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36 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
Mycobacteria motility? Encapsulation? Spores?
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non-motile. Non-encapsulated. No spores for you.
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What about the cell wall of mycobacteria makes it hardy?
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lipid rich
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Most common toxicity associated with anti-TB agents?
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hepatitis (for primary, GI for secondary)
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Prophylaxis?
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exposure to TB with positive skin test if patient < 35 yo -> isoniazid therapy
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Who requires therapy with first line agents?
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positive x-ray and/or positive smear from mycobacterium
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First line agents?
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Isoniazid, Rifampin, Pyrazinamide, Ethambutol
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Second line agents?
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Ethanionamide, Ciprofloxacin, PAS (para amino salicyclic acid), Capreomycin, Moxifloxicin, Levofloxicin, Streptomycin
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Pregnancy should avoid what agents?
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Quinolones (Ciprofloxacin, Ofloxacin), Aminoglycosides (Streptomycin), Pyrazinamide, Ethionamide
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Agents safe for pregnancy?
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INH, Rifampin, Ethanbutol
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Agents for TB meningitis? What agent is not recommended in children with TB?
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Pyrazinamide, Isoniazid, Ethionamide. Ethanbutol is not recommended for children with TB
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Isoniazid distribution? Bacteri-? Exceretion?
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all body fluids including CSF. 2) Bactericidal to TB. 3)acetylated in liver, excreted in urine (slow acetylators risk hepatitis)
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Isoniazid MOA?
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Inhibits parahydroxylation of phenytoin (careful if both drugs are being used)
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Special additional Rx for Isoniazid?
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Pyridoxine should be given too for malnourished, elderly, pregnant, diabetics, or alcoholics.
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Rifampin/Rifabutin Bacteri-? 2) MOA? 3) excretion
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Bactericidal to both intra/extracellular TB. 2) Binds to the beta-subunit of DNA-dependent RNA polymerase -> blocks RNA synthesis -> effective against other bacteria. 3) liver -> bile
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Which rifamycin is effective against MOTTS?
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Rifabutin
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Rifampin/Rifabutin adverse effects (4)
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1) Orange color to secretions. 2) Hepatitis. 3) Thrombocytopenia. 4) rash
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Rifampin/Rifabutin decrease t1/2 for what 4 drugs? Decrease effectiveness of what else?
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1) prednisone. 2) digitoxin. 3) ketoconazole. 4) propranolol. Also decreases effectiveness of oral contraceptives
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Rifamate?
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Rifampin + Isoniazid
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What disease is one of the rifamycin contraindicated? What should be done?
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Rifampin is contraindicated in HIV patients taking protease and NNRT inhibitors -> use rifabutin instead since it's less potent inducer of P450s
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Ethambutol MOA? What side effect does this cause? Bacteri-?
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1) Blocks arabinosyl transferase (cell wall synthesis). 2) Destabilizes drugs allowling lipophilic drugs in (Rifampin). 3) Bacteriostatic against TB
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Ethambutol distribution? Excretion? Adverse effect?
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1) synthetic, water soluble, penetrates CSF poorly unless inflamed. 2) 50% in the urine and accumulates in renal failure. 3) Visual disturbances -> red-green color blindness -> contraindicated in children
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Streptomycin MOA? Bacteri- against what/why? Excretion?
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1) Aminoglycoside and irreversible inhibitor of protein synthesis (30S). 2) Bactericidal for extracellular TB since weakly taken up by cells. 3) Glomerular filtration so can be nephrotoxic
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Streptomycin adverse effects (2)? MAC?
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1) Ototoxicity (hearing loss, vertigo). 2) Other aminoglycosides like Amikacin are more active against MAC and other rapidly growing mycobacteria
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Pyrazinamide analog of? Effective for? Bacteri-what/when? Excretion?
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1) Analog of nicotinamide. 2) Intracellular organisms -> sterilizing agent. 3) Bactericidal for TB at acidic pH (inside macrophage). 4) glomerular filtration but the adverse effect is hepatitis (first line)
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Ethionamide related to what? Bacteri-? Adverse effects (2)?
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INH, blocks mycolic acid synthesis. 2) Bacteriostatic. 3) GI and neurologic symptoms
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Para-Aminosalicylic Acid similar to what? 2) Implication? 3) Bacteri-? 4) Distribution?
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1) PABA. 2) Inhibits folate synthesis. 3) Bacteriostatic. 4) most body fluids
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Quinolones (Ciprofloxacin, Ofloxacin) MOA? Activity (3)? Most common side effect?
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1) Blocks DNA gyrase. 2) TB, MAC, M. fortuitum. 3) GI
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Clarithromycin/Azithromycin are bacteri-? 2) Activity? 3) Absorption?
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1) Bacteriostatic. 2) MAC and rapid growers. 3) GI absorption with oral delivery
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Dapsone related to? 2) Excretion? 3) Side effects (4)? 4) Often used in combo with what for what? 5) note about safety?
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1) Sulfonamides. 2) urine. 3) hemolysis, anemia, nausea, vomiting. 4) With Rifampin for M. leprae. 5) safe to administer for a period of years
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Clofazimine MOA (2)? Bacteri-what against what, and activity against two other things? 3) side effect
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1) Phenazine dye that may alter DNA function. Also acts as anti-inf so prevents erythema nodosum leprosum. 2) Weakly bactericidal against M. leprae. Also has activity against MAC and M. ulcerans. 3) Red-black discoloration of skin may develop - eosinophilic enteritis
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R207910 is a what? 2) MOA. 3) Bacteri-? 4) Use? 5) administration? 6) clearance?
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1) Diaryl quinalone. 2) Blocks proton-pump of ATP synthase. 3) Bactericidal, extremely so. 4) resistant organisms. 5) oral with long dosing interval (173h). 6) cleared by kidneys but metabolized to glucuronide and sulfate conjugages (excreted unchanged in urine and feces)
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PA-824 is effective against what? Not against? Describe action?
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latent form of TB. 2) M. leprae. 3) Under anaerobic conditions, aromatic nitro group on FAD is interacted with causing buildup of NO = "bomb blast from within"
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MOTT infectious? Vector? Resistance?
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Not very infectious, primarily opportunisitic by environmental organisms. Usually resistant to drugs used to Tx TB
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Name 2 rapidly growing mycobacteria. Usually the cause of? Active agents (3)
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1) M. fortuitum, M. chelonae. 2) Chronic wound infectious. 3) Amidacin, Cephalosporin, Imipenem
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To Tx M. leprae, Dapsone is often administed with one of what two drugs? Excretion? Toxicity?
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1) Rifampin or Clofazimine. 2) bile. 3) hemolysis with methemoglobinemia
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MOA by 1) inhibition of cell wall synthesis. 2) Inhibition of RNA polymerase. 3) inhibition of protein synthesis.
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1) Isoniazid and Ethambutal. 2) Rifampin, Rifabutin. 3) Aminoglycosides, Clarithromycin, Azithromycin
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