescription can be Acyclovir or Valacyclovir
E- TZANC SMEAR
72. Which of the following about Herpes Zoster is false?
a. Intraepidermal vesicular eruption occurring in a scleratomal distribution
b. Caused by the re-activation of the Varicella-Zoster virus
c. Also known as Shingles
d. Occurs in all ages
e. After initial Varicella infection the virus lays dormant in the DRG until reactivation
A- DERMATOMAL
73. What is the most common dermatome affected with Shingles?
a. T4
b. T6
c. T8
d. T10
e. T12
C
74. Which of the following treatments regarding Herpes Zoster is false?
a. Direct immunofluorescence of cellular tissue from the skin lesion is diagnostic
b. Dermatomal distribution is not considered diagnostic
c. Astringent compress with Aluminum acetate is considered palliative
d. Corticosteroids are not considered palliative
e. Neurontin and capsaicin are palliative
B- VERY DIAGNOSTIC
75. In which month would you not expect to see an increase in Varicella?
a. March
b. April
c. May
d. June
D
76. How long is the incubation period of Varicella?
a. 1 week
b. 2 weeks
c. 3 weeks
d. 4 weeks
C
77. The rash of Varicella usually begins at the _______ and spreads towards the ____________?
a. Face; Trunk
b. Trunk; Face
c. Legs; Trunk
d. Trunk; Legs
B
78. Which of the following treatments should be avoided when treating a child with Varicella?
a. Acyclovir
b. Anit-pruitic lotions
c. Antihistamines
d. Aveeno Bath
e. Aspirin
E
79. Bullous Impetigo is an intraepidermal infection of __________ origin?
a. Viral
b. Bacterial
c. Fungal
B
80. Which of the following causes Bullous Impetigo?
a. Staph Aureus
b. Strep Pyogenes
c. Both
d. Neither
C
81. Which of the following statements about Bullous Impetigo is false?
a. Clear to cloudy appearance
b. Commonly found on the face, neck, and extremities
c. Biopsy is diagnostic
d. 95% of the time Stap Aureus is the cause
C
82. Which treatment is not recommended for patients with Bullous Impetigo?
a. Mupirocin Ointment
b. Antibacterial Soap
c. Cephalosporin
d. Erythromycin
e. Penicillin
82. E-staph Aureus is resistant to penicillin
83. Bullous Pemphigus is an autoimmune, subepidermal, blistering disease that primarily affects ____________?
a. Infants
b. Children
c. Adults
d. Elders
e. All ages
D
84. Patients with Bullous Pemphigus will have large, tense blisters seen on normal or reddened skin?
a. True
b. False
A
85. The preferred site for Bullous Pemphigus is in areas that involve__________?
a. Flexion
b. Extension
A
86. Scabies causes a burrow by the _______ mite?
a. Male
b. Female
B
87. Itching at nighttime is considered a cardinal sign for scabies?
a. True
b. False
A
88. Scabies mites can live for up to 7 years?
a. True
b. False
A
89. Scabies rashes will appear 2-6 weeks after exposure?
a. True
b. False
A
Match the following:

