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299 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Which of the following training manuals includes
the basic organizational shipboard elements?
1. Dental Assistant, Advanced
2. Basic Shipboard Requirements
3. Advanced Shipboard Requirements
4. Basic Military Requirements
4. Basic Military Requirements
What is the primary function of a basic dental
technician?
1. Assist medical officers
2. Assist dental officers
3. Assist nurse officers
4. Assist all officers
2. Assist dental officers
The Medical Department of the Navy is composed
of how many total corps and ratings?
1. Six
2. Five
3. Four
4. Three
2. Five since the merger between DT and HM
What person is responsible for ensuring personnel
and material readiness of shore activities as assigned
by the CNO?
1. Chief, Dental Corps
2. Commanding Officer
3. Chief, BUMED
4. Deputy CNO
3. Chief, BUMED
Who is the Medical Department’s spokesperson for
all dental professional matters?
1. Chief, Medical Corps
2. Chief, Dental Corps
3. Chief, Nurse Corps
4. Chief, BUMED
2. Chief, Dental Corps
Which of the following people is responsible for
matters involving enlisted personnel assigned to
Navy Medicine?
1. Chief, BUMED
2. Chief, Dental Corps
3.
4:
Chief, Surgeon General
Director, Medical Department Enlisted
Personnel
4. Director, Medical Department Enlisted
Personnel
Who is the principle enlisted advisor to the Chief of
BUMED?
1. Force Master Chief, BUMED
2. Force Master Chief, NAVMEDCOM
3. Force Master Chief, Atlantic
4. Force Master Chief, DEPMEDS
1. Force Master Chief, BUMED
NDCs can be divided into how many different types
based on size and function?
1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
3. Three
Which person at an NDC is responsible for the
professional care and services provided to patients?
1. Patient Contact Representative
2. Director Clinical Services
3. Executive Officer
4. Commanding Officer
4. Commanding Officer
At an NDC, who is the CO’s senior enlisted adviser
for all matters relating to enlisted policy?
1. Patient Contact Representative
2. Command Master Chief
3. Leading Chief Petty Officer
4. All of the above
2. Command Master Chief
What type of officer is appointed as the director for
dental center administration?
1. Nurse Corps
2. Dental Corps
3. Dental Service Corps
4. Medical Service Corps
4. Medical Service Corps
All orders issued by the director of a branch dental
clinic will be regarded as proceeding from the Chief
of the Dental Corps.
1. True
2. False
2. False, it's the CO.
The DT rating was first established by the SECNAV
on which of the following dates?
1. 02 Dec 47
2. 12 Dec 47
3. 30 Dec 47
4. 31 Dec 47
2. 12 Dec 47
On what date did the DT rate become effective?
1. 12 Dec 47
2. 02 Dec 48
3. 02 Apr 48
4. 22 Apr 48
3. 02 Apr 48
Dental Technicians and Hospital Corpsman make up
which of the following Occupational Fields?
1. XIV
2. 14
3. Both 1 and 2
4. XVI
3. Both 1 and 2
What type of system is used to identify enlisted
personnel with special skills, knowledge, or aptitude
for filling billets?
1. NICS
2. NCE
3. NEC
4. NAC
3. NEC
Assignments to duty stations are made by which of
the following people?
1. EPMAC
2. BUMED
3. Assigners
4. Detailers
4. Detailers
A. DT-8700
B. DT-8707
C. DT-8703
D. DT-8708
E. DT-8732
F. DT-8752
G. DT-8753
H. DT-8765
I. DT-8783
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 1-19 THROUGH 1-26,
SELECT FROM FIGURE 1A THE DENTAL TECHNICIAN
NEC THAT BEST DESCRIBES THE SKILLS GIVEN IN
THE QUESTION. YOU WILL NOT USE ALL OF THE
NEC’S IN FIGURE 1-A.
Assist the dental officer in organizing and managing
a dental clinic or facility.
1. A
2. C
3. E
4. I
2. C DT-8703
A. DT-8700
B. DT-8707
C. DT-8703
D. DT-8708
E. DT-8732
F. DT-8752
G. DT-8753
H. DT-8765
I. DT-8783
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 1-19 THROUGH 1-26,
SELECT FROM FIGURE 1A THE DENTAL TECHNICIAN
NEC THAT BEST DESCRIBES THE SKILLS GIVEN IN
THE QUESTION. YOU WILL NOT USE ALL OF THE
NEC’S IN FIGURE 1-A.
Maintain dental central sterilization facilities.
1. C
2. E
3. G
4. I
4. I DT-8783
A. DT-8700
B. DT-8707
C. DT-8703
D. DT-8708
E. DT-8732
F. DT-8752
G. DT-8753
H. DT-8765
I. DT-8783
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 1-19 THROUGH 1-26,
SELECT FROM FIGURE 1A THE DENTAL TECHNICIAN
NEC THAT BEST DESCRIBES THE SKILLS GIVEN IN
THE QUESTION. YOU WILL NOT USE ALL OF THE
NEC’S IN FIGURE 1-A.
Repair, reconstruct, and reline dental prostheses.
1. E
2. F
3. H
4. I
2. F DT-8752
A. DT-8700
B. DT-8707
C. DT-8703
D. DT-8708
E. DT-8732
F. DT-8752
G. DT-8753
H. DT-8765
I. DT-8783
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 1-19 THROUGH 1-26,
SELECT FROM FIGURE 1A THE DENTAL TECHNICIAN
NEC THAT BEST DESCRIBES THE SKILLS GIVEN IN
THE QUESTION. YOU WILL NOT USE ALL OF THE
NEC’S IN FIGURE 1-A.
Assist the dental officer in providing treatment in
the field.
1. D
2. C
3. B
4. A
3. B DT-8707
A. DT-8700
B. DT-8707
C. DT-8703
D. DT-8708
E. DT-8732
F. DT-8752
G. DT-8753
H. DT-8765
I. DT-8783
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 1-19 THROUGH 1-26,
SELECT FROM FIGURE 1A THE DENTAL TECHNICIAN
NEC THAT BEST DESCRIBES THE SKILLS GIVEN IN
THE QUESTION. YOU WILL NOT USE ALL OF THE
NEC’S IN FIGURE 1-A.
Constructs ocular, extraoral, and intraoral
prostheses.
1. H
2. G
3. F
4. D
1. H DT-8765
A. DT-8700
B. DT-8707
C. DT-8703
D. DT-8708
E. DT-8732
F. DT-8752
G. DT-8753
H. DT-8765
I. DT-8783
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 1-19 THROUGH 1-26,
SELECT FROM FIGURE 1A THE DENTAL TECHNICIAN
NEC THAT BEST DESCRIBES THE SKILLS GIVEN IN
THE QUESTION. YOU WILL NOT USE ALL OF THE
NEC’S IN FIGURE 1-A.
Performs scaling and root planning.
1. A
2. C
3. D
4. G
3. D DT-8708
A. DT-8700
B. DT-8707
C. DT-8703
D. DT-8708
E. DT-8732
F. DT-8752
G. DT-8753
H. DT-8765
I. DT-8783
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 1-19 THROUGH 1-26,
SELECT FROM FIGURE 1A THE DENTAL TECHNICIAN
NEC THAT BEST DESCRIBES THE SKILLS GIVEN IN
THE QUESTION. YOU WILL NOT USE ALL OF THE
NEC’S IN FIGURE 1-A.
Constructs complex and precision dental prostheses.
1. F
2. G
3. H
4. I
1. F DT-8752
A. DT-8700
B. DT-8707
C. DT-8703
D. DT-8708
E. DT-8732
F. DT-8752
G. DT-8753
H. DT-8765
I. DT-8783
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 1-19 THROUGH 1-26,
SELECT FROM FIGURE 1A THE DENTAL TECHNICIAN
NEC THAT BEST DESCRIBES THE SKILLS GIVEN IN
THE QUESTION. YOU WILL NOT USE ALL OF THE
NEC’S IN FIGURE 1-A.
Handles the maintenance, repair, and installation of
dental equipment and diagnostic services.
1. B
2. C
3. D
4. E
4. E DT-8732
The efficient operation of a dental clinic depends on
its personnel and what other aspect?
1. Administrative support
2. Medical support
3. Maintenance
4. X-ray
1. Administrative support
What is the most important aspect of dental care that
your patients receive?
