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442 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
Which of the following scientists first discovered
X-rays? 1. Wilhelm Konrad Roentgen 2. Doctor H. G. Gama 3. Doctor Otto Proton 4. Raymond Cathode |
1. Wilhelm Konrad Roentgen
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What is the basic difference between X-rays and
other electromagnetic rays? 1. Electromagnetic rays travel in wave motion 2. X-rays are invisible 3. X-rays are visible 4. Their wavelengths differ Which of |
4. Their wavelengths differ
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Which of the following is NOT a characteristic
or property of X-rays? 1. They travel in straight lines 2. They travel at the speed of sound 3. They cause irritation to living cells 4. They cause certain substances to fluoresce |
3. They cause irritation to living cells
|
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Which of the following factors control the density of
an X-ray image? 1. Kilovoltage (kVp) 2. Milliamperage (mA) 3. Target film distance (TFD) 4. All of the above |
4. All of the above
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Which of the following personnel are authorized to
order and diagnostically interpret dental radiographs? 1. Dental X-ray technicians 2. Front desk personnel 3. Dental officers 4. Dental technicians |
3. Dental officers
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When taking radiographs, always drape the patient
with a lead apron. 1. True 2. False |
1. True
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What speed of film is most commonly used for
dental radiographs? 1. Fast 2. Slow 3. Mega 4. Average |
1. Fast
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The environmental film badge should be placed
behind the lead-lined barrier at least what number of feet from the tube head? 1. 1 0 2. 6 3. 8 4. 4 |
2. 6
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Which of the following is NOT a safety precaution
for taking radiographs? 1. Always stand behind a lead screen during an exposure 2. Never stand in the path of the central X-ray beam during exposure 3. Never hold the tube head or the tube head cylinder of the X-ray machine during exposure 4. Hold the film packet in the patient’s mouth during exposure if necessary |
4. Hold the film packet in the patient’s mouth
during exposure if necessary |
|
In the dental treatment facility, which of the
following types of dental X-ray units are most commonly used? 1. Ceiling-mounted 2. Floor-mounted 3. Wall-mounted 4. Portable |
3. Wall-mounted
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The lead diaphragm restricts the X-ray beam to what
size? 1. 2 inches 2. 2.6 inches 3. 2.75 inches 4. 3 inches |
2. 2.6 inches
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What is the first task each day that a
radiology technician should perform? 1. Turn on the automatic processor 2. Set the kilovoltage (kVp) on the X-ray machine 3. Turn on the X-ray machine and perform the operational check 4. Take the positioning devices out of the germicidal agent |
3. Turn on the X-ray machine and perform the
operational check |
|
The time setting on the X-ray machine is measured
by using which of the following methods? 1. Minutes or impulses 2. Minutes or milliamperes 3. Fractions of a second or milliamperes 4. Fractions of a second or impulses |
4. Fractions of a second or impulses
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When exposing a radiograph, you should stand
behind a lead-lined shield and at least what number of feet from the tube head? 1 . 10 2. 6 3. 8 4. 4 |
2. 6
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Which of the following procedures should be
included in the daily maintenance of the X-ray machine? 1. Dusting 2. Cleaning with a cloth moistened with detergent solution 3. Both 1 and 2 above 4. Cleaning with a cloth moistened with solvent |
3. Both 1 and 2 above
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You should attempt to complete all X-ray repairs yourself.
1. True 2. False |
2. False
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What are types of X-ray film used for intraoral radiographic examinations?
1. Bitewing, inter-proximal and periapical 2. Inter-proximal, periapical and occlusal 3. Panoramic and periapical 4. Occlusal and panoramic |
2. Inter-proximal, periapical and occlusal
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Unprocessed intraoral X-ray film should be stored in
what type of container? 1. Plastic 2. Metal 3. Cardboard 4. Lead lined |
4. Lead lined
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Which of the following X-ray materials should be
saved and turned in as part of the Precious Metals Recovery Program (PMRP)? 1. The X-ray packets 2. The fixer solution 3. The lead from the X-ray packets 4. Both 2 and 3 above |
4. Both 2 and 3 above
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When radiographs are ordered for a female patient,
what is the first patient preparation procedure to follow? 1. Have the patient remove her eyeglasses 2. Have the patient remove her earrings 3. Ask the patient if she has any type of denture 4. Ask the patient if she is pregnant |
4. Ask the patient if she is pregnant
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To provide images of the crowns, roots, and support
structures of the teeth, which of the following radiographs should be taken? 1. Inter-proximal 2. Periapical 3. Bitewing 4. Occlusal |
2. Periapical
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The bisecting angle technique is the preferred
method and recommended for routine use when taking periapical radiographs. 1. True 2. False |
2. False
|
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The paralleling device consists of which of the
following parts? 1. A locator ring 2. An indicator rod 3. A bite-block 4. All of the above |
4. All of the above
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When assembling the paralleling device, the printed side of the film packet should be in what position?
1. Facing the plastic support in the film positioning slot 2. Away from the plastic support in the film positioning slot 3. Facing you, toward the top of the bite-block 4. Away from you, toward the top of the biteblock |
4. Facing you, toward the top of the bite-block
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The assembled positioning device for the right
maxillary quadrant can also be used in what other area of the mouth? 1. The mandibular right quadrant 2. The mandibular left quadrant 3. The maxillary left quadrant 4. The maxillary right quadrant |
2. The mandibular left quadrant
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What number of periapical radiographs make up a
full-mouth series? 1. 7 2. 9 3. 14 4. 18 |
3. 14
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When taking dental radiographs, which of the
following milliampere settings should be used as the normal setting? 1. 8 mA 2. 10 mA 3. 12 mA 4. 15 mA |
2. 10 mA
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When taking a radiograph on an edentulous area, you
should decrease the kVp setting by what number of degrees? 1. 1 2. 2 3. 5 4. 7 |
3. 5
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When taking radiographs on a child, what kVp
setting should normally be used? 1. 60 2. 70 3. 80 4. 90 |
2. 70
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If the film packet is centered on the midline and
parallel with the long axis, what area of the mouth is being X-rayed? 1. Maxillary cuspid area 2. Maxillary incisor area 3. Mandibular incisor area 4. Both 2 and 3 above |
4. Both 2 and 3 above
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When exposing the mandibular
the position of the film packet? molar area, what is 1. Centered on the first molar 2. Centered on the second molars 3. Parallel with the short axis of the molars 4. On the anterior edge including the mesial half of the cuspid |
2. Centered on the second molars
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When a patient has a low palatal vault, which of the
following special film placement procedures should you use? 1. Bend the film packet 2. Place a cotton roll on the upper surface of the bite-block 3. Place one cotton roll on each side of the biteblock 4. Place a cotton roll on the lower surface of the bite-block |
3. Place one cotton roll on each side of the biteblock
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When taking radiographs, which of the following
factors should you consider before using the bisecting-angle technique? 1. There are no paralleling devices available 2. The patient cannot close mouth on the biteblock 3. The patient has a rubber dam in place 4. All of the above |
2. The patient cannot close mouth on the biteblock
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Placing the film packet into the patient’s mouth
using the bisecting-angle technique should be accomplished by which of the following methods? 1. Using hemostats 2. Sliding the film into position 3. Using your thumb and index finger 4. Having the patient assist in the placement of the film packet |
1. Using hemostats
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When exposing a maxillary radiograph using the
bisecting angle technique, in what manner should the patient hold the film in place? 1. Using the thumb of the hand opposite the tooth being radiographed 2. Using the thumb of the hand on the same side as the tooth being radiographed 3. Using the index finger of the hand on the same side as the tooth being radiographed 4. Holding the X-ray holding device with the hand opposite the tooth being radiographed |
4. Holding the X-ray holding device with the
hand opposite the tooth being radiographed |
|
What is vertical angulation?
1. The side-to-side positioning of the tube head 2. The side-to-down positioning of the tube head 3. The up-and-down positioning of the tube head 4. The perpendicular positioning of the tube head |
3. The up-and-down positioning of the tube head
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When it is parallel to the floor, what is the
angulation of the tube head? 1. Zero degrees 2. Minus degrees 3. Plus degrees 4. Both 2 and 3 above |
1. Zero degrees
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What is the cause of elongated radiographic images?
1. Too much vertical angulation 2. Too much horizontal angulation 3. Too little vertical angulation 4. Too little horizontal angulation |
3. Too little vertical angulation
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When using the bisecting-angle technique on a
patient with a shallow vault, you should change the vertical angulation by how many degrees? 1. - 3 ° 2. - 5 ° 3. + 3 ° 4. + 5 ° |
4. + 5 °
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The position of the patient's mid-sagittal plane must
be perpendicular to the floor when exposing a periapical radiograph using the bisecting-angle technique. 1. True 2. False |
1. True
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What landmark is used when exposing the maxillary
bicuspid area? 1. The tip of the nose 2. Beside the ala of the nose 3. Below the pupil of the eye 4. Below the outer angle of the eye and below the zygomatic bone |
3. Below the pupil of the eye
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When exposing the mandibular bicuspid area using
the bisecting-angle technique, what landmark should you use? 1. Below the pupil of the eye and 1/4 inch above the lower border of the mandible 2. The tip of the chin and 1/4 inch above the lower border of the mandible 3. Beside the ala of the nose and below the zygomatic bone 4. Below the outer angle of the eye and below the zygomatic bone |
1. Below the pupil of the eye and 1/4 inch above
the lower border of the mandible |
|
Which type of radiograph records the coronal and
cervical portions of both the maxillary and mandibular teeth? 1. Periapical 2. Occlusal 3. Interproximal 4. Both 2 and 3 above |
3. Interproximal
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When you are using the paralleling device technique
to expose inter-proximal radiographs, the film should be positioned in the patient’s mouth so that the anterior edge of the film touches what area? 1. Mesial surface of the mandibular cuspid 2. Mesial surface of the maxillary bicuspid 3. Distal surface of the mandibular cuspid 4. Distal surface of the maxillary bicuspid |
3. Distal surface of the mandibular cuspid
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When exposing interproximal radiographs using the
bisecting-angle technique, what is the vertical angulation of the tube head? 1. -10° to -5° 2. - 5° to 0° 3. 0° to + 5° 4. + 5° to +10° |
4. + 5° to +10°
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What type of radiographic examination is conducted
to depict fractures of the jaw or gross pathological conditions? 1. Bitewing 2. Occlusal 3. Periapical 4. Interproximal |
2. Occlusal
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The occlusal film packet contains two X-ray films.