a. Borrelia burgdorferi
b. Rickettsia ricketsii

90. It is a deer tick
A
Match the following:

a. Borrelia burgdorferi
b. Rickettsia ricketsii

91. Incubation period is usually 6-8 days after the bite
B
Match the following:

a. Borrelia burgdorferi
b. Rickettsia ricketsii

92. Potentially lethal
B
Match the following:

a. Borrelia burgdorferi
b. Rickettsia ricketsii

93. Causes Lyme disease
A
Match the following:

a. Borrelia burgdorferi
b. Rickettsia ricketsii

94. Can cause an affect in any and all organ systems
A
Match the following:

a. Borrelia burgdorferi
b. Rickettsia ricketsii

95. Gram negative
B
Match the following:

a. Borrelia burgdorferi
b. Rickettsia ricketsii

96. Disease onset is typically 3-28 days post bite
A
Match the following:

a. Borrelia burgdorferi
b. Rickettsia ricketsii

97. Bite is usually painless
B
Match the following:

a. Borrelia burgdorferi
b. Rickettsia ricketsii

98. Cutaneous eruption is called “erythma migrans”
A
Match the following:

a. Borrelia burgdorferi
b. Rickettsia ricketsii

99. Pt will develop an abrupt fever 95% of the time
B
Match the following:

a. Borrelia burgdorferi
b. Rickettsia ricketsii

100. Pt will develop a severe migraine 90% of the time
B
101. In which stage of Lyme disease will you see the development of chronic neurological problems as well as arthritic conditions?
a. Stage 1
b. Stage 2
c. Stage 3
C
102. In which stage of Lyme disease will you see an expanding “target lesion” along with flu-like symptoms?
a. Stage 1
b. Stage 2
c. Stage 3
A
103. In which stage of Lyme disease will you see cardiac and neurological problems?
a. Stage 1
b. Stage 2
c. Stage 3
B
104. Which of the following skin conditions would you not expect to see with Borrelia burgdorferi?
a. Local inflammation
b. Inflammed papules
c. Target lesions
d. Erythematous patch will remain flat and grow up to 10cm in diameter
e. Erythematous patch is be elevated and grow up to 5 cm in diameter
f. Concentric rings at site of the bite
E
105. Routine lab studies are diagnostic of Borrelia burgdorferi?
a. True
b. False
105. B-erythema migrans is diagnostic
106. The Western immunoblast test is diagnostic for Borrelia burgdorferi when linked to serologic testing?
a. True
b. False
A
Which of the following skin conditions is false in regards to Rickettsia rickettsii?
a. Rash will appear a few days before the fever
b. Rash is discrete and macular, and blanches upon palpation
c. Multiple organs are involved-hepatosplenomegaly will occur 50% of the time
d. All of the above are true statements
107. A-after the fever
108. The rash associated with Rickettsia rickettsii will first appear on the __________ and a few hours later it will appear on the ____________?
a. Wrist/Ankle; Palm/Soles
b. Palms/Soles; Wrist/ankle
A
109. Which of the following statements about Rickettsia rickettsii is true?
a. The fever will usually go away in 2-3 days
b. The rash will fade with a residual hypopigmentation
c. Mortality rate in those treated can be as high as 50%
d. Those that do die from this, usually die within the 1st week of the bite
109. D
a. 2-3 weeks
b. Hyperpigmentation
c. 20%
d. TRUE
Match the following:

a. Black Widow
b. Brown Recluse

110. Adult female is 3-4 cm in length, shiny, fat abdomen that resembles a grape
A
Match the following:

a. Black Widow
b. Brown Recluse

111. Red hourglass shape on the abdomen
A
Match the following:

a. Black Widow
b. Brown Recluse

112. AKA “fiddle-back spider”
B
Match the following:

a. Black Widow
b. Brown Recluse

113. Body length is 10-15mm and leg span of 25mm
B
Match the following:

a. Black Widow
b. Brown Recluse

114. Found mostly in the southern US
A
Match the following:

a. Black Widow
b. Brown Recluse

115. Neurotoxin causes depletion of Ach
A
Match the following:

a. Black Widow
b. Brown Recluse

116. Yellow, brown or tan in color
B
Match the following:

a. Black Widow
b. Brown Recluse

117. Violin shape marking in the cephalothorax
B
Match the following:

118. Bite can go unnoticed
a. Black Widow
b. Brown Recluse
B
119. Which of the following about a Black Widow bite is false?
a. Pt complains of irritability
b. ALL patients will develop abdominal pain
c. Pain will decrease in severity in the next 24 hours after the initial bite
d. Hypertension will occur
e. Death is rare
C- INCREASE
120. Red-brown fang marks may be seen in which type of spider bite?
a. Black Widow
b. Brown Recluse
A
121. The neurotoxin released from the Brown Recluse is?
a. Shingomyelinase A
b. Shingomyelinase B
c. Shingomyelinase C
d. Shinglomyelinase D
e. Acetylcholine
D
122. Both death and tissue necrosis are rare findings in a Brown Recluse bite?
a. True
b. False
122. B-death is rare but tissue necrosis is common
123. Calcium Gluconate is given to patients with a ___________ spider bite?
a. Black Widow
b. Brown Recluse
A
124. Cold, wet dressings and elevation of the area that was bitten is a helpful treatment of a ____________ spider bite?
a. Black widow
b. Brown Recluse
B
125. Antivenin can be given to patients bitten by the _________ spider?
a. Black widow
b. Brown recluse
A
126. Localized hive like reaction with minimal swelling is often seen with a _____________ spider bite?
a. Black widow
b. Brown recluse
B