1. Low-cost
2. Esthetics
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Quality
4. Quality
What total number of factors are involved in a
patient contact point?
1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
3. Three
Which of the following defmitions best defines a
patient that is dental phobic?
1. Enjoys the dentist and staff
2. Overwhelming feeling of panic and terror
3. Overwhelming feeling of joy and happiness
4. Enjoys the affects of local dental anesthesia
2. Overwhelming feeling of panic and terror
Which of the following attributes are marks of an
outstanding Dental Technician?
1. Courteous
2. Efficient
3. Pays attention to detail
4. All of the above
4. All of the above
Which department is directly responsible for the
image of the dental service provided?
1-33.
1. Front desk
2. Oral diagnosis
3. Operative
4. Surgical
1. Front desk
When communicating with a patient, what type of
terms should you use?
1-34.
1. Technical
2. Medical
3. Dental
4. Laymen
4. Laymen
Wincing of the eyes may indicate that a patient is
feeling which, if any, of the following responses?
1-35.
1. Comfortable
2. Uncomfortable
3. Needs a drink of water
4. None of the above
2. Uncomfortable
A good rule is to try to answer the telephone by
which maximum number of rings?
1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
3. Three
Which of the following information should you
never communicate over the telephone to a patient?
1. Clinic hours
2. Diagnosis
3. Prescription
4. Both 2 and 3
4. Both 2 and 3
A patient’s eligibility must be verified through
which of the following systems?
1. DEERS
2. DEARS
3. NEETS
4. DIRS
1. DEERS
Which of the following type of treatment is
considered as routine dental care?
1. Orthodontics
2. Malocclusion
3. Oral bleeding
4. Dental examination
4. Dental examination
Which of the following type of treatment is
considered as emergency dental care?
1. Removing stain
2. Relieving pain
3. Orthodontics
4. Dental exam
2. Relieving pain
Which of the following type of treatment is
considered as elective dental care.
1. Removing stain
2. Relieving pain
3. Orthodontics
4. Dental exam
3. Orthodontics
What priority category will family members of an
active duty member be placed on for treatment
eligibility?
1. 1A
2. 2
3. 1B
4. 4
2. 2
Which of the following methods is often the best
use of treatment time?
1. Block
2. Fixed
3. Non-fixed
4. Increment
4. Increment
When making a patient an appointment, where
should you first enter the information?
1. Appointment book
2. Appointment card
3. Patient’s record
4. Patient log
1. Appointment book
Which NAVMED form is used to schedule dental
appointments?
1. 6600/5
2. 6600/2
3. 6600/3
4. 6600/4
1. 6600/5
Which NAVMED form is used as a dental
appointment card?
1. 6600/2
2. 6600/4
3. 6600/6
4. 6600/8
3. 6600/6
What type of list is used for patients requiring
extensive treatment?
1. Class three priority list
2. Patient three list
3. Patient call list
4. Both 2 and 3
3. Patient call list
The dental computerized recall system uses a
maximum of how many lists?
1. 3
2. 6
3. 9
4. 12
4. 12
Which of the following information does DENMIS
NOT have the capability to process?
1. Dental Workload reports
2. Provider NMIMC reports
3. Provider Treatment Time reports
4. Patient and Unit Dental Treatment Needs
reports
2. Provider NMIMC reports
The Daily DIRS record is designed to give providers
what type of a treatment record?
1. Monthly
2. Weekly
3. Bi-weekly
4. Daily
4. Daily
BUMED Instruction 6300.10 is divided into how
many parts?
1. Five
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
3. Three
Which program allows patients to voice and
document how they are treated?
1. Patient Complaint
2. Patient Contact
3. Patient Survey
4. Patient Quality Assurance
2. Patient Contact
Validated patient complaints and compliments are
incorporated into which of the command’s annual
assessments?
1. Quality of Life
2. Quality of Care
3. Quality Insurance
4. Quality Assurance
4. Quality Assurance
The new Dental Record Jacket is which of the
following NAVMED forms?
1. 6150/21-30
2. 6150/10-19
3. 6150/09-19
4. 6150/00-08
1. 6150/21-30
Which number of the SSN is preprinted on the
Dental Record Jacket?
1. Last
2. Second to last
3. Third to last
4. Fourth to last
2. Second to last
A patient without an SSN will have which of the
following substitute SSN’s established if the birth
date is August 11, 1959?
1. 000-08-1159
2. 001-08-1159
3. 800-59-1108
4. 800-08-1159
4. 800-08-1159
Which of the following FMP codes will be placed in
the two diamonds preceding the SSN for a retired
member from the USN?
1. 01
2. 20
3. 30
4. 60
2. 20
Which of the following phrases is written in the
lower portion of the patient’s identification box for
retired 0-7 and above personnel?
1. “VIP”
2. “ADMIRAL”
3. “FLAG/GENERAL OFFICER”
4. “ATTENTION ON DECK”
3. “FLAG/GENERAL OFFICER”
Which of the following symbols and color of felt-tip
pen will be placed in the alert box if the patient has
an allergy or sensitivity?
1. “A/S” Black
2. "X” Red
3. “A/S” Red
4. “X” Black
2. "X” Red
Which, if any, of the following color felt-tip pen is
used to mark the annual verification section on the
right-hand side of the jacket?
1. Red
2. Blue
3. Black
4. None of the above
4. None of the above
The format printed on the inside of the jacket cover
should be completed in what type of writing utensil?
1. Pen
2. Pencil
3. Crayon
4. Magic marker
2. Pencil
Where is the DD 2005, Privacy Act Statement
located in the NAVMED 6150/21-30?
1. Back cover
2. Back of front page
3. Back of center page
4. Front of center page
4. Front of center page
Where is the Disclosure Accounting Record located
in the NAVMED 6150/21-30?
1. Back cover
2. Back of front page
3. Back of center page
4. Front of center page
3. Back of center page
Where is the Forensic Examination form located in
the NAVMED 6150/21-30?
1. Inside back cover
2. Back of front page
3. Back of center page
4. Front of center page
1. Inside back cover
What color of record category tape is used to
indicate active duty military?
1. Yellow
2. Green
3. Blue
4. Red
3. Blue
What color of dental classification tape, if any, is
used to indicate a dental "class 3" on the NAVMED
6150-21/30?
1. Red
2. Green
3. Yellow
4. None
4. None
All forms documenting patient care placed in the
NAVMED 6150-21/30 will contain which of the
following patient information?
1. FMP and sponsor’s SSN
2. Name- last, first, middle initial
3. Sponsor’s branch of service and status
4. All of the above
4. All of the above
Sequential bitewing radiographs should be filed in
which section of the NAVMED 6150/21-30?
1. Back of dental record jacket center page
2. Front of dental record jacket center page
3. Inside back cover of dental record jacket
4. Inside front cover of dental record jacket
4. Inside front cover of dental record jacket
Dental Exam Forms and EZ 603s should be filed in
which section of the NAVMED 6150/21-30?
1. Back of dental record jacket center page
2. Front of dental record jacket center page
3. Inside back cover of dental record jacket
4. Inside front cover of dental record jacket
2. Front of dental record jacket center page
The most current Dental Treatment Form, EZ603A
is filed in which section of the NAVMED 6150/21-
30?
1. Back of dental record jacket center page
2. Front of dental record jacket center page
3. Inside back cover of dental record jacket
4. Inside front cover of dental record jacket
3. Inside back cover of dental record jacket
The NAVMED 6600/3 is filed in which section of
the NAVMED 6150/21-30?
1. Back of dental record jacket center page
2. Front of dental record jacket center page
3. Inside back cover of dental record jacket
4. Inside front cover of dental record jacket
2. Front of dental record jacket center page
When using the terminal digit filing system, how
many equal sections are the central files divided
into?
1. 100
2. 200
3. 300
4. 50
1. 100
Which of the following NAVMED Forms is the
Health Record Receipt?
1. 6150/1
2. 6150/6
3. 6150/7
4. 6150/8
3. 6150/7
The Request for a Medical/Dental Record
Information Form is identified by which of the
following DD numbers?
1. 778
2. 878
3. 978
4. 877
4. 877
What is the maximum time allowed for the
retention of loose treatment forms?
1. 3 months
2. 6 months
3. 1 year
4. 2 years
3. 1 year
Bone is composed of which of the following
elements?
