Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
299 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
Which of the following training manuals includes
the basic organizational shipboard elements? 1. Dental Assistant, Advanced 2. Basic Shipboard Requirements 3. Advanced Shipboard Requirements 4. Basic Military Requirements |
4. Basic Military Requirements
|
|
What is the primary function of a basic dental
technician? 1. Assist medical officers 2. Assist dental officers 3. Assist nurse officers 4. Assist all officers |
2. Assist dental officers
|
|
The Medical Department of the Navy is composed
of how many total corps and ratings? 1. Six 2. Five 3. Four 4. Three |
2. Five since the merger between DT and HM
|
|
What person is responsible for ensuring personnel
and material readiness of shore activities as assigned by the CNO? 1. Chief, Dental Corps 2. Commanding Officer 3. Chief, BUMED 4. Deputy CNO |
3. Chief, BUMED
|
|
Who is the Medical Department’s spokesperson for
all dental professional matters? 1. Chief, Medical Corps 2. Chief, Dental Corps 3. Chief, Nurse Corps 4. Chief, BUMED |
2. Chief, Dental Corps
|
|
Which of the following people is responsible for
matters involving enlisted personnel assigned to Navy Medicine? 1. Chief, BUMED 2. Chief, Dental Corps 3. 4: Chief, Surgeon General Director, Medical Department Enlisted Personnel |
4. Director, Medical Department Enlisted
Personnel |
|
Who is the principle enlisted advisor to the Chief of
BUMED? 1. Force Master Chief, BUMED 2. Force Master Chief, NAVMEDCOM 3. Force Master Chief, Atlantic 4. Force Master Chief, DEPMEDS |
1. Force Master Chief, BUMED
|
|
NDCs can be divided into how many different types
based on size and function? 1. One 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four |
3. Three
|
|
Which person at an NDC is responsible for the
professional care and services provided to patients? 1. Patient Contact Representative 2. Director Clinical Services 3. Executive Officer 4. Commanding Officer |
4. Commanding Officer
|
|
At an NDC, who is the CO’s senior enlisted adviser
for all matters relating to enlisted policy? 1. Patient Contact Representative 2. Command Master Chief 3. Leading Chief Petty Officer 4. All of the above |
2. Command Master Chief
|
|
What type of officer is appointed as the director for
dental center administration? 1. Nurse Corps 2. Dental Corps 3. Dental Service Corps 4. Medical Service Corps |
4. Medical Service Corps
|
|
All orders issued by the director of a branch dental
clinic will be regarded as proceeding from the Chief of the Dental Corps. 1. True 2. False |
2. False, it's the CO.
|
|
The DT rating was first established by the SECNAV
on which of the following dates? 1. 02 Dec 47 2. 12 Dec 47 3. 30 Dec 47 4. 31 Dec 47 |
2. 12 Dec 47
|
|
On what date did the DT rate become effective?
1. 12 Dec 47 2. 02 Dec 48 3. 02 Apr 48 4. 22 Apr 48 |
3. 02 Apr 48
|
|
Dental Technicians and Hospital Corpsman make up
which of the following Occupational Fields? 1. XIV 2. 14 3. Both 1 and 2 4. XVI |
3. Both 1 and 2
|
|
What type of system is used to identify enlisted
personnel with special skills, knowledge, or aptitude for filling billets? 1. NICS 2. NCE 3. NEC 4. NAC |
3. NEC
|
|
Assignments to duty stations are made by which of
the following people? 1. EPMAC 2. BUMED 3. Assigners 4. Detailers |
4. Detailers
|
|
A. DT-8700
B. DT-8707 C. DT-8703 D. DT-8708 E. DT-8732 F. DT-8752 G. DT-8753 H. DT-8765 I. DT-8783 IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 1-19 THROUGH 1-26, SELECT FROM FIGURE 1A THE DENTAL TECHNICIAN NEC THAT BEST DESCRIBES THE SKILLS GIVEN IN THE QUESTION. YOU WILL NOT USE ALL OF THE NEC’S IN FIGURE 1-A. Assist the dental officer in organizing and managing a dental clinic or facility. 1. A 2. C 3. E 4. I |
2. C DT-8703
|
|
A. DT-8700
B. DT-8707 C. DT-8703 D. DT-8708 E. DT-8732 F. DT-8752 G. DT-8753 H. DT-8765 I. DT-8783 IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 1-19 THROUGH 1-26, SELECT FROM FIGURE 1A THE DENTAL TECHNICIAN NEC THAT BEST DESCRIBES THE SKILLS GIVEN IN THE QUESTION. YOU WILL NOT USE ALL OF THE NEC’S IN FIGURE 1-A. Maintain dental central sterilization facilities. 1. C 2. E 3. G 4. I |
4. I DT-8783
|
|
A. DT-8700
B. DT-8707 C. DT-8703 D. DT-8708 E. DT-8732 F. DT-8752 G. DT-8753 H. DT-8765 I. DT-8783 IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 1-19 THROUGH 1-26, SELECT FROM FIGURE 1A THE DENTAL TECHNICIAN NEC THAT BEST DESCRIBES THE SKILLS GIVEN IN THE QUESTION. YOU WILL NOT USE ALL OF THE NEC’S IN FIGURE 1-A. Repair, reconstruct, and reline dental prostheses. 1. E 2. F 3. H 4. I |
2. F DT-8752
|
|
A. DT-8700
B. DT-8707 C. DT-8703 D. DT-8708 E. DT-8732 F. DT-8752 G. DT-8753 H. DT-8765 I. DT-8783 IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 1-19 THROUGH 1-26, SELECT FROM FIGURE 1A THE DENTAL TECHNICIAN NEC THAT BEST DESCRIBES THE SKILLS GIVEN IN THE QUESTION. YOU WILL NOT USE ALL OF THE NEC’S IN FIGURE 1-A. Assist the dental officer in providing treatment in the field. 1. D 2. C 3. B 4. A |
3. B DT-8707
|
|
A. DT-8700
B. DT-8707 C. DT-8703 D. DT-8708 E. DT-8732 F. DT-8752 G. DT-8753 H. DT-8765 I. DT-8783 IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 1-19 THROUGH 1-26, SELECT FROM FIGURE 1A THE DENTAL TECHNICIAN NEC THAT BEST DESCRIBES THE SKILLS GIVEN IN THE QUESTION. YOU WILL NOT USE ALL OF THE NEC’S IN FIGURE 1-A. Constructs ocular, extraoral, and intraoral prostheses. 1. H 2. G 3. F 4. D |
1. H DT-8765
|
|
A. DT-8700
B. DT-8707 C. DT-8703 D. DT-8708 E. DT-8732 F. DT-8752 G. DT-8753 H. DT-8765 I. DT-8783 IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 1-19 THROUGH 1-26, SELECT FROM FIGURE 1A THE DENTAL TECHNICIAN NEC THAT BEST DESCRIBES THE SKILLS GIVEN IN THE QUESTION. YOU WILL NOT USE ALL OF THE NEC’S IN FIGURE 1-A. Performs scaling and root planning. 1. A 2. C 3. D 4. G |
3. D DT-8708
|
|
A. DT-8700
B. DT-8707 C. DT-8703 D. DT-8708 E. DT-8732 F. DT-8752 G. DT-8753 H. DT-8765 I. DT-8783 IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 1-19 THROUGH 1-26, SELECT FROM FIGURE 1A THE DENTAL TECHNICIAN NEC THAT BEST DESCRIBES THE SKILLS GIVEN IN THE QUESTION. YOU WILL NOT USE ALL OF THE NEC’S IN FIGURE 1-A. Constructs complex and precision dental prostheses. 1. F 2. G 3. H 4. I |
1. F DT-8752
|
|
A. DT-8700
B. DT-8707 C. DT-8703 D. DT-8708 E. DT-8732 F. DT-8752 G. DT-8753 H. DT-8765 I. DT-8783 IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 1-19 THROUGH 1-26, SELECT FROM FIGURE 1A THE DENTAL TECHNICIAN NEC THAT BEST DESCRIBES THE SKILLS GIVEN IN THE QUESTION. YOU WILL NOT USE ALL OF THE NEC’S IN FIGURE 1-A. Handles the maintenance, repair, and installation of dental equipment and diagnostic services. 1. B 2. C 3. D 4. E |
4. E DT-8732
|
|
The efficient operation of a dental clinic depends on
its personnel and what other aspect? 1. Administrative support 2. Medical support 3. Maintenance 4. X-ray |
1. Administrative support
|
|
What is the most important aspect of dental care that
your patients receive? 1. Low-cost 2. Esthetics 3. Both 1 and 2 4. Quality |
4. Quality
|
|
What total number of factors are involved in a
patient contact point? 1. One 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four |
3. Three
|
|
Which of the following defmitions best defines a
patient that is dental phobic? 1. Enjoys the dentist and staff 2. Overwhelming feeling of panic and terror 3. Overwhelming feeling of joy and happiness 4. Enjoys the affects of local dental anesthesia |
2. Overwhelming feeling of panic and terror
|
|
Which of the following attributes are marks of an
outstanding Dental Technician? 1. Courteous 2. Efficient 3. Pays attention to detail 4. All of the above |
4. All of the above
|
|
Which department is directly responsible for the
image of the dental service provided? 1-33. 1. Front desk 2. Oral diagnosis 3. Operative 4. Surgical |
1. Front desk
|
|
When communicating with a patient, what type of
terms should you use? 1-34. 1. Technical 2. Medical 3. Dental 4. Laymen |
4. Laymen
|
|
Wincing of the eyes may indicate that a patient is