1. True 2. False |
1. True
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What X-ray machine settings should you use when
exposing a maxillary occlusal radiograph on an adult? 1. 10 mA, 87 kVp, and 60 impulses 2. 12 mA, 90 kVp, and 60 impulses 3. 10 mA, 90 kVp, and 60 impulses 4. 12 mA, 87 kVp, and 40 impulses |
3. 10 mA, 90 kVp, and 60 impulses
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What vertical angulation setting should you use
when exposing a maxillary anterior occlusal radiograph? 1. + 50° 2. + 55° 3. + 60° 4. + 65° |
4. + 65°
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When exposing a maxillary posterior occlusal
radiograph, you should use what vertical angulation setting? 1. + 75° 2. + 70° 3. + 65° 4. + 60° |
1. + 75°
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When exposing a mandibular anterior occlusal
radiograph, what vertical angulation should you use? 1. -10° 2. - 5° 3. 0° 4. + 5° |
3. 0°
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Which of the following surfaces located in the
darkroom should you disinfect daily? 1. Counters 2. Doorknobs 3. Light switches 4. All of the above |
4 . All of the above
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Automatic film processors with daylight loaders
should be used to develop all radiographs in facilities that have darkrooms. 1. True 2. False |
1. True
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Which of the following methods should you use to
decontaminate a fabric light shield sleeve? 1. Gas sterilization 2. Steam sterilization 3. Dry heat sterilization 4. Dispose of the fabric light shield sleeve |
4. Dispose of the fabric light shield sleeve
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You should change the plastic wrap covering on the
tube head at what minimum frequency? 1. Daily 2. Twice a day 3. Every hour 4. After each patient |
2. Twice a day
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A safelight is the only safe source of illumination
used in the darkroom when processing radiographs. 1. True 2. False |
1. True
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When checking for light leaks in the darkroom, you
should leave the penny on the X-ray film for at least what number of minutes? 1. One 2. Five 3. Three 4. Seven |
2. Five
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Which of the following methods is most commonly
used to process dental radiographs in the Navy? 1. Laser processing 2. Manual processing 3. Computer processing 4. Automatic processing |
4. Automatic processing
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After turning on the automatic processing unit, it
should take what number of minutes to reach the proper operating temperature? 1. 5 to 10 minutes 2. 10 to 15 minutes 3. 15 to 20 minutes 4. 25 to 30 minutes |
2. 10 to 15 minutes
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You should wait what number of seconds between
films before inserting another film into the automatic processor? 1. 10 2. 12 3. 15 4. 30 |
3. 15
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The developer and fixer solutions in the automatic
processor should be changed at what minimum frequencies? 1. Daily 2. Weekly 3. Biweekly 4. Every 3 to 4 weeks |
4. Every 3 to 4 weeks
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The processing solutions used in the automatic
processor are the same as those used in the manual processing procedure. 1. True 2. False |
2. False
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The cleaning of the roller transports and the solution
tanks in the automatic processor are accomplished at what minimum intervals? 1. Twice a day 2. Daily 3. Weekly 4. Monthly |
4. Monthly
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When the green light on the control panel of a small
automatic processor is alternating between flickering and full on, what does this indicate? 1. Optimum 74° to 76°F temperature is being maintained 2. The processing solutions are ready to be changed 3. The temperature of the water has reached 80°F 4. The processor is ready to be secured |
1. Optimum 74° to 76°F temperature is being
maintained |
|
A. Herringbone image
B. Reticulation C. Stained D. Fogged ------Figure 1 -A------------- IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 5 THROUGH 9, SELECT THE FAULTY RADIOGRAPH TERM FROM FIGURE 1-A THAT MATCHES THE DESCRIPTION GIVEN AS THE QUESTION. RESPONSES MAY BE USED MORE THAN ONCE. The film was held too close to the safelight. 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D |
4. D
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A. Herringbone image
B. Reticulation C. Stained D. Fogged ------Figure 1 -A------------- IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 5 THROUGH 9, SELECT THE FAULTY RADIOGRAPH TERM FROM FIGURE 1-A THAT MATCHES THE DESCRIPTION GIVEN AS THE QUESTION. RESPONSES MAY BE USED MORE THAN ONCE. The wrong side if the film packet was exposed. 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D |
1. A
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A. Herringbone image
B. Reticulation C. Stained D. Fogged ------Figure 1 -A------------- IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 5 THROUGH 9, SELECT THE FAULTY RADIOGRAPH TERM FROM FIGURE 1-A THAT MATCHES THE DESCRIPTION GIVEN AS THE QUESTION. RESPONSES MAY BE USED MORE THAN ONCE. The film was exposed to stray radiation. 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D |
4. D
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A. Herringbone image
B. Reticulation C. Stained D. Fogged ------Figure 1 -A------------- IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 5 THROUGH 9, SELECT THE FAULTY RADIOGRAPH TERM FROM FIGURE 1-A THAT MATCHES THE DESCRIPTION GIVEN AS THE QUESTION. RESPONSES MAY BE USED MORE THAN ONCE. The film was taken from a warm developer to a cold rinse. 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D |
2. B
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A. Herringbone image
B. Reticulation C. Stained D. Fogged ------Figure 1 -A------------- IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 5 THROUGH 9, SELECT THE FAULTY RADIOGRAPH TERM FROM FIGURE 1-A THAT MATCHES THE DESCRIPTION GIVEN AS THE QUESTION. RESPONSES MAY BE USED MORE THAN ONCE. The film was processed in dirty solutions. 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D |
3. C
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When mounting radiographs, the raised dimple
should be facing you. 1. True 2. False |
1. True
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Which teeth could be identified radiographically by
a large white region caused by the bone of the nasal septum? 1. Mandibular incisors 2. Mandibular cuspids and bicuspids 3. Maxillary incisors 4. Maxillary incisors and bicuspids |
3. Maxillary incisors
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Which of the following radiographs should
be taken to provide an extraoral image of both dental arches and the temporomandibular joints? 1. Inter-proximal 2. Panoramic 3. Occlusal 4. Bitewing |
2. Panoramic
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When performing the operational checks on a
panoramic X-ray machine, remove the lead cap of the collimator. 1. True 2. False |
1. True
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To prevent overheating of the panoramic X-ray
head, you should wait at least what number of minutes between exposures? 1. 5 2. 6 3. 7 4. 8 |
1. 5
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You should use a soft dry cloth and wipe the metal
surfaces of the panoramic X-ray machine at least how often? 1. Daily 2. Weekly 3. Twice a week 4. After each patient |
1. Daily
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Which of the following procedures is one of the
basic professional services provided on an annual basis to Sailors by the Navy dental team? 1. Dental examination 2. Medical screening 3. Prosthetic treatment 4. Orthodontic treatment |
1. Dental examination
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When seating the patient for a dental exam, where
should you position the dental light to avoid shining the light in the patient's eyes? 1. Above the patient's mouth 2. Beneath the patient's chin 3. Above the patient's forehead 4. Beneath the patient's chest |
2. Beneath the patient's chin
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Which of the following dental instruments and/or
materials should be included in a basic dental examination instrument setup? 1. A mouth mirror and explorer 2. A periodental probe and cotton forceps 3. A tongue depressor, cotton rolls, and gauze 4. All of the above |
4. All of the above
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Dental examinations are classified by what total
number of examination types? 1. One 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four |
4. Four
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What type of examination is a comprehensive hard
and soft tissue examination routinely done with study models? |
1. Type 1
2. Type 2 3. Type 3 4. Type 4 |
|
Which of the following personnel may perform a
type 4 dental screening evaluation? 1. A dental officer 2. A dental hygienist 3. A qualified dental assistant 4. All of the above |
4. All of the above
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What is the primary purpose for conducting annual
dental examinations? 1. To qualify personnel for special pay 2. To qualify personnel for special duty 3. To qualify personnel for special programs 4. To access the readiness status of active duty personnel |
4. To access the readiness status of active duty
personnel |
|
What form should you use to document the findings
of a dental examination for overseas screening? 1. NAVMED 1050/3 2. NAVMED 1300/1 3. NAVMED 6000/2 4. NAVMED 6600/12 |
2. NAVMED 1300/1
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A member's commanding officer can approve a
member for overseas assignment even when the dental officer recommends disapproval. 1. True 2. False |
1. True
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All active duty members and reservists should have
medical examinations at which of the following events or intervals? 1. Annually after age 60 2. Every 5 years through age 50 3. Upon entry to enlisted or commissioned active duty 4. All of the above |
4. All of the above
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What dental classification indicates that the patient's
dental condition, if not treated or followed up, could have the potential, but is not expected to, result in dental emergencies within the next 12 months? |
4. All of the above
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|
1. Class 1
2. Class 2 3. Class 3 4. Class 4 |
2. Class 2
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When identifying and locating caries or existing
restorations, how should you refer to an 8-MID designation? 1. Distal, incisal, mesial aspects of a left maxillary central incisor 2. Distal, incisal, mesial aspects of a left mandibular incisor 3. Mesial, incisal, distal aspects of a right maxillary central incisor 4. Mesial, incisal, distal aspects of a right mandibular incisor |
3. Mesial, incisal, distal aspects of a right
maxillary central incisor |
|
When recording the use of copal varnish in the
dental treatment record, which of the following abbreviations should you use? 1. CV 2. Cop 3. Copal 4. Cop Var |
2. Cop
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What abbreviation should you use when recording
that the patient was informed of examination findings and treatment plan? 1. PTINF 2. PTINFTX 3. PTINFTXPL 4. Pt info tx plan |
1. PTINF