1. Organic only
2. Inorganic only
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. Ethmoid
3. Both 1 and 2 above
The inner spongy, porous portion of bone is referred
to as what type of bone?
1. Cortical
2. Compact
3. Connective
4. Cancellous
4. Cancellous
The thin layered connective tissue that surrounds
each bone and provides nourishment through many
vascular vessels is referred to as what type of bone?
1. Cartilage
2. Periosteum
3. Inner mucosa
4. Cartilaginous
2. Periosteum
The cranium is formed by how many cranial bones?
1. 8
2. 6
3. 3
4. 28
4. 28
A. Frontal Bone
B. Parietal Bones
C. Temporal Bones
D. Occipital Bone
E. Sphenoid Bone
F. Ethmoid Bone
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 2-5 THROUGH 2-10,
SELECT FROM FIGURE 2A THE CRANIAL BONE(S)
THAT BEST DESCRIBES THE INFORMATION GIVEN IN
THE QUESTION. USE EACH ANSWER ONLY ONCE.
This bone is shaped like a wing.
E. Sphenoid Bone
A. Frontal Bone
B. Parietal Bones
C. Temporal Bones
D. Occipital Bone
E. Sphenoid Bone
F. Ethmoid Bone
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 2-5 THROUGH 2-10,
SELECT FROM FIGURE 2A THE CRANIAL BONE(S)
THAT BEST DESCRIBES THE INFORMATION GIVEN IN
THE QUESTION. USE EACH ANSWER ONLY ONCE.
These bone(s) has/have four borders and is/are
shaped like a curved plate.
B. Parietal Bones
A. Frontal Bone
B. Parietal Bones
C. Temporal Bones
D. Occipital Bone
E. Sphenoid Bone
F. Ethmoid Bone
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 2-5 THROUGH 2-10,
SELECT FROM FIGURE 2A THE CRANIAL BONE(S)
THAT BEST DESCRIBES THE INFORMATION GIVEN IN
THE QUESTION. USE EACH ANSWER ONLY ONCE.
This bone has small openings through which nerves
pass to the roof of the mouth.
F. Ethmoid Bone
A. Frontal Bone
B. Parietal Bones
C. Temporal Bones
D. Occipital Bone
E. Sphenoid Bone
F. Ethmoid Bone
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 2-5 THROUGH 2-10,
SELECT FROM FIGURE 2A THE CRANIAL BONE(S)
THAT BEST DESCRIBES THE INFORMATION GIVEN IN
THE QUESTION. USE EACH ANSWER ONLY ONCE.
This bone has a large opening called the foramen
magnum.
D. Occipital Bone
A. Frontal Bone
B. Parietal Bones
C. Temporal Bones
D. Occipital Bone
E. Sphenoid Bone
F. Ethmoid Bone
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 2-5 THROUGH 2-10,
SELECT FROM FIGURE 2A THE CRANIAL BONE(S)
THAT BEST DESCRIBES THE INFORMATION GIVEN IN
THE QUESTION. USE EACH ANSWER ONLY ONCE.
By the time a child reaches 5 or 6 years of age, this
bone has usually fused together.
A. Frontal Bone
A. Frontal Bone
B. Parietal Bones
C. Temporal Bones
D. Occipital Bone
E. Sphenoid Bone
F. Ethmoid Bone
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 2-5 THROUGH 2-10,
SELECT FROM FIGURE 2A THE CRANIAL BONE(S)
THAT BEST DESCRIBES THE INFORMATION GIVEN IN
THE QUESTION. USE EACH ANSWER ONLY ONCE.
The internal ear structures are enclosed by these
bone(s).
C. Temporal Bones
The facial skeleton is made up of how many
stationary bones including the mandible?
1. 7
2. 15
3. 22
4. 28
2. 15
A. Maxille bones
B. Palatine bones
C. Zygomatic bones
D. Lacrimal bones
E. Nasal bones
F. Vomer bone
G. Mandible
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 2-12 THROUGH 2-18,
SELECT FROM FIGURE 2-B, THE BONE(S) OF THE
FACE THAT BEST DESCRIBES THE INFORMATION
GIVEN IN THE QUESTION. USE EACH ANSWER ONLY
ONCE.
These bones form the cheek bones, and help form
the sides and floor of the orbits.
C. Zygomatic bones
A. Maxille bones
B. Palatine bones
C. Zygomatic bones
D. Lacrimal bones
E. Nasal bones
F. Vomer bone
G. Mandible
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 2-12 THROUGH 2-18,
SELECT FROM FIGURE 2-B, THE BONE(S) OF THE
FACE THAT BEST DESCRIBES THE INFORMATION
GIVEN IN THE QUESTION. USE EACH ANSWER ONLY
ONCE.
The smallest and most fragile of the cranial bones.
D. Lacrimal bones
A. Maxille bones
B. Palatine bones
C. Zygomatic bones
D. Lacrimal bones
E. Nasal bones
F. Vomer bone
G. Mandible
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 2-12 THROUGH 2-18,
SELECT FROM FIGURE 2-B, THE BONE(S) OF THE
FACE THAT BEST DESCRIBES THE INFORMATION
GIVEN IN THE QUESTION. USE EACH ANSWER ONLY
ONCE.
The only movable bone in the skull.
G. Mandible
A. Maxille bones
B. Palatine bones
C. Zygomatic bones
D. Lacrimal bones
E. Nasal bones
F. Vomer bone
G. Mandible
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 2-12 THROUGH 2-18,
SELECT FROM FIGURE 2-B, THE BONE(S) OF THE
FACE THAT BEST DESCRIBES THE INFORMATION
GIVEN IN THE QUESTION. USE EACH ANSWER ONLY
ONCE.
The bones are somewhat L-shaped.
B. Palatine bones
A. Maxille bones
B. Palatine bones
C. Zygomatic bones
D. Lacrimal bones
E. Nasal bones
F. Vomer bone
G. Mandible
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 2-12 THROUGH 2-18,
SELECT FROM FIGURE 2-B, THE BONE(S) OF THE
FACE THAT BEST DESCRIBES THE INFORMATION
GIVEN IN THE QUESTION. USE EACH ANSWER ONLY
ONCE.
Small oblong bones, somewhat rectangular in shape.
E. Nasal bones
A. Maxille bones
B. Palatine bones
C. Zygomatic bones
D. Lacrimal bones
E. Nasal bones
F. Vomer bone
G. Mandible
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 2-12 THROUGH 2-18,
SELECT FROM FIGURE 2-B, THE BONE(S) OF THE
FACE THAT BEST DESCRIBES THE INFORMATION
GIVEN IN THE QUESTION. USE EACH ANSWER ONLY
ONCE.
Consists of a body and four processes.
A. Maxille bones
A. Maxille bones
B. Palatine bones
C. Zygomatic bones
D. Lacrimal bones
E. Nasal bones
F. Vomer bone
G. Mandible
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 2-12 THROUGH 2-18,
SELECT FROM FIGURE 2-B, THE BONE(S) OF THE
FACE THAT BEST DESCRIBES THE INFORMATION
GIVEN IN THE QUESTION. USE EACH ANSWER ONLY
ONCE.
Connects with the ethmoid bone and together they
form the nasal septum.
F. Vomer bone
The process that is located posterior on the ramus
and forms the head of the mandible is known by
which of the following terms?
1. Palatine
2. Coronoid
3. Condyloid
4. Alveolar
3. Condyloid
A dentist will use anesthetic to block nerve impulses
of the mandibular teeth in which of the following
areas?
1. Mental protuberance
2. Mandibular foramen
3. Maxillary foramen
4. Zygomatic foramen
2. Mandibular foramen
What process helps lift the mandible to close the
mouth?
1. Palatine
2. Coronoid
3. Condyloid
4. Alveolar
2. Coronoid
How many small bones are located in each middle
ear?
1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
3. Three
What oval depression in the temporal bone
articulates with the mandibular condyle?
1. Glenoid fossa
2. Temporal fossa
3. Coronoid eminence
4. Articular eminence
1. Glenoid fossa
When you are smiling, what muscle raises the
comer of the mouth?
1. Zygomaticus major
2. Zygomaticus minor
3. Buccinator
4. Mentalis
1. Zygomaticus major
How many pairs of muscles in the mandible make
chewing movements possible?
1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
4. Four
The moist inner lining of the side walls of the mouth
is known by which of the following terms?