feeling which, if any, of the following responses? 1-35. 1. Comfortable 2. Uncomfortable 3. Needs a drink of water 4. None of the above |
2. Uncomfortable
|
|
A good rule is to try to answer the telephone by
which maximum number of rings? 1. One 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four |
3. Three
|
|
Which of the following information should you
never communicate over the telephone to a patient? 1. Clinic hours 2. Diagnosis 3. Prescription 4. Both 2 and 3 |
4. Both 2 and 3
|
|
A patient’s eligibility must be verified through
which of the following systems? 1. DEERS 2. DEARS 3. NEETS 4. DIRS |
1. DEERS
|
|
Which of the following type of treatment is
considered as routine dental care? 1. Orthodontics 2. Malocclusion 3. Oral bleeding 4. Dental examination |
4. Dental examination
|
|
Which of the following type of treatment is
considered as emergency dental care? 1. Removing stain 2. Relieving pain 3. Orthodontics 4. Dental exam |
2. Relieving pain
|
|
Which of the following type of treatment is
considered as elective dental care. 1. Removing stain 2. Relieving pain 3. Orthodontics 4. Dental exam |
3. Orthodontics
|
|
What priority category will family members of an
active duty member be placed on for treatment eligibility? 1. 1A 2. 2 3. 1B 4. 4 |
2. 2
|
|
Which of the following methods is often the best
use of treatment time? 1. Block 2. Fixed 3. Non-fixed 4. Increment |
4. Increment
|
|
When making a patient an appointment, where
should you first enter the information? 1. Appointment book 2. Appointment card 3. Patient’s record 4. Patient log |
1. Appointment book
|
|
Which NAVMED form is used to schedule dental
appointments? 1. 6600/5 2. 6600/2 3. 6600/3 4. 6600/4 |
1. 6600/5
|
|
Which NAVMED form is used as a dental
appointment card? 1. 6600/2 2. 6600/4 3. 6600/6 4. 6600/8 |
3. 6600/6
|
|
What type of list is used for patients requiring
extensive treatment? 1. Class three priority list 2. Patient three list 3. Patient call list 4. Both 2 and 3 |
3. Patient call list
|
|
The dental computerized recall system uses a
maximum of how many lists? 1. 3 2. 6 3. 9 4. 12 |
4. 12
|
|
Which of the following information does DENMIS
NOT have the capability to process? 1. Dental Workload reports 2. Provider NMIMC reports 3. Provider Treatment Time reports 4. Patient and Unit Dental Treatment Needs reports |
2. Provider NMIMC reports
|
|
The Daily DIRS record is designed to give providers
what type of a treatment record? 1. Monthly 2. Weekly 3. Bi-weekly 4. Daily |
4. Daily
|
|
BUMED Instruction 6300.10 is divided into how
many parts? 1. Five 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four |
3. Three
|
|
Which program allows patients to voice and
document how they are treated? 1. Patient Complaint 2. Patient Contact 3. Patient Survey 4. Patient Quality Assurance |
2. Patient Contact
|
|
Validated patient complaints and compliments are
incorporated into which of the command’s annual assessments? 1. Quality of Life 2. Quality of Care 3. Quality Insurance 4. Quality Assurance |
4. Quality Assurance
|
|
The new Dental Record Jacket is which of the
following NAVMED forms? 1. 6150/21-30 2. 6150/10-19 3. 6150/09-19 4. 6150/00-08 |
1. 6150/21-30
|
|
Which number of the SSN is preprinted on the
Dental Record Jacket? 1. Last 2. Second to last 3. Third to last 4. Fourth to last |
2. Second to last
|
|
A patient without an SSN will have which of the
following substitute SSN’s established if the birth date is August 11, 1959? 1. 000-08-1159 2. 001-08-1159 3. 800-59-1108 4. 800-08-1159 |
4. 800-08-1159
|
|
Which of the following FMP codes will be placed in
the two diamonds preceding the SSN for a retired member from the USN? 1. 01 2. 20 3. 30 4. 60 |
2. 20
|
|
Which of the following phrases is written in the
lower portion of the patient’s identification box for retired 0-7 and above personnel? 1. “VIP” 2. “ADMIRAL” 3. “FLAG/GENERAL OFFICER” 4. “ATTENTION ON DECK” |
3. “FLAG/GENERAL OFFICER”
|
|
Which of the following symbols and color of felt-tip
pen will be placed in the alert box if the patient has an allergy or sensitivity? 1. “A/S” Black 2. "X” Red 3. “A/S” Red 4. “X” Black |
2. "X” Red
|
|
Which, if any, of the following color felt-tip pen is
used to mark the annual verification section on the right-hand side of the jacket? 1. Red 2. Blue 3. Black 4. None of the above |
4. None of the above
|
|
The format printed on the inside of the jacket cover
should be completed in what type of writing utensil? 1. Pen 2. Pencil 3. Crayon 4. Magic marker |
2. Pencil
|
|
Where is the DD 2005, Privacy Act Statement
located in the NAVMED 6150/21-30? 1. Back cover 2. Back of front page 3. Back of center page 4. Front of center page |
4. Front of center page
|
|
Where is the Disclosure Accounting Record located
in the NAVMED 6150/21-30? 1. Back cover 2. Back of front page 3. Back of center page 4. Front of center page |
3. Back of center page
|
|
Where is the Forensic Examination form located in
the NAVMED 6150/21-30? 1. Inside back cover 2. Back of front page 3. Back of center page 4. Front of center page |
1. Inside back cover
|
|
What color of record category tape is used to
indicate active duty military? 1. Yellow 2. Green 3. Blue 4. Red |
3. Blue
|
|
What color of dental classification tape, if any, is
used to indicate a dental "class 3" on the NAVMED 6150-21/30? 1. Red 2. Green 3. Yellow 4. None |
4. None
|
|
All forms documenting patient care placed in the
NAVMED 6150-21/30 will contain which of the following patient information? 1. FMP and sponsor’s SSN 2. Name- last, first, middle initial 3. Sponsor’s branch of service and status 4. All of the above |
4. All of the above
|
|
Sequential bitewing radiographs should be filed in
which section of the NAVMED 6150/21-30? 1. Back of dental record jacket center page 2. Front of dental record jacket center page 3. Inside back cover of dental record jacket 4. Inside front cover of dental record jacket |
4. Inside front cover of dental record jacket
|
|
Dental Exam Forms and EZ 603s should be filed in
which section of the NAVMED 6150/21-30? 1. Back of dental record jacket center page 2. Front of dental record jacket center page 3. Inside back cover of dental record jacket 4. Inside front cover of dental record jacket |
2. Front of dental record jacket center page
|
|
The most current Dental Treatment Form, EZ603A
is filed in which section of the NAVMED 6150/21- 30? 1. Back of dental record jacket center page 2. Front of dental record jacket center page 3. Inside back cover of dental record jacket 4. Inside front cover of dental record jacket |
3. Inside back cover of dental record jacket
|
|
The NAVMED 6600/3 is filed in which section of
the NAVMED 6150/21-30? 1. Back of dental record jacket center page 2. Front of dental record jacket center page 3. Inside back cover of dental record jacket 4. Inside front cover of dental record jacket |
2. Front of dental record jacket center page
|
|
When using the terminal digit filing system, how
many equal sections are the central files divided into? 1. 100 2. 200 3. 300 4. 50 |
1. 100
|
|
Which of the following NAVMED Forms is the
Health Record Receipt? 1. 6150/1 2. 6150/6 3. 6150/7 4. 6150/8 |
3. 6150/7
|
|
The Request for a Medical/Dental Record
Information Form is identified by which of the following DD numbers? 1. 778 2. 878 3. 978 4. 877 |
4. 877
|
|
What is the maximum time allowed for the
retention of loose treatment forms? 1. 3 months 2. 6 months 3. 1 year 4. 2 years |
3. 1 year
|
|
Bone is composed of which of the following
elements? 1. Organic only 2. Inorganic only 3. Both 1 and 2 above 4. Ethmoid |
3. Both 1 and 2 above
|
|
The inner spongy, porous portion of bone is referred
to as what type of bone? 1. Cortical 2. Compact 3. Connective 4. Cancellous |
4. Cancellous
|
|
The thin layered connective tissue that surrounds
each bone and provides nourishment through many vascular vessels is referred to as what type of bone? 1. Cartilage 2. Periosteum 3. Inner mucosa 4. Cartilaginous |
2. Periosteum
|
|
The cranium is formed by how many cranial bones?