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When charting the top section of the Forensic
Examination form, what symbol should you use to indicate missing teeth or teeth not visible in the patient's mouth? 1. O 2. / / 3. X 4. = |
3. X
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Which of the following terms is often used when
referring to a double occlusal restoration? 1. Ace 2. Duce 3. Snake eyes 4. Double ace |
3. Snake eyes
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Nonmetallic restorations are made of which of the
following types of materials? 1. Acrylic resin 2. Glass Ionomer 3. Fissure sealant 4. All of the above |
4. All of the above
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A nonmetallic permanent restoration is annotated by
drawing an outline of the restoration showing size, location, shape, and inscribing vertical lines within the outline. 1. True 2. False |
2. False
|
|
When charting a Forensic Examination form, what
method, if any, should you use to describe the differences between gold and chrome alloy restorations? only Indicate in the "Remarks" section that the restoration is chrome alloy Inscribe horizontal lines in the chrome alloy Inscribe horizontal lines in the chrome alloy and vertical lines in the gold restoration None |
Indicate in the "Remarks" section that the
restoration is chrome alloy |
|
When charting, how should you indicate that gold
material was used in a fixed partial denture (FPD)? 1. Inscribe vertical lines 2. Inscribe horizontal lines 3. Inscribe diagonal parallel lines 4. Outline each aspect of the FPD only |
3. Inscribe diagonal parallel lines
|
|
What procedure should you use to chart the presence
of supernumerary teeth? 1. Insert a "D" in the location on the tooth number line 2. Insert a "S" in the location on the tooth number line 3. Draw an outline of the tooth in its approximate location 4. Both 2 and 3 above |
4. Both 2 and 3 above
|
|
The Forensic Dental Examination form is completed
using black ink. 1. True 2. False |
1. True
|
|
The Remarks section of the Forensic Dental
Examination form is used to differentiate between which of the following types of dental materials? 1 . Sealants 2. Temporaries 3. Composites 4. All of the above |
4. All of the above
|
|
What number of Angle classifications could be
used on the Forensic Examination form? 1 . One 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four |
3. Three
|
|
On the Forensic Examination form, what method
should you use to indicate that a patient does NOT have a soft tissue condition? 1. Write "none" in the Soft Tissue Remarks section 2. Write "none" in the Hard Tissue Remarks section 3. Write "no existing conditions" in the Soft Tissue Remarks section 4. Leave blank if a condition does not exist |
4. Leave blank if a condition does not exist
|
|
Where in the occlusion section of the Forensic
Examination Form should you document and record any other occlusal condition not listed? 1. Section A 2. Section B 3. 4. Remarks Hard Tissue Remarks |
3. Remarks
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|
Which of the following non-pathologic findings
should you annotate in the Hard Tissue Remarks section on the Forensic Examination form? 1. Tori 2. Rotated teeth 3. Intrinsic staining 4. All of the above |
4. All of the above
|
|
What procedure should you use when a patient
requires the completion of a new Current Status form? 1. Complete box 1 of the Current Status form only 2. Complete boxes 1 and 2 of the Current Status form 3. Transfer the information from the previous forms to the new Current Status form 4. None, a patient's Current Status form should never need to be replaced |
3. Transfer the information from the previous
forms to the new Current Status form |
|
Which of the following conditions should be
annotated in pencil in box 1 of the Current Status form? 1. Carious lesions 2. Periradicular lesions 3. Indications for root canal treatment 4. All of the above |
4. All of the above
|
|
The same charting symbols are used in boxes 1 and
2 on the Current Status form. 1. True 2. False |
1. True
|
|
What does an even line drawn on the root of the
tooth indicate? 1. Fractured tooth 2. Underfilled root canal 3. Resorption of the root 4. Periapical radiolucency |
3. Resorption of the root
|
|
You should be able to chart the information for the
SF-88 by using what box of the Current Status form? 1 . 1 2. 2 3. Both 1 and 2 above 4. 4 |
3. Both 1 and 2 above
|
|
Pencil entries are authorized for use in box 2 of the
Current Status form. 1. True 2. False |
2. False
|
|
What method, if any, should you use to indicate the
materials used for existing restorations annotated in box 2 of the Current Status form? 1. Indicate in the "remarks" section the materials used 2. Indicate in the "remarks" section if the material used was an alloy 3. Indicate in the "remarks" section if the material used was made out of gold 4. None; there are not any remarks made to indicate materials used |
4. None; there are not any remarks made to
indicate materials used |
|
What new dental form provides a record of initial
accession exam and all subsequent periodic, annual, recall, and separation exams? 1. SF 88 2. SF 603 3. EZ 603 4. EZ 600 |
3. EZ 603
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|
What part of the S.O.A.P includes the reason for the
visit and a statement of the chief complaint? 1. Subjective 2. Objective SF 603 3 4: Assessment Plan |
1. Subjective
|
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What part of the S.O.A.P includes the health
questionnaire review findings? 1. Subjective 2. Objective 3. Assessment 4. Plan |
2. Objective
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Which part of the S.O.A.P. includes the patient's
treatment needs? 1. Subjective 2. Objective 3. Assessment 4. Plan |
4. Plan
|
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Which of the following references should you use to
complete the Dental Examination form? 1. MANMED, Chapter 6 2. MANMED, Chapter 16 3 4: BUMEDINST 6100.1 NAVMEDCOM 6600.1 |
1. MANMED, Chapter 6
|
|
The back of the EZ 603 Form may be overprinted
with a command specific format. 1. True 2. False |
1. True
|
|
Which of the following forms should you use to
document dental treatment completed from the treatment plan, dental emergencies, and any other narrative dental findings? 1. SF 88 2. SF 513 3. EZ 600 4. EZ 603A |
4. EZ 603A
|
|
What color ink should you use for the medical alert
entry on the EZ 603A Form? 1. Red 2. Blue 3. Black 4. Green |
1. Red
|
|
What form should you use to record the dental
examination completed in conjunction with a medical physical? 1. SF 88 2. SF 513 3. SF 600 4. EZ 600 |
1. SF 88
|
|
Which of the following entries should you annotate
in the space marked "Remarks and Additional Dental Defects and Diseases" on the report of the Medical Examination form? 1. Dental classification 2. Type of dental exam 3. Qualified "YES" or "NO" 4. All of the above |
4. All of the above
|
|
What form should you use to refer a patient to
another specialist or to medical for further evaluation or treatment? 1. SF 88 2. SF 513 3. SF 515 4. EZ 600 |
2. SF 513
|
|
Which section on the Consultation Sheet should you
leave blank for the person receiving the form to document his or her findings? 1. Reason for request 2. Provisional diagnosis 3. Consultation report 4. Place of consultation |
3. Consultation report
|
|
Voluntary Training Unit personnel or Selected
Reserve personnel could require which of the following forms to be completed in conjunction with their Type 1 or Type 2 dental exam? 2-49. The dental chair should be placed in which of the following positions to dismiss the patient? 1. SF 513 2. SF 600 3. NAVMED 6600/12 4. NAVMED 6150/10 |
3. NAVMED 6600/12
|
|
The Naval Reserve Type 1 or Type 2 dental
examination should be performed at a minimum of what event or time period? 1. Every year 2. Every 5 years 3. With any required physical examination 4. Both 2 and 3 above |
4. Both 2 and 3 above
|
|
The dental chair should be placed in which of the
following positions to dismiss the patient? 1. Arm raised, lowest, down right position 2. Arm raised, lowest, upright position 3. Arm lowered, lowest, down right position 4. Arm lowered, lowest, upright position |
2. Arm raised, lowest, upright position
|
|
When patients complete their dental examination,
you should direct them to make future dental appointments at which of the following departments? 1. Front desk 2. Operative 3. Oral Surgery 4. Oral Diagnosis |
1. Front desk
|
|
The formulation, supervision, and execution of the
Preventive Denistry Program is found in what SECNAV instruction? 1. 6600.1 2. 6600.2 3. 6600.3 4. 6600.5 |
4. 6600.5
|
|
Which of the following meanings best describes the
term prophylaxis? 1. Prevention of disease 2. Prevention of calculus 3. Prevention of bone loss 4. Prevention of stain |
1. Prevention of disease
|
|
Patients with subgingival calculus will have an
appointment with which of the following dental personnel? 1. Expanded duty preventive dentistry technician 2. Dental hygienist 3. Dentist 4. Both 2 and 3 above |
4. Both 2 and 3 above
|
|
When positioning a patient for an oral prophylaxis,
at what degree should the back of the patient’s chair be angled? 1. 1 5 2. 2 0 3. 2 5 4. 3 5 |
1. 1 5
|
|
What phase, if any, is included in the screening
examination of a scaling procedure? 1. Periodontal charting 2. Examination of patient’s personal tooth brush 3. Examination of the teeth and gingival tissues 4. None |
3. Examination of the teeth and gingival tissues
|
|
Cavitation aids in the mechanical removal of what
two substances by the vibrating tip? 1. Plaque and carries 2. Calculus and carries 3. Plaque and calculus 4. Calculus and gingivitis |
3. Plaque and calculus
|
|
The water supply pressure of an ultrasonic scaling
unit has a maximum range of how many psi? 1. 6 0 2. 4 0 3. 25 4. 15 |
1. 6 0
|
|
What ultrasonic tip is most commonly used for
supra and subgingival calculus deposits? 1. Beaver-tail 2. Chisel 3. Universal 4. Periodontal probe |
3. Universal
|
|
The working end of the instrument tip of an
ultrasonic scaler should be adapted to what degree angle to the long axis of the tooth? 1. 0 to 5 2. 10 to 15 3. 15 to 20 4. 20 to 25 |
2. 10 to 15
|
|
The air polishing unit uses which of the following
materials to operate? 1. Air 2. Water 3. Sodium bicarbonate 4. All of the above |
4. All of the above
|
|
Which of the following areas should be avoided
while using the air polishing unit? 1. Enamel 2. Soft tissue 3. Heavy stained teeth 4. Middle one-third of the tooth |
2. Soft tissue
|
|
Which of the following sonic scaler tips is
recommended for patients who experience sensitivity? 1. Sickle 2. Perio 3. Beaver 4. Universal |
1. Sickle
|
|
Fogging of the mouth mirror can be prevented by
which, if any, of the following methods? 1. Using a disinfection solution 2. Having the patient breathe through the mouth 3. 4. Running the mirror under cold water None of the above |
4. None of the above
|
|
Which of the following is NOT an instrument
grasp? 1. Pen 2. Palm 3. Finger 4. Modified pen |
3. Finger
|
|
What teeth of the mouth are scaled last using a
systematic routine? 1. Maxillary anterior 2. Mandibular anterior 3. Left maxillary posterior 4. Right maxillary posterior |
3. Left maxillary posterior
|
|
Dental technicians are only allowed to remove
calculus in what areas of the mouth? 1. Sublingual 2. Submandibular 3. Subgingival 4. Supragingival |
4. Supragingival
|
|
Which of the following methods is the easiest way
to detect supragingival calculus? 1. Visually 2. Tactile 3. Disclosing agent 4. Disinfection agent |
3. Disclosing agent
|
|
How many basic scaling strokes are there?