1. Fat tissue
2. Papillae
3. Mucosa
4. TMJ
3. Mucosa
In what area of the external lips does the red mucous
membrane end and the normal outside skin of the
face begin?
1. Lip border
2. Lip point
3. Vermilion border
4. Orbicularis oris
3. Vermilion border
What are the rough projections on the surface of the
tongue called?
1. Taste buds
2. Papillae
3. Fissures
4. Warts
2. Papillae
Where are the taste buds located?
1. Cheeks
2. Tongue only
3. Roof of the mouth only
4. Both 2 and 3 above
4. Both 2 and 3 above
What muscles elevate the tongue and depress the
mandible?
1. Mylohyoid
2. Temporalis
3. Medial pterygoid
4. Lateral pterygoid
1. Mylohyoid
What is the name of irregular ridges or folds that are
located behind the central incisors?
1. Skin tags
2. Palate
3. Pugae
4. Rugae
4. Rugae
How many pints of saliva do the salivary glands
produce on a daily basis?
1. One to four
2. Two to three
3. Two to four
4. Six to eight
2. Two to three
How many phases is deglutition divided into?
1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
3. Three
When teeth are in the odontogenesis phase, every
tooth goes through how many developmental
processes?
1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
3. Three
Dental development usually begins in which of the
following weeks of prenatal life?
1. Fourth
2. Fifth only
3. Sixth only
4. Either 2 and 3
4. Either 2 and 3
How many total tooth buds are present in a prenatal
maxillary and mandibular arch?
1. 32
2. 20
3. 15
4. 10
4. 10
What is the name of the last period of tooth growth?
1. Histodifferentiation
2. Morphodifferentiation only
3. Eruptodifferentiation only
4. Both 2 and 3 above
1. Histodifferentiation
How many years does it take permanent teeth to
emerge after crown completion?
1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
3. Three
When primary teeth get ready to fall out and make
way for the eruption of permanent teeth, what is the
name of the process?
1. Exposure
2. Histology
3. Infoliation
4. Exfoliation
4. Exfoliation
The part of the crown that is visible in the mouth is
known by which of the following terms?
1. Clinical crown
2. Clinical tooth
3. Clinical enamel
4. Clinical exposure
1. Clinical crown
What is the name of the region where the roots
separate?
1. Apex
2. Furcation
3. Bifurcated
4. Trifurcated
2. Furcation
The tip of each root is known by which of the
following terms?
1. End
2. Arch
3. Angle
4. Apex
4. Apex
When there is a slight indentation that encircles the
tooth and marks the junction of the crown with the
root, it is known by which of the following terms?
1. Bifurcation
2. Cervical line
3. Clinical line
4. Junction line
2. Cervical line
Enamel is formed by what type of epithelial ceils?
1. Cementoblast
2. Enamelblasts
3. Odontoblasts
4. Ameloblasts
4. Ameloblasts
What is the name of the junction where the
cementum joins the enamel?
1. Cementoenamel
2. Dentinoenamal
3. Petticoat
4. Enamel
2. Dentinoenamal
What is the chief function of the pulp?
1. Provides feeling to the tooth
2. Formation of cementum
3. Formation of dentin
4. Formation of enamel
3. Formation of dentin
What is the name of the process where the bony
portion of the maxilla and mandible teeth are
embedded?
1. Alveolar
2. Alveolus
3. Socket
4. Root
1. Alveolar
When viewed by a radiograph, trabecular bone will
have what type of an appearance?
1. Spongy-like
2. Wavy-like
3. Plate-like
4. Web-like
4. Web-like
A tooth is suspended in its socket by what ligament?
1. Lamina dura
2. Masticatory
3. Periodontal
4. Alveolar
3. Periodontal
The oral mucosa consists of how many total types of
mucosa?
1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
3. Three
The hard palate is covered with what type of
mucosa?
1. Masticatory
2. Specialized
3. Lining
4. Rugae
1. Masticatory
What is the name of the term that is given to the
portion of gingiva that extends from the gingival crest to the crest of the bone?
1. Gingival margin
2. Unattached gingiva
3. Attached gingiva
4. Gingival sulcus
2. Unattached gingiva
What area is the first to show symptoms of
gingivitis?
1. Interdental papilla
2. Muco-gingival junction
3. Epithelial attachment
4. Gingival margin
4. Gingival margin
What area helps prevent food from packing between
the teeth?
1. Interdental papilla
2. Muco-gingival junction
3. Epithelial attachment
4. Gingival margin
1. Interdental papilla
What type of tissue is found on the inside of the lips,
cheeks, vestibule, soft palate, and under the tongue?
1. Lining mucosa
2. Inter mucosa
3. Soft mucosa
4. Gingiva
1. Lining mucosa
Which of the following reasons is/are teeth formed?
1. Cutting
2. Tearing
3. Grinding
4. All of the above
4. All of the above
What type of shape does the lingual surface of an
incisor have?
1. Axe
2. Rake
3. Shovel
4. Angled
3. Shovel
Cuspids are designed to perform what type of
function?
1. Cutting and tearing
2. Cutting and grinding
3. Crushing and holding
4. Grinding and chewing
1. Cutting and tearing
Each molar has what maximum amount of cusps?
1. Six
2. Five
3. Four
4. Three
2. Five
How many dental quadrants are in the mouth?
1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
4. Four
How many primary teeth are there in a normal
deciduous mouth?
1. 32
2. 20
3. 16
4. 12
2. 20
Primary teeth are identified by which letters of the
alphabet?
1. A to W
2. A to V
3. A to U
4. A to T
4. A to T
What is the name of the system that is used by the
armed forces to identify teeth?
1. Universal location
2. Universal positioning
3. Universal numbering
4. Universal selection
3. Universal numbering
A tooth has how many total proximal surfaces?
1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
2. Two
The mesial surface of a tooth is located in which
area?
1. Closest to the midline of the arch
2. Toward the cheeks
3. Toward the tongue
4. Away from the midline of the arch
1. Closest to the midline of the arch
The distal surface of a tooth is located in which
area?
1. Closest to the midline of the arch
2. Toward the cheeks
3. Toward the tongue
4. Away from the midline of the arch
4. Away from the midline of the arch
The inter-proximal space is occupied by what type of
anatomy?
1. Embrasure
2. Interdental klingons
3. Interdental papilla
4. Interdental contact
3. Interdental papilla
The anteroposterior curve is referred to by what
term?
1. Curve of Koffax
2. Curve of Wilson
3. Curve of Splee
4. Curve of Spee
4. Curve of Spee
If a patient’s profile is characterized as normal,
he/she will be what class according to Dr. Angle?
1. I
2. II
3. III
4. IV
1. I
The mesial margin of a maxillary central incisor
meets the incisal edge at almost what degree angle?
1. 30
2. 90
3. 110
4. 180
2. 90
What are the first permanent teeth to erupt?
1. Maxillary lateral incisors
2. Maxillary central incisors
3. Mandibular lateral incisors
4. Mandibular central incisors
4. Mandibular central incisors
What is the term used to describe the appearance of
a mandibular first bicuspid?
1. Bell-ringer
2. Bell-crowned
3. Bell-cusp
4. Bell-shaped
2. Bell-crowned
What tooth will have a fifth cusp on it?
1. Maxillary first molar
2. Maxillary second molar
3. Mandibular first molar
4. Mandibular second molar
1. Maxillary first molar
What is the name of the dental anatomy that has
small, rounded projections of enamel from the
incisal edges of newly erupted anterior teeth?
1. Oblique ridge
2. Cusp ridge
3. Groove
4. Mamelons
4. Mamelons
What dental anatomy has a rounded or angular
depression of varying sizes found on the surface of a
tooth?
1. Groove
2. Fossa
3. Cusp
4. Pit
2. Fossa
Which of the following conditions does the science
of Oral Pathology NOT treat?
1. Nature of the disease
2. Surgical procedures
3. Causes of the disease
4. Development of the disease
3. Causes of the disease
Who is responsible for informing a patient when an
oral disease is found?
1. Dental technician (basic)
2. Dental technician (advanced) only
3. Dental officer only
4. Both 2 and 3 above
3. Dental officer only
When do congenital anomalies occur?
1. At death
2. After birth
3. During birth
4. Before birth
4. Before birth
When do acquired anomalies occur?
1. At death
2. After birth
3. During birth
4. Before birth
2. After birth
About how many milliliters (ml) of saliva do the
salivary glands secrete on a daily basis?