1. 8 2. 6 3. 3 4. 28 |
4. 28
|
|
A. Frontal Bone
B. Parietal Bones C. Temporal Bones D. Occipital Bone E. Sphenoid Bone F. Ethmoid Bone IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 2-5 THROUGH 2-10, SELECT FROM FIGURE 2A THE CRANIAL BONE(S) THAT BEST DESCRIBES THE INFORMATION GIVEN IN THE QUESTION. USE EACH ANSWER ONLY ONCE. This bone is shaped like a wing. |
E. Sphenoid Bone
|
|
A. Frontal Bone
B. Parietal Bones C. Temporal Bones D. Occipital Bone E. Sphenoid Bone F. Ethmoid Bone IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 2-5 THROUGH 2-10, SELECT FROM FIGURE 2A THE CRANIAL BONE(S) THAT BEST DESCRIBES THE INFORMATION GIVEN IN THE QUESTION. USE EACH ANSWER ONLY ONCE. These bone(s) has/have four borders and is/are shaped like a curved plate. |
B. Parietal Bones
|
|
A. Frontal Bone
B. Parietal Bones C. Temporal Bones D. Occipital Bone E. Sphenoid Bone F. Ethmoid Bone IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 2-5 THROUGH 2-10, SELECT FROM FIGURE 2A THE CRANIAL BONE(S) THAT BEST DESCRIBES THE INFORMATION GIVEN IN THE QUESTION. USE EACH ANSWER ONLY ONCE. This bone has small openings through which nerves pass to the roof of the mouth. |
F. Ethmoid Bone
|
|
A. Frontal Bone
B. Parietal Bones C. Temporal Bones D. Occipital Bone E. Sphenoid Bone F. Ethmoid Bone IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 2-5 THROUGH 2-10, SELECT FROM FIGURE 2A THE CRANIAL BONE(S) THAT BEST DESCRIBES THE INFORMATION GIVEN IN THE QUESTION. USE EACH ANSWER ONLY ONCE. This bone has a large opening called the foramen magnum. |
D. Occipital Bone
|
|
A. Frontal Bone
B. Parietal Bones C. Temporal Bones D. Occipital Bone E. Sphenoid Bone F. Ethmoid Bone IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 2-5 THROUGH 2-10, SELECT FROM FIGURE 2A THE CRANIAL BONE(S) THAT BEST DESCRIBES THE INFORMATION GIVEN IN THE QUESTION. USE EACH ANSWER ONLY ONCE. By the time a child reaches 5 or 6 years of age, this bone has usually fused together. |
A. Frontal Bone
|
|
A. Frontal Bone
B. Parietal Bones C. Temporal Bones D. Occipital Bone E. Sphenoid Bone F. Ethmoid Bone IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 2-5 THROUGH 2-10, SELECT FROM FIGURE 2A THE CRANIAL BONE(S) THAT BEST DESCRIBES THE INFORMATION GIVEN IN THE QUESTION. USE EACH ANSWER ONLY ONCE. The internal ear structures are enclosed by these bone(s). |
C. Temporal Bones
|
|
The facial skeleton is made up of how many
stationary bones including the mandible? 1. 7 2. 15 3. 22 4. 28 |
2. 15
|
|
A. Maxille bones
B. Palatine bones C. Zygomatic bones D. Lacrimal bones E. Nasal bones F. Vomer bone G. Mandible IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 2-12 THROUGH 2-18, SELECT FROM FIGURE 2-B, THE BONE(S) OF THE FACE THAT BEST DESCRIBES THE INFORMATION GIVEN IN THE QUESTION. USE EACH ANSWER ONLY ONCE. These bones form the cheek bones, and help form the sides and floor of the orbits. |
C. Zygomatic bones
|
|
A. Maxille bones
B. Palatine bones C. Zygomatic bones D. Lacrimal bones E. Nasal bones F. Vomer bone G. Mandible IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 2-12 THROUGH 2-18, SELECT FROM FIGURE 2-B, THE BONE(S) OF THE FACE THAT BEST DESCRIBES THE INFORMATION GIVEN IN THE QUESTION. USE EACH ANSWER ONLY ONCE. The smallest and most fragile of the cranial bones. |
D. Lacrimal bones
|
|
A. Maxille bones
B. Palatine bones C. Zygomatic bones D. Lacrimal bones E. Nasal bones F. Vomer bone G. Mandible IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 2-12 THROUGH 2-18, SELECT FROM FIGURE 2-B, THE BONE(S) OF THE FACE THAT BEST DESCRIBES THE INFORMATION GIVEN IN THE QUESTION. USE EACH ANSWER ONLY ONCE. The only movable bone in the skull. |
G. Mandible
|
|
A. Maxille bones
B. Palatine bones C. Zygomatic bones D. Lacrimal bones E. Nasal bones F. Vomer bone G. Mandible IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 2-12 THROUGH 2-18, SELECT FROM FIGURE 2-B, THE BONE(S) OF THE FACE THAT BEST DESCRIBES THE INFORMATION GIVEN IN THE QUESTION. USE EACH ANSWER ONLY ONCE. The bones are somewhat L-shaped. |
B. Palatine bones
|
|
A. Maxille bones
B. Palatine bones C. Zygomatic bones D. Lacrimal bones E. Nasal bones F. Vomer bone G. Mandible IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 2-12 THROUGH 2-18, SELECT FROM FIGURE 2-B, THE BONE(S) OF THE FACE THAT BEST DESCRIBES THE INFORMATION GIVEN IN THE QUESTION. USE EACH ANSWER ONLY ONCE. Small oblong bones, somewhat rectangular in shape. |
E. Nasal bones
|
|
A. Maxille bones
B. Palatine bones C. Zygomatic bones D. Lacrimal bones E. Nasal bones F. Vomer bone G. Mandible IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 2-12 THROUGH 2-18, SELECT FROM FIGURE 2-B, THE BONE(S) OF THE FACE THAT BEST DESCRIBES THE INFORMATION GIVEN IN THE QUESTION. USE EACH ANSWER ONLY ONCE. Consists of a body and four processes. |
A. Maxille bones
|
|
A. Maxille bones
B. Palatine bones C. Zygomatic bones D. Lacrimal bones E. Nasal bones F. Vomer bone G. Mandible IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 2-12 THROUGH 2-18, SELECT FROM FIGURE 2-B, THE BONE(S) OF THE FACE THAT BEST DESCRIBES THE INFORMATION GIVEN IN THE QUESTION. USE EACH ANSWER ONLY ONCE. Connects with the ethmoid bone and together they form the nasal septum. |
F. Vomer bone
|
|
The process that is located posterior on the ramus
and forms the head of the mandible is known by which of the following terms? 1. Palatine 2. Coronoid 3. Condyloid 4. Alveolar |
3. Condyloid
|
|
A dentist will use anesthetic to block nerve impulses
of the mandibular teeth in which of the following areas? 1. Mental protuberance 2. Mandibular foramen 3. Maxillary foramen 4. Zygomatic foramen |
2. Mandibular foramen
|
|
What process helps lift the mandible to close the
mouth? 1. Palatine 2. Coronoid 3. Condyloid 4. Alveolar |
2. Coronoid
|
|
How many small bones are located in each middle
ear? 1. One 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four |
3. Three
|
|
What oval depression in the temporal bone
articulates with the mandibular condyle? 1. Glenoid fossa 2. Temporal fossa 3. Coronoid eminence 4. Articular eminence |
1. Glenoid fossa
|
|
When you are smiling, what muscle raises the
comer of the mouth? 1. Zygomaticus major 2. Zygomaticus minor 3. Buccinator 4. Mentalis |
1. Zygomaticus major
|
|
How many pairs of muscles in the mandible make
chewing movements possible? 1. One 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four |
4. Four
|
|
The moist inner lining of the side walls of the mouth
is known by which of the following terms? 1. Fat tissue 2. Papillae 3. Mucosa 4. TMJ |
3. Mucosa
|
|
In what area of the external lips does the red mucous
membrane end and the normal outside skin of the face begin? 1. Lip border 2. Lip point 3. Vermilion border 4. Orbicularis oris |
3. Vermilion border
|
|
What are the rough projections on the surface of the
tongue called? 1. Taste buds 2. Papillae 3. Fissures 4. Warts |
2. Papillae
|
|
Where are the taste buds located?