1. One 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four |
4. Four
|
|
Which scaling stroke is made at a 45° angle to the
long axis of the tooth? 1. Oblique 2. Vertical 3. Horizontal 4. Exploratory |
1. Oblique
|
|
Tooth polishing removes what types of materials
from the teeth? 1. Overhangs 2. Plaque and stains 3. Plaque and calculus 4. All of the above |
2. Plaque and stains
|
|
At what speed should a handpiece with a
prophylaxis attachment run? 1. Slow 2. Medium 3. Fast 4. Both 2 and 3 above |
1. Slow
|
|
When polishing teeth, what type of motion should a
rubber cup be in to keep contact with the tooth? 1. Bouncing 2. Constant 3. Vertical 4. Horizontal |
2. Constant
|
|
After a fluoride treatment, patients should not rinse,
drink, eat, or smoke for at least how many minutes? 1. 1 0 2. 2 0 3. 3 0 4. 4 0 |
3. 3 0
|
|
To prevent dental disease, at least how often during
a 24-hour period should bacterial plaque be removed? 1. Once 2. Twice 3. Three times 4. Four times |
1. Once
|
|
Which of the following toothbrushing techniques is
effective for a patient to perform? 1. Electric 2. Overhand 3. Modified Bass 4. Modified Tooth |
3. Modified Bass
|
|
To properly floss, about how many inches of floss
should you cut off? 1. 1 2 2. 1 8 3. 2 4 4. 3 6 |
2. 1 8
|
|
What device is used to direct floss in between
abutments and beneath pontics? 1. Toothpick 2. Oral irrigator 3. Floss threader 4. Interdental proximal brush |
3. Floss threader
|
|
To what surfaces on a tooth will pit and fissure
sealants bond? 1. Facial and lingual 2. Mesial and distal 3. Cusp and mamelons 4. Depressions and grooves |
4. Depressions and grooves
|
|
Sealants are highly effective in preventing pit and
fissure caries in which of the following teeth? 1. Premolars and molars 2. Premolars and incisors 3. Incisors and molars 4. All of the above |
1. Premolars and molars
|
|
A rubber dam is the only method of isolation to be
used for the application of pit and fissure sealants. 1. True 2. False |
2. False
|
|
What percent of phosphoric acid solution is used to
etch teeth for pit and fissure sealants? 1. 10 to 20 2. 20 to 30 3. 30 to 50 4. 90 to 100 |
3. 30 to 50
|
|
What type of appearance will the area of a tooth
have that has been etched, washed, and dried? 1. Smooth 2. Frosted 3. Pitted 4. Dark |
2. Frosted
|
|
Which of the following is the most common reason
for sealant failure? 1. Expired material 2. Insufficient curing time 3. Contamination of the material 4. Contamination of the etched surface |
4. Contamination of the etched surface
|
|
Operative dentistry is concerned with the prevention
and treatment of defects of what tooth surfaces? 1. Enamel and cementum 2. Enamel and dentin 3. Dentin and cementum 4. Cementum only |
2. Enamel and dentin
|
|
Which of the following instruments is used
primarily to remove debris from tooth cavities? 1. Hoes 2. Chisels 3. Hatchets 4. Spoon excavators |
4. Spoon excavators
|
|
An even-numbered gingival margin trimmer is
designed for use on which of the following tooth surfaces? 1. Mesial 2. Distal 3. Facial 4. Lingual |
2. Distal
|
|
An odd-numbered gingival margin trimmer is
designated for use on which of the following tooth surfaces? 1. Mesial 2. Distal 3. Facial 4. Lingual |
1. Mesial
|
|
What type of working end does an amalgam carrier
have for transportation? 1. Solid 2. Layered 3. Pointed 4. Hollow |
4. Hollow
|
|
An amalgam condenser is often referred to as which
of the following instruments? 1. Carvers 2. Burnishers 3. Pluggers 4. Carriers |
3. Pluggers
|
|
Which of the following instruments is designed for
carving proximal tooth surfaces? 1. Tanner #5 2.#1/2 Hollenback 3. Frahm 2/3 4. Cleoid-discoid |
2. #1/2 Hollenback
|
|
Which of the following advantages will occur to
composite restorations when using a plastic instrument? 1. Will not discolor 2. Will not bend 3. Will not melt 4. Will not break |
1. Will not discolor
|
|
What number spatula is used to mix small quantities
of cement? 1. 313 2. 322 3. 324 4. 324A |
1. 313
|
|
What length needle measured in inches is normally
used for mandibular injections? 1. 1 1/4 2. 1 3/4 3. 1 7/8 4. 1 13/16 |
3. 1 7/8
|
|
The working end of a rubber dam punch is designed
with which of the following mechanisms? 1. Plunger and spindle 2. Plunger and wheel 3. Wheel and spindle 4. Spindle and clamp |
2. Plunger and wheel
|
|
A "W" prefix on a rubber dam clamp indicates
which of the following designs? 1. Without clamp 2. Without wrapper 3. Without slipping 4. Without wings |
4. Without wings
|
|
Which of the following rubber dam frames is the
most popular? 1. "A" frame 2. Young 3. Wizard 4. Woodbury |
2. Young
|
|
What type of appearance will the area of a tooth
have that has been etched, washed, and dried? 1. Smooth 2. Frosted 3. Pitted 4. Dark |
2. Frosted
|
|
Which of the following is the most common reason
for sealant failure? 1. Expired material 2. Insufficient curing time 3. Contamination of the material 4. Contamination of the etched surface |
4. Contamination of the etched surface
|
|
Operative dentistry is concerned with the prevention
and treatment of defects of what tooth surfaces? 1. Enamel and cementum 2. Enamel and dentin 3. Dentin and cementum 4. Cementum only |
2. Enamel and dentin
|
|
Which of the following instruments is used
primarily to remove debris from tooth cavities? 1. Hoes 2. Chisels 3. Hatchets 4. Spoon excavators |
4. Spoon excavators
|
|
An even-numbered gingival margin trimmer is
designed for use on which of the following tooth surfaces? 1. Mesial 2. Distal 3. Facial 4. Lingual |
2. Distal
|
|
An odd-numbered gingival margin trimmer is
designated for use on which of the following tooth surfaces? 1. Mesial 2. Distal 3. Facial 4. Lingual |
1. Mesial
|
|
What type of working end does an amalgam carrier
have for transportation? 1. Solid 2. Layered 3. Pointed 4. Hollow |
4. Hollow
|
|
An amalgam condenser is often referred to as which
of the following instruments? 1. Carvers 2. Burnishers 3. Pluggers 4. Carriers |
3. Pluggers
|
|
Which of the following instruments is designed for
carving proximal tooth surfaces? 1. Tanner #5 2.#1/2 Hollenback 3. Frahm 2/3 4. Cleoid-discoid |
2. #1/2 Hollenback
|
|
Which of the following advantages will occur to
composite restorations when using a plastic instrument? 1. Will not discolor 2. Will not bend 3. Will not melt 4. Will not break |
1. Will not discolor
|
|
What number spatula is used to mix small quantities
of cement? 1. 313 2. 322 3. 324 4. 324A |
1. 313
|
|
What length needle measured in inches is normally
used for mandibular injections? 1. 1 1/4 2. 1 3/4 3. 1 7/8 4. 1 13/16 |
3. 1 7/8
|
|
The working end of a rubber dam punch is designed
with which of the following mechanisms? 1. Plunger and spindle 2. Plunger and wheel 3. Wheel and spindle 4. Spindle and clamp |
2. Plunger and wheel
|
|
A "W" prefix on a rubber dam clamp indicates
which of the following designs? 1. Without clamp 2. Without wrapper 3. Without slipping 4. Without wings |
4. Without wings
|
|
Which of the following rubber dam frames is the
most popular? 1. "A" frame 2. Young 3. Wizard 4. Woodbury |
2. Young
|
|
What type of appearance will the area of a tooth
have that has been etched, washed, and dried? 1. Smooth 2. Frosted 3. Pitted 4. Dark |
2. Frosted
|
|
Which of the following is the most common reason
for sealant failure? 1. Expired material 2. Insufficient curing time 3. Contamination of the material 4. Contamination of the etched surface |
4. Contamination of the etched surface
|
|
Operative dentistry is concerned with the prevention
and treatment of defects of what tooth surfaces? 1. Enamel and cementum 2. Enamel and dentin 3. Dentin and cementum 4. Cementum only |
2. Enamel and dentin
|
|
Which of the following instruments is used
primarily to remove debris from tooth cavities? 1. Hoes 2. Chisels 3. Hatchets 4. Spoon excavators |
4. Spoon excavators
|
|
An even-numbered gingival margin trimmer is
designed for use on which of the following tooth surfaces? 1. Mesial 2. Distal 3. Facial 4. Lingual |
2. Distal
|
|
An odd-numbered gingival margin trimmer is
designated for use on which of the following tooth surfaces? 1. Mesial 2. Distal 3. Facial 4. Lingual |
1. Mesial
|
|
What type of working end does an amalgam carrier
have for transportation? 1. Solid 2. Layered 3. Pointed 4. Hollow |
4. Hollow
|
|
An amalgam condenser is often referred to as which
of the following instruments? 1. Carvers 2. Burnishers 3. Pluggers 4. Carriers |
3. Pluggers
|
|
Which of the following instruments is designed for
carving proximal tooth surfaces? 1. Tanner #5 2.#1/2 Hollenback 3. Frahm 2/3 4. Cleoid-discoid |
2. #1/2 Hollenback
|
|
Which of the following advantages will occur to
composite restorations when using a plastic instrument? 1. Will not discolor 2. Will not bend 3. Will not melt 4. Will not break |
1. Will not discolor
|
|
What number spatula is used to mix small quantities
of cement? 1. 313 2. 322 3. 324 4. 324A |
1. 313
|
|
What length needle measured in inches is normally
used for mandibular injections? 1. 1 1/4 2. 1 3/4 3. 1 7/8 4. 1 13/16 |
3. 1 7/8
|
|
The working end of a rubber dam punch is designed
with which of the following mechanisms? 1. Plunger and spindle 2. Plunger and wheel 3. Wheel and spindle 4. Spindle and clamp |
2. Plunger and wheel
|
|
A "W" prefix on a rubber dam clamp indicates
which of the following designs? 1. Without clamp 2. Without wrapper 3. Without slipping 4. Without wings |
4. Without wings
|
|
Which of the following rubber dam frames is the
most popular? 1. "A" frame 2. Young 3. Wizard 4. Woodbury |
2. Young
|
|
What type of material is always tied around a rubber
dam clamp before placement in the mouth? 1. Floss 2. 3. Dental chain Rubber latex 4. Clamp retriever |
1. Floss
|
|
Which of the following types of matrix bands is
most commonly used in restorative dentistry? 1. Wide #2 2. Junior #13 3. Precontoured 4. Straight #1 |
4. Precontoured
|
|
Extensions on the Wide #2 matrix bands are known
by which of the following terms? 1. Bumps 2. Aprons 3. Wings 4. Circles |
2. Aprons
|
|
Which of the following is the most commonly used
matrix retainer? 1. Universal #1 2. Universal adult 3. Universal straight 4. Universal contra-angled |
3. Universal straight
|
|
Wood or clear plastic wedges measure about how
long in length? 1. 1 inch 2. 1/2 inch 3. 3/4 inch 4. 1/4 inch |
2. 1/2 inch
|
|
The operator’s zone for a right handed dentist is
located between which of the following positions? 1. 1 and 3 o’clock 2. 2 and 4 o’clock 3. 5 and 8 o’clock 4. 8 and 11 o’clock |
4. 8 and 11 o’clock
|
|
The assistant's zone for a right handed dentist is
located between which of the following positions? 1. 1 and 3 o’clock 2. 2 and 4 o’clock 3. 5 and 8 o’clock 4. 8 and 11 o’clock |
2. 2 and 4 o’clock
|
|
The transfer zone is located between which of the
following positions? 1. 8 to 11 o'clock 2. 2 to 4 o'clock 3. 3 to 6 o'clock 4. 4 to 8 o'clock |
4. 4 to 8 o'clock
|
|
The static zone is located between which of the
following positions? 1. 8 to 11 o'clock 2. 11 to 1 o'clock 3. 11 to 2 o'clock 4. 4 to 8 o'clock |
4. 11 to 2 o'clock
|
|
How many inches should the dentist’s eyes be from
the treatment site if the patient is properly positioned? 1. 5 to 12 2. 14 to 16 3. 18 to 36 4. None of the above |
2. 14 to 16
|
|
In what zone will the instrument exchange between
the dentist and the assistant take place? 1. Operator's 2. Assistant's 3. Transfer 4. Static |
3. Transfer
|
|
Dental materials are exchanged between the dentist
and the assistant in what zone? 1. Operator's 2. Assistant's 3. Transfer 4. Static |
3. Transfer
|
|
The needle end of a carpule is sealed with a rubber