1. 150
2. 750
3. 1500
4. 1750
3. 1500
A. Abscess
B. Cyst
C. Ulcers
D. Vesicles
E. Hematoma
F. Petechiae
G. Ecchymoses
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 3-6 THROUGH 3-12,
SELECT FROM FIGURE 3A THE ORAL LESION THAT
BEST DESCRIBES THE INFORMATION GIVEN IN THE
QUESTION. USE EACH ANSWER ONLY ONCE.
A round pinpoint, nonraised, lesion with
purplish-red spots.
F. Petechiae
A. Abscess
B. Cyst
C. Ulcers
D. Vesicles
E. Hematoma
F. Petechiae
G. Ecchymoses
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 3-6 THROUGH 3-12,
SELECT FROM FIGURE 3A THE ORAL LESION THAT
BEST DESCRIBES THE INFORMATION GIVEN IN THE
QUESTION. USE EACH ANSWER ONLY ONCE.
An enclosed pouch or sac that contains fluid or
semisolid material.
B. Cyst
A. Abscess
B. Cyst
C. Ulcers
D. Vesicles
E. Hematoma
F. Petechiae
G. Ecchymoses
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 3-6 THROUGH 3-12,
SELECT FROM FIGURE 3A THE ORAL LESION THAT
BEST DESCRIBES THE INFORMATION GIVEN IN THE
QUESTION. USE EACH ANSWER ONLY ONCE.
A localized collection of blood that escaped from
blood vessels because of trauma.
E. Hematoma
A. Abscess
B. Cyst
C. Ulcers
D. Vesicles
E. Hematoma
F. Petechiae
G. Ecchymoses
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 3-6 THROUGH 3-12,
SELECT FROM FIGURE 3A THE ORAL LESION THAT
BEST DESCRIBES THE INFORMATION GIVEN IN THE
QUESTION. USE EACH ANSWER ONLY ONCE.
A small elevation that contains fluid.
D. Vesicles
A. Abscess
B. Cyst
C. Ulcers
D. Vesicles
E. Hematoma
F. Petechiae
G. Ecchymoses
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 3-6 THROUGH 3-12,
SELECT FROM FIGURE 3A THE ORAL LESION THAT
BEST DESCRIBES THE INFORMATION GIVEN IN THE
QUESTION. USE EACH ANSWER ONLY ONCE.
May be caused by biting, denture irritation,
toothbrush injury, viruses, or other irritants.
C. Ulcers
A. Abscess
B. Cyst
C. Ulcers
D. Vesicles
E. Hematoma
F. Petechiae
G. Ecchymoses
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 3-6 THROUGH 3-12,
SELECT FROM FIGURE 3A THE ORAL LESION THAT
BEST DESCRIBES THE INFORMATION GIVEN IN THE
QUESTION. USE EACH ANSWER ONLY ONCE.
Large, purplish-red areas caused by blood under the
skin or mucosa.
G. Ecchymoses
A. Abscess
B. Cyst
C. Ulcers
D. Vesicles
E. Hematoma
F. Petechiae
G. Ecchymoses
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 3-6 THROUGH 3-12,
SELECT FROM FIGURE 3A THE ORAL LESION THAT
BEST DESCRIBES THE INFORMATION GIVEN IN THE
QUESTION. USE EACH ANSWER ONLY ONCE.
Commonly caused by a bacterial infection.
A. Abscess
What condition must exist for an impaction to
occur?
1. Missing deciduous teeth
2. Abnormal position
3. Physical barrier
4. All of the above
4. All of the above
Which of the following conditions causes attrition?
1. Breakdown of enamel, dentin, and cementum
2. Wear involving teeth against teeth
3. Large tooth crowns
4. Bulimia
2. Wear involving teeth against teeth
When a dental caries first appears on enamel, what
is the appearance?
1. A chalky white spot
2. A small brown spot
3. A hollowed out hole
4. All of the above
1. A chalky white spot
Recurrent carries will occur in a tooth in which of
the following circumstances?
1. Trapped air pockets
2. Sealed margins
3. Leaky margins
4. All of the above
3. Leaky margins
Pit and fissure caries develop in what area of a
tooth?
1. Depressions
2. Pulp chamber
3. Smooth surfaces
4. Proximal surfaces
1. Depressions
Smooth surface caries develop in what area of a
tooth?
1. Depressions
2. Pulp chamber
3. Incisal third
4. Proximal surfaces
4. Proximal surfaces
Pulpalgia commonly occurs after which of the
following procedures has been performed on a
tooth?
1. Extraction
2. After a restoration
3. Before a restoration
4. After placement of gutta-percha
2. After a restoration
Which of the following definitions best describes
pulpitis?
1. Restoration of the dental pulp
2. Inflammation of the restoration
3. Inflammation of the dental pulp
4. Periapical abscess of the dental pulp
3. Inflammation of the dental pulp
If a periapical abscess is left untreated, in what area
of a tooth will bone loss occur?
1. Apex
2. Pulp only
3. Crown only
4. Both 2 and 3 above
1. Apex
Dead pulpal tissue will decompose and produce
which of the following results?
1. Secondary dentin
2. Secondary pulp tissue
3. Toxins
4. Fistula
3. Toxins
What chronic disease is the most prevalent in
mankind?
1. Periapical
2. Periodontal
3. AIDS
4. HIV
2. Periodontal
Marginal gingivitis usually starts in which of the
following areas?
1. Sulcus
2. Front teeth
3. Periodontal pockets
4. Tips of the papillae
4. Tips of the papillae
The ulceration of the gingival crest in ANUG results
in what type of an appearance?
1. Punched-out
2. Stippling
3. Swollen
4. Torn
1. Punched-out
When periodontitis progresses, the gingival tissues
will appear as what color?
1. Dark red
2. Bluish red
3. Bluish yellow
4. Grayish white
2. Bluish red
During pocket formation, what type of projections
of calculus form between the teeth?
1. Shelf-like
2. Bone-like
3. Crystal-like
4. Smooth-like
1. Shelf-like
The gingiva surrounding a periodontal abscess will
have which of the following appearances?
1. Red and hard
2. Hollow and swollen
3. Bleeding and swollen
4. Inflamed and swollen
4. Inflamed and swollen
Recurrent aphthous stomatitis are what type of
lesion?
1. Ulcers
2. Abscess
3. Blisters
4. Neoplasms
1. Ulcers
What type of the herpes simplex virus is most
commonly diagnosed in oral pathology?
1. HSV-1
2. HSV-2
3. HSV-3
4. HSV-4
1. HSV-1
Recurrent herpes simplex lesions that affect routine
dental treatment should be rescheduled for what
period of time?
1. 2-3 days
2. 3-6 days
3. After the active phase
4. Before the active phase
3. After the active phase
Which of the following oral manifestations are signs
of HIV infection?
1. Candidiasis
2. Hairy leukoplakia
3. Kaposi’s sarcoma
4. All of the above
4. All of the above
What are the two types of neoplasms that can be
diagnosed in oral cancer?
1. Neo-carcinoma and malignant
2. Benign and malignant
3. Benign and neo-carcinoma
4. HSV-1 and HSV-2
2. Benign and malignant
The growth or spread of malignant tumors from one
area to another is known by which of the following
conditions?
1. Transdermal
2. Transfusion
3. Transferism
4. Metastasis
4. Metastasis
The area where the user of smokeless tobacco
develops an oral precancerous lesions is defined as
what type of pathology?
1. Sportsman ‘s dipper keratosis
2. Snuff-dipper’s keratosis
3. Farmers lesions
4. Leuko-keratosis
2. Snuff-dipper’s keratosis
A Dental Technician may provide temporary
emergency dental treatment under which of the
following conditions?
1. To combat infection
2. To provide relief from pain
3. To prevent further damage to oral structures
4. All of the. above
4. All of the. above
If a patient reports to the dental clinic after hours
with a toothache and you are the duty Dental
Technician, which of the following steps should you
first take?
1. Give them 2 aspirins and schedule a sick call
appointment for the next day
2. Notify the duty dental officer
3. Notify the duty medical officer
4. Place a temporary filling, check the occlusion,
and make an appointment for the patient
2. Notify the duty dental officer
Which of the following choices best describes a
symptom?
1. You observe bleeding gums
2. You observe a fractured tooth
3. The patient informs you of a toothache
4. Both 2 and 3 above
3. The patient informs you of a toothache
Which of the following choices best describes a
sign?