1. Cheeks 2. Tongue only 3. Roof of the mouth only 4. Both 2 and 3 above |
4. Both 2 and 3 above
|
|
What muscles elevate the tongue and depress the
mandible? 1. Mylohyoid 2. Temporalis 3. Medial pterygoid 4. Lateral pterygoid |
1. Mylohyoid
|
|
What is the name of irregular ridges or folds that are
located behind the central incisors? 1. Skin tags 2. Palate 3. Pugae 4. Rugae |
4. Rugae
|
|
How many pints of saliva do the salivary glands
produce on a daily basis? 1. One to four 2. Two to three 3. Two to four 4. Six to eight |
2. Two to three
|
|
How many phases is deglutition divided into?
1. One 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four |
3. Three
|
|
When teeth are in the odontogenesis phase, every
tooth goes through how many developmental processes? 1. One 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four |
3. Three
|
|
Dental development usually begins in which of the
following weeks of prenatal life? 1. Fourth 2. Fifth only 3. Sixth only 4. Either 2 and 3 |
4. Either 2 and 3
|
|
How many total tooth buds are present in a prenatal
maxillary and mandibular arch? 1. 32 2. 20 3. 15 4. 10 |
4. 10
|
|
What is the name of the last period of tooth growth?
1. Histodifferentiation 2. Morphodifferentiation only 3. Eruptodifferentiation only 4. Both 2 and 3 above |
1. Histodifferentiation
|
|
How many years does it take permanent teeth to
emerge after crown completion? 1. One 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four |
3. Three
|
|
When primary teeth get ready to fall out and make
way for the eruption of permanent teeth, what is the name of the process? 1. Exposure 2. Histology 3. Infoliation 4. Exfoliation |
4. Exfoliation
|
|
The part of the crown that is visible in the mouth is
known by which of the following terms? 1. Clinical crown 2. Clinical tooth 3. Clinical enamel 4. Clinical exposure |
1. Clinical crown
|
|
What is the name of the region where the roots
separate? 1. Apex 2. Furcation 3. Bifurcated 4. Trifurcated |
2. Furcation
|
|
The tip of each root is known by which of the
following terms? 1. End 2. Arch 3. Angle 4. Apex |
4. Apex
|
|
When there is a slight indentation that encircles the
tooth and marks the junction of the crown with the root, it is known by which of the following terms? 1. Bifurcation 2. Cervical line 3. Clinical line 4. Junction line |
2. Cervical line
|
|
Enamel is formed by what type of epithelial ceils?
1. Cementoblast 2. Enamelblasts 3. Odontoblasts 4. Ameloblasts |
4. Ameloblasts
|
|
What is the name of the junction where the
cementum joins the enamel? 1. Cementoenamel 2. Dentinoenamal 3. Petticoat 4. Enamel |
2. Dentinoenamal
|
|
What is the chief function of the pulp?
1. Provides feeling to the tooth 2. Formation of cementum 3. Formation of dentin 4. Formation of enamel |
3. Formation of dentin
|
|
What is the name of the process where the bony
portion of the maxilla and mandible teeth are embedded? 1. Alveolar 2. Alveolus 3. Socket 4. Root |
1. Alveolar
|
|
When viewed by a radiograph, trabecular bone will
have what type of an appearance? 1. Spongy-like 2. Wavy-like 3. Plate-like 4. Web-like |
4. Web-like
|
|
A tooth is suspended in its socket by what ligament?
1. Lamina dura 2. Masticatory 3. Periodontal 4. Alveolar |
3. Periodontal
|
|
The oral mucosa consists of how many total types of
mucosa? 1. One 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four |
3. Three
|
|
The hard palate is covered with what type of
mucosa? 1. Masticatory 2. Specialized 3. Lining 4. Rugae |
1. Masticatory
|
|
What is the name of the term that is given to the
portion of gingiva that extends from the gingival crest to the crest of the bone? 1. Gingival margin 2. Unattached gingiva 3. Attached gingiva 4. Gingival sulcus |
2. Unattached gingiva
|
|
What area is the first to show symptoms of
gingivitis? 1. Interdental papilla 2. Muco-gingival junction 3. Epithelial attachment 4. Gingival margin |
4. Gingival margin
|
|
What area helps prevent food from packing between
the teeth? 1. Interdental papilla 2. Muco-gingival junction 3. Epithelial attachment 4. Gingival margin |
1. Interdental papilla
|
|
What type of tissue is found on the inside of the lips,
cheeks, vestibule, soft palate, and under the tongue? 1. Lining mucosa 2. Inter mucosa 3. Soft mucosa 4. Gingiva |
1. Lining mucosa
|
|
Which of the following reasons is/are teeth formed?
1. Cutting 2. Tearing 3. Grinding 4. All of the above |
4. All of the above
|
|
What type of shape does the lingual surface of an
incisor have? 1. Axe 2. Rake 3. Shovel 4. Angled |
3. Shovel
|
|
Cuspids are designed to perform what type of
function? 1. Cutting and tearing 2. Cutting and grinding 3. Crushing and holding 4. Grinding and chewing |
1. Cutting and tearing
|
|
Each molar has what maximum amount of cusps?
1. Six 2. Five 3. Four 4. Three |
2. Five
|
|
How many dental quadrants are in the mouth?
1. One 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four |
4. Four
|
|
How many primary teeth are there in a normal
deciduous mouth? 1. 32 2. 20 3. 16 4. 12 |
2. 20
|
|
Primary teeth are identified by which letters of the
alphabet? 1. A to W 2. A to V 3. A to U 4. A to T |
4. A to T
|
|
What is the name of the system that is used by the
armed forces to identify teeth? 1. Universal location 2. Universal positioning 3. Universal numbering 4. Universal selection |
3. Universal numbering
|
|
A tooth has how many total proximal surfaces?
1. One 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four |
2. Two
|
|
The mesial surface of a tooth is located in which
area? 1. Closest to the midline of the arch 2. Toward the cheeks 3. Toward the tongue 4. Away from the midline of the arch |
1. Closest to the midline of the arch
|
|
The distal surface of a tooth is located in which
area? 1. Closest to the midline of the arch 2. Toward the cheeks 3. Toward the tongue 4. Away from the midline of the arch |
4. Away from the midline of the arch
|
|
The inter-proximal space is occupied by what type of
anatomy? 1. Embrasure 2. Interdental klingons 3. Interdental papilla 4. Interdental contact |
3. Interdental papilla
|
|
The anteroposterior curve is referred to by what
term? 1. Curve of Koffax 2. Curve of Wilson 3. Curve of Splee 4. Curve of Spee |
4. Curve of Spee
|
|
If a patient’s profile is characterized as normal,
he/she will be what class according to Dr. Angle? 1. I 2. II 3. III 4. IV |
1. I
|
|
The mesial margin of a maxillary central incisor
meets the incisal edge at almost what degree angle? 1. 30 2. 90 3. 110 4. 180 |
2. 90
|
|
What are the first permanent teeth to erupt?
1. Maxillary lateral incisors 2. Maxillary central incisors 3. Mandibular lateral incisors 4. Mandibular central incisors |
4. Mandibular central incisors
|
|
What is the term used to describe the appearance of
a mandibular first bicuspid? 1. Bell-ringer 2. Bell-crowned 3. Bell-cusp 4. Bell-shaped |
2. Bell-crowned
|
|
What tooth will have a fifth cusp on it?
1. Maxillary first molar 2. Maxillary second molar 3. Mandibular first molar 4. Mandibular second molar |
1. Maxillary first molar
|
|
What is the name of the dental anatomy that has
small, rounded projections of enamel from the incisal edges of newly erupted anterior teeth? 1. Oblique ridge 2. Cusp ridge 3. Groove 4. Mamelons |
4. Mamelons
|
|
What dental anatomy has a rounded or angular
depression of varying sizes found on the surface of a tooth? 1. Groove 2. Fossa 3. Cusp 4. Pit |
2. Fossa
|
|
Which of the following conditions does the science
of Oral Pathology NOT treat? 1. Nature of the disease 2. Surgical procedures 3. Causes of the disease 4. Development of the disease |
3. Causes of the disease
|
|
Who is responsible for informing a patient when an
oral disease is found? 1. Dental technician (basic) 2. Dental technician (advanced) only 3. Dental officer only 4. Both 2 and 3 above |
3. Dental officer only
|
|
When do congenital anomalies occur?
1. At death 2. After birth 3. During birth 4. Before birth |
4. Before birth
|
|
When do acquired anomalies occur?