membrane held in place by what type of material? 1. Metal band 2. Rubber band 3. Copper band 4. Plastic band |
1. Metal band
|
|
If you must recap a needle, what technique, if any,
should be used? 1. One-handed scoop 2. Two-handed scoop 3. Twist and turn scoop 4. None |
1. One-handed scoop
|
|
What device is used to remove blood, pus, saliva,
and debris from the oral cavity? 1. Low-volume ejector 2. High-volume ejector 3. High-volume evacuator 4. High-volume aspirator |
3. High-volume evacuator
|
|
What type of cavity is present when three or more
surfaces are involved? 1. Large 2. Small 3. Medium 4. Complex |
4. Complex
|
|
When the dentist has finished removing the tooth
structure in a cavity preparation, what type of feeling will the dentin have when felt by an explorer? 1. Firm 2. Loose 3. Brittle 4. Semi-hard |
1. Firm
|
|
What is the last cutting step in the preparation of the
cavity? 1. Finishing the tooth walls 2. Finishing the dentin walls 3. Finishing the enamel walls 4. Finishing the occlusal walls |
3. Finishing the enamel walls
|
|
Stubborn particles of debris may be removed from a
cavity preparation by which of the following materials? 1. Alcohol 2. 2 x 2 gauze 3. 4 x 4 gauze 4. Small cotton pellet |
4. Small cotton pellet
|
|
What two materials are used in a cavity preparation
to protect the pulp? 1. Bases and resins 2. Fluoride and amalgam 3. Bases and cavity liners 4. Cavity liners and amalgam |
3. Bases and cavity liners
|
|
What material is used to seal the dentinal tubules to
help prevent microleakage in a cavity preparation? 1. Bases 2. Cements 3. Amalgam 4. Cavity varnish |
4. Cavity varnish
|
|
When the dentist is making the final adjustment to
the matrix, which of the following steps should the dental assistant be preparing? 1. Changing the bur in the hand piece 2. Placing the precapsulated amalgam in the amalgamator 3. Charting the completed restoration in the dental record 4. All of the above |
2. Placing the precapsulated amalgam in the
amalgamator |
|
What instrument will the dentist use to bring any
excess mercury from the amalgam to the top of the restoration? 1. Carver 2. Hatchet 3. Burnisher 4. Mouth mirror |
3. Burnisher
|
|
What BUMED instruction contains information on
the Mercury Control Program? 1. 6260.30 2. 6260.20 3. 6360.30 4. 6360.20 |
1. 6260.30
|
|
Which of the following materials may be used to
remove any roughness or overhang of an amalgam restoration in the proximal area? 1. Dental tape 2. Dental floss 3. Metal filing strip 4. Plastic filing strip |
3. Metal filing strip
|
|
Which of the following composite resins is available
for use in operative dentistry? 1. Hybrid 2. Microfilled 3. Macrofilled 4. All of the above |
4. All of the above
|
|
What composite shade will appear if the tooth
becomes dehydrated? 1. Darker 2. Lighter 3. Transparent 4. Chalky white |
2. Lighter
|
|
What type of matrix may be placed on the tooth
before the acid etching procedure begins? 1. Wood 2. Metal 3. Rubber 4. Celluloid |
4. Celluloid
|
|
Glass ionomer cement will bond directly with which
of the following tooth surfaces? 1. Enamel 2. Dentin 3. Cementum 4. All of the above |
4. All of the above
|
|
Which of the following terms is used to describe the
extraction of teeth in oral surgery? 1. Exodontics 2. Endodontics 3. Extrodontics 4. Yankodontics |
1. Exodontics
|
|
Which of the following Standard Forms should be used
when informed consent is required? 1. 515 2. 522 3. 532 4. 542 |
2. 522
|
|
To control pain and anxiety, which of the following
basic levels of anesthesia are administered? 1. Local, unconscious sedation, and general 2. Conscious sedation, general, and infiltration 3. General, local, and gas 4. General, local, and conscious sedation |
4. General, local, and conscious sedation
|
|
Which of the following oral surgery procedures are the
three types of tooth extractions? 1. Simple, uncomplicated, impacted 2. Exostosis, simple, complicated 3. Impacted, simple, complicated 4. Complicated, simplex, impacted |
3. Impacted, simple, complicated
|
|
Which of the following types of extraction involves
removal of a tooth that is partially or completely covered by bone and soft tissue? 1. Simple 2. Impacted 3. Complicated 4. Uncomplicated |
2. Impacted
|
|
Which of the following types of extraction involves
removal of a tooth or root that does not require bone removal or sectioning? 1. Simple 2. Impacted 3. Complicated 4. Uncomplicated |
1. Simple
|
|
Which of the following types of extraction involves
removal of a tooth or root that requires surgical sectioning and/or bone removal? 1. Simple 2. Impacted 3. Complicated 4. Uncomplicated |
3. Complicated
|
|
What type of oral surgery procedure involves the
contouring of the alveolar structures? 1. Exostosis 2. Frenectomy 3. Osteotomy 4. Alveoloplasty |
4. Alveoloplasty
|
|
What oral surgery procedure will be performed on a
patient who has a fractured mandible or maxilla? 1. Exostosis 2. Frenectomy 3. Osteotomy 4. Alveoloplasty |
3. Osteotomy
|
|
What oral surgery procedure will involve the surgical
removal of bony growths projecting past the normal contour of a bony surface? 1. Exostosis 2. Frenectomy 3. Osteotomy 4. Alveoloplasty |
1. Exostosis
|
|
What oral surgery procedure involves the removal of a
malattached facial or lingual frenum? 1. Exostosis 2. Frenectomy 3. Osteotomy 4. Alveoloplasty |
2. Frenectomy
|
|
What Standard Form does a dentist submit to an oral
histopathology center for a submission of an oral biopsy? 1. 505 2. 510 3. 513 4. 515 |
4. 515
|
|
Which of the following oral surgery procedures
involves the removal of devitalized portions of bone that have separated from the adjacent bone? 1. Implant 2. Sequestrectomy 3. Incision and drainage 4. Foreign body removal |
2. Sequestrectomy
|
|
Which of the following conditions occurs when a blood
clot does not form or dislodges from a tooth socket? 1. Exostosis 2. Alveoloplasty 3. Alveolar osteitis 4. Granulation osteitis |
3. Alveolar osteitis
|
|
Which of the following tongue and cheek retractors is
commonly used in oral surgery procedures? 1. Fraizer 2. East west 3. Minnesota 4. Curved Kelly |
3. Minnesota
|
|
In addition to beaver style, which of the following
surgical scalpel handles is commonly used in oral surgery procedures? 1.# 3 2. #10 3. #11 4. #12 |
1.# 3
|
|
Which of the following silk suture materials is most
commonly used for the oral mucosa? 1. 1-0 2. 2-0 3. 3-0 4. 4-0 |
4. 4-0
|
|
Tissue forceps have two small sharp pointed extensions
that form which of the following shapes when in the closed position? 1. W 2. X 3. Y 4. Z |
1. W
|
|
What type of surgical instrument is sharp and
spoon-shaped and used to clean out infected cavities in bone and remove debris from the tooth sockets? 1. Malar 2. Rongeur 3. Chisels 4. Curettes |
4. Curettes
|
|
What type of surgical forceps is used to trim projecting,
uneven, or overhanging bone? 1. #65 2. #286 3. Rongeur 4. Hawkbill |
3. Rongeur
|
|
What type of surgical elevator is used to separate a bone
or tooth from the fibrous membrane? 1. Spade 2. Minnesota 3. Periosteal 4. Straight root |
3. Periosteal
|
|
What type of straight root elevator has the smallest
working end? 1. 7 3 2. 9 2 3. 34S 4. 301 |
4. 301
|
|
In which direction are the beaks of maxillary forceps
angled from the curvature of the handles? 1. Away 2. Same 3. Vertical 4. Horizontal |
1. Away
|
|
In what direction are the beaks of mandibular forceps
angled from the curvature of the handles? 1. Same 2. Away 3. Vertical 4. Horizontal |
1. Same
|
|
What letter-shaped forceps are used on the mandibular
arch? 1. L and I 2. C and S 3. C and L 4. S, I, and Z |
3. C and L
|
|
What letter-shaped forceps are used on the
maxillary arch? |
4. S, I and Z
|
|
What type of surgical equipment is used to
protect the dentist and the patient from the long shaft of surgical burs? 1. Bur rings 2. Bur guards 3. Bur holders 4. Bur wrappers |
2. Bur guards
|
|
On what type of surgical stand will the
circulating assistant place the surgery tray? 1. Oval 2. Nayo 3. Tayo 4. Mayo |
4. Mayo
|
|
When performing surgery on the maxillary
arch, what degree angle should the patient’s alatragus line be to the floor? 1. 35 2. 45 3. 55 4. 65 |
1. 35
|
|
At least how many minutes should it take to
complete a surgical scrub of a patient’s face? 1. 1 2. 2 3. 3 4. 4 |
2. 2
|
|
You should scrub at least how many inches
above your elbow when performing a surgical scrub of your hands? 1. 1 2. 2 3. 3 4. 4 |
2. 2
|
|
When performing gloving procedures, what
member of the surgical team opens the packages of disposable sterile gloves? 1. Dentist 2. Scrub assistant 3. Surgical assistant 4. Circulating assistant |
4. Circulating assistant
|
|
When following the rules of the aseptic
technique, in what position should you always keep your hands? 1. Above your head 2. Above your waist 3. Above your heart 4. Above your shoulders |
2. Above your waist
|
|
To control bleeding, what is the minimum
amount of minutes a pressure pack may remain in place? 1. 10 2. 20 3. 30 4. 40 |
3. 30
|
|
If adequate healing has taken place, nylon or
silk sutures may be removed after how many minimum days following surgery? 1. 1 2. 2 3. 3 4. 4 |
3. 3
|
|
Which of the following supportive structures
is/are part of the periodontium? 1. Gingiva 2. Alveolar bone 3. Periodontal ligaments 4. All of the above |
4. All of the above
|
|
Damage to the periodontium is called what
type of disease? 1. Gingival 2. Periapical 3. Periodontal 4. Periodontalism |
3. Periodontal
|
|
The primary function of periodontal treatment
is the elimination of what type of periodontal condition? 1. Pockets 2. Calculus 3. Gingivitis 4. Malposed teeth |
1. Pockets
|
|
An inflammatory disease confined to the
gingiva is termed as what type of periodontal condition? 1. Bone loss 2. Gingivitis 3. Periodontitis 4. Marginal periodontitis |
2. Gingivitis
|
|
Inflammatory diseases that damage the deep
supporting structures of the periodontium are classified as what type of periodontal condition? 1.Bone loss 2. Gingivitis 3. Periodontitis 4. Marginal periodontitis |
3. Periodontitis
|
|
For successful periodontal treatment, a patient
must be willing to accept which of the following conditions? 1. Treatment 2. Requirements 3. Good oral hygiene 4. All of the above |
4. All of the above
|
|
Periodontal treatment is contraindicated if a
patient displays which of the following responses? 1. Negative attitude 2. Positive attitude 3. Good flossing technique 4. Good brushing technique |
1. Negative attitude
|
|
On what NAVMED form are the results of a
periodontal examination charted? 1. 6600/1 2. 6600/2 3. 6630/3 4. 6630/4 |
2. 6600/2
|
|
What are the most important findings in the
periodontal examination? 1. 6600/1 2. 6600/2 3. 6630/3 1. Probing depths 2. Mobility of teeth 3. Amount of bleeding 4. Brushing and flossing techniques |
1. Probing depths
|
|
What color pencils are used on the front
section of the Periodontal Chart? 1. Blue and red only 2. Black and yellow 3. Blue, red, and orange 4. Black, blue, and red |
4. Black, blue, and red
|
|
When performing a periodontal examination,
how many total measurements on each tooth will a dentist make when measuring for pocket depth? 1.1 2.2 3.6 4.8 |
3.6
|
|
How many total classes are used to describe
and record mobility? 1. 1 2. 2 3. 3 4. 4 |
3. 3
|
|
When using a periodontal probe, an angled
shank places the working end at about what degree of an angle in relation to the handle? 1. 15 2. 45 3. 55 4. 65 |
2. 45
|
|
The scored millimeter markings on a
periodontal probe can range from what minimum to what maximum increments? 1. 1 to 8 2. 2 to 8 3. 1 to 9 4. 1 to 10 |
4. 1 to 10
|
|
A furcation probe is designed to help determine the extent of what type of bone loss?