1. You observe a large hole in a patient’s tooth
2. Patient tells you he/she chewed a piece of ice
3. Patient tells you he/she has the filling in their
pocket
4. Patient tells you he/she has been in pain for 2
weeks
1. You observe a large hole in a patient’s tooth
When pain from an affected tooth manifest to a
heathy, non-involved tooth, what is the condition
called?
1. Referral symptom
2. Referred pain
3. Pain manifesto
4. TMJ
2. Referred pain
Which of the following conditions exist if a patient
is experiencing pain caused by the pressure of fluid
building up inside the pulp chamber?
1. Periodontal abscess
2. Periodontitis
3. Acute pulpitis
4. Pericoronitis
3. Acute pulpitis
When performing an emergency treatment for a
periapical abscess, what instrument, if any, will you
use to drain the abscess?
1. Bard Parker and #15 blade
2. Explorer
3. Syringe
4. None of the above
2. Explorer
What type of inflammation is present in marginal
gingivitis?
1. Cratered
2. Severe
3. Oozing
4. Mild
4. Mild
Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis is commonly
referred to by what term?
1. Trenchcoat
2. Trenchmouth
3. Foul mouth syndrome
4. Glowing gums syndrome
1. Trenchcoat
What colored membrane will be covering the
gingiva if a patient has NUG?
1. Bluish-grey
2. Reddish-white
3. Bluish-white
4. Gray-white
4. Gray-white
Periodontitis usually results from what untreated
condition?
1. Marginal gingivitis
2. Congenital birth defect
3. Juvenile periodontitis
4. Periodontal syndrome
1. Marginal gingivitis
What is the correct emergency treatment for a
periodontal abscess?
1. Irrigate affected area with a 3-way syringe
2. Use a soft-bristled toothbrush and angle the
bristles on the affected area using the “Bass
Technique
3. Gently probe the affected area with a scaler to
establish drainage
4. Use an explorerand puncture the most raised
portion of the abscess to express the pus
3. Gently probe the affected area with a scaler to
establish drainage
Which of the following solutions should you use to
irrigate the tissue flap if a patient has pericoronitis?
1. Glycerite of iodine
2. Warm saline solution
3. Hydrogen peroxide
4. Flap conditioner
2. Warm saline solution
What are the two common types of stomatitis found
in the oral mucosa?
1. Genital herpes and aphthous
2. HIV and aphthous
3. Herpetic and cold sores
4. Herpetic and aphthous
4. Herpetic and aphthous
Bleeding from an extraction site is referred to by
which of the following terms?
1. Postextraction alveolar osteitis
2. Postextraction hemorrhage
3. Postbledding hemorrhage
4. Postsocket hemorrhage
2. Postextraction hemorrhage
Postextraction alveolar osteitis is a condition
commonly referred to by what term?
1. Dry socket
2. Dry tooth
3. Dry clot
4. Dry hole
1. Dry socket
To treat post extraction alveolar osteitis, what type
of dental material do you place in a tooth socket?
1. 2 x 2 gauze pad with eugenol
2. Penrose drain with eugenol
3. Iodoform gauze with eugenol
4. Cottonballs with eugenol
3. Iodoform gauze with eugenol
Tooth fractures are classified into how many
different types?
1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
4. Four
Fractured teeth can involve which of the following
parts of a tooth?
1. Enamel and dentin only
2. Enamel, dentin, and pulp only
3. Enamel, dentin, pulp, and root
4. Enamel, dentin, and cementum only
3. Enamel, dentin, pulp, and root
With which of the following dental materials will
you use to treat a Type I fracture?
1. Cavity varnish
2. Temporary splint
3. Temporary crown form
4. Zinc oxide and eugenol
1. Cavity varnish
A Type II fracture involves an exposure of the pulp.
1. True
2. False
2. False, Enamel and Dentin only
Dental Technicians who provide emergency
treatment of a fractured mandible will use which of
the following materials?
1. Arch bars and wires only
2. Dental splints only
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. Elastic bandage
4. Elastic bandage
Pharmacology is a basic medical science that deals
with the study of which specialty?
1. Drugs
2. Diseases
3. Compounds
4. Pharmacy operations
1. Drugs
What chapter of The Manual of the Medical
Department gives guidance on pharmacy operation
and drug control?
1. 6
2. 9
3. 15
4. 21
4. 21
The amount of a medication administered is referred
to as which of the following units?
1. Pill
2. Dose
3. Unit amount
4. Average amount
2. Dose
Which of the following units refers to the amount of
medication given to a normal adult?
1. Therapeutic amount
2. Therapeutic unit only
3. Therapeutic dose only
4. Both 2 and 3 above
3. Therapeutic dose only
The minimum and maximum amount of a drug
required to produce the desired effect is referred to by
what term?
1. Dosage factor
2. Dosage range
3. Dosage drug
4. Dosage age
2. Dosage range
What dose refers to the least amount of a drug that
can cause death?
1. Toxic
2. Minimum toxic
3. Minimum lethal
4. Maximum lethal
4. Maximum lethal
What dose refers to the amount of a drug that will
produce symptoms of poisoning?
1. Toxic
2. Minimum toxic
3. Minimum lethal
4. Maximum lethal
1. Toxic
What two primary factors, if any, determine a dose?
1. Sex and age
2. Age and weight
3. Weight and sex
4. None
2. Age and weight
How are parenteral medications introduced?
1. Orally
2. Parents
3. Topically
4. Injection
4. Injection
What technique is the most effective means to achieve
anesthesia of the mandibular teeth?
1. Apex
2. Nerve
3. Block
4. Ligament
3. Block
What technique introduces a drug directly into a vein?
1. Intravenous
2. Infiltration
3. Brachial ligament
4. Periodontal ligament
1. Intravenous
What injection technique places the needle and
anesthetic along the side of a tooth?
1. Parallel
2. Side by side
3. Periapical ligament
4. Periodontal ligament
4. Periodontal ligament
What technique is commonly used to anesthetize
maxillary teeth?
1. Block
2. Intravenous
3. Infiltration
4. Periodontal ligament
3. Infiltration
What term is used to define medication that is placed
under the tongue?
1. Submandibular
2. Sublingual
3. Subcavity
4. Suboral
2. Sublingual
In what form are medications introduced into the
body through inhalation?
1. Gas
2. Oral
3. Topical
4. All of the above
1. Gas
Drugs are classified into which of the following
categories?
1. Chemical, biological, and therapeutic
2. Therapeutic, scientific, chemical, and scheduled
3. General, and therapeutic
4. Chemical, general, and therapeutic
4. Chemical, general, and therapeutic
What type of prescription drugs have the potential for
abuse?
1. Noncontrolled
2. Controlled
3. Schedule 6
4. All of the above
2. Controlled
Under which of the following schedule of substances
must ethyl alcohol be received, accounted, and
dispensed?
1. I
2. II
3. III
4. VI
2. II
Normally, how many names do drugs have?
1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
3. Three
Which of the following emollients is used as a
lubricant in rubber dam procedures?
1. Cocoa butter
2. Petrolatum
3. Oral jelly
4. Dam jelly
1. Cocoa butter
Which of the following drugs will a patient with a
heart murmur receive before and after a dental
appointment?
1. Antibiotic
2. Vasodilator
3. Vasoconstrictor
4. Anti-inflammatory
1. Antibiotic
What antibiotic may produce discoloration of the
teeth to children and pregnant women?
1. Cephalosporin
2. Penicillin
3. Tetracycline
4. Erythromycin
3. Tetracycline
Aspirin provides which of the following effects?
1. Analgesic
2. Antipyretic
3. Anti-inflammatory
4. All of the above
4. All of the above
Ibuprofen should not be given to patients in which of
the following trimesters of pregnancy?
1. First
2. Second
3. Third
4. All of the above
3. Third
Codeine sulfate has which of the following analgesic
powers of morphine?
1. One-sixth
2. Two-sixth
3. Three-fourth
4. Three-sixth
1. One-sixth
Which of the following drugs is used in some dental
anesthetics?
1. Anticoagulants
2. Vasoconstrictors
3. Anticonstrictors
4. Meperidine hydrochloride
4. Meperidine hydrochloride (AKA Demerol)
What percent of nitrous oxide to oxygen mixture is
used in inhalation sedation?