1. At death 2. After birth 3. During birth 4. Before birth |
2. After birth
|
|
About how many milliliters (ml) of saliva do the
salivary glands secrete on a daily basis? 1. 150 2. 750 3. 1500 4. 1750 |
3. 1500
|
|
A. Abscess
B. Cyst C. Ulcers D. Vesicles E. Hematoma F. Petechiae G. Ecchymoses IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 3-6 THROUGH 3-12, SELECT FROM FIGURE 3A THE ORAL LESION THAT BEST DESCRIBES THE INFORMATION GIVEN IN THE QUESTION. USE EACH ANSWER ONLY ONCE. A round pinpoint, nonraised, lesion with purplish-red spots. |
F. Petechiae
|
|
A. Abscess
B. Cyst C. Ulcers D. Vesicles E. Hematoma F. Petechiae G. Ecchymoses IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 3-6 THROUGH 3-12, SELECT FROM FIGURE 3A THE ORAL LESION THAT BEST DESCRIBES THE INFORMATION GIVEN IN THE QUESTION. USE EACH ANSWER ONLY ONCE. An enclosed pouch or sac that contains fluid or semisolid material. |
B. Cyst
|
|
A. Abscess
B. Cyst C. Ulcers D. Vesicles E. Hematoma F. Petechiae G. Ecchymoses IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 3-6 THROUGH 3-12, SELECT FROM FIGURE 3A THE ORAL LESION THAT BEST DESCRIBES THE INFORMATION GIVEN IN THE QUESTION. USE EACH ANSWER ONLY ONCE. A localized collection of blood that escaped from blood vessels because of trauma. |
E. Hematoma
|
|
A. Abscess
B. Cyst C. Ulcers D. Vesicles E. Hematoma F. Petechiae G. Ecchymoses IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 3-6 THROUGH 3-12, SELECT FROM FIGURE 3A THE ORAL LESION THAT BEST DESCRIBES THE INFORMATION GIVEN IN THE QUESTION. USE EACH ANSWER ONLY ONCE. A small elevation that contains fluid. |
D. Vesicles
|
|
A. Abscess
B. Cyst C. Ulcers D. Vesicles E. Hematoma F. Petechiae G. Ecchymoses IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 3-6 THROUGH 3-12, SELECT FROM FIGURE 3A THE ORAL LESION THAT BEST DESCRIBES THE INFORMATION GIVEN IN THE QUESTION. USE EACH ANSWER ONLY ONCE. May be caused by biting, denture irritation, toothbrush injury, viruses, or other irritants. |
C. Ulcers
|
|
A. Abscess
B. Cyst C. Ulcers D. Vesicles E. Hematoma F. Petechiae G. Ecchymoses IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 3-6 THROUGH 3-12, SELECT FROM FIGURE 3A THE ORAL LESION THAT BEST DESCRIBES THE INFORMATION GIVEN IN THE QUESTION. USE EACH ANSWER ONLY ONCE. Large, purplish-red areas caused by blood under the skin or mucosa. |
G. Ecchymoses
|
|
A. Abscess
B. Cyst C. Ulcers D. Vesicles E. Hematoma F. Petechiae G. Ecchymoses IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 3-6 THROUGH 3-12, SELECT FROM FIGURE 3A THE ORAL LESION THAT BEST DESCRIBES THE INFORMATION GIVEN IN THE QUESTION. USE EACH ANSWER ONLY ONCE. Commonly caused by a bacterial infection. |
A. Abscess
|
|
What condition must exist for an impaction to
occur? 1. Missing deciduous teeth 2. Abnormal position 3. Physical barrier 4. All of the above |
4. All of the above
|
|
Which of the following conditions causes attrition?
1. Breakdown of enamel, dentin, and cementum 2. Wear involving teeth against teeth 3. Large tooth crowns 4. Bulimia |
2. Wear involving teeth against teeth
|
|
When a dental caries first appears on enamel, what
is the appearance? 1. A chalky white spot 2. A small brown spot 3. A hollowed out hole 4. All of the above |
1. A chalky white spot
|
|
Recurrent carries will occur in a tooth in which of
the following circumstances? 1. Trapped air pockets 2. Sealed margins 3. Leaky margins 4. All of the above |
3. Leaky margins
|
|
Pit and fissure caries develop in what area of a
tooth? 1. Depressions 2. Pulp chamber 3. Smooth surfaces 4. Proximal surfaces |
1. Depressions
|
|
Smooth surface caries develop in what area of a
tooth? 1. Depressions 2. Pulp chamber 3. Incisal third 4. Proximal surfaces |
4. Proximal surfaces
|
|
Pulpalgia commonly occurs after which of the
following procedures has been performed on a tooth? 1. Extraction 2. After a restoration 3. Before a restoration 4. After placement of gutta-percha |
2. After a restoration
|
|
Which of the following definitions best describes
pulpitis? 1. Restoration of the dental pulp 2. Inflammation of the restoration 3. Inflammation of the dental pulp 4. Periapical abscess of the dental pulp |
3. Inflammation of the dental pulp
|
|
If a periapical abscess is left untreated, in what area
of a tooth will bone loss occur? 1. Apex 2. Pulp only 3. Crown only 4. Both 2 and 3 above |
1. Apex
|
|
Dead pulpal tissue will decompose and produce
which of the following results? 1. Secondary dentin 2. Secondary pulp tissue 3. Toxins 4. Fistula |
3. Toxins
|
|
What chronic disease is the most prevalent in
mankind? 1. Periapical 2. Periodontal 3. AIDS 4. HIV |
2. Periodontal
|
|
Marginal gingivitis usually starts in which of the
following areas? 1. Sulcus 2. Front teeth 3. Periodontal pockets 4. Tips of the papillae |
4. Tips of the papillae
|
|
The ulceration of the gingival crest in ANUG results
in what type of an appearance? 1. Punched-out 2. Stippling 3. Swollen 4. Torn |
1. Punched-out
|
|
When periodontitis progresses, the gingival tissues
will appear as what color? 1. Dark red 2. Bluish red 3. Bluish yellow 4. Grayish white |
2. Bluish red
|
|
During pocket formation, what type of projections
of calculus form between the teeth? 1. Shelf-like 2. Bone-like 3. Crystal-like 4. Smooth-like |
1. Shelf-like
|
|
The gingiva surrounding a periodontal abscess will
have which of the following appearances? 1. Red and hard 2. Hollow and swollen 3. Bleeding and swollen 4. Inflamed and swollen |
4. Inflamed and swollen
|
|
Recurrent aphthous stomatitis are what type of
lesion? 1. Ulcers 2. Abscess 3. Blisters 4. Neoplasms |
1. Ulcers
|
|
What type of the herpes simplex virus is most
commonly diagnosed in oral pathology? 1. HSV-1 2. HSV-2 3. HSV-3 4. HSV-4 |
1. HSV-1
|
|
Recurrent herpes simplex lesions that affect routine
dental treatment should be rescheduled for what period of time? 1. 2-3 days 2. 3-6 days 3. After the active phase 4. Before the active phase |
3. After the active phase
|
|
Which of the following oral manifestations are signs
of HIV infection? 1. Candidiasis 2. Hairy leukoplakia 3. Kaposi’s sarcoma 4. All of the above |
4. All of the above
|
|
What are the two types of neoplasms that can be
diagnosed in oral cancer? 1. Neo-carcinoma and malignant 2. Benign and malignant 3. Benign and neo-carcinoma 4. HSV-1 and HSV-2 |
2. Benign and malignant
|
|
The growth or spread of malignant tumors from one
area to another is known by which of the following conditions? 1. Transdermal 2. Transfusion 3. Transferism 4. Metastasis |
4. Metastasis
|
|
The area where the user of smokeless tobacco
develops an oral precancerous lesions is defined as what type of pathology? 1. Sportsman ‘s dipper keratosis 2. Snuff-dipper’s keratosis 3. Farmers lesions 4. Leuko-keratosis |
2. Snuff-dipper’s keratosis
|
|
A Dental Technician may provide temporary
emergency dental treatment under which of the following conditions? 1. To combat infection 2. To provide relief from pain 3. To prevent further damage to oral structures 4. All of the. above |
4. All of the. above
|
|
If a patient reports to the dental clinic after hours
with a toothache and you are the duty Dental Technician, which of the following steps should you first take? 1. Give them 2 aspirins and schedule a sick call appointment for the next day 2. Notify the duty dental officer 3. Notify the duty medical officer 4. Place a temporary filling, check the occlusion, and make an appointment for the patient |
2. Notify the duty dental officer
|
|
Which of the following choices best describes a
symptom? 1. You observe bleeding gums 2. You observe a fractured tooth 3. The patient informs you of a toothache 4. Both 2 and 3 above |