1. Apical 2. Vertical 3. Horizontal 4. Interradicular |
4. Interradicular
|
|
Which of the following actions is the objective
of scaling calculus from the tooth surface? 1. Shaving 2. Removing 3. Releasing 4. Peeling |
2. Removing
|
|
Sickle scalers with straight shanks are designed
to adapt to which of the following teeth in the mouth? 1. Anterior 2. Posterior 3. Both 1 and 2 above 4. Distal-facial |
1. Anterior
|
|
Sickle scalers with contra-angled shanks are
designed to adapt to which of the following teeth in the mouth? 1. Anterior 2. Posterior 3. Both 1 and 2 above 4. Distal-facial |
2. Posterior
|
|
What are the two basic types of curettes?
1. Sickle and jacquette 2. Universal and McCall’s 3. Universal and Columbia 4. Universal and area specific |
4. Universal and area specific
|
|
Which of the following materials is/are used to
make special scalers for cleaning the abutments of dental implants? 1. Plastic only 2. Nonmetallic only 3. Both 1 and 2 above 4. Gutta-percha |
3. Both 1 and 2 above
|
|
A periosteal elevator is designed to retract what type of tissues?
1. Hard 2. Delicate 3. Oral mucosa 4. Periodontal |
2. Delicate
|
|
Periodontal knives are designed to make initial
incisions for which of the following types of periodontal procedures? 1. Gingivoplasty and gingivectomy 2. Osseous and root amputations 3. Periodontal flaps 4. Hemisection |
1. Gingivoplasty and gingivectomy
|
|
Periodontal surgery curettes and sickles are
designed to remove what type of tissue? 1. Hard 2. Delicate 3. Gingival 4. Granulation and fibrous |
4. Granulation and fibrous
|
|
To recontour the bone during periodontal
surgery, the dentist may use which of the following periodontal surgery instruments? 1. Rongeurs and files 2. Rongeurs and curettes 3. Chisels, hoes, and files 4. Chisels, curettes, and sickles |
3. Chisels, hoes, and files
|
|
Which, if any, of the following advantages
occurs when using the electrosurgery apparatus? 1. Painless surgery 2. Control of bleeding 3. Control of tissue removal 4. None of the above |
2. Control of bleeding
|
|
Which of the following are the two types of
occlusal equilibration? 1. Complete and limited 2. Finished and partial 3. Uncompleted and unlimited 4. Unrestricted and unlimited |
1. Complete and limited
|
|
When the dentist is performing an occlusal
adjustment, which of the following materials is/are used to wipe off the marks and keep the teeth dry? 1. Sterile gloves 2. Gauze sponges 3. Cotton pellets 4. All of the above |
2. Gauze sponges
|
|
What type of sensitivity is reduced or
eliminated when performing root desensitization procedures? 1.Nerve 2.Enamel 3.Cementum 4.Dentinal |
4. Dentinal
|
|
A periodontal flap is a technique used in an
attempt to correct what type of defect? 1. Bone 2. Osseous 3. Gingival 4. Tuberosity |
3. Gingival
|
|
Osseous lesions will appear interproximally as
what shaped defect? 1. Flat 2. Grape 3. Saucer 4. Triangular |
3. Saucer
|
|
What type of treatment is required before a
root amputation? 1. Operative 2. Endodontic 3. Oral Surgery 4. Prosthodontic |
2. Endodontic
|
|
Most periodontal dressings will stay in place
for how many maximum amount of days before removal? 1. 1 2. 2 3. 3 4. 7 |
4. 7
|
|
What type of appearance will have a sharp
cutting edge that does not reflect light? 1. Line 2. Glare 3. Double line 4. Rounded line |
1. Line
|
|
What type of appearance will have a dull edge
that reflects light? 1. Line 2. Glare 3. Double line 4. Square line |
2. Glare
|
|
What type of sharpening stone, if any, is fairly
course, cuts rapidly, and is used primarily for initial sharpening of very dull instruments? 1.Arkansas 2.White 3.Ruby 4.None |
3.Ruby
|
|
What type of sharpening stone, if any, has a
fine grit and is used to attain a sharp edge? 1. Arkansas 2. White 3. Ruby 4. None |
1. Arkansas
|
|
Which of the following number of cutting
edges require sharpening on a Kirkland knife? 1. 1 2. 2 3. 3 4. 4 |
3. 3
|
|
Which of the following number of cutting
edges require(s) sharpening on McCall curettes? 1. 1 2. 2 3. 3 4. 4 |
2. 2
|
|
Which of the following number of cutting
edges require(s) sharpening on sickle scalers? 1. 1 2. 2 3. 3 4. 4 |
2. 2
|
|
Which of the following number of cutting
edges require(s) sharpening on a hoe scaler? 1. 1 2. 2 3. 3 4. 4 |
1 . 1
|
|
Endodontic treatment is also known as what type of
therapy? 1. Pulp 2. Nerve 3. Root canal 4. Apicoectomy |
3. Root canal
|
|
What is the primary purpose of endodontics?
1. 2. 3. 4. To relieve pain To extract teeth Preserve the pulp and periapical tissues Treatment of diseases of the pulp and periapical tissues |
4. Treatment of diseases of the pulp and
periapical tissues |
|
If injured pulpal tissue undergoes necrosis, which of
the following situations occur? 1. Pulp dies 2. Pulp lives 3. Pulp is transplanted 4. Pulp is irritated |
1. Pulp dies
|
|
Which, if any, of the following is NOT a cause of an
injured dental pulp? 1. Traumatic blows 2. Thermal irritation 3. Chemical irritation 4. None of the above |
4. None of the above
|
|
The diagnosis of pulp and periapical conditions
occur in what phase of treatment? 1. During the treatment only 2. After the treatment only 3. Both 1 and 2 above 4. Before the treatment |
4. Before the treatment
|
|
Signs of discolored teeth, crown fracture, and gross
caries can be found during which of the following procedures? 1. Dental history exam 2. Clinical examination 3. Thermal sensitivity test 4. Percussion test |
2. Clinical examination
|
|
The presence of a dark area on a radiograph
surrounding the apex of the root is also referred to by what other term? 1. Dental caries 2. Periodontal abscess 3. Type I fracture 4. Radiolucency |
4. Radiolucency
|
|
The sensation of a slight tingling or warm feeling is
felt during which of the following diagnostic tests? 1. Cold test 2. Percussion 3. Pulp testing 4. Selective anesthesia |
3. Pulp testing
|
|
During a cold test, if the pulp is inflamed, the
patient will experience what type of sensation to the cold? 1. Sharp 2. Tingling 3. Lingering 4. Violent pain |
3. Lingering
|
|
If a patient experiences no response to a heat or cold
test, the pulp is considered to have which of the following conditions? 1. Vital 2. Mobile 3. Inflamed 4. Necrotic |
4. Necrotic
|
|
A percussion test determines which of the following
conditions? 1. Periapical inflammation 2. Vitality 3. Pulpitis 4. Mobility |
1. Periapical inflammation
|
|
Which of the following tests involves the movement
of tooth between the handles of two instruments? 1. Mobility 2. Palpation 3. Percussion 4. Transillumination |
1. Mobility
|
|
Transillumination is most effective on which of the
following teeth? 1. Anterior 2. Posterior 3. Deciduous 4. Permanent |
1. Anterior
|
|
Placing a pulp cap over a layer of remaining dentin
is referred to by what term? 1. Pulpotomy cap 2. Direct pulp cap 3. Partial pulp cap 4. Indirect pulp cap |
4. Indirect pulp cap
|
|
What type of therapy consists of internal
debridement, cleaning, shaping, and permanent filling? 1. Pulpotomy 2. Pulpectomy 3. Root canal 4. Apicoectomy |
4. Root canal
|
|
The surgical removal of the pulp chamber is known
by which of the following terms? 1. Pulpectomy 2. Pulpotomy 3. Apicoectomy 4. Incision and drainage |
2. Pulpotomy
|
|
What is the procedure called when the entire pulp is
removed? 1. Completed Pulpotomy 2. Pulpal removal 3. Pulpectomy 4. Apicoectomy |
1. Completed Pulpotomy
|
|
What type of acute abscess requires an incision and
drainage to eliminate infection along with endodontic treatment? 1. Periradicular 2. Periodontal 3. 4. Pulpal Periapical |
4. Pulpal
|
|
A broken instrument lodged in the root canal
preventing a complete filling will require what type of treatment? 1. Instrumentectomy 2. Apicoectomy 3. Pulpotomy 4. Pulpectomy |
2. Apicoectomy
|
|
What method is used to seal the apical end of the
root canal in conjunction with an apicoectomy? 1. Periapical curettage 2. Calcified root canal filling 3. Root amputation 4. Retrograde filling |
4. Retrograde filling
|
|
Paper points are used in endodontics for which of
the following reasons? 1. To deliver medications to the canal 2. To dry out the root canals 3. To measure working distance 4. To remove the pulp |
2. To dry out the root canals
|
|
Which of the following is NOT an advantage for
using gutta-percha points for root canal restorative materials? 1. Poor heat conductor 2. High thermal expansion 3. 4. Radiopaque Shrinks when used with a solvent |
4. Shrinks when used with a solvent
|
|
What is the major difference between endodontic
and cotton forceps? 1. Size 2. Made of rubber 3. Ends are grooved 4. Angle of the working end |
3. Ends are grooved
|
|
What symbol is used to identify barbed broaches?
1. Six-pointed star 2. Eight-pointed star 3. Ten-pointed star 4. Six-rings |
2. Eight-pointed star
|
|
Which of the following instruments is used to
enlarge the pulp canal? 1. Broaches 2. Endodontic explorer 3. Paper points 4. Reamers |
4. Reamers
|
|
Which of the following are types of root canal files?