1. 10/60
2. 20/60
3. 40/60
4. 60/40
3. 40/60
What are the two categories of chemically classified
local anesthetic solutions?
1. Amides and topical
2. Topical and esters
3. Ammos and esters
4. Amides and esters
4. Amides and esters
What maximum amount of minutes will 2% lidocaine
hydrochloride provide complete anesthetic for an area
of the mouth being treated?
1. 120
2. 90
3. 45
4. 15
2. 90
After application, what is the minimum and
maximum amount of minutes recommended for
topical anesthetic to reach its full effectiveness?
1. One to two
2. One to three
3. One to five
4. Five to ten
3. One to five
The use of topical spray and liquid anesthetics is--
useful for patients with which of the following
conditions?
1. Cardiac
2. Stuttering
3. Drug allergies
4. Gag reflex
4. Gag reflex
What type of drug reduces a patient’s salivary flow?
4-33. What DD form is used to prescribe controlled and
noncontrolled drugs?
4-34. When using special labels on drugs and medications,
what color should the information on the caution
warning be?
1. Black and white
2. Black and red
3. Yellow
4. Red
4-35. Part of maintaining a healthy lifestyle starts with
which of the following choices?
4-36. Which of the following statements best defines an
essential nutrient?
1. 10% of U.S. Recommended Dietary Allowance
2. Used to build strong bones and teeth
3. Must be provided by vitamins because the body
cannot synthesize it
4. Must be provided by food because the body
cannot synthesize it
1. Antisialagogues
2. Antianesthetics
3. Antivasodilators
4. Antivasoconstrictors
1. Antisialagogues
What DD form is used to prescribe controlled and
noncontrolled drugs?
1. 6710
2. 1289
3. 1210
4. 1209
2. 1289
When using special labels on drugs and medications,
what color should the information on the caution
warning be?
1. Black and white
2. Black and red
3. Yellow
4. Red
4. Red
What BUMED instruction explains the Dental
Infection Control Program?
1. 6600.3
2. 6600.10
3. 6610.10
4. 6610.13
2. 6600.10
Who is responsible for the documentation of
variation changes to the Dental Infection Control
Manual?
1. CO
2. XO
3. ICO
4. CMC
3. ICO
Approximately how many deaths occur annually
from HBV infection?
1. 100
2. 200
3. 300
4. 400
2. 200
Microbiology is the study of microscopic life forms
referred to by what term?
1. Biological asepsis
2. Immunodeficiency
3. Micropathogens
4. Micro-organisms
4. Micro-organisms
What type of an organism is capable of causing
disease?
1. Pathogen
2. Pathology
3. Pathococci
4. Pathomimia
1. Pathogen
How many medium-sized bacteria may be contained
in a single drop of water?
1. 20 million
2. 20 billion
3. 2 million
4. 2 billion
3. 2 million
What is the shape of bacilli?
1. Rod
2. Spiral
3. Bead-like
4. Both 2 and 3 above
1. Rod
What shape are spirochetes?
1. Spiral
2. Spinal
3. Spirochetal
4. Spirohetemia
1. Spiral
What shape are cocci?
1. Cocculin
2. Bead-like
3. Spherical
4. Both 2 and 3 above
4. Both 2 and 3 above
What is the name of the liquid dye used on bacteria
to determine its type?
1. Dye stain
2. Gram stain
3. Negative stain
4. Positive stain
2. Gram stain
What color, if any, will gram-positive bacteria turn
when stained?
1. Purple
2. Orange
3. Violet
4. No color
1. Purple
What color, if any, will gram-negative bacteria turn
when stained?
1. Purple
2. Orange
3. Violet
4. No color
4. No color
What protective surface material helps bacteria
evade the defense mechanisms of the body?
1. Stain
2. Capsule
3. Coating
4. Inter-lining
3. Coating
How many maximum minutes are most viruses
susceptible to while immersed in boiling water?
1. 10
2. 20
3. 30
4. 90
2. 20
How many maximum minutes in a dry heat sterilizer
will infectious hepatitis be controlled?
1. 10
2. 20
3. 30
4. 90
4. 90
What type of animals are protozoa?
1. Multi-celled
2. Single-celled
3. Division-celled
4. Chlorophyll-celled
2. Single-celled
A. Asepsis
B. Barrier Technique
C. Bioburden
D. Biological monitor
E. Bloodborne pathogens
F. Bowie-Dick Type Test
G. Critical items
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 5-18 THROUGH 5-24,
SELECT FROM FIGURE 5A THE INFECTION CONTROL
TERM THAT BEST DESCRIBES THE DEFINITION
GIVEN IN THE QUESTION. USE EACH ANSWER ONLY
ONCE.
Instruments and materials that penetrate the skin,
mucous membranes, or bone.
G. Critical items
A. Asepsis
B. Barrier Technique
C. Bioburden
D. Biological monitor
E. Bloodborne pathogens
F. Bowie-Dick Type Test
G. Critical items
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 5-18 THROUGH 5-24,
SELECT FROM FIGURE 5A THE INFECTION CONTROL
TERM THAT BEST DESCRIBES THE DEFINITION
GIVEN IN THE QUESTION. USE EACH ANSWER ONLY
ONCE.
The number of micro-organisms contaminating an
object.
C. Bioburden
A. Asepsis
B. Barrier Technique
C. Bioburden
D. Biological monitor
E. Bloodborne pathogens
F. Bowie-Dick Type Test
G. Critical items
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 5-18 THROUGH 5-24,
SELECT FROM FIGURE 5A THE INFECTION CONTROL
TERM THAT BEST DESCRIBES THE DEFINITION
GIVEN IN THE QUESTION. USE EACH ANSWER ONLY
ONCE.
A bacterial endospore test.
D. Biological monitor
A. Asepsis
B. Barrier Technique
C. Bioburden
D. Biological monitor
E. Bloodborne pathogens
F. Bowie-Dick Type Test
G. Critical items
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 5-18 THROUGH 5-24,
SELECT FROM FIGURE 5A THE INFECTION CONTROL
TERM THAT BEST DESCRIBES THE DEFINITION
GIVEN IN THE QUESTION. USE EACH ANSWER ONLY
ONCE.
Detects air leaks.
F. Bowie-Dick Type Test
A. Asepsis
B. Barrier Technique
C. Bioburden
D. Biological monitor
E. Bloodborne pathogens
F. Bowie-Dick Type Test
G. Critical items
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 5-18 THROUGH 5-24,
SELECT FROM FIGURE 5A THE INFECTION CONTROL
TERM THAT BEST DESCRIBES THE DEFINITION
GIVEN IN THE QUESTION. USE EACH ANSWER ONLY
ONCE.
The prevention of contact with micro-organisms.
A. Asepsis
A. Asepsis
B. Barrier Technique
C. Bioburden
D. Biological monitor
E. Bloodborne pathogens
F. Bowie-Dick Type Test
G. Critical items
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 5-18 THROUGH 5-24,
SELECT FROM FIGURE 5A THE INFECTION CONTROL
TERM THAT BEST DESCRIBES THE DEFINITION
GIVEN IN THE QUESTION. USE EACH ANSWER ONLY
ONCE.
Pathogenic micro-organisms that are present in
human blood and capable of causing disease in
humans.
E. Bloodborne pathogens
A. Asepsis
B. Barrier Technique
C. Bioburden
D. Biological monitor
E. Bloodborne pathogens
F. Bowie-Dick Type Test
G. Critical items
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 5-18 THROUGH 5-24,
SELECT FROM FIGURE 5A THE INFECTION CONTROL
TERM THAT BEST DESCRIBES THE DEFINITION
GIVEN IN THE QUESTION. USE EACH ANSWER ONLY
ONCE.
The use of rubber, plastic, foil, or other fluid
resistant materials to cover surfaces and protect
them from contamination.
B. Barrier Technique
A. Semicritical items
B. Noncritical items
C. Infectious waste
D. Personal protective attire
E. Sterilization
F. Unit Dose
G. Universal precautions
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 5-25 THROUGH 5-31,
SELECT FROM FIGURE 5B THE INFECTION CONTROL
TERM THAT BEST DESCRIBES THE DEFINITION
GIVEN IN THE QUESTION. USE EACH ANSWER ONLY
ONCE.
Treats all human blood and body fluids as if known
to be infectious for HIV and HBV.