3. The patient informs you of a toothache
|
|
Which of the following choices best describes a
sign? 1. You observe a large hole in a patient’s tooth 2. Patient tells you he/she chewed a piece of ice 3. Patient tells you he/she has the filling in their 4. Patient tells you he/she has been in pain for 2 weeks |
1. You observe a large hole in a patient’s tooth
|
|
When pain from an affected tooth manifest to a
heathy, non-involved tooth, what is the condition called? 1. Referral symptom 2. Referred pain 3. Pain manifesto 4. TMJ |
2. Referred pain
|
|
Which of the following conditions exist if a patient
is experiencing pain caused by the pressure of fluid building up inside the pulp chamber? 1. Periodontal abscess 2. Periodontitis 3. Acute pulpitis 4. Pericoronitis |
3. Acute pulpitis
|
|
When performing an emergency treatment for a
periapical abscess, what instrument, if any, will you use to drain the abscess? 1. Bard Parker and #15 blade 2. Explorer 3. Syringe 4. None of the above |
2. Explorer
|
|
What type of inflammation is present in marginal
gingivitis? 1. Cratered 2. Severe 3. Oozing 4. Mild |
4. Mild
|
|
Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis is commonly
referred to by what term? 1. Trenchcoat 2. Trenchmouth 3. Foul mouth syndrome 4. Glowing gums syndrome |
1. Trenchcoat
|
|
What colored membrane will be covering the
gingiva if a patient has NUG? 1. Bluish-grey 2. Reddish-white 3. Bluish-white 4. Gray-white |
4. Gray-white
|
|
Periodontitis usually results from what untreated
condition? 1. Marginal gingivitis 2. Congenital birth defect 3. Juvenile periodontitis 4. Periodontal syndrome |
1. Marginal gingivitis
|
|
What is the correct emergency treatment for a
periodontal abscess? 1. Irrigate affected area with a 3-way syringe 2. Use a soft-bristled toothbrush and angle the bristles on the affected area using the “Bass Technique 3. Gently probe the affected area with a scaler to establish drainage 4. Use an explorerand puncture the most raised portion of the abscess to express the pus |
3. Gently probe the affected area with a scaler to
establish drainage |
|
Which of the following solutions should you use to
irrigate the tissue flap if a patient has pericoronitis? 1. Glycerite of iodine 2. Warm saline solution 3. Hydrogen peroxide 4. Flap conditioner |
2. Warm saline solution
|
|
What are the two common types of stomatitis found
in the oral mucosa? 1. Genital herpes and aphthous 2. HIV and aphthous 3. Herpetic and cold sores 4. Herpetic and aphthous |
4. Herpetic and aphthous
|
|
Bleeding from an extraction site is referred to by
which of the following terms? 1. Postextraction alveolar osteitis 2. Postextraction hemorrhage 3. Postbledding hemorrhage 4. Postsocket hemorrhage |
2. Postextraction hemorrhage
|
|
Postextraction alveolar osteitis is a condition
commonly referred to by what term? 1. Dry socket 2. Dry tooth 3. Dry clot 4. Dry hole |
1. Dry socket
|
|
To treat post extraction alveolar osteitis, what type
of dental material do you place in a tooth socket? 1. 2 x 2 gauze pad with eugenol 2. Penrose drain with eugenol 3. Iodoform gauze with eugenol 4. Cottonballs with eugenol |
3. Iodoform gauze with eugenol
|
|
Tooth fractures are classified into how many
different types? 1. One 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four |
4. Four
|
|
Fractured teeth can involve which of the following
parts of a tooth? 1. Enamel and dentin only 2. Enamel, dentin, and pulp only 3. Enamel, dentin, pulp, and root 4. Enamel, dentin, and cementum only |
3. Enamel, dentin, pulp, and root
|
|
With which of the following dental materials will
you use to treat a Type I fracture? 1. Cavity varnish 2. Temporary splint 3. Temporary crown form 4. Zinc oxide and eugenol |
1. Cavity varnish
|
|
A Type II fracture involves an exposure of the pulp.
1. True 2. False |
2. False, Enamel and Dentin only
|
|
Dental Technicians who provide emergency
treatment of a fractured mandible will use which of the following materials? 1. Arch bars and wires only 2. Dental splints only 3. Both 1 and 2 above 4. Elastic bandage |
4. Elastic bandage
|
|
Pharmacology is a basic medical science that deals
with the study of which specialty? 1. Drugs 2. Diseases 3. Compounds 4. Pharmacy operations |
1. Drugs
|
|
What chapter of The Manual of the Medical
Department gives guidance on pharmacy operation and drug control? 1. 6 2. 9 3. 15 4. 21 |
4. 21
|
|
The amount of a medication administered is referred
to as which of the following units? 1. Pill 2. Dose 3. Unit amount 4. Average amount |
2. Dose
|
|
Which of the following units refers to the amount of
medication given to a normal adult? 1. Therapeutic amount 2. Therapeutic unit only 3. Therapeutic dose only 4. Both 2 and 3 above |
3. Therapeutic dose only
|
|
The minimum and maximum amount of a drug
required to produce the desired effect is referred to by what term? 1. Dosage factor 2. Dosage range 3. Dosage drug 4. Dosage age |
2. Dosage range
|
|
What dose refers to the least amount of a drug that
can cause death? 1. Toxic 2. Minimum toxic 3. Minimum lethal 4. Maximum lethal |
4. Maximum lethal
|
|
What dose refers to the amount of a drug that will
produce symptoms of poisoning? 1. Toxic 2. Minimum toxic 3. Minimum lethal 4. Maximum lethal |
1. Toxic
|
|
What two primary factors, if any, determine a dose?
1. Sex and age 2. Age and weight 3. Weight and sex 4. None |
2. Age and weight
|
|
How are parenteral medications introduced?
1. Orally 2. Parents 3. Topically 4. Injection |
4. Injection
|
|
What technique is the most effective means to achieve
anesthesia of the mandibular teeth? 1. Apex 2. Nerve 3. Block 4. Ligament |
3. Block
|
|
What technique introduces a drug directly into a vein?
1. Intravenous 2. Infiltration 3. Brachial ligament 4. Periodontal ligament |
1. Intravenous
|
|
What injection technique places the needle and
anesthetic along the side of a tooth? 1. Parallel 2. Side by side 3. Periapical ligament 4. Periodontal ligament |
4. Periodontal ligament
|
|
What technique is commonly used to anesthetize
maxillary teeth? 1. Block 2. Intravenous 3. Infiltration 4. Periodontal ligament |
3. Infiltration
|
|
What term is used to define medication that is placed
under the tongue? 1. Submandibular 2. Sublingual 3. Subcavity 4. Suboral |
2. Sublingual
|
|
In what form are medications introduced into the
body through inhalation? 1. Gas 2. Oral 3. Topical 4. All of the above |
1. Gas
|
|
Drugs are classified into which of the following
categories? 1. Chemical, biological, and therapeutic 2. Therapeutic, scientific, chemical, and scheduled 3. General, and therapeutic 4. Chemical, general, and therapeutic |
4. Chemical, general, and therapeutic
|
|
What type of prescription drugs have the potential for
abuse? 1. Noncontrolled 2. Controlled 3. Schedule 6 4. All of the above |
2. Controlled
|
|
Under which of the following schedule of substances
must ethyl alcohol be received, accounted, and dispensed? 1. I 2. II 3. III 4. VI |
2. II
|
|
Normally, how many names do drugs have?
1. One 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four |
3. Three
|
|
Which of the following emollients is used as a
lubricant in rubber dam procedures? 1. Cocoa butter 2. Petrolatum 3. Oral jelly 4. Dam jelly |
1. Cocoa butter
|
|
Which of the following drugs will a patient with a
heart murmur receive before and after a dental appointment? 1. Antibiotic 2. Vasodilator 3. Vasoconstrictor 4. Anti-inflammatory |
1. Antibiotic
|
|
What antibiotic may produce discoloration of the
teeth to children and pregnant women? 1. Cephalosporin 2. Penicillin 3. Tetracycline 4. Erythromycin |
3. Tetracycline
|
|
Aspirin provides which of the following effects?