1. G and H 2. H and F 3. H and K 4. K and J |
3. H and K
|
|
What is the number of the Gates-Glidden drill that
is rarely used? 1. One 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four |
1. One
|
|
What are the two types of endodontic condensers?
1. Plugger/woodsen 2. Woodsen/vertical condenser 3. Plugger/spreader 4. Spreader/woodsen |
3. Plugger/spreader
|
|
Which of the following materials prevents injury to
the apex of the root and periapical tissues? 1. Rubber dam 2. Lentulo spiral 3. Stops 4. K files |
3. Stops
|
|
What type of rubber dam frame saves valuable time
when exposing radiographs? 1. Metal 2. Young's 3. U-shaped 4. Radiolucent |
4. Radiolucent
|
|
Which of the following solutions is most frequently
used for irrigation of the root canal? 1. Sterile saline 2. Hydrogen peroxide 3. Root canal solution 4. Sodium hypochlorite |
4. Sodium hypochlorite
|
|
The length of an endodontic treated tooth is
measured using which of the following rulers? 1. Standard 2. Endodontic millimeter 3. Endodontic centimeter 4. Endodontic inch |
2. Endodontic millimeter
|
|
How are rubber stops placed on files and reamers?
1. Right angle 2. Oblique angle 3. Vertical angle 4. Horizontal angle |
1. Right angle
|
|
What portion of the master cone is coated with
cement? 1. Apical first 2. Apical second 3. Apical third 4. Apical fourth |
3. Apical third
|
|
The excess length of the gutta-percha is removed by
which of the following instruments? 1. Scalpel 2. Heated file 3. Iris scissors 4. Heated instrument |
4. Heated instrument
|
|
Prosthodontic treatment is concerned primarily with
replacing missing teeth with what type of substitute? 1. Plastic 2. Permanent 3. Artificial 4. Non-permanent |
3. Artificial
|
|
Interacoronal restorations fit on what portion of a
tooth? 1. Around 2. Bottom 3. Into 4. Onto |
3. Into
|
|
Extracornal restorations fit on what portion of a
tooth? 1. Around 2. Bottom 3. Into 4. Onto |
1. Around
|
|
Artificial crowns cover what coronal portion of the
tooth? 1. Half 2. Quarter 3. One third 4. More than half |
3. One third
|
|
The part of the post that protrudes from the root
canal is called what type casting? 1. Veneer 2. Anchor 3. Core 4. Fixed |
4. Fixed
|
|
A pontic suspended from only one retainer is held in
place by which of the following methods? 1. Hanging 2. Connecting 3. Suspension 4. Cantilevered |
4. Cantilevered
|
|
A rigid, temporary restoration that replaces missing
teeth is classified as what type of prosthesis? 1. Interim fixed partial denture 2. Fixed partial denture 3. 4. Partial denture Fixed splint |
1. Interim fixed partial denture
|
|
What type of removable prosthesis replaces all of
the natural teeth in an arch? 1. Round-house 2. Complete denture 3. Maryland bridge 4. Partial denture |
2. Complete denture
|
|
What type of partial denture is made for insertion
immediately following the surgical removal of natural teeth? 1. Surgical 2. Temporary 3. Removable 4. Immediate |
4. Immediate
|
|
Which of the following dental alloys is NOT a
classification type? 1. Precious 2. Semiprecious 3. Seminoble 4. Nonprecious |
4. Seminoble
|
|
Alginate is also known as which of the following
impression materials? 1. Irreversible hydrocolloid 2. Reversible hydrocolloid 3. Synthetic hydrocolloid 4. Silicone hydrocolloid |
1. Irreversible hydrocolloid
|
|
What specific time period will Type-I fast set
alginate gel? 1. 1 to 2 minutes 2. 2 to 3 minutes 3. 3 to 4 minutes 4. 4 to 5 minutes |
3. 3 to 4 minutes
|
|
Which of the following consistency types is NOT a
rubber impression material? 1. Light bodied 2. Medium bodied 3. Regular bodied 4. Heavy bodied |
3. Medium bodied
|
|
Which, if any, of the following material types is
NOT an impression material? 1. Polysulfides 2. Silicones 3. Polyethers 4. Collodion |
4. Collodion
|
|
Dental plaster will have a final set completed within
approximately how many minutes? 1. 15 2. 30 3. 45 4. 60 |
3. 45
|
|
A dental stone mixture has an initial setting time of
how many minimum and maximum minutes? 1. 29 to 36 2. 22 to 29 3. 15 to 22 4. 8 to 15 |
4. 8 to 15
|
|
What type of dental wax is used on impression
trays? 1. Sticky 2. Utility 3. Baseplate 4. Bite registration |
2. Utility
|
|
What type of acrylic is used to make customized
impression trays? 1. Tray 2. Repair 3. Orthodontic 4. Crown and bridge |
1. Tray
|
|
Separating media prevents which of the following
actions? 1. Tooth distortion 2. Tooth separation 3. One material from bonding to another material 4. One material from separating to another material |
3. One material from bonding to another material
|
|
Tray adhesive ensures that impression material
accomplishes which of the following results when taking impressions? 1. Material stays in the tray when removed from the mouth 2. Material stays in the mouth when the tray is removed 3. Material separates when removed from the tray. 4. Tray separates when removed from the material |
1. Material stays in the tray when removed from
the mouth |
|
The alcohol torch is used for which of the following
procedures? 1. Smoothing wax surfaces 2. Setting teeth 3. Waxing 4. All of the above |
4. All of the above
|
|
Which type of alcohol is the best choice fuel for the
alcohol torch? 1. Isopropyl 2. Methyl 3. Denatured 4. Rubbing |
3. Denatured
|
|
The dental cast trimmer is used to perform which of
the following procedures? 1. Cutting cast in half 2. Cutting off teeth 3. Trimming teeth 4. Trim and contour |
4. Trim and contour
|
|
The two basic types of impression trays available
for use are which of the following? 1. Maxillary and mandibular 2. Stock and custom 3. Disposable and rimlock 4. Rubber and plastic |
2. Stock and custom
|
|
The mixing bowl is used to mix which of following
dental materials? 1. Rubber base 2. Alginate only 3. Dental stone only 4. Both 2 and 3 above |
4. Both 2 and 3 above
|
|
The pneumatic curing unit has a normal curing time
of (a) how many minutes and (b) at what psi? 1. (a) 60 (b) 50 2. (a) 45 (b) 35 3. (a) 30 (b) 20 4. (a) 20 (b) 10 |
3. (a) 30 (b) 20
|
|
The vacuum adapter is used for the rapid fabrication
of which of the following prosthetic appliances? 1. Custom trays 2. Maryland bridges 3. Complete dentures 4. Fixed partial dentures |
1. Custom trays
|
|
Which, if any, of the following materials does a
dental vibrator move when pouring a cast? 1. Rubber base and alginate 2. Dental plaster and stone 3. Treatment liners and resins 4. None of the above |
2. Dental plaster and stone
|
|
An impression tray should have how many
millimeters of space between the tray, teeth, and soft tissues when tried in? 1. 1 to 2 2. 2 to 3 3. 4. 3 to 4 4 to 5 |
3. 3 to 4
|
|
Where should your index finger be placed on the
tray when breaking the seal formed by the alginate material on a maxillary impression? 1. Along the posterior border 2. Along the facial border 3. Along the lingual border 4. Along the lateral border |
4. Along the lateral border
|
|
When mixing dental stone for a cast, in which order
should the materials be mixed? 1. Gypsum to powder 2. Powder to gypsum 3. Water to powder 4. Powder to water |
4. Powder to water
|
|
At least how many minutes should a first pour cast
set before making the cast base? 1. 4 5 2. 3 0 3. 1 5 4. 5 |
1. 4 5
|
|
When trimming a dental cast, which area should be
ground down first? 1. Top 2. Side 3. Bottom 4. Back |
3. Bottom
|
|
A custom tray is made on which of the following
types of cast? 1. Final 2. Diagnostic 3. Preliminary 4. Prefabricated |
2. Diagnostic
|
|
When preparing a cast for a mouthguard, what
maximum mm thickness should the cast base NOT exceed? 1. 8 2. 2 3. 6 4. 4 |
3. 6
|
|
How many inches should the splint material sag on a
heated vacuum-forming machine? 5-74. 1. 1 1/2 to 2 2. 2 1/2 to 3 3. 3 to 3 1/2 4. 4 to 4 1/2 |
1. 1 1/2 to 2
|
|
When performing a denture base repair, how many
coats of tin foil substitute are painted on the dental cast? 1. One 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four |
2. Two
|
|
Which of the following DD forms is used for dental
laboratory work? 1. 2232 2. 3222 3. 2332 4. 2322 |
4. 2322
|
|
Which of the following, if any, additional safety
features should be included with dental safety patient glasses? 1. Tinted lenses 2. Side shields 3. Safety glasses straps 4. None of the above |
2. Side shields
|
|
The normal body temperature of an adult ranges
from which of the following degrees Fahrenheit? 1. 94 to 99 2. 96 to 98 3. 97 to 99 4. 98 to 101 |
3. 97 to 99
|
|
An adult’s normal pulse rate per minute can range
from which of the following beats per minute? 1. 40 to 60 2. 60 to 80 3. 80 to 100 4. 100 to 120 |
2. 60 to 80
|
|
What artery should you use to take a patient’s pulse?
1. Temporal 2. Facial 3. Carotid 4. Brachial |
3. Carotid
|
|
The minimum blood pressure occurs when the heart
contracts. 1. True 2. False |
2. False
|
|
The maximum blood pressure occurs when the heart
relaxes. 1. True 2. False |
2. False
|
|
What is the normal blood pressure range for the
systolic reading? 1. 60 to 90 2. 70 to 100 3. 80 to 110 4. 90 to 140 |
4. 90 to 140
|
|
What is the normal cycle of an adult’s range of
respiration? 1. 8 to 12 2. 12 to 15 3. 15 to 18 4. 18 to 20 |
2. 12 to 15
|
|
An oxygen tank that provides approximately 78
liters of oxygen per minute for one-half hour has what cylinder size? 1. B 2. C 3. D 4. E |
4. E
|
|
A victim of respiratory and cardiac arrest must
receive treatment within how many maximum minutes to prevent irreversible brain damage? 1. 5 to 7 2. 2 to 3 3. 3 to 5 4. 4 to 6 |
4. 4 to 6
|
|
What do the ABC’s of CPR stand for?
1. Airway, Breath, Circumstances 2. Airway, Bleeding, Circulation 3. Airway, Breathing, Circulation 4. Arteries, Bleeding, Condition |
3. Airway, Breathing, Circulation
|
|
What person, if any, in the dental clinic is not
required to be certified in the healthcare provider course for CPR? 1. Dentist 2. Dental technicians 3. X-ray technicians 4. None of the above |
4. None of the above
|
|
What CPR certification course teaches nonhealthcare
personnel? 1. Heartsaver course 2. CPR "E" course 3. CPR "A" course 4. Healthcare provider course |
1. Heartsaver course
|
|
The hand-operated resuscitator allows the operator
to do which of the following actions? 1. Perform proper chest compressions 2. Perform abdominal thrust 3. Rescue breath for a patient without mouth-to-mouth contact 4. Both 2 and 3 above |
3. Rescue breath for a patient without
mouth-to-mouth contact |
|
At least how many rescuers are recommended to
operate a hand-held resuscitator? 1. 1 2. 2 3. 3 4. Both 2 and 3 above |
2. 2
|
|
Oxygen tanks are always painted what color?