G. Universal precautions
A. Semicritical items
B. Noncritical items
C. Infectious waste
D. Personal protective attire
E. Sterilization
F. Unit Dose
G. Universal precautions
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 5-25 THROUGH 5-31,
SELECT FROM FIGURE 5B THE INFECTION CONTROL
TERM THAT BEST DESCRIBES THE DEFINITION
GIVEN IN THE QUESTION. USE EACH ANSWER ONLY
ONCE.
Requires intermediate-level disinfection.
B. Noncritical items
A. Semicritical items
B. Noncritical items
C. Infectious waste
D. Personal protective attire
E. Sterilization
F. Unit Dose
G. Universal precautions
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 5-25 THROUGH 5-31,
SELECT FROM FIGURE 5B THE INFECTION CONTROL
TERM THAT BEST DESCRIBES THE DEFINITION
GIVEN IN THE QUESTION. USE EACH ANSWER ONLY
ONCE.
Quantity of material or supplies required to treat a
single patient.
F. Unit Dose
A. Semicritical items
B. Noncritical items
C. Infectious waste
D. Personal protective attire
E. Sterilization
F. Unit Dose
G. Universal precautions
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 5-25 THROUGH 5-31,
SELECT FROM FIGURE 5B THE INFECTION CONTROL
TERM THAT BEST DESCRIBES THE DEFINITION
GIVEN IN THE QUESTION. USE EACH ANSWER ONLY
ONCE.
Other potentially infectious materials (OPIM).
C. Infectious waste
A. Semicritical items
B. Noncritical items
C. Infectious waste
D. Personal protective attire
E. Sterilization
F. Unit Dose
G. Universal precautions
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 5-25 THROUGH 5-31,
SELECT FROM FIGURE 5B THE INFECTION CONTROL
TERM THAT BEST DESCRIBES THE DEFINITION
GIVEN IN THE QUESTION. USE EACH ANSWER ONLY
ONCE.
Cannot be sterilized because of their design or
inability to withstand heat.
A. Semicritical items
A. Semicritical items
B. Noncritical items
C. Infectious waste
D. Personal protective attire
E. Sterilization
F. Unit Dose
G. Universal precautions
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 5-25 THROUGH 5-31,
SELECT FROM FIGURE 5B THE INFECTION CONTROL
TERM THAT BEST DESCRIBES THE DEFINITION
GIVEN IN THE QUESTION. USE EACH ANSWER ONLY
ONCE.
Process that destroys all types and forms of microorganisms.
E. Sterilization
A. Semicritical items
B. Noncritical items
C. Infectious waste
D. Personal protective attire
E. Sterilization
F. Unit Dose
G. Universal precautions
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 5-25 THROUGH 5-31,
SELECT FROM FIGURE 5B THE INFECTION CONTROL
TERM THAT BEST DESCRIBES THE DEFINITION
GIVEN IN THE QUESTION. USE EACH ANSWER ONLY
ONCE.
Specialized barrier attire worn by an employee to
protect against a hazard.
D. Personal protective attire
What does PPE stand for?
1. Personnel Protective Equipment
2. Personal Protective Equipment
3. Protective Personal Equipment
4. Personal Protection Equipment
1. Personnel Protective Equipment
Washing increases the porosity of gloves up to what
maximum percent?
1. 15
2. 30
3. 45
4. 60
4. 60
What type of gloves are most commonly used in
routine dental procedures?
1. Procedural
2. Routine rubber
3. Sterile surgical
4. Latex examination
4. Latex examination
What type of gloves provide maximum protection
against infection for the patient and the provider?
1. Sterile surgical
2. Procedural
3. Latex examination
4. Routine rubber
1. Sterile surgical
What type of gloves offer the highest quality and
best fit at a greatly reduced cost?
1. Sterile surgical
2. Procedural
3. Latex examination
4. Routine rubber
2. Procedural
Which of the following situations does NOT require
personnel to change their face mask?
1. Sorting laundry
2. Decontamination procedures
3. Processing radiographic films
4. After each patient or when the mask is visibly
soiled
3. Processing radiographic films
What feature must eyewear goggles have in order to
provide maximum protection?
1. Tinted lenses
2. Sterile nose pads
3. Solid side shields
4. One-inch protective lens
3. Solid side shields
How long should you flush each of the unit water
lines and hoses for at the beginning of each work
day?
1. 1 minute
2. 2 minutes
3. 3 minutes
4. 30 seconds
1. 1 minute
Where should wrapping material be placed on open
instrument trays, packs, or cassettes to protect work
surfaces against contamination?
1. Top
2. Middle
3. Underneath
4. Both 2 and 3 above
3. Underneath
Which of the following supplies and equipment can
reduce the volume of aerosols and decrease the level
of micro-organisms during dental procedures?
1. Dehumidifiers and mask
2. HVEs and rubber dams
3. Saliva ejectors and rubber dams
4. Aerosol fan and surgical face mask
2. HVEs and rubber dams
How many 10-second rinses with a mouthwash will
temporarily reduce a patient’s microbial count?
1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
3. Three
Which, if any, of the following protective attire
worn during patient treatment should you remove
before leaving the DTR to transport contaminated
items to the CSR?
1. Gloves and mask
2. Gloves and scrubs
3. Scrubs and mask
4. None of the above
4. None of the above, the mask and gloves are indicated for the duration of the transport.
Which of the following ultimate goals should be
accomplished with an aseptic technique?
1. Use only 1 pair of gloves
2. Break the chain of infection
3. Make DTR completely sterile
4. Ensuring no patient time is lost
2. Break the chain of infection
All regulated liquid waste should be placed in what
type of a container?
1. Leakproof
2. Waterproof
3. Leak resistant
4. Water resistant
1. Leakproof
How should disposable sharps be treated?
1. Non-infectious material
2. Hazardous supplies
3. Hazardous metal
4. Regulated waste
4. Regulated waste
Which of the following techniques should be used
when recapping a needle?
1. Two-handed
2. Sterile
3. scoop
4. Sharp
3. scoop
Which area of the dental clinic can be used to
handle, disinfect, and lubricate contaminated
handpieces saving time and avoiding excess
aerosols?
1. DTR
2. CSR
3. Dental repair
4. Handpiece room
2. CSR
How many containers of lubricant are
performing handpiece maintenance?
used when
1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
2. Two
What technique is used to clean unprotected areas
between patients?
1. scoop
2. Wipe-spray-wipe
3. Spray-wipe-spray
4. High-touch-spray
3. Spray-wipe-spray
Dental personnel who sustain percutaneous
inoculation of serum by accidental puncture must
receive which of the following actions?
1. Immediate medical evaluation
2. Counseling sheet
3. HIV vaccine
4. HBV vaccine
1. Immediate medical evaluation
When securing the DTR at the end of the day, how
many quarts of water should be flushed through the
HVE?
1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
1. One
The OSHA and Navy requirements for
housekeeping include how many sections?
1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
3. Three
When using a detergent with sodium hypochlorite,
what dilution ratio is recommended?
1. 1:100
2. 1:200
3. 1:300
4. 1:10
1. 1:100
Protective attire, smocks, and towels are considered
to be what type of laundry?
1. Non-contaminated
2. Contaminated
3. Non-ordinary
4. Ordinary
4. Ordinary
Regulated waste must have what type of label on the
container or bag?
1. Biowaste
2. Biohazard
3. Biodegradable
4. Yellow and red warning label
2. Biohazard
The purpose of handwashing is to remove microorganisms
from what area of the skin?
1. Hard to reach areas
2. Cracks and crevices
3. Folds and grooves
4. Deep epidermis
3. Folds and grooves
The skins harbors what two types of flora?
1. Residential and transport
2. Water-based and waterless
3. Resident and transport
4. Resident and transient
4. Resident and transient
What type of flora are not firmly attached to the
skin?
1. Resident
2. Transient
3. Waterbased
4. Residential
2. Transient
What are the two most common water-based
cleaning agents used?
1. Iodophors and chlorhexidine gluconate
2. Aqueous quaternary ammonium and
iodophors
3. Iodophors and 4 percent isopropyl alcohol
4. Chlorhexidine and 70 percent isopropyl
alcohol
1. Iodophors and chlorhexidine gluconate
Waterless handwashing agents that contain 70
percent isopropyl alcohol virtually disinfect the
skin in how many seconds?
1. 10
2. 20
3. 30
4. 40
2. 20