1. Analgesic 2. Antipyretic 3. Anti-inflammatory 4. All of the above |
4. All of the above
|
|
Ibuprofen should not be given to patients in which of
the following trimesters of pregnancy? 1. First 2. Second 3. Third 4. All of the above |
3. Third
|
|
Codeine sulfate has which of the following analgesic
powers of morphine? 1. One-sixth 2. Two-sixth 3. Three-fourth 4. Three-sixth |
1. One-sixth
|
|
Which of the following drugs is used in some dental
anesthetics? 1. Anticoagulants 2. Vasoconstrictors 3. Anticonstrictors 4. Meperidine hydrochloride |
4. Meperidine hydrochloride (AKA Demerol)
|
|
What percent of nitrous oxide to oxygen mixture is
used in inhalation sedation? 1. 10/60 2. 20/60 3. 40/60 4. 60/40 |
3. 40/60
|
|
What are the two categories of chemically classified
local anesthetic solutions? 1. Amides and topical 2. Topical and esters 3. Ammos and esters 4. Amides and esters |
4. Amides and esters
|
|
What maximum amount of minutes will 2% lidocaine
hydrochloride provide complete anesthetic for an area of the mouth being treated? 1. 120 2. 90 3. 45 4. 15 |
2. 90
|
|
After application, what is the minimum and
maximum amount of minutes recommended for topical anesthetic to reach its full effectiveness? 1. One to two 2. One to three 3. One to five 4. Five to ten |
3. One to five
|
|
The use of topical spray and liquid anesthetics is--
useful for patients with which of the following conditions? 1. Cardiac 2. Stuttering 3. Drug allergies 4. Gag reflex |
4. Gag reflex
|
|
What type of drug reduces a patient’s salivary flow?
4-33. What DD form is used to prescribe controlled and noncontrolled drugs? 4-34. When using special labels on drugs and medications, what color should the information on the caution warning be? 1. Black and white 2. Black and red 3. Yellow 4. Red 4-35. Part of maintaining a healthy lifestyle starts with which of the following choices? 4-36. Which of the following statements best defines an essential nutrient? 1. 10% of U.S. Recommended Dietary Allowance 2. Used to build strong bones and teeth 3. Must be provided by vitamins because the body cannot synthesize it 4. Must be provided by food because the body cannot synthesize it 1. Antisialagogues 2. Antianesthetics 3. Antivasodilators 4. Antivasoconstrictors |
1. Antisialagogues
|
|
What DD form is used to prescribe controlled and
noncontrolled drugs? 1. 6710 2. 1289 3. 1210 4. 1209 |
2. 1289
|
|
When using special labels on drugs and medications,
what color should the information on the caution warning be? 1. Black and white 2. Black and red 3. Yellow 4. Red |
4. Red
|
|
What BUMED instruction explains the Dental
Infection Control Program? 1. 6600.3 2. 6600.10 3. 6610.10 4. 6610.13 |
2. 6600.10
|
|
Who is responsible for the documentation of
variation changes to the Dental Infection Control Manual? 1. CO 2. XO 3. ICO 4. CMC |
3. ICO
|
|
Approximately how many deaths occur annually
from HBV infection? 1. 100 2. 200 3. 300 4. 400 |
2. 200
|
|
Microbiology is the study of microscopic life forms
referred to by what term? 1. Biological asepsis 2. Immunodeficiency 3. Micropathogens 4. Micro-organisms |
4. Micro-organisms
|
|
What type of an organism is capable of causing
disease? 1. Pathogen 2. Pathology 3. Pathococci 4. Pathomimia |
1. Pathogen
|
|
How many medium-sized bacteria may be contained
in a single drop of water? 1. 20 million 2. 20 billion 3. 2 million 4. 2 billion |
3. 2 million
|
|
What is the shape of bacilli?
1. Rod 2. Spiral 3. Bead-like 4. Both 2 and 3 above |
1. Rod
|
|
What shape are spirochetes?
1. Spiral 2. Spinal 3. Spirochetal 4. Spirohetemia |
1. Spiral
|
|
What shape are cocci?
1. Cocculin 2. Bead-like 3. Spherical 4. Both 2 and 3 above |
4. Both 2 and 3 above
|
|
What is the name of the liquid dye used on bacteria
to determine its type? 1. Dye stain 2. Gram stain 3. Negative stain 4. Positive stain |
2. Gram stain
|
|
What color, if any, will gram-positive bacteria turn
when stained? 1. Purple 2. Orange 3. Violet 4. No color |
1. Purple
|
|
What color, if any, will gram-negative bacteria turn
when stained? 1. Purple 2. Orange 3. Violet 4. No color |
4. No color
|
|
What protective surface material helps bacteria
evade the defense mechanisms of the body? 1. Stain 2. Capsule 3. Coating 4. Inter-lining |
3. Coating
|
|
How many maximum minutes are most viruses
susceptible to while immersed in boiling water? 1. 10 2. 20 3. 30 4. 90 |
2. 20
|
|
How many maximum minutes in a dry heat sterilizer
will infectious hepatitis be controlled? 1. 10 2. 20 3. 30 4. 90 |
4. 90
|
|
What type of animals are protozoa?
1. Multi-celled 2. Single-celled 3. Division-celled 4. Chlorophyll-celled |
2. Single-celled
|
|
A. Asepsis
B. Barrier Technique C. Bioburden D. Biological monitor E. Bloodborne pathogens F. Bowie-Dick Type Test G. Critical items IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 5-18 THROUGH 5-24, SELECT FROM FIGURE 5A THE INFECTION CONTROL TERM THAT BEST DESCRIBES THE DEFINITION GIVEN IN THE QUESTION. USE EACH ANSWER ONLY ONCE. Instruments and materials that penetrate the skin, mucous membranes, or bone. |
G. Critical items
|
|
A. Asepsis
B. Barrier Technique C. Bioburden D. Biological monitor E. Bloodborne pathogens F. Bowie-Dick Type Test G. Critical items IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 5-18 THROUGH 5-24, SELECT FROM FIGURE 5A THE INFECTION CONTROL TERM THAT BEST DESCRIBES THE DEFINITION GIVEN IN THE QUESTION. USE EACH ANSWER ONLY ONCE. The number of micro-organisms contaminating an object. |
C. Bioburden
|
|
A. Asepsis
B. Barrier Technique C. Bioburden D. Biological monitor E. Bloodborne pathogens F. Bowie-Dick Type Test G. Critical items IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 5-18 THROUGH 5-24, SELECT FROM FIGURE 5A THE INFECTION CONTROL TERM THAT BEST DESCRIBES THE DEFINITION GIVEN IN THE QUESTION. USE EACH ANSWER ONLY ONCE. A bacterial endospore test. |
D. Biological monitor
|
|
A. Asepsis
B. Barrier Technique C. Bioburden D. Biological monitor E. Bloodborne pathogens F. Bowie-Dick Type Test G. Critical items IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 5-18 THROUGH 5-24, SELECT FROM FIGURE 5A THE INFECTION CONTROL TERM THAT BEST DESCRIBES THE DEFINITION GIVEN IN THE QUESTION. USE EACH ANSWER ONLY ONCE. Detects air leaks. |
F. Bowie-Dick Type Test
|
|
A. Asepsis
B. Barrier Technique C. Bioburden D. Biological monitor E. Bloodborne pathogens F. Bowie-Dick Type Test G. Critical items IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 5-18 THROUGH 5-24, SELECT FROM FIGURE 5A THE INFECTION CONTROL TERM THAT BEST DESCRIBES THE DEFINITION GIVEN IN THE QUESTION. USE EACH ANSWER ONLY ONCE. The prevention of contact with micro-organisms. |
A. Asepsis
|
|
A. Asepsis
B. Barrier Technique C. Bioburden D. Biological monitor E. Bloodborne pathogens F. Bowie-Dick Type Test G. Critical items IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 5-18 THROUGH 5-24, SELECT FROM FIGURE 5A THE INFECTION CONTROL TERM THAT BEST DESCRIBES THE DEFINITION GIVEN IN THE QUESTION. USE EACH ANSWER ONLY ONCE. Pathogenic micro-organisms that are present in human blood and capable of causing disease in humans. |
E. Bloodborne pathogens
|
|
A. Asepsis
B. Barrier Technique C. Bioburden D. Biological monitor E. Bloodborne pathogens F. Bowie-Dick Type Test G. Critical items IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 5-18 THROUGH 5-24, SELECT FROM FIGURE 5A THE INFECTION CONTROL TERM THAT BEST DESCRIBES THE DEFINITION GIVEN IN THE QUESTION. USE EACH ANSWER ONLY ONCE. The use of rubber, plastic, foil, or other fluid resistant materials to cover surfaces and protect them from contamination. |
B. Barrier Technique
|
|
A. Semicritical items
B. Noncritical items C. Infectious waste D. Personal protective attire E. Sterilization F. Unit Dose G. Universal precautions IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 5-25 THROUGH 5-31, SELECT FROM FIGURE 5B THE INFECTION CONTROL TERM THAT BEST DESCRIBES THE DEFINITION GIVEN IN THE QUESTION. USE EACH ANSWER ONLY ONCE. Treats all human blood and body fluids as if known to be infectious for HIV and HBV. |
G. Universal precautions
|
|
A. Semicritical items