1. Brown 2. Blue 3. Green 4. R e d |
3. Green
|
|
What is the normal flow rate in liters per minute
when oxygen is administered? 1. 5 2. 6 3. 7 4. 8 |
2. 6
|
|
Which of the following safety precautions for
oxygen supply is false? 1. Close all valves when the cylinder is not in use 2. Always stand to the side of the cylinder 3. No smoking in any area where oxygen is stored or in use 4. Always secure cylinder(s) on their side in a proper storage rack |
4. Always secure cylinder(s) on their side in a
proper storage rack |
|
What is the treatment for angina pectoris?
1. Chest compressions and rescuing breathing 2. Place patient in a 45-degree angle (sitting up) 3. Administer 100 percent oxygen and one nitroglycerin tablet sublingually 4. Both 2 and 3 above |
4. Both 2 and 3 above
|
|
What is the maximum amount of nitroglycerin
tablets a patient may receive in a 15-minute period? 1. 6 2. 2 3. 3 4. 5 |
3. 3
|
|
A patient who shows the signs of restlessness,
anxiety, weakness, anxiousness, dull expression, and disorientation is suffering from which of the following conditions? 1. Shock 2. Hypoglycemia 3. Hyperventilation 4. Syncope |
1. Shock
|
|
A patient who shows the signs of cyanosis,
wheezing, coughing, and difficulty in breathing is suffering from what, if any, medical emergency? 1. Seizures 2. Shock 3. Asthma attack 4. Hyperventilation |
3. Asthma attack
|
|
When treating syncope, you should place the
patient’s feet in what position? 1. Six o’clock 2. 15° angle down 3. Trendelenburg style 4. 15° angle up |
3. Trendelenburg style
|
|
Anaphylactic shock usually occurs what period of
time after the victim has been exposed? 1. Seconds 2. Minutes 3. Hours 4. Days |
1. Seconds
|
|
After a patient has been anesthetized or
premedicated with a drug, you should perform which of the following actions? 1. Perform basic life support 2. Activate the clinic's emergency response team 3. Place patient in Trendelenburg's position 4. Observe patient and watch for signs of an adverse reaction |
4. Observe patient and watch for signs of an
adverse reaction |
|
Forensic dentistry is defined as the branch of
forensic medicine that applies to which of the following entities? 1. Dental knowledge to the Federal court system 2. Dental knowledge to civil and criminal problems 3. Dental knowledge to bite mark analysis 4. Dental knowledge of insurance companies |
2. Dental knowledge to civil and criminal
problems |
|
The primary reason the Navy has been directed to
establish forensic dental identification capability is to assure which of the following requirements? 1. To assist in the identification of human remains 2. For any inheritance of the deceased's next of kin 3. For any claim of insurance held by the victim 4. To comply with State and Federal laws |
1. To assist in the identification of human
remains |
|
Without positive identification, any inheritance and
last will and testament could be delayed for how long? 1. Indefinitely 2. Until the person is declared legally dead 3. Up to 7 years 4. Both 2 and 3 above |
4. Both 2 and 3 above
|
|
A graphic example of the psychological aspect of
the need for forensic identification to the next of kin was experienced in which, if any, of the following situations? 1. Legal issues 2. Medical issues 3. Vietnam "missing in action" 4. None of the above |
3. Vietnam "missing in action"
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Which of the following body characteristics is the
most commonly used method to identify an individual? 1. Scars 2. Tattoos 3. Deformities 4. Visual recognition |
4. Visual recognition
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In the military, what type of personal item is used to
specifically assist in identifying an individual? 1. Government credit card 2. Command name tags 3. Passports 4. Dog tags |
4. Dog tags
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In a court of law, which of the following proofs of
identity provides an acceptable positive identity of a deceased individual? 1. Skeletal remains 2. Distinctive jewelry 3. Drivers' license 4. Tattoos |
1. Skeletal remains
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Of all the methods of ID, which of the following is
the best known? 1. DNA analysis 2. Fingerprints 3. Personal effects 4. Dental identification |
2. Fingerprints
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Fingerprint ID is always acceptable in a court of
law. 1. True 2. False |
1. True
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DNA analysis is also known by which of the
following terms? 1. DNA identification 2. DNA evidence 3. DNA marking 4. DNA fingerprinting |
4. DNA fingerprinting
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Dental identification is a definitive means of
positive identification of unknown human remains. 1. True 2. False |
1. True
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Dental evidence tends to survive much better than
which of the following other evidences? 1. Facial characteristics 2. Soft tissue 3. Fingerprints 4. All of the above |
4. All of the above
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Teeth that are unprotected by the soft tissues of the
cheeks and lips, in rare instances, can be destroyed by fire if the minimum temperature exceeds which of the following degrees Fahrenheit? 1. 250 2. 500 3. 750 4. 1000 |
4. 1000
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Silver amalgam will resist temperatures
maximum degree Fahrenheit? up to what 1. 1600 2. 1700 3. 1800 4. 1900 |
1. 1600
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Given sufficient data, it is possible that two sets of
teeth can be identical. 1. True 2. False |
2. False
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In an antemortem database, radiographs are
considered what type of evidence? 1. Error free 2. Material 3. Hard 4. Soft |
3. Hard
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Which of the following problems may delay the
final determination of an identification? 1. Illegible dental records 2. Adequate dental radiographs 3. Adequate charting 4. All of the above |
1. Illegible dental records
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When does postmortem identification occur?
4. Before death 1. During an annual examination 2. During a separation examination 3. After death |
3. After death
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When evaluating the post and antemortem records,
discrepancies may be classified in what, if any, two broad categories? 1. Relative and comparison 2. Relative and absolute 3. Absolute and comparison 4. None |
2. Relative and absolute
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Antemortem dental records detail dental conditions
during which of the following times? 1. Before death 2. After death 3. Both 1 and 2 above 4. At any time |
1. Before death
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Relative discrepancies between the antemortem and
the postmortem dental exam findings can be explained by which of the following methods? 1. Exact match 2. Human error 3. Radiographic comparison 4. Continued dental treatment |
3. Radiographic comparison
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Which of the following items would best represent
the person if the remains cannot be those of the individual under consideration? 1. Radiographic comparison 2. Absolute inconsistencies 3. Relative discrepancies 4. Exact match |
1. Radiographic comparison
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What type of comparison would the postmortem and
antemortem radiographs show if a tooth restoration was the same in both? 1. Similarity 2. Relative discrepancy 3. Absolute inconsistency 4. Exact match |
4. Exact match
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What is the final and most important step in the
dental ID process? 1. Classification 2. DNA analysis 3. Comparisons 4. Charting |
1. Classification
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A. P o s i t i v e
i d e n t i f i c a t i o n B. P o s i t i v e i d e n t i f i c a t i o n b y charting only C. Consistent with D. Exclusion E. Unidentified IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 2-52 THROUGH 2-56, SELECT FROM FIGURE 6-A THE CLASSIFICATION USED TO ESTABLISH IDENTITY. YOU WILL USE ALL THE CLASSIFICATIONS IN FIGURE 6-A ONLY ONCE. The remains cannot be those of the suspect individual. 1. B 2. C 3. D 4. E |
3. D
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A. P o s i t i v e
i d e n t i f i c a t i o n B. P o s i t i v e i d e n t i f i c a t i o n b y charting only C. Consistent with D. Exclusion E. Unidentified IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 2-52 THROUGH 2-56, SELECT FROM FIGURE 6-A THE CLASSIFICATION USED TO ESTABLISH IDENTITY. YOU WILL USE ALL THE CLASSIFICATIONS IN FIGURE 6-A ONLY ONCE. The ID is based solely on the written dental record. 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D |
2. B
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A. P o s i t i v e
i d e n t i f i c a t i o n B. P o s i t i v e i d e n t i f i c a t i o n b y charting only C. Consistent with D. Exclusion E. Unidentified IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 2-52 THROUGH 2-56, SELECT FROM FIGURE 6-A THE CLASSIFICATION USED TO ESTABLISH IDENTITY. YOU WILL USE ALL THE CLASSIFICATIONS IN FIGURE 6-A ONLY ONCE. No sufficient evidence to determine the identity of the individual. 1. B 2. C 3. D 4. E |
4. E
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A. P o s i t i v e
i d e n t i f i c a t i o n B. P o s i t i v e i d e n t i f i c a t i o n b y charting only C. Consistent with D. Exclusion E. Unidentified IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 2-52 THROUGH 2-56, SELECT FROM FIGURE 6-A THE CLASSIFICATION USED TO ESTABLISH IDENTITY. YOU WILL USE ALL THE CLASSIFICATIONS IN FIGURE 6-A ONLY ONCE. The forensic dentist is positive they have determined the ID of the individual. 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D |
1. A
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A. P o s i t i v e
i d e n t i f i c a t i o n B. P o s i t i v e i d e n t i f i c a t i o n b y charting only C. Consistent with D. Exclusion E. Unidentified IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 2-52 THROUGH 2-56, SELECT FROM FIGURE 6-A THE CLASSIFICATION USED TO ESTABLISH IDENTITY. YOU WILL USE ALL THE CLASSIFICATIONS IN FIGURE 6-A ONLY ONCE. A good probability that the remains are those of the suspect person. 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D |
3. C
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Which of the following elements is part of the
command/support? 1. Photographic 2. Personal effects 3. Medical radiology 4. Graves registration |
4. Graves registration
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Which of the following elements is part of
identification? 1. Dental 2. Mortuary affairs 3. Recovery/transportation 4. Security |
1. Dental
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The dental team leader performs the same tasks as
which of the following? 1. Dental registrar 2. Public affairs officer 3. Operations chief 4. Oral surgeon |
3. Operations chief
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Which of the following dental team members will
expose the maxilla and mandible for an examination? 1. Radiologist 2. Oral surgeon 3. Dental technician 4. Dental team leader |
2. Oral surgeon
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Who protects all dental evidence coming into and
going out of the dental area? 1. Security 2. Dental registrar 3. Dental team leader 4. Inprocessing officer |
2. Dental registrar
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Problems with access to dental structures arise most
commonly from which of the following circumstances? 1. Plane crash victims 2. Intact full body remains 3. Partial body remains 4. Chemical exposure victims |
2. Intact full body remains
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At least how many minutes is normally required to
expose a complete series of postmortem remains? 1. 2 0 2. 2 5 3. 3 0 4. 6 0 |
1. 2 0
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What type of x-ray developer is used to process
forensic radiographs? 1. Large 2. Small 3. Manual 4. Any type |
4. Any type
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When mounting forensic periapical or bitewing Xrays,
which direction should the raised dot face? 1. Facing in 2. Facing out 3. Both 1 and 2 above 4. Facing sideways |
3. Both 1 and 2 above
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