B. Noncritical items C. Infectious waste D. Personal protective attire E. Sterilization F. Unit Dose G. Universal precautions IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 5-25 THROUGH 5-31, SELECT FROM FIGURE 5B THE INFECTION CONTROL TERM THAT BEST DESCRIBES THE DEFINITION GIVEN IN THE QUESTION. USE EACH ANSWER ONLY ONCE. Requires intermediate-level disinfection. |
B. Noncritical items
|
|
A. Semicritical items
B. Noncritical items C. Infectious waste D. Personal protective attire E. Sterilization F. Unit Dose G. Universal precautions IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 5-25 THROUGH 5-31, SELECT FROM FIGURE 5B THE INFECTION CONTROL TERM THAT BEST DESCRIBES THE DEFINITION GIVEN IN THE QUESTION. USE EACH ANSWER ONLY ONCE. Quantity of material or supplies required to treat a single patient. |
F. Unit Dose
|
|
A. Semicritical items
B. Noncritical items C. Infectious waste D. Personal protective attire E. Sterilization F. Unit Dose G. Universal precautions IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 5-25 THROUGH 5-31, SELECT FROM FIGURE 5B THE INFECTION CONTROL TERM THAT BEST DESCRIBES THE DEFINITION GIVEN IN THE QUESTION. USE EACH ANSWER ONLY ONCE. Other potentially infectious materials (OPIM). |
C. Infectious waste
|
|
A. Semicritical items
B. Noncritical items C. Infectious waste D. Personal protective attire E. Sterilization F. Unit Dose G. Universal precautions IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 5-25 THROUGH 5-31, SELECT FROM FIGURE 5B THE INFECTION CONTROL TERM THAT BEST DESCRIBES THE DEFINITION GIVEN IN THE QUESTION. USE EACH ANSWER ONLY ONCE. Cannot be sterilized because of their design or inability to withstand heat. |
A. Semicritical items
|
|
A. Semicritical items
B. Noncritical items C. Infectious waste D. Personal protective attire E. Sterilization F. Unit Dose G. Universal precautions IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 5-25 THROUGH 5-31, SELECT FROM FIGURE 5B THE INFECTION CONTROL TERM THAT BEST DESCRIBES THE DEFINITION GIVEN IN THE QUESTION. USE EACH ANSWER ONLY ONCE. Process that destroys all types and forms of microorganisms. |
E. Sterilization
|
|
A. Semicritical items
B. Noncritical items C. Infectious waste D. Personal protective attire E. Sterilization F. Unit Dose G. Universal precautions IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 5-25 THROUGH 5-31, SELECT FROM FIGURE 5B THE INFECTION CONTROL TERM THAT BEST DESCRIBES THE DEFINITION GIVEN IN THE QUESTION. USE EACH ANSWER ONLY ONCE. Specialized barrier attire worn by an employee to protect against a hazard. |
D. Personal protective attire
|
|
What does PPE stand for?
1. Personnel Protective Equipment 2. Personal Protective Equipment 3. Protective Personal Equipment 4. Personal Protection Equipment |
1. Personnel Protective Equipment
|
|
Washing increases the porosity of gloves up to what
maximum percent? 1. 15 2. 30 3. 45 4. 60 |
4. 60
|
|
What type of gloves are most commonly used in
routine dental procedures? 1. Procedural 2. Routine rubber 3. Sterile surgical 4. Latex examination |
4. Latex examination
|
|
What type of gloves provide maximum protection
against infection for the patient and the provider? 1. Sterile surgical 2. Procedural 3. Latex examination 4. Routine rubber |
1. Sterile surgical
|
|
What type of gloves offer the highest quality and
best fit at a greatly reduced cost? 1. Sterile surgical 2. Procedural 3. Latex examination 4. Routine rubber |
2. Procedural
|
|
Which of the following situations does NOT require
personnel to change their face mask? 1. Sorting laundry 2. Decontamination procedures 3. Processing radiographic films 4. After each patient or when the mask is visibly soiled |
3. Processing radiographic films
|
|
What feature must eyewear goggles have in order to
provide maximum protection? 1. Tinted lenses 2. Sterile nose pads 3. Solid side shields 4. One-inch protective lens |
3. Solid side shields
|
|
How long should you flush each of the unit water
lines and hoses for at the beginning of each work day? 1. 1 minute 2. 2 minutes 3. 3 minutes 4. 30 seconds |
1. 1 minute
|
|
Where should wrapping material be placed on open
instrument trays, packs, or cassettes to protect work surfaces against contamination? 1. Top 2. Middle 3. Underneath 4. Both 2 and 3 above |
3. Underneath
|
|
Which of the following supplies and equipment can
reduce the volume of aerosols and decrease the level of micro-organisms during dental procedures? 1. Dehumidifiers and mask 2. HVEs and rubber dams 3. Saliva ejectors and rubber dams 4. Aerosol fan and surgical face mask |
2. HVEs and rubber dams
|
|
How many 10-second rinses with a mouthwash will
temporarily reduce a patient’s microbial count? 1. One 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four |
3. Three
|
|
Which, if any, of the following protective attire
worn during patient treatment should you remove before leaving the DTR to transport contaminated items to the CSR? 1. Gloves and mask 2. Gloves and scrubs 3. Scrubs and mask 4. None of the above |
4. None of the above, the mask and gloves are indicated for the duration of the transport.
|
|
Which of the following ultimate goals should be
accomplished with an aseptic technique? 1. Use only 1 pair of gloves 2. Break the chain of infection 3. Make DTR completely sterile 4. Ensuring no patient time is lost |
2. Break the chain of infection
|
|
All regulated liquid waste should be placed in what
type of a container? 1. Leakproof 2. Waterproof 3. Leak resistant 4. Water resistant |
1. Leakproof
|
|
How should disposable sharps be treated?
1. Non-infectious material 2. Hazardous supplies 3. Hazardous metal 4. Regulated waste |
4. Regulated waste
|
|
Which of the following techniques should be used
when recapping a needle? 1. Two-handed 2. Sterile 3. scoop 4. Sharp |
3. scoop
|
|
Which area of the dental clinic can be used to
handle, disinfect, and lubricate contaminated handpieces saving time and avoiding excess aerosols? 1. DTR 2. CSR 3. Dental repair 4. Handpiece room |
2. CSR
|
|
How many containers of lubricant are
performing handpiece maintenance? used when 1. One 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four |
2. Two
|
|
What technique is used to clean unprotected areas
between patients? 1. scoop 2. Wipe-spray-wipe 3. Spray-wipe-spray 4. High-touch-spray |
3. Spray-wipe-spray
|
|
Dental personnel who sustain percutaneous
inoculation of serum by accidental puncture must receive which of the following actions? 1. Immediate medical evaluation 2. Counseling sheet 3. HIV vaccine 4. HBV vaccine |
1. Immediate medical evaluation
|
|
When securing the DTR at the end of the day, how
many quarts of water should be flushed through the HVE? 1. One 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four |
1. One
|
|
The OSHA and Navy requirements for
housekeeping include how many sections? 1. One 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four |
3. Three
|
|
When using a detergent with sodium hypochlorite,
what dilution ratio is recommended? 1. 1:100 2. 1:200 3. 1:300 4. 1:10 |
1. 1:100
|
|
Protective attire, smocks, and towels are considered
to be what type of laundry? 1. Non-contaminated 2. Contaminated 3. Non-ordinary 4. Ordinary |
4. Ordinary
|
|
Regulated waste must have what type of label on the
container or bag? 1. Biowaste 2. Biohazard 3. Biodegradable 4. Yellow and red warning label |
2. Biohazard
|
|
The purpose of handwashing is to remove microorganisms
from what area of the skin? 1. Hard to reach areas 2. Cracks and crevices 3. Folds and grooves 4. Deep epidermis |
3. Folds and grooves
|
|
The skins harbors what two types of flora?
1. Residential and transport 2. Water-based and waterless 3. Resident and transport 4. Resident and transient |
4. Resident and transient
|
|
What type of flora are not firmly attached to the
skin? 1. Resident 2. Transient 3. Waterbased 4. Residential |
2. Transient
|
|
What are the two most common water-based
cleaning agents used? 1. Iodophors and chlorhexidine gluconate 2. Aqueous quaternary ammonium and iodophors 3. Iodophors and 4 percent isopropyl alcohol 4. Chlorhexidine and 70 percent isopropyl alcohol |
1. Iodophors and chlorhexidine gluconate
|
|
Waterless handwashing agents that contain 70
percent isopropyl alcohol virtually disinfect the skin in how many seconds? 1. 10 2. 20 3. 30 4. 40 |
2. 